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  • Question 1 - What aspect of memory is typically impacted in individuals experiencing difficulties with procedural...

    Incorrect

    • What aspect of memory is typically impacted in individuals experiencing difficulties with procedural memory?

      Your Answer: Prefrontal cortex

      Correct Answer: Cerebellum

      Explanation:

      Memory Forms

      Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.

      Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).

      Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.

      Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).

      Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      90.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which antipsychotic medication has the strongest binding affinity for D4 receptors? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which antipsychotic medication has the strongest binding affinity for D4 receptors?

      Your Answer: Chlorpromazine

      Correct Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      39.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is a true statement about GABA? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about GABA?

      Your Answer: Flumazenil is a GABA-A antagonist

      Explanation:

      Neurotransmitters are substances used by neurons to communicate with each other and with target tissues. They are synthesized and released from nerve endings into the synaptic cleft, where they bind to receptor proteins in the cellular membrane of the target tissue. Neurotransmitters can be classified into different types, including small molecules (such as acetylcholine, dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, and GABA) and large molecules (such as neuropeptides). They can also be classified as excitatory or inhibitory. Receptors can be ionotropic or metabotropic, and the effects of neurotransmitters can be fast of slow. Some important neurotransmitters include acetylcholine, dopamine, GABA, norepinephrine, and serotonin. Each neurotransmitter has a specific synthesis, breakdown, and receptor type. Understanding neurotransmitters is important for understanding the function of the nervous system and for developing treatments for neurological and psychiatric disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      38.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What is the mechanism of action of dexamphetamine in treating ADHD? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the mechanism of action of dexamphetamine in treating ADHD?

      Your Answer: Selective noradrenaline reuptake inhibition

      Correct Answer: Inhibiting dopamine and noradrenaline reuptake

      Explanation:

      ADHD medications can be classified into stimulant and non-stimulant drugs. The therapeutic effects of these drugs are believed to be mediated through the action of noradrenaline in the prefrontal cortex. Common side effects of these drugs include decreased appetite, insomnia, nervousness, headache, and nausea. Stimulant drugs like dexamphetamine, methylphenidate, and lisdexamfetamine inhibit the reuptake of dopamine and noradrenaline. Non-stimulant drugs like atomoxetine, guanfacine, and clonidine work by increasing noradrenaline levels in the synaptic cleft through different mechanisms. The most common side effects of these drugs are decreased appetite, somnolence, headache, and abdominal pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      79.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Prior to initiating lithium treatment for an adult with a learning disability and...

    Incorrect

    • Prior to initiating lithium treatment for an adult with a learning disability and comorbid affective disorder, which baseline investigation should be conducted?

      Your Answer: Liver function test

      Correct Answer: ECG

      Explanation:

      There is controversy surrounding the question, likely due to its poor wording. However, some sources suggest that the correct answer is EEG. This may be based on a one-time recommendation in the Frith Prescribing Guidelines from 2005, which suggests that an EEG is necessary before starting lithium due to its potential to lower the seizure threshold, which is particularly relevant for individuals with LD who are prone to seizures. However, this recommendation has not been supported by NICE, the BNF, of the Maudsley Guidelines, so it should be viewed with caution. NICE and the Maudsley do recommend that all individuals have an ECG before starting lithium, so choosing that answer would be a safe choice.

      Lithium – Pharmacology

      Pharmacokinetics:
      Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.

      Ebstein’s:
      Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.

      Contraindications:
      Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.

      Side-effects:
      Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.

      Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.

      Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
      Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.

      Toxicity:
      Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.

      Pre-prescribing:
      Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Monitoring:
      Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      22.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What is the meaning of the term vorbeigehen? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the meaning of the term vorbeigehen?

      Your Answer: Very slight pressure causing the patient to move

      Correct Answer: Giving approximate answers

      Explanation:

      Mitgehen, also known as the ‘anglepoise sign’, refers to a phenomenon where a patient moves in response to very slight pressure, indicating a lack of resistance of rigidity in their muscles. This can be observed in various conditions, including Parkinson’s disease and catatonia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 55-year-old man complains of frequent nighttime urination. He has been taking lithium...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man complains of frequent nighttime urination. He has been taking lithium for his bipolar disorder for more than two decades without any notable adverse effects.
      His eGFR is 34 mL/min, and his serum creatinine level is slightly above the normal range.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

      Explanation:

      Water intoxication can cause polyuria and dilutional hyponatremia, but it does not typically lead to renal impairment. It is important to differentiate this condition from nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, which can develop in a significant percentage of patients on long-term lithium therapy and may present with nocturia as an early sign. While elevated calcium levels may occur in some patients on lithium, hyperparathyroidism is not a common clinical symptom. Tubulointerstitial nephritis is a rare complication of lithium therapy. The syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion is not typically associated with polyuria of renal impairment and is not commonly linked to lithium therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      101.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which pathway is believed to be responsible for the development of negative symptoms...

    Incorrect

    • Which pathway is believed to be responsible for the development of negative symptoms in schizophrenia due to the blockage of D-2 receptors?

      Your Answer: The mesolimbic pathway

      Correct Answer: The mesocortical pathway

      Explanation:

      Neurotransmitters are substances used by neurons to communicate with each other and with target tissues. They are synthesized and released from nerve endings into the synaptic cleft, where they bind to receptor proteins in the cellular membrane of the target tissue. Neurotransmitters can be classified into different types, including small molecules (such as acetylcholine, dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, and GABA) and large molecules (such as neuropeptides). They can also be classified as excitatory or inhibitory. Receptors can be ionotropic or metabotropic, and the effects of neurotransmitters can be fast of slow. Some important neurotransmitters include acetylcholine, dopamine, GABA, norepinephrine, and serotonin. Each neurotransmitter has a specific synthesis, breakdown, and receptor type. Understanding neurotransmitters is important for understanding the function of the nervous system and for developing treatments for neurological and psychiatric disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which sensory component is correctly matched with its corresponding cranial nerve reflex? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which sensory component is correctly matched with its corresponding cranial nerve reflex?

      Your Answer: Accommodation reflex - III cranial nerve

      Correct Answer: Gag reflex - IX cranial nerve

      Explanation:

      The question specifically requests the sensory aspect.

      Cranial Nerve Reflexes

      When it comes to questions on cranial nerve reflexes, it is important to match the reflex to the nerves involved. Here are some examples:

      – Pupillary light reflex: involves the optic nerve (sensory) and oculomotor nerve (motor).
      – Accommodation reflex: involves the optic nerve (sensory) and oculomotor nerve (motor).
      – Jaw jerk: involves the trigeminal nerve (sensory and motor).
      – Corneal reflex: involves the trigeminal nerve (sensory) and facial nerve (motor).
      – Vestibulo-ocular reflex: involves the vestibulocochlear nerve (sensory) and oculomotor, trochlear, and abducent nerves (motor).

      Another example of a cranial nerve reflex is the gag reflex, which involves the glossopharyngeal nerve (sensory) and the vagus nerve (motor). This reflex is important for protecting the airway from foreign objects of substances that may trigger a gag reflex. It is also used as a diagnostic tool to assess the function of these nerves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      40.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which statement accurately describes the SF-36? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement accurately describes the SF-36?

      Your Answer: It is a self-administered questionnaire

      Explanation:

      SF-36: A Patient-Reported Survey for Measuring Functioning and Well-Being

      The SF-36, also known as the Short-form 36, is a survey consisting of 36 items that patients can complete to rate their functioning and well-being. The survey is designed to measure eight different scales, with four pertaining to physical health and four to mental health. The physical health scales include physical functioning, role limitations due to physical health problems, bodily pain, and general health. The mental health scales include vitality (energy/fatigue), social functioning, role limitations due to emotional problems, and mental health (psychological distress and psychological well-being). Patients can complete the survey on their own, and it typically takes around eight minutes to finish.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      20.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which condition has been eliminated due to the use of highly active antiretroviral...

    Correct

    • Which condition has been eliminated due to the use of highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) in individuals who are HIV positive?

      Your Answer: Toxoplasmosis

      Explanation:

      The use of HAART has led to a complete elimination of new cases of toxoplasmosis in individuals who are HIV positive. Studies conducted on the Edinburgh cohort have revealed a significant decrease in the occurrence of CMV by 50% during autopsy, a 68% reduction in HIVE, and complete eradication of toxoplasmosis. However, there has been a slight increase in the incidence of PML and lymphoma in this group and other samples.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      52.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which statement about variant CJD is accurate? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement about variant CJD is accurate?

      Your Answer: It is associated with the pulvinar sign on the MRI

      Explanation:

      Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease: Differences between vCJD and CJD

      Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (CJD) is a prion disease that includes scrapie, BSE, and Kuru. However, there are important differences between sporadic (also known as classic) CJD and variant CJD. The table below summarizes these differences.

      vCJD:
      – Longer duration from onset of symptoms to death (a year of more)
      – Presents with psychiatric and behavioral symptoms before neurological symptoms
      – MRI shows pulvinar sign
      – EEG shows generalized slowing
      – Originates from infected meat products
      – Affects younger people (age 25-30)

      CJD:
      – Shorter duration from onset of symptoms to death (a few months)
      – Presents with neurological symptoms
      – MRI shows bilateral anterior basal ganglia high signal
      – EEG shows biphasic and triphasic waves 1-2 per second
      – Originates from genetic mutation (bad luck)
      – Affects older people (age 55-65)

      Overall, understanding the differences between vCJD and CJD is important for diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      37.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What is a true statement about flashbulb memory? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about flashbulb memory?

      Your Answer: It occurs at times of increased emotional arousal

      Explanation:

      Flashbulb Memory

      Flashbulb memories are vivid and detailed recollections of the circumstances surrounding a significant event. These memories are typically episodic, meaning they are focused on the specific details of the event rather than just the facts. One example of a flashbulb memory might be recalling where you were and what you were doing when you first heard about the death of Princess Diana in 1997. What sets flashbulb memories apart from other types of memories is the high level of emotional arousal that accompanies them. This emotional intensity helps to cement the memory in the mind, making it more vivid and long-lasting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which waves are present at the onset of stage 2 sleep, in addition...

    Incorrect

    • Which waves are present at the onset of stage 2 sleep, in addition to k-complexes?

      Your Answer: Alpha

      Correct Answer: Sigma

      Explanation:

      Electroencephalography

      Electroencephalography (EEG) is a clinical test that records the brain’s spontaneous electrical activity over a short period of time using multiple electrodes placed on the scalp. It is mainly used to rule out organic conditions and can help differentiate dementia from other disorders such as metabolic encephalopathies, CJD, herpes encephalitis, and non-convulsive status epilepticus. EEG can also distinguish possible psychotic episodes and acute confusional states from non-convulsive status epilepticus.

      Not all abnormal EEGs represent an underlying condition, and psychotropic medications can affect EEG findings. EEG abnormalities can also be triggered purposely by activation procedures such as hyperventilation, photic stimulation, certain drugs, and sleep deprivation.

      Specific waveforms are seen in an EEG, including delta, theta, alpha, sigma, beta, and gamma waves. Delta waves are found frontally in adults and posteriorly in children during slow wave sleep, and excessive amounts when awake may indicate pathology. Theta waves are generally seen in young children, drowsy and sleeping adults, and during meditation. Alpha waves are seen posteriorly when relaxed and when the eyes are closed, and are also seen in meditation. Sigma waves are bursts of oscillatory activity that occur in stage 2 sleep. Beta waves are seen frontally when busy of concentrating, and gamma waves are seen in advanced/very experienced meditators.

      Certain conditions are associated with specific EEG changes, such as nonspecific slowing in early CJD, low voltage EEG in Huntington’s, diffuse slowing in encephalopathy, and reduced alpha and beta with increased delta and theta in Alzheimer’s.

      Common epileptiform patterns include spikes, spike/sharp waves, and spike-waves. Medications can have important effects on EEG findings, with clozapine decreasing alpha and increasing delta and theta, lithium increasing all waveforms, lamotrigine decreasing all waveforms, and valproate having inconclusive effects on delta and theta and increasing beta.

      Overall, EEG is a useful tool in clinical contexts for ruling out organic conditions and differentiating between various disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      19.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A teacher in a school district instructs a young student to cheat on...

    Correct

    • A teacher in a school district instructs a young student to cheat on a test to maintain high grades. The student initially resists but eventually complies when the teacher threatens to give them a failing grade. What type of power has the teacher exerted in this situation?

      Your Answer: Coercive

      Explanation:

      Power Theory

      French and Raven (1959) developed the 5 base theory of power, which identifies five types of power. These include legitimate power, which is held by an individual in an organization, referent power, which is held by a person with charisma who people gravitate towards, expert power, which is held by a person with specialist skills of knowledge, reward power, which is held by a person in a position to provide rewards, and coercive power, which is held by a person who has the ability to apply negative influences such as demotion. Other terms to be aware of include outcome power, which is the power of a person to bring about outcomes, social power, which is the power of a person to influence others so that they will bring about outcomes, and counterpower, which is the power of the oppressed to counterbalance the elite.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      84.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - In typically developing children, which age groups are most likely to exhibit a...

    Incorrect

    • In typically developing children, which age groups are most likely to exhibit a strong fear of animals, particularly dogs?

      Your Answer: Age 1 - 2

      Correct Answer: Age 3 - 4

      Explanation:

      Childhood Fear: Normal Development

      It is normal for children to experience fear and anxiety as they grow and develop. According to Marks’ ‘ontogenetic parade’ theory, children’s fears follow a predictable pattern throughout their development. In the preschool years, children may fear imaginary creatures, animals, strangers, and their environment. As they enter middle childhood, fears of physical danger, bodily injury, and school performance become more prominent. During adolescence, fears about social evaluations and interactions become more common.

      Gullone’s research in 1999 identified specific fears that are prominent at different ages. For example, towards the end of the first year, children may fear strangers, heights, and separation anxiety. In preschool years, fears of being alone, the dark, and animals are common. During the school years, children may fear bodily injury, illness, social situations, supernatural phenomena, failure, and criticism. Finally, in adolescence, fears about death, economic and political concerns may persist.

      Overall, fear and anxiety are a normal part of child development, and parents and caregivers can support children by acknowledging their fears and helping them develop coping strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      19.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which cranial nerve is solely responsible for either sensory of motor functions and...

    Correct

    • Which cranial nerve is solely responsible for either sensory of motor functions and does not have a combination of both?

      Your Answer: Abducens

      Explanation:

      Overview of Cranial Nerves and Their Functions

      The cranial nerves are a complex system of nerves that originate from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. There are twelve cranial nerves, each with a specific function and origin. The following table provides a simplified overview of the cranial nerves, including their origin, skull exit, modality, and functions.

      The first cranial nerve, the olfactory nerve, originates from the telencephalon and exits through the cribriform plate. It is a sensory nerve that controls the sense of smell. The second cranial nerve, the optic nerve, originates from the diencephalon and exits through the optic foramen. It is a sensory nerve that controls vision.

      The third cranial nerve, the oculomotor nerve, originates from the midbrain and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement, pupillary constriction, and lens accommodation. The fourth cranial nerve, the trochlear nerve, also originates from the midbrain and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement.

      The fifth cranial nerve, the trigeminal nerve, originates from the pons and exits through different foramina depending on the division. It is a mixed nerve that controls chewing and sensation of the anterior 2/3 of the scalp. It also tenses the tympanic membrane to dampen loud noises.

      The sixth cranial nerve, the abducens nerve, originates from the pons and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement. The seventh cranial nerve, the facial nerve, also originates from the pons and exits through the internal auditory canal. It is a mixed nerve that controls facial expression, taste of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue, and tension on the stapes to dampen loud noises.

      The eighth cranial nerve, the vestibulocochlear nerve, originates from the pons and exits through the internal auditory canal. It is a sensory nerve that controls hearing. The ninth cranial nerve, the glossopharyngeal nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a mixed nerve that controls taste of the posterior 1/3 of the tongue, elevation of the larynx and pharynx, and swallowing.

      The tenth cranial nerve, the vagus nerve, also originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a mixed nerve that controls swallowing, voice production, and parasympathetic supply to nearly all thoracic and abdominal viscera. The eleventh cranial nerve, the accessory nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a motor nerve that controls shoulder shrugging and head turning.

      The twelfth cranial nerve, the hypoglossal nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the hypoglossal canal. It is a motor nerve that controls tongue movement. Overall, the cranial nerves play a crucial role in controlling various functions of the head and neck, and any damage of dysfunction can have significant consequences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      52.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - What is the term used to describe the mutual agreement between a doctor...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe the mutual agreement between a doctor and their patient regarding treatment?

      Your Answer: All of the above

      Correct Answer: Concordance

      Explanation:

      While adherence, compliance, and capacitance all refer to how well a patient follows a doctor’s instructions, they do not have the same meaning as concordance, which specifically refers to the agreement between patient and doctor on a treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      24.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which atypical antipsychotic has the lowest likelihood of causing weight gain? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which atypical antipsychotic has the lowest likelihood of causing weight gain?

      Your Answer: Risperidone

      Correct Answer: Aripiprazole

      Explanation:

      Weight gain is a common side effect of antipsychotic medications, which may be caused by various mechanisms such as 5HT2c and H1 antagonism, hyperprolactinaemia, and increased serum leptin. This weight gain is often due to increased food intake and reduced energy expenditure. Additionally, antipsychotic-induced weight gain can lead to diabetes mellitus, with females being more susceptible to metabolic side effects than males. Among antipsychotics, clozapine and olanzapine have the highest risk of weight gain, while quetiapine and risperidone have a moderate risk. On the other hand, aripiprazole, asenapine, and amisulpride (the 3 As) are associated with the least amount of weight gain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which statement accurately describes the Addenbrooke's cognitive exam? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement accurately describes the Addenbrooke's cognitive exam?

      Your Answer: It is a useful tool for detecting dementia

      Explanation:

      The Addenbrooke’s Cognitive Exam: A Brief Screening Tool for Dementia

      The Addenbrooke’s cognitive examination (ACE) is a cognitive screening tool developed to detect dementia and differentiate Alzheimer’s dementia from frontotemporal dementia. It was created to address the limitations of the MMSE, which lacked sensitivity for frontal-executive dysfunction and visuospatial defects. The ACE is a brief test that takes 15-20 minutes to administer and is divided into five domains: attention and orientation, memory, verbal fluency, language, and visuospatial abilities. The total score is based on a maximum score of 100, with higher scores indicating better cognitive functioning.

      The ACE has been shown to be a valid tool for detecting dementia, with two cut-off points often used depending on the required sensitivity and specificity. A score of less than 88 has 100% sensitivity for detecting dementia, while a score of less than 82 has 93% sensitivity and 100% specificity. It has also been useful in differentiating dementia from pseudo dementia and detecting cognitive impairment in atypical Parkinson syndromes. However, while the test has shown 100% sensitivity and specificity in studies, its performance may vary in clinical practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      81.2
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - What statement accurately describes the LUNSERS? ...

    Incorrect

    • What statement accurately describes the LUNSERS?

      Your Answer: It needs to be rated by a clinician

      Correct Answer: It includes 'red herring' items

      Explanation:

      The LUNSERS is a self-administered rating scale consisting of 51 items used to detect side effects caused by antipsychotic medication. It comprises 41 established side effects of neuroleptics and 10 additional items that are not known to be side effects of such medication, such as hair loss and chilblains, to validate the results. The scale’s validity and reliability were assessed in a sample of 50 male and female patients with an average age of 46 years and 16 years of antipsychotic use, as well as a group of 50 healthy controls, with promising outcomes. Furthermore, the LUNSERS’ validity was compared to that of the UKU, which is the gold standard and takes approximately 60 minutes to complete.

      In psychiatry, various questionnaires and interviews are used to assess different conditions and areas. It is important for candidates to know whether certain assessment tools are self-rated of require clinical assistance. The table provided by the college lists some of the commonly used assessment tools and indicates whether they are self-rated of clinician-rated. For example, the HAMD and MADRS are clinician-rated scales used to assess the severity of depression, while the GDS is a self-rated scale used to screen for depression in the elderly. The YMRS is a clinician-rated scale used to assess the severity of mania in patients with bipolar disorder, while the Y-BOCS is used to measure both the severity of OCD and the response to treatment. The GAF provides a single measure of global functioning, while the CGI requires the clinician to rate the severity of the patient’s illness at the time of assessment. The CAMDEX is a tool developed to assist in the early diagnosis and measurement of dementia in the elderly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      29.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - What is the age range typically associated with Piaget's concrete operational stage? ...

    Correct

    • What is the age range typically associated with Piaget's concrete operational stage?

      Your Answer: 7 - 11 years

      Explanation:

      Piaget’s Stages of Development and Key Concepts

      Piaget developed four stages of development that describe how children think and acquire knowledge. The first stage is the Sensorimotor stage, which occurs from birth to 18-24 months. In this stage, infants learn through sensory observation and gain control of their motor functions through activity, exploration, and manipulation of the environment.

      The second stage is the Preoperational stage, which occurs from 2 to 7 years. During this stage, children use symbols and language more extensively, but they are unable to think logically of deductively. They also use a type of magical thinking and animistic thinking.

      The third stage is the Concrete Operational stage, which occurs from 7 to 11 years. In this stage, egocentric thought is replaced by operational thought, which involves dealing with a wide array of information outside the child. Children in this stage begin to use limited logical thought and can serialise, order, and group things into classes on the basis of common characteristics.

      The fourth and final stage is the Formal Operations stage, which occurs from 11 through the end of adolescence. This stage is characterized by the ability to think abstractly, to reason deductively, to define concepts, and also by the emergence of skills for dealing with permutations and combinations.

      Piaget also developed key concepts, including schema, assimilation, and accommodation. A schema is a category of knowledge and the process of obtaining that knowledge. Assimilation is the process of taking new information into an existing schema, while accommodation involves altering a schema in view of additional information.

      Overall, Piaget’s stages of development and key concepts provide a framework for understanding how children learn and acquire knowledge.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      52.2
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - What is the description provided by Atkinson and Shiffrin's 1968 model? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the description provided by Atkinson and Shiffrin's 1968 model?

      Your Answer: Personality

      Correct Answer: Memory

      Explanation:

      Memory Forms

      Memory is the ability to store, retain, and retrieve information. There are different forms of memory, including sensory memory, short-term/working memory, and long-term memory.

      Sensory memory is the capacity for briefly retaining the large amounts of information that people encounter daily. It includes echoic memory (gathered through auditory stimuli), iconic memory (gathered through sight), and haptic memory (acquired through touch).

      Short-term memory is the ability to keep a small amount of information available for a short period of time. Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multistore model (1968) suggests the existence of a short-term storehouse with limited capacity. Baddeley and Hitch (1974) further developed the concept of short-term memory, which eventually became known as Baddeley’s multi-storehouse model (2000). This model includes the central executive, visuospatial sketchpad, phonological buffer/loop, and episodic buffer.

      Long-term memory includes declarative (of explicit) memories, which can be consciously retrieved, and nondeclarative (of implicit) memories, which cannot. Declarative memory includes episodic memory (stores personal experiences) and semantic memory (stores information about facts and concepts). Non-declarative memory includes procedural memory (recalls motor and executive skills), associative memory (storage and retrieval of information through association with other information), and non-associative memory (refers to newly learned behavior through repeated exposure to an isolated stimulus).

      Overall, memory is a complex and essential cognitive function that plays a crucial role in learning, reasoning, and understanding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 24 - What is the estimated rate of adherence to prescribed medications across all age...

    Incorrect

    • What is the estimated rate of adherence to prescribed medications across all age groups and medication types?

      Your Answer: 33%

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Across all medical specialties, it is typical for patients to take less than half of their prescribed doses of self-administered medications, indicating low adherence rates that have been shown to be around 50%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - An elevated risk of Ebstein's anomaly has previously been linked to which of...

    Correct

    • An elevated risk of Ebstein's anomaly has previously been linked to which of the following medications?

      Your Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      The previously assumed higher risk is now uncertain and may not actually exist. We include this question to ensure that you are aware of the past association, as it may still be present in exam materials that have not been revised.

      Lithium – Pharmacology

      Pharmacokinetics:
      Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.

      Ebstein’s:
      Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.

      Contraindications:
      Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.

      Side-effects:
      Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.

      Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.

      Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
      Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.

      Toxicity:
      Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.

      Pre-prescribing:
      Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Monitoring:
      Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      10.9
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  • Question 26 - A teenager with schizophrenia is started on clozapine and experiences a complete response....

    Correct

    • A teenager with schizophrenia is started on clozapine and experiences a complete response. However, they gain a considerable amount of weight and are eager to find a solution. Despite attempts to lower the dosage, relapse occurs. What medication has been proven to decrease weight when combined with clozapine?

      Your Answer: Aripiprazole

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotic drugs are known to cause weight gain, but some more than others. The reason for this is not due to a direct metabolic effect, but rather an increase in appetite and a decrease in activity levels. The risk of weight gain appears to be linked to clinical response. There are several suggested mechanisms for this, including antagonism of certain receptors and hormones that stimulate appetite. The risk of weight gain varies among different antipsychotics, with clozapine and olanzapine having the highest risk. Management strategies for antipsychotic-induced weight gain include calorie restriction, low glycemic index diet, exercise, and switching to an alternative antipsychotic. Aripiprazole, ziprasidone, and lurasidone are recommended as alternative options. Other options include aripiprazole augmentation, metformin, orlistat, liraglutide, and topiramate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      27.9
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which symptom is most commonly associated with occlusion of the anterior cerebral artery?...

    Correct

    • Which symptom is most commonly associated with occlusion of the anterior cerebral artery?

      Your Answer: Transcortical motor aphasia

      Explanation:

      Brain Blood Supply and Consequences of Occlusion

      The brain receives blood supply from the internal carotid and vertebral arteries, which form the circle of Willis. The circle of Willis acts as a shunt system in case of vessel damage. The three main vessels arising from the circle are the anterior cerebral artery (ACA), middle cerebral artery (MCA), and posterior cerebral artery (PCA). Occlusion of these vessels can result in various neurological deficits. ACA occlusion may cause hemiparesis of the contralateral foot and leg, sensory loss, and frontal signs. MCA occlusion is the most common and can lead to hemiparesis, dysphasia/aphasia, neglect, and visual field defects. PCA occlusion may cause alexia, loss of sensation, hemianopia, prosopagnosia, and cranial nerve defects. It is important to recognize these consequences to provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      43.5
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Who initially coined the term 'expressed emotion' (EE) in relation to schizophrenia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Who initially coined the term 'expressed emotion' (EE) in relation to schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: Fromm-Reichmann

      Correct Answer: Brown

      Explanation:

      Expressed emotion (EE) in schizophrenia was first introduced by Brown et al., which refers to the emotions exhibited by family members towards their loved one with the illness. The James-Lange theory is one of two fundamental theories of emotions, alongside the Cannon-Bard theory. Fromm-Reichmann coined the term ‘schizophrenogenic mother.’ Harris proposed a model of emotional development consisting of five stages. Plutchik identified eight primary emotions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
      33.4
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which condition is most commonly linked to copy number variations? ...

    Correct

    • Which condition is most commonly linked to copy number variations?

      Your Answer: Autism

      Explanation:

      Copy Number Variations

      Portions of DNA can vary in number, resulting in copy number variations (CNVs). These variations can lead to additional of fewer copies of certain genes, which can affect gene expression and have significant impacts on performance and health. While most CNVs are not clinically significant, they have been linked to conditions such as autism, schizophrenia, and learning disabilities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      24.6
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  • Question 30 - What neuropathological evidence would provide the strongest support for a diagnosis of chronic...

    Correct

    • What neuropathological evidence would provide the strongest support for a diagnosis of chronic traumatic encephalopathy?

      Your Answer: Tau accumulations, predominantly around small intracortical blood vessels

      Explanation:

      Dementia Pugilistica: A Neurodegenerative Condition Resulting from Neurotrauma

      Dementia pugilistica, also known as chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE), is a neurodegenerative condition that results from neurotrauma. It is commonly seen in boxers and NFL players, but can also occur in anyone with neurotrauma. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as gait ataxia, slurred speech, impaired hearing, tremors, disequilibrium, neurobehavioral disturbances, and progressive cognitive decline.

      Most cases of dementia pugilistica present with early onset cognitive deficits, and behavioral signs exhibited by patients include aggression, suspiciousness, paranoia, childishness, hypersexuality, depression, and restlessness. The progression of the condition leads to more prominent behavioral symptoms such as difficulty with impulse control, irritability, inappropriateness, and explosive outbursts of aggression.

      Neuropathological abnormalities have been identified in CTE, with the most unique feature being the abnormal accumulation of tau in neurons and glia in an irregular, focal, perivascular distribution and at the depths of cortical sulci. Abnormalities of the septum pellucidum, such as cavum and fenestration, are also a common feature.

      While the condition has become increasingly rare due to the progressive improvement in sports safety, it is important to recognize the potential long-term consequences of repeated head injuries and take steps to prevent them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      93.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Social Psychology (2/4) 50%
Psychopharmacology (3/8) 38%
Neurosciences (6/9) 67%
Descriptive Psychopathology (0/1) 0%
Classification And Assessment (2/3) 67%
Psychological Development (1/2) 50%
Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments (0/2) 0%
Genetics (1/1) 100%
Passmed