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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 16-month-old boy presented following a 20 min seizure. He was given 5 mg per rectum (PR) diazepam to terminate the seizure and is still only responding to voice 6 hours later. He was diagnosed with measles five days prior to this episode.Which of the following is the most probable cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Encephalitis
Explanation:The most probable cause for the patient’s presenting symptoms is encephalitis secondary to measles infection.Encephalitis:Encephalitis occurs in 1 per 1000 measles cases. It usually presents within 1-14 days of the rash, usually day 5. It may present with fever, headache, vomiting, stiff neck, meningeal irritation, drowsiness, seizures, reduced consciousness; 15% will have neurological sequelae; 10% mortality.Other options:- Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis occurs in 1 per 1000 measles cases. It is thought to be a postinfectious immune response. Clinical manifestations include fever, headache, neck stiffness, seizures and mental status changes. It could fit this presentation although it tends to present in the recovery phase of measles infection, typically two weeks after the exanthem. In contrast, encephalitis tends to occur within a few days of the rash.- The history is not that of a typical febrile seizure as it lasted >15 minutes. He has also not recovered consciousness at 4 hours. The diazepam should have been eliminated within 4 hours and so should no longer be contributing to his reduced level of consciousness. Also, the history states the recent diagnosis of measles, and so complications of measles should be considered.- Intracranial bleed secondary to thrombocytopenia: Measles is not known to cause thrombocytopenia.- Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (also known as Dawson’s encephalitis): This is an extremely rare complication of measles. It is a progressive degenerative disease of the central nervous system that occurs 7-10 years after a measles infection. The treatment for SSPE is mainly intraventricular interferon therapy through an Ommaya reservoir. The prognosis is poor, and it is usually fatal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old child is referred to the chest clinic due to recurrent chest infections. The mother says she has a productive cough with greenish sputum. Chest x-ray shows multiple ringed shadows and thickening of the bronchial walls at both bases. The most likely diagnosis is?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bronchiectasis
Explanation:The x-ray is suggestive of bronchiectasis. The most probable aetiology especially considering recurrent chest infections at such a young age is cystic fibrosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Which of the given medical conditions is associated with renal cysts and follows an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome
Explanation:Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome is a genetic disorder inherited in autosomal dominant fashion. It is caused by the mutations of the VHL gene located on chromosome 3. The syndrome is characterized by the creation of multiple benign and malignant tumours involving various bodily systems along with the formation of numerous visceral cysts, including the renal and epididymal cysts. Down’s syndrome is associated with renal cysts, but it does not follow the autosomal dominant mode of inheritance, rather it is caused by non-disjunction of chromosome 21 during meiosis. Exomphalos is a defect of the medial abdominal wall leading to abnormal protrusion of abdominal viscera through it. It is not associated with renal cysts. Turner’s syndrome may be associated with renal cysts formation, but it is not transmitted in an autosomal dominant fashion. Polycystic kidney disease of childhood follows an autosomal recessive pattern of transmission.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which of the following findings is consistent with autism?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Macrocephaly
Explanation:Autism is a neurodevelopmental disorder characterized by difficulties with social interaction, language delays, and some repetitive behaviours. Autism may be associated with some dysmorphic facial features, including macrocephaly, which denotes an abnormally large head. Macrocephaly is usually most observable during early childhood. The other features mentioned are not found to be associated with autism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 5
Incorrect
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What serious side effect would you expect, after giving IV lorazepam to a 4-year-old boy suffering from febrile convulsions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Apnoea
Explanation:Lorazepam is known to cause respiratory depression and finally apnoea as a side effect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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When testing reflexes which one of the following would you not expect to find in a new-born, full-term baby?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Parachute
Explanation:PARACHUTE REFLEX This reflex occurs in slightly older infants when the child is held upright and the baby’s body is rotated quickly to face forward (as in falling). The baby will extend his arms forward as if to break a fall, even though this reflex appears long before the baby walks.Newborn reflexes are:Rooting reflex:This reflex starts when the corner of the baby’s mouth is stroked or touched. The baby will turn his or her head and open his or her mouth to follow and root in the direction of the stroking. This helps the baby find the breast or bottle to start feeding. This reflex lasts about 4 months.Suck reflex:Moro reflex:The Moro reflex is often called a startle reflex. That’s because it usually occurs when a baby is startled by a loud sound or movement. In response to the sound, the baby throws back his or her head, extends out his or her arms and legs, cries, then pulls the arms and legs back in. This reflex lasts until the baby is about 2 months old.Tonic neck reflex:When a baby’s head is turned to one side, the arm on that side stretches out and the opposite arm bends up at the elbow. This is often called the fencing position. This reflex lasts until the baby is about 5 to 7 months old.Grasp reflex:Stroking the palm of a baby’s hand causes the baby to close his or her fingers in a grasp. The grasp reflex lasts until the baby is about 5 to 6 months old. A similar reflex in the toes lasts until 9 to 12 months.Stepping reflex:This reflex is also called the walking or dance reflex because a baby appears to take steps or dance when held upright with his or her feet touching a solid surface. This reflex lasts about 2 months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A new-born baby with confirmed trisomy 21 presents with bilious vomiting and an abdominal X-ray at 1 day of age showing a 'double-bubble' appearance. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Duodenal Atresia
Explanation:Congenital duodenal atresia is one of the more common intestinal anomalies treated by paediatric surgeons, occurring 1 in 2500-5000 live births. In 25-40% of cases, the anomaly is encountered in an infant with trisomy 21 (Down syndrome).Presenting symptoms and signs are the results of high intestinal obstruction. Duodenal atresia is typically characterized by the onset of vomiting within hours of birth. While vomitus is most often bilious, it may be nonbilious because 15% of defects occur proximal to the ampulla of Vater. Occasionally, infants with duodenal stenosis escape detection of an abnormality and proceed into childhood or, rarely, into adulthood before a partial obstruction is noted. Nevertheless, one should assume any child with bilious vomiting has a proximal GI obstruction until proven otherwise, and further workup should be begun expeditiously.Once delivered, an infant with duodenal atresia typically has a scaphoid abdomen. One may occasionally note epigastric fullness from dilation of the stomach and proximal duodenum. Passing meconium within the first 24 hours of life is not usually altered. Dehydration, weight loss, and electrolyte imbalance soon follow unless fluid and electrolyte losses are adequately replaced. If intravenous (IV) hydration is not begun, a hypokalaemic/hypochloraemic metabolic alkalosis with paradoxical aciduria develops, as with other high GI obstruction. An orogastric (OG) tube in an infant with suspected duodenal obstruction typically yields a significant amount of bile-stained fluid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old boy is brought to the ER by his friends. He fell off his quad bike while riding it at a high speed. He complains of neck pain and paraesthesia in his limbs. On examination, there are multiple bleeding contusions on the body. There is a handlebar bruise on his chest. And oxygen saturations are low, but heart rate is normal. Which of the following is the most likely causing his shock?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Neurogenic
Explanation:Neurogenic shock is a devastating consequence of spinal cord injury (SCI), also known as vasogenic shock. Injury to the spinal cord results in sudden loss of sympathetic tone, which leads to the autonomic instability that is manifested in hypotension, bradyarrhythmia, and temperature dysregulation. Spinal cord injury is not to be confused with spinal shock, which is a reversible reduction in sensory and motor function following spinal cord injury. Neurogenic shock is associated with cervical and high thoracic spine injury. Early identification and aggressive management are vital in neurogenic shock to prevent secondary spinal injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 9
Incorrect
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What is the ideal growth rate of a new-born baby when receiving appropriate nutritional input?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 15g/kg/day
Explanation:The general target of weight gain in the neonatal intensive care unit is to replicate the intrauterine growth in the third trimester, which equates to the daily weight gain of nearly 15 g/kg/day with infants receiving 120 kcal/kg/day
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nutrition
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Question 10
Incorrect
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An 11-month-old child was given breakfast cereal containing cashew nuts following which he suddenly developed stridor and is struggling to breathe. The patient was brought to the emergency room tired and unable to cough. On examination, he is found to be conscious, and there is no rash. Auscultation did not reveal any abnormal breath sounds.What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Five back blows
Explanation:This clinical presentation is highly suggestive of choking. According to the BLS algorithm, the next step in managing a case of choking in a conscious child with an ineffective cough is five back blows.Other options:- Adrenaline intramuscularly: The history is similar to anaphylaxis, but the absence of a rash or oedema and the acute onset make choking more likely in this situation. Thus, adrenaline will not be of use in this patient.- CPR at a ratio of 15:2: Since the child is conscious, it is not advised. If the child were unconscious, you would commence basic life support.- Five abdominal thrusts: In the given scenario, the child is an infant. Abdominal thrusts are avoided in infants due to the risk of intra-abdominal injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which of the following does not occur in a 15-year-old girl who presents following amitriptyline overdose?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pin point pupils
Explanation:Pupils are dilated in patients with amitriptyline overdose.Tricyclic antidepressants have a narrow therapeutic index, and thus, small doses can be fatal in children. Deaths from tricyclics are more common than other antidepressants. Bimodal incidence with toddlers (accidental) and teenagers (deliberate) most commonly affected.Symptoms: They occur within 6 hours of ingestion.- Nausea, vomiting, and headache- Elevated body temperature- Agitation, sleepiness, confusion, coma- Dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention (anticholinergic)- Dilated pupils- Seizures- Hypotension, tachycardia, conduction disorders, and cardiac arrest- Respiratory depressionManagement:Treatment focuses on supportive care. This includes airway protection, ventilation and oxygenation, intravenous fluids, and cardiac monitoring.Other measures include:- Activated charcoal within 2 hours- Hypotension is treated with IV fluids and adrenaline- Cardiac monitoring- Sodium bicarbonate in acidosis or if there are wide QRS complex (> 100 ms)- Convulsions may require diazepam or lorazepam.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 5-day-old infant is admitted to the ward. She was born at full term by normal vaginal delivery weighing 3.48kg and has been breastfed since birth. She has now lost 11% of her birth weight and bilirubin is above the phototherapy line. On examination, her fontanelle is soft, CRT<2 seconds, she is active and alert. U&Es have been sent, and the sodium on a blood gas is 144. You have started phototherapy, but still, need to make a plan about fluids and feeding. Mother wants to continue breastfeeding but is also happy to introduce some formula milk. What is the MOST appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Offer NG or cup feeds alongside breastfeeding
Explanation:Excessive weight loss is generally indicative of suboptimal feeding, and infants with excessive weight loss are potentially dehydrated or at risk of dehydration.Jaundice associated with suboptimal breastfeeding-this is classically associated with weight loss >10% and a vicious cycle of sleepiness that in turn leads to further poor feeding. In the absence of clinical signs of dehydration, no evidence suggests that overhydration is helpful. If the infant is dehydrated, hydration should be given as clinically indicated. However, if the infant can tolerate oral feeding, oral hydration with a breast milk substitute is likely to be superior to intravenous hydration because it reduces enterohepatic circulation of bilirubin and helps wash bilirubin out of the bowel.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nutrition
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old pre-schooler complains of ear pain and fever. He has taken paracetamol several times for relief. It is noted that he increases the volume of the television and has a symmetric loss of 40db on a hearing test. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Otitis externa
Explanation:Increasing the volume of the TV and the child’s loss of hearing may suggest that he has otitis media with effusion but the fever and the ear pain strongly points to otitis externa as the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old girl with febrile convulsions was given IV Lorazepam. What is the single most serious side effect associated with IV Lorazepam?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amnesia
Explanation:The most serious side effects of IV Lorazepam include hallucinations, agitation, confusion, amnesia and muscle weakness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl presented with a sore throat for the past three days. She was taking ibuprofen and paracetamol over the counter for the pain. She was started on phenoxymethylpenicillin V following a diagnosis of tonsillitis.The next day she presents with a painful rash and feels unwell. On examination, she has extensive papular and plaque lesions. On palpation the papules desquamate. What is this sign called?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nikolskys sign
Explanation:The sign being elicited in this patient is Nikolsky’s sign. Based on the findings, the patient is suffering from toxic epidermal necrolysis.Nikolskys sign: Rubbing the skin causes exfoliation of the outer layer and usually blistering within a few minutes. Other options:- Cullen’s sign: Periumbilical bruising due to intra-abdominal haemorrhage. If the discolouration is seen in the flanks, it is called Cullen’s sign. Underlying pathology includes ruptured ectopic pregnancy and haemorrhagic pancreatitis. – Forscheimer’s sign: It is a fleeting exanthem that is seen as small, red spots (petechiae) on the soft palate. Associated with rubella and glandular fever. Gorlin’s sign: It is the ability to touch the tip of the nose with the tongue. Increased incidence in children with connective tissue disorder, e.g. Ehler Danlos syndrome. – Auspitzs sign: These are small bleeding points are left behind when psoriatic scales are lifted off. It is not a very sensitive or specific sign. Other cutaneous signs include:- Hair collar sign: It is a collar of hypertrichosis around an area of cranial dysraphism.- Hertoghe’s sign (Queen Anne’s sign): It is the loss of lateral one-third of eye-brows. It is associated with numerous conditions, including lupus, HIV, and hypothyroidism. – Dariers sign: It is the swelling, itching and erythema that occurs after stroking skin lesions of a patient with systemic mastocytosis or urticarial pigmentosa. – Dermatographism: Rubbing the skin causes a raised, urticarial lesion. – Koebners phenomenon: It is the appearance of new skin lesions in areas of trauma.- Breakfast, lunch, and dinner sign: Linear pathway of a group of three to five papules caused by the common bed bug, Cimex lectularius. – Buttonhole sign: In type 1 neurofibromatosis, neurofibromas can be invaginated with the finger back into the subcutis. The nodule will reappear after the release of pressure. The sign is also positive for dermatofibromas. – Crowe’s sign: Axillary freckling seen in type I neurofibromatosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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An 18-year-old girl presents with complaints of primary amenorrhoea. Which of the following is the first sign of the onset of puberty?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Breast-bud development
Explanation:The first sign of pubarche in females is breast-bud development (thelarche).This begins between the ages of 9 and 12 years and continues to 12-18 years. Pubic hair growth occurs next (said to occur in stage 3), at ages 9-14 years, and is complete at 12-16 years. Menarche occurs relatively late in stage 4 (age 11-15 years) and is associated with a deceleration in growth. The peak height velocity is reached earlier (10-13 years) and growth is completed much earlier than in boys.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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What is the optimal pressure to be used when providing inflation breaths to a term new-born who is unable to breathe spontaneously?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 30 cmH2O
Explanation:According per the national guidelines, 5 inflation breaths should be given with a gas pressure of 30cmH2O for term babies. Each breath should be given for 2-3 seconds. Pre-term babies should be aerated with a lower pressure of 20-25cmH2O.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old boy presents to the emergency department at about 6 am with reduced responsiveness and muscle rigidity. His mother reports that he attended a rave and came home euphoric, ataxic, and experiencing multiple hallucinations.Which of the following illicit substances is the most likely to have been consumed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ketamine
Explanation:The given presentation is highly suggestive of withdrawal effect of ketamine.Ketamine is known for its unique property of inducing dissociative anaesthesia. Emergence phenomenon (as seen in the child in question) is an adverse effect that occurs during recovery from dissociative anaesthesia. The components of emergence phenomenon include a euphoric state associated with hallucinations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which of the foetal abnormalities given below leads to oligohydramnios?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A single umbilical artery
Explanation:An important predictor of the foetal well-being is the evaluation of amniotic fluid volumes, commonly done using ultrasonography. Amniotic fluid index (AFI) is calculated by measuring the largest vertical diameter of the fluid pocket in all four quadrants of the uterine cavity and then added together. Oligohydramnios or decreased amniotic fluid volume can be defined as an AFI less than 5cm and occurs in about 4-5% of the pregnancies. It is associated with a number of foetal abnormalities and complications. Foetal abnormalities that lead to oligohydramnios include: premature rupture of membranes, intrauterine growth retardation, and congenital foetal abnormalities among others. A single umbilical artery is an anatomical defect of the umbilical cord, which leads to IUGR, uteroplacental insufficiency and may be associated with multiple congenital abnormalities as well, which all ultimately lead to the development of oligohydramnios. Foetal hydrops, developmental dysplasia of the hip and, macrosomia lead to polyhydramnios. Cleft palate is not associated with any of them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 5-month-old baby is referred with a recurrent itchy eruption affecting his trunk and soles. Examination shows diffuse eczema on the trunk and pink-red papules on both soles.Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Scabies
Explanation:Scabies infection in neonates typically manifests as nodular eruptions involving the face, neck, scalp, palms, and soles in contrast to the predominant involvement of the hands, wrists, elbows, and ankles in adults. Differential diagnoses for the nodular eruption in neonates are broad, and scabies often is misdiagnosed as Langerhans cell histiocytosis, urticaria pigmentosa, or another pruritic, bullous, or lymphoproliferative dermatosis. Histopathology of the reactive nodules usually is not diagnostic, because scabetic organisms are often unidentified and histologic findings are nonspecific. Furthermore, because of the atypical presentation, scabies in children is often missed until persons in close contact with the child present with similar symptoms. Thus, a thorough history and close follow-up are crucial to avoid misdiagnosis and unnecessary aggressive treatment. Moreover, synchronized treatment of patients and their close contacts is needed to ensure the success of therapy, considering that relapse is 2-3 times more frequent in children and infants
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Which of the following findings would be NOT be expected in a child with kernicterus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Learning disability
Explanation:Bilirubin encephalopathy (BE), also known as kernicterus is a preventable complication of neonatal jaundice. Bilirubin deposits in the basal ganglia, hippocampus, geniculate bodies and cranial nerve nuclei, exerting direct neurotoxic effects and causing mass-destruction of neurons by apoptosis and necrosis.The clinical features of this diagnosis have been well described and can be divided into 3 stages:Phase 1 (first few days of life): Decreased alertness, hypotonia, and poor feeding are the typical signs. Obviously, these are quite nonspecific and could easily be indicative of a multitude of neonatal abnormalities. A high index of suspicion of possible BIND at this stage that leads to prompt intervention can halt the progression of the illness, significantly minimizing long-term sequelae. Of note, a seizure is not typically associated with acute bilirubin encephalopathy.Phase 2 (variable onset and duration): Hypertonia of the extensor muscles is a typical sign. Patients present clinically with retrocollis (backward arching of the neck), opisthotonos (backward arching of the back), or both. Infants who progress to this phase develop long-term neurologic deficits. Phase 3 (infants aged >1 wk): Hypotonia is a typical sign.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 22
Incorrect
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What is the main mechanism of action of the combined oral contraceptive pill?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhibition of ovulation
Explanation:The progesterone is primarily responsible for preventing pregnancy. The main mechanism of action is the prevention of ovulation; they inhibit follicular development and prevent ovulation. Progestogen negative feedback works at the hypothalamus to decreases the pulse frequency of gonadotropin-releasing hormone. This, in turn, will decrease the secretion of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and decreases the secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH). If the follicle isn’t developing, then there is no increase in the oestradiol levels (the follicle makes oestradiol). The progestogen negative feedback and lack of oestrogen positive feedback on LH secretion stop the mid-cycle LH surge. With no follicle developed and no LH surge to release the follicle, there is the prevention of ovulation. Oestrogen has some effect with inhibiting follicular development because of its negative feedback on the anterior pituitary with slows FSH secretion; it’s just not as prominent as the progesterone’s effect. Another primary mechanism of action is progesterone’s ability to inhibit sperm from penetrating through the cervix and upper genital tract by making the cervical mucous unfriendly. Progesterone induced endometrial atrophy should deter implantation, but there is no proof that this occurs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 14 year old boy is suspected of having CSF rhinorrhoea after sustaining a basal skull fracture. Which laboratory test would be able to accurately detect the presence of CSF?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Beta 2 transferrin assay
Explanation:Answer: Beta 2 transferrin assayBeta-2-transferrin is a protein found only in CSF and perilymph. Since 1979, beta-2-transferrin has been used extensively by otolaryngologists in the diagnosis of CSF rhinorrhoea and skull-base cerebrospinal fluid fistulas. With sensitivity of 94% – 100%, and specificity of 98% – 100%, this assay has become the gold standard in detection of CSF leakage. CSF rhinorrhoea is characterized by clear or xanthochromic watery rhinorrhoea that may not become apparent until nasal packing is removed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 24
Incorrect
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An 8-year-old girl was bought immediately to the emergency department. She is fully conscious but has stridor, is wheezing and has a generalised erythematous rash. She has known allergies. What is the single immediate management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Give 0.3ml in 1000 adrenaline by IM injection
Explanation:This is a case of an anaphylactic reaction that requires immediate intervention. IM adrenaline dose for 6-12 year old children is 300 micrograms IM.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Which of the following conditions can be present in a 12-year-old boy diagnosed with coeliac disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IgA deficiency
Explanation:Coeliac disease is associated with the following conditions:- Dermatitis herpetiformis- Autoimmune disorders (e.g. thyroid disease, pernicious anaemia, diabetes)- IgA deficiency- Small-bowel malignancy, particularly lymphoma, if the gluten-free diet is not followed.Serology testing: The IgA tissue transglutaminase antibody is the most sensitive and specific, compared with the anti-endomysial antibody. However, false negatives will occur in children who are IgA-deficient, and IgA levels should be taken at the same time. Other options:Distal obstruction syndrome, meconium ileus, pancreatitis and rectal prolapse are all gastrointestinal manifestations of cystic fibrosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old girl presents with primary amenorrhoea. She is an athlete who is currently training for a national athletics championship.What is the best treatment option for her?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Adequate diet and observation
Explanation:Intensive physical training and participation in competitive sports during childhood and early adolescence may affect athletes’ pubertal development.Female athletes who do not begin secondary sexual development by the age of 14 or menstruation by the age of 16 warrant a comprehensive evaluation and treatment.Since she is still 14, adequate diet and observation are enough.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Which of the following patient populations is most likely to present with primary vesicoureteric reflux?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: New-born girls
Explanation:Vesicoureteric reflex (VUR) is described as the retrograde flow of urine from the bladder into the ureter due to an incompetent uterovesical junction. In primary VUR the lower urinary tract functions normally, while secondary VUR is associated with a poorly functioning lower urinary tract. The incidence of VUR is highest in new-born girls. They can present with hydronephrosis, or urinary tract infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 12 year old girl presented with pallor and a rash over her lower limbs after 4 days of bloody diarrhoea. Lab investigations showed proteinuria and deranged renal function. The most likely diagnosis will be?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS)
Explanation:Haemolytic Uremic Syndrome affects children and is characterised by abdominal pain, a purpuric rash over the body, generalized pallor, haematuria and bloody diarrhoea. There is always a history of preceding diarrhoea caused usually by E.coli and it affects the renal system causing haematuria and deranged renal function tests.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 7-week-old infant is brought to the emergency department by his mother. She complains that the child is having episodes of non-bilious vomiting for the past 10 days. She observed that the episodes typically occur directly after feeding and notes that the volume brought up varies, but that her baby does seem to be very hungry and has not gained much weight. What is the most probable diagnosis for this infant?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pyloric stenosis
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for this patient would be congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis.Congenital Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis (CHPS):Pyloric stenosis should be ruled out in any baby who presents with a long-term history of vomiting and failure to thrive. Infants typically present with projectile, non-bilious vomiting and are said to be hungry and wanting to feed despite poor weight gain. A blood gas would be helpful in this instance, although the diagnosis can be made more accurately by observing the stenosis during ultrasound. Many infants have symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux disease, although only a small minority are unable to gain weight adequately. A UTI in infants can present with non-specific symptoms, but they might have a fever and can show poor feeding. Malrotation will present with bilious vomiting.The definitive surgical management is the Ramsteadt’s pyloromyotomy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 6 year old child presents with acute scrotal pain. Clinical examination reveals scrotal tenderness, redness, swelling, and associated hydrocele. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Torsion of the hydatid of Morgagni
Explanation:Although all of the options may lead to an acute red scrotum, torsion of the hydatid of Morgagni is the most common cause at this age (age 12-16 years).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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