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  • Question 1 - A 47-year-old woman visits the local clinic with her husband, who reports that...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman visits the local clinic with her husband, who reports that his wife has been experiencing chills, night sweats, coughing up yellow phlegm, and is having difficulty answering basic questions.
      Which of the following is NOT part of the scoring evaluation for community-acquired pneumonia (CAP)?

      Your Answer: Age > 65 years

      Correct Answer: Creatinine

      Explanation:

      Understanding the CURB65 Score and its Criteria

      The CURB65 score is a tool used to assess the severity of community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) in patients. It consists of five criteria, including confusion, respiratory rate, blood pressure, age, and urea levels. However, creatinine does not play a role in this score.

      While the CURB65 score helps determine the appropriate level of care for patients with CAP, it is important to note that acute kidney injury and high creatinine levels may still be independent risk factors for morbidity and mortality.

      The criteria for the CURB65 score are as follows: a score of 0-1 indicates that the patient can be managed at home, a score of 2-3 suggests hospital management with close monitoring, and a score of 4-5 indicates the need for admission and observation, potentially in an intensive therapy unit.

      Age greater than 65 years old is one of the defining criteria of the CURB65 score, while confusion, respiratory rate > 30 breaths per minute, and blood pressure systolic < 90 mmHg or diastolic < 60 mmHg are also included. Additionally, a blood urea nitrogen level higher than 7 mmol/l is another criterion. In summary, understanding the CURB65 score and its criteria is essential in determining the appropriate level of care for patients with CAP. However, it is important to consider other risk factors, such as creatinine levels, in predicting morbidity and mortality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      84.6
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  • Question 2 - You are setting up a leg ulcer clinic to be run by your...

    Correct

    • You are setting up a leg ulcer clinic to be run by your practice nurse.
      Which of the following is the best treatment for venous leg ulcers?

      Your Answer: Compression bandaging

      Explanation:

      Effective Management of Venous Leg Ulcers in Primary Care

      Venous leg ulcers can be effectively managed in primary care through a combination of measures. Graduated compression is a key component of treatment, as it reduces venous reflux and ankle oedema while increasing venous blood flow. However, compression therapy may not be suitable for infected ulcers or those that are too tender. Pharmacotherapy and zinc paste are also not recommended for venous leg ulcers.

      Intermittent pneumatic calf compression can be effective in overcoming venous hypertension, but bandaging regimens must be adjusted according to ankle circumference to achieve the optimal pressure of around 40 mm Hg. Hyperbaric oxygen is not the first-choice treatment.

      In primary care, management of venous leg ulcers involves cleaning and dressing the ulcer, applying compression therapy appropriately, treating associated conditions such as pain, infection, oedema, and eczema, and providing lifestyle advice. Pentoxifylline may also be prescribed to aid ulcer healing. Follow-up and referral to specialist clinics may be necessary in some cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      21.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 32-year-old female patient complains of gradual tingling and numbness in her right...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old female patient complains of gradual tingling and numbness in her right hand's 4th and 5th fingers. The symptoms were occasional at first, but now they are persistent. She observes that the discomfort intensifies when she rests her right elbow on a surface. She remembers hitting her elbow against a door a while back. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Medial epicondylitis

      Correct Answer: Cubital tunnel syndrome

      Explanation:

      Cubital tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the ulnar nerve is compressed, resulting in tingling and numbness in the fourth and fifth fingers.

      The correct answer is cubital tunnel syndrome. The ulnar nerve passes through the cubital tunnel, and when it is compressed, it can cause the symptoms described, such as tingling and numbness in the fourth and fifth fingers. Treatment for this condition may involve conservative measures, but surgery may be necessary in some cases.

      Carpal tunnel syndrome, on the other hand, is caused by compression of the median nerve at the wrist, leading to pain and tingling in the hand and wrist, rather than specific fingers.

      De Quervain’s tenosynovitis presents differently, with pain occurring during movement of the thumb and wrist, and the radial styloid may become thickened and hardened.

      Medial epicondylitis, or golfer’s elbow, causes pain in the medial elbow area, near the cubital tunnel, but it is a tendinopathy rather than nerve compression. The pain is localized to the affected area.

      Understanding Cubital Tunnel Syndrome

      Cubital tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the ulnar nerve is compressed as it passes through the cubital tunnel. This can cause a range of symptoms, including tingling and numbness in the fourth and fifth fingers, which may start off intermittent but eventually become constant. Over time, patients may also experience weakness and muscle wasting. Pain is often worse when leaning on the affected elbow, and there may be a history of osteoarthritis or prior trauma to the area.

      Diagnosis of cubital tunnel syndrome is usually made based on clinical features, although nerve conduction studies may be used in selected cases. Management of the condition typically involves avoiding aggravating activities, undergoing physiotherapy, and receiving steroid injections. In cases where these measures are not effective, surgery may be necessary. By understanding the symptoms and treatment options for cubital tunnel syndrome, patients can take steps to manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      26.1
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  • Question 4 - As a foundation doctor on the neonatal ward, you conduct a newborn examination...

    Incorrect

    • As a foundation doctor on the neonatal ward, you conduct a newborn examination on a six hour old infant. The baby was delivered vaginally at 38 weeks with no risk factors for sepsis and no maternal concerns. The baby was born in a healthy condition, with good tone. However, you observe cyanosis in the peripheries, while the rest of the examination appears normal. Pre and post ductal oxygen saturations are at 97%. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acrocyanosis

      Explanation:

      Cyanosis, a bluish discoloration of the skin, is a common occurrence in newborns. Peripheral cyanosis, which affects the hands and feet, is often seen in the first 24 hours of life and can be caused by crying or illness. Central cyanosis, on the other hand, is a more serious condition that occurs when the concentration of reduced hemoglobin in the blood exceeds 5g/dl. To differentiate between cardiac and non-cardiac causes of central cyanosis, doctors may use the nitrogen washout test, which involves giving the infant 100% oxygen for ten minutes and then measuring arterial blood gases. A pO2 of less than 15 kPa indicates cyanotic congenital heart disease, which can be caused by conditions such as tetralogy of Fallot, transposition of the great arteries, and tricuspid atresia.

      If cyanotic congenital heart disease is suspected, initial management involves supportive care and the use of prostaglandin E1, such as alprostadil, to maintain a patent ductus arteriosus in ductal-dependent congenital heart defects. This can serve as a temporary measure until a definitive diagnosis is made and surgical correction is performed.

      Acrocyanosis, a type of peripheral cyanosis, is a benign condition that is often seen in healthy newborns. It is characterized by bluish discoloration around the mouth and extremities, such as the hands and feet, and is caused by vasomotor changes that result in peripheral vasoconstriction and increased tissue oxygen extraction. Unlike other causes of peripheral cyanosis that may indicate significant pathology, such as septic shock, acrocyanosis occurs immediately after birth in healthy infants and typically resolves within 24 to 48 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 5 - You are working in a busy emergency department. A 25-year-old male presents explaining...

    Incorrect

    • You are working in a busy emergency department. A 25-year-old male presents explaining that a few hours ago he broke up with his girlfriend and while having an argument took 20 of his mother's tablets. He is worried and says he is experiencing muffled hearing with bouts of ringing on both sides. Vital signs were all normal apart from a respiratory rate of 28 per minute.
      An overdose of which medication is most likely?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      Tinnitus could be an early indication of an aspirin overdose, as salicylate toxicity can cause respiratory alkalosis and subsequently metabolic acidosis within a few hours. The patient’s symptoms suggest the former, and the presence of tinnitus further supports this diagnosis.

      Salicylate overdose can result in a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. The initial effect of salicylates is to stimulate the respiratory center, leading to hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. However, as the overdose progresses, the direct acid effects of salicylates, combined with acute renal failure, can cause metabolic acidosis. In children, metabolic acidosis tends to be more prominent. Other symptoms of salicylate overdose include tinnitus, lethargy, sweating, pyrexia, nausea/vomiting, hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, seizures, and coma.

      The treatment for salicylate overdose involves general measures such as airway, breathing, and circulation support, as well as administering activated charcoal. Urinary alkalinization with intravenous sodium bicarbonate can help eliminate aspirin in the urine. In severe cases, hemodialysis may be necessary. Indications for hemodialysis include a serum concentration of salicylates greater than 700mg/L, metabolic acidosis that is resistant to treatment, acute renal failure, pulmonary edema, seizures, and coma.

      It is important to note that salicylates can cause the uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation, which leads to decreased adenosine triphosphate production, increased oxygen consumption, and increased carbon dioxide and heat production. Therefore, prompt and appropriate treatment is crucial in managing salicylate overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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  • Question 6 - A 16-year-old girl comes to the clinic with a palpable purpuric rash on...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl comes to the clinic with a palpable purpuric rash on her lower limbs and polyarthralgia after experiencing a recent sore throat. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Henoch-Schonlein purpura

      Explanation:

      Understanding Henoch-Schonlein Purpura

      Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP) is a type of small vessel vasculitis that is mediated by IgA. It is often associated with IgA nephropathy, also known as Berger’s disease. HSP is commonly observed in children following an infection.

      The condition is characterized by a palpable purpuric rash, which is accompanied by localized oedema over the buttocks and extensor surfaces of the arms and legs. Other symptoms include abdominal pain, polyarthritis, and features of IgA nephropathy such as haematuria and renal failure.

      Treatment for HSP involves analgesia for arthralgia, while management of nephropathy is generally supportive. There is inconsistent evidence for the use of steroids and immunosuppressants.

      The prognosis for HSP is usually excellent, especially in children without renal involvement. The condition is self-limiting, but around one-third of patients may experience a relapse. It is important to monitor blood pressure and urinalysis to detect any progressive renal involvement.

      Overall, understanding Henoch-Schonlein purpura is crucial for prompt diagnosis and management of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 7 - You are invited to a meeting at a nearby daycare center. There has...

    Incorrect

    • You are invited to a meeting at a nearby daycare center. There has been a rise in the number of children contracting hand, foot, and mouth disease and a plan is being developed to address this issue. What is the most efficient measure to decrease the occurrence of hand, foot, and mouth disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hand hygiene

      Explanation:

      Hand hygiene is the most crucial step in addressing MRSA, although a comprehensive approach is necessary.

      Understanding MRSA and Screening for Infection

      Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is a type of bacteria that can cause serious infections and is particularly dangerous in hospital settings. To prevent the spread of MRSA, certain patients should be screened for the infection, including those awaiting elective admissions and all emergency admissions starting in 2011. Screening involves taking a nasal swab and checking for skin lesions or wounds. If a patient is found to be a carrier of MRSA, treatment involves using antibiotics such as vancomycin, teicoplanin, or linezolid. However, some strains may develop resistance to these antibiotics, so newer options like linezolid, quinupristin/dalfopristin combinations, and tigecycline should be reserved for resistant cases. It is important to suppress MRSA from carriers to prevent the spread of infection. This can be done through the use of mupirocin and chlorhexidine gluconate. By understanding MRSA and screening for infection, healthcare providers can take steps to prevent the spread of this dangerous bacteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 8 - A 72-year-old man with atrial fibrillation (AF) experiences colicky abdominal pain after eating...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man with atrial fibrillation (AF) experiences colicky abdominal pain after eating a large meal; this has been happening consistently for the past 3 weeks, causing him to develop a fear of eating.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic mesenteric ischaemia (CMI)

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Abdominal Pain: Chronic Mesenteric Ischaemia, Chronic Pancreatitis, Diverticulitis, Gastric Cancer, and Acute Mesenteric Ischaemic Embolism

      Abdominal pain is a common presenting symptom in clinical practice, and it can be caused by a variety of conditions. In this article, we will discuss the differential diagnosis for abdominal pain, including chronic mesenteric ischaemia (CMI), chronic pancreatitis, diverticulitis, gastric cancer, and acute mesenteric ischaemic embolism.

      CMI usually results from atherosclerotic disease of two or more mesenteric vessels, while chronic pancreatitis is characterised by a continuing, chronic, inflammatory process of the pancreas. Diverticulitis is an inflammation of one or more diverticula, while gastric cancer is the third most common cause of cancer-related death in the world. Acute mesenteric ischaemic embolism is characterised by pain that is disproportionate to physical examination findings.

      Each condition has its own unique set of symptoms and clinical presentation. By understanding the differential diagnosis for abdominal pain, clinicians can make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old man contacts his General Practitioner to discuss screening for tuberculosis (TB)...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man contacts his General Practitioner to discuss screening for tuberculosis (TB) for himself and his two children. His wife has recently been diagnosed with active TB and started on treatment following release from hospital. He and the children are all completely asymptomatic.
      Which of the following screening options would be appropriate for the family?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mantoux test

      Explanation:

      Screening and Diagnosis of Tuberculosis: Methods and Recommendations

      Tuberculosis (TB) is a serious infectious disease that can be fatal if left untreated. Screening and diagnosis of TB are crucial for early detection and treatment. In this article, we will discuss the recommended methods and guidelines for screening and diagnosis of TB.

      Mantoux Test
      The Mantoux test is a recommended screening method for latent TB in at-risk groups, such as close contacts of patients with active pulmonary or laryngeal TB, patients with human immunodeficiency virus, or immigrants from high-risk countries. The test involves injecting tuberculin intradermally and observing a reaction 2-3 days later. A positive result is indicated by an induration of greater than 6 mm at the injection site. Further investigations are warranted to diagnose or exclude active TB infection.

      Chest X-Ray
      Screening for latent TB is advised for all household members and close contacts of patients diagnosed with active pulmonary TB. If screening is positive, investigations for active TB are indicated, which would include a chest X-ray. Typical features of pulmonary TB on an X-ray include a cavitating lesion, upper-lobe parenchymal infiltrates, pleural effusion, or mediastinal or hilar lymphadenopathy.

      Heaf Test
      The Heaf test was previously used to diagnose latent TB but has since been replaced by the Mantoux test. Both tests involve injecting tuberculin intradermally and observing for a reaction. The Heaf test was performed using a Heaf gun, which had six needles in a circular formation. The more severe the reaction, the more likely it is that the patient has an active infection, but previous BCG vaccine exposure can also give a reaction.

      Screening and Diagnosis Recommendations
      According to NICE guidance, close contacts of patients with active pulmonary TB should be screened for latent TB infection with a Mantoux test. Three sputum samples (including an early morning sample) for TB microscopy and culture are indicated to diagnose active pulmonary TB infection. This investigation is not indicated for screening for latent TB but should be performed if latent screening tests are positive.

      In conclusion, early detection and treatment of TB are crucial for preventing the spread of the disease and improving patient outcomes. The recommended screening and diagnosis methods should be followed to ensure accurate and timely detection of TB.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 10 - A 27-year-old woman gives birth vaginally at 38 weeks gestation and experiences a...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman gives birth vaginally at 38 weeks gestation and experiences a physiological third stage of labor. She subsequently loses 700ml of blood and medical assistance is requested. An ABCDE assessment is conducted, and the patient is given warmed IV crystalloid fluids after obtaining IV access. The uterus is compressed to stimulate contractions, and a catheter is inserted, but the bleeding persists. The patient has a history of asthma but no known coagulopathy. What is the most appropriate course of action for her management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV oxytocin

      Explanation:

      The appropriate medical treatments for postpartum haemorrhage caused by uterine atony are oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol. In this scenario, the patient has experienced a blood loss of over 500 ml after delivery, indicating PPH as the likely cause, with uterine atony being the most probable reason. The first steps in managing PPH involve an ABCDE approach, including IV access, warm crystalloid administration, uterine fundus palpation, and catheterisation to prevent bladder distention. If these measures fail, medical therapy is initiated, starting with IV oxytocin. IM carboprost is not the correct choice as it requires senior approval and can worsen bronchoconstriction in patients with asthma. IV carboprost is also not recommended as it can cause bronchospasm, hypertension, and fever, and requires senior approval. IV tocolytics are not appropriate as they suppress uterine contractions, which would exacerbate the problem in this case. Therefore, agents that stimulate uterine contraction are given to manage PPH caused by uterine atony.

      Understanding Postpartum Haemorrhage

      Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is a condition where a woman experiences blood loss of more than 500 ml after giving birth vaginally. It can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary PPH occurs within 24 hours after delivery and is caused by the 4 Ts: tone, trauma, tissue, and thrombin. The most common cause is uterine atony. Risk factors for primary PPH include previous PPH, prolonged labour, pre-eclampsia, increased maternal age, emergency Caesarean section, and placenta praevia.

      In managing PPH, it is important to involve senior staff immediately and follow the ABC approach. This includes two peripheral cannulae, lying the woman flat, blood tests, and commencing a warmed crystalloid infusion. Mechanical interventions such as rubbing up the fundus and catheterisation are also done. Medical interventions include IV oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol. Surgical options such as intrauterine balloon tamponade, B-Lynch suture, ligation of uterine arteries, and hysterectomy may be considered if medical options fail to control the bleeding.

      Secondary PPH occurs between 24 hours to 6 weeks after delivery and is typically due to retained placental tissue or endometritis. It is important to understand the causes and risk factors of PPH to prevent and manage this life-threatening emergency effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 11 - A 25-year-old female presents with a history of recurrent urinary tract infections over...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female presents with a history of recurrent urinary tract infections over the past year. An abdominal ultrasound is performed and the results indicate normal size kidneys and no abnormalities in the urinary tract. The liver, spleen, and pancreas are also normal. The right ovary and uterus appear normal, but a 4 cm simple ovarian cyst is noted on the left ovary. What would be the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repeat ultrasound in 12 weeks

      Explanation:

      Consider referral if the cyst remains after 12 weeks.

      Ovarian enlargement is typically diagnosed through ultrasound imaging, which can determine whether the cyst is simple or complex. Simple cysts are unilocular and more likely to be benign, while complex cysts are multilocular and more likely to be malignant. Management of ovarian enlargement depends on the patient’s age and symptoms. Younger women may be treated conservatively if the cyst is small and simple, with a repeat ultrasound scheduled in 8-12 weeks. Postmenopausal women, however, should always be referred to a gynecologist for assessment, as physiological cysts are unlikely in this population. It’s important to note that ovarian cancer can present with vague symptoms, leading to delayed diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 12 - A 28-year-old pregnant woman is brought into the Emergency Department with acute confusion...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old pregnant woman is brought into the Emergency Department with acute confusion and abnormal behaviour. Her husband says she has been well till today. There is no past medical history of note and she takes no regular medication.
      On examination, she is febrile with a temperature of 38.7 °C. Her heart rate is 125 bpm with a blood pressure of 115/95 mmHg. Chest sounds are clear and heart sounds are normal. She has a soft abdomen with a palpable uterus in keeping with 16 weeks’ gestation.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 92 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 10.3 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
      Neutrophils 7.1 × 109/l 2.5–7.5 × 109/l
      Lymphocytes 0.9 × 109/l 0.8–5.0 × 109/l
      Platelets (PLT) 57 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 136 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 17.3 mmol/l 1.8–7.1 mmol/l
      Creatinine (Cr) 225µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) 34 60+
      Bilirubin 20µmol/l 1–22 µmol/l
      Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 35 U/l 7–55 U/l
      Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 85 U/l 30–150 U/l
      Albumin 40 g/l 35–55 g/l
      C-reactive protein (CRP) 9 mg/l < 10 mg/l
      Which of the following is the best investigation to confirm the likely diagnosis?

      Select ONE option only

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blood film

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura in a Pregnant Patient with Fever and Confusion

      Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) should be considered in a pregnant patient presenting with fever, acute kidney injury, cerebral dysfunction, thrombocytopenia, and microangiopathic hemolytic anemia. To confirm the diagnosis, a blood film is needed to show the presence of schistocytes from the destruction of red blood cells. An abdominal ultrasound may be considered, but it will not aid in identifying the underlying diagnosis. Although a blood culture is appropriate, it would not confirm the diagnosis. A CT head or lumbar puncture may be useful in excluding visible organic pathology, but they do not play a role in the diagnosis of TTP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 13 - A 67-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner reporting a feeling of weakness...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner reporting a feeling of weakness in his right arm that occurred about 10 hours ago. He states that the weakness lasted for around one hour and has since disappeared. He has a history of hypertension and takes amlodipine, but is typically healthy.
      What is the most suitable course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give aspirin 300 mg and refer immediately to be seen in the Stroke Clinic within 24 hours

      Explanation:

      Management of Transient Ischaemic Attack (TIA)

      Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) is a medical emergency that requires prompt management to prevent a subsequent stroke. Here are some management strategies for TIA:

      Immediate administration of aspirin 300 mg and referral to the Stroke Clinic within 24 hours is recommended, unless contraindicated. Clopidogrel 75 mg once daily is the preferred secondary prevention following a stroke or TIA.

      An outpatient magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) head scan may be considered to determine the territory of ischaemia, but only after assessment by a specialist at a TIA clinic.

      Patients who have had a suspected TIA within the last week should be offered aspirin 300 mg at once and be seen by a stroke specialist within 24 hours. If the suspected TIA was more than one week ago, patients should be seen by a specialist within the next seven days.

      Dual antiplatelet therapy with aspirin and clopidogrel may be considered for the first three months following a TIA or ischaemic stroke if the patient has severe symptomatic intracranial stenosis or for another condition such as acute coronary syndrome.

      Management Strategies for Transient Ischaemic Attack (TIA)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 14 - A 35-year-old woman visits the clinic to receive the outcome of her initial...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman visits the clinic to receive the outcome of her initial blood tests after discovering she is pregnant for the first time. She moved to the UK from Ukraine two years ago and did not receive the MMR vaccine during her childhood. Her rubella IgM and IgG tests both show negative results. What guidance would you offer her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: To keep away from people who might have rubella and receive the MMR vaccine in the postnatal period

      Explanation:

      If a woman who is pregnant lacks immunity to rubella, she should receive the MMR vaccine after giving birth.

      In the absence of any indication that this pregnant woman has been exposed to rubella, she should avoid contact with individuals who may have the disease and receive the MMR vaccine after giving birth, as it cannot be administered during pregnancy. There is no recommended treatment for preventing rubella after exposure based on the clinical history. To prevent complications in future pregnancies, it is important to offer her the MMR vaccine.

      Rubella and Pregnancy: Risks, Features, Diagnosis, and Management

      Rubella, also known as German measles, is a viral infection caused by the togavirus. Thanks to the introduction of the MMR vaccine, it is now rare. However, if contracted during pregnancy, there is a risk of congenital rubella syndrome, which can cause serious harm to the fetus. It is important to note that the incubation period is 14-21 days, and individuals are infectious from 7 days before symptoms appear to 4 days after the onset of the rash.

      The risk of damage to the fetus is highest in the first 8-10 weeks of pregnancy, with a risk as high as 90%. However, damage is rare after 16 weeks. Features of congenital rubella syndrome include sensorineural deafness, congenital cataracts, congenital heart disease (e.g. patent ductus arteriosus), growth retardation, hepatosplenomegaly, purpuric skin lesions, ‘salt and pepper’ chorioretinitis, microphthalmia, and cerebral palsy.

      If a suspected case of rubella in pregnancy arises, it should be discussed immediately with the local Health Protection Unit (HPU) as type/timing of investigations may vary. IgM antibodies are raised in women recently exposed to the virus. It should be noted that it is very difficult to distinguish rubella from parvovirus B19 clinically. Therefore, it is important to also check parvovirus B19 serology as there is a 30% risk of transplacental infection, with a 5-10% risk of fetal loss.

      If a woman is tested at any point and no immunity is demonstrated, they should be advised to keep away from people who might have rubella. Non-immune mothers should be offered the MMR vaccination in the post-natal period. However, MMR vaccines should not be administered to women known to be pregnant or attempting to become pregnant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 15 - A 50-year-old man has presented to the emergency department with a 2-day history...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man has presented to the emergency department with a 2-day history of bloody diarrhoea 10 times per day associated with colicky abdominal pain.

      Observations are as follows: blood pressure 100/60 mmHg, pulse 90/min, respiratory rate 15/min, temperature 37.8ºC, oxygen saturation 97% on air. The examination is unremarkable apart from diffuse abdominal tenderness.

      Stool analysis revealed Campylobacter jejuni.

      What is the first-line treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      If a patient experiences severe symptoms of Campylobacter infection such as bloody diarrhea and more than eight stools per day, treatment with clarithromycin may be necessary. While Campylobacter infection is typically self-limiting, the British National Formulary (BNF) recommends antibiotics for severe cases or for immunocompromised patients. NICE also advises antibiotic treatment for severe symptoms or if symptoms persist for more than one week. Supportive treatment may be sufficient for mild symptoms in immunocompetent patients. Ciprofloxacin is an alternative to clarithromycin, but strains with decreased sensitivity to ciprofloxacin are frequently isolated. Metronidazole and oral vancomycin are not recommended for Campylobacter treatment, but are first-line options for Clostridium difficile.

      Campylobacter: The Most Common Bacterial Cause of Intestinal Disease in the UK

      Campylobacter is a Gram-negative bacillus that is responsible for causing infectious intestinal disease in the UK. The bacteria is primarily spread through the faecal-oral route and has an incubation period of 1-6 days. Symptoms of Campylobacter infection include a prodrome of headache and malaise, diarrhoea (often bloody), and abdominal pain that may mimic appendicitis.

      In most cases, Campylobacter infection is self-limiting and does not require treatment. However, the British National Formulary (BNF) recommends treatment with antibiotics if the patient is immunocompromised or if symptoms are severe (high fever, bloody diarrhoea, or more than eight stools per day) and have lasted for more than one week. The first-line antibiotic for Campylobacter infection is clarithromycin, although ciprofloxacin is an alternative. It is important to note that strains with decreased sensitivity to ciprofloxacin are frequently isolated.

      Complications of Campylobacter infection may include Guillain-Barre syndrome, reactive arthritis, septicaemia, endocarditis, and arthritis. It is important to seek medical attention if symptoms are severe or persist for an extended period of time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 16 - A 28-year-old woman comes to the Endocrine Clinic with a history of hyperthyroidism....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes to the Endocrine Clinic with a history of hyperthyroidism. Her blood tests confirm that she is currently experiencing thyrotoxicosis. She is hoping to conceive and wants to discuss her treatment options.
      What is the most suitable treatment for her condition in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thyroidectomy

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Hyperthyroidism in Women Planning a Pregnancy

      When it comes to treating hyperthyroidism in women who are planning a pregnancy, there are several options to consider. Definitive treatment, such as thyroidectomy, is the preferred option as it eliminates the risk of thyrotoxicosis during pregnancy and the need for medication that could harm the fetus. However, following thyroidectomy, the patient will need thyroxine replacement and should wait until she is euthyroid before trying to conceive.

      Propylthiouracil and thyroxine are not recommended for use during pregnancy due to the risk of fetal goitre or hypothyroidism. Carbimazole is teratogenic and should not be started in women planning a pregnancy. Propylthiouracil can be used in low doses if there is no other suitable alternative.

      Radioactive iodine is highly effective but is contraindicated in women planning a pregnancy within six months. This option can be considered if the patient is willing to continue contraception until six months after treatment. Ultimately, the best course of action will depend on the individual patient’s needs and preferences, and should be discussed with a healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 17 - As a foundation doctor on the neonatal ward, you are updating a prescription...

    Incorrect

    • As a foundation doctor on the neonatal ward, you are updating a prescription chart for a premature baby born at twenty-six weeks. While reviewing the chart, you come across sildenafil. Can you explain the purpose of sildenafil in neonatal care?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treating pulmonary hypertension

      Explanation:

      Sildenafil, also known as Viagra, is typically used to treat erectile dysfunction in adults. However, it can also be used to treat pulmonary hypertension in neonates. The appropriate method for calming a distressed neonate depends on the underlying cause, which is often related to respiratory distress or pain. Gaviscon and ranitidine are sometimes used to treat gastro-oesophageal reflux, although this is not an approved use. Caffeine is sometimes used to help wean a neonate off a ventilator.

      Understanding Phosphodiesterase Type V Inhibitors

      Phosphodiesterase type V (PDE5) inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. These drugs work by increasing the levels of cGMP, which leads to the relaxation of smooth muscles in the blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which was the first drug of its kind. It is a short-acting medication that is usually taken one hour before sexual activity.

      Other PDE5 inhibitors include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra). Tadalafil is longer-acting than sildenafil and can be taken on a regular basis, while vardenafil has a similar duration of action to sildenafil. However, these drugs are not suitable for everyone. Patients taking nitrates or related drugs, those with hypotension, and those who have had a recent stroke or myocardial infarction should not take PDE5 inhibitors.

      Like all medications, PDE5 inhibitors can cause side effects. These may include visual disturbances, blue discolouration, non-arteritic anterior ischaemic neuropathy, nasal congestion, flushing, gastrointestinal side-effects, headache, and priapism. It is important to speak to a healthcare professional before taking any medication to ensure that it is safe and appropriate for you.

      Overall, PDE5 inhibitors are an effective treatment for erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. However, they should only be used under the guidance of a healthcare professional and with careful consideration of the potential risks and benefits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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  • Question 18 - A 54-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a three-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a three-day history of blurring of vision. He has a past medical history of hypertension, managed with amlodipine, ramipril, and indapamide, and type II diabetes mellitus, which is well controlled with metformin.
      On examination, his visual acuity is 6/18 in both eyes with a reduction in colour vision. There is no relative afferent pupillary defect. On direct fundoscopy, the optic disc's margins are ill-defined and seem to be raised in both eyes. There are also some cotton-wool spots scattered around the retina in both eyes.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypertensive retinopathy

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Hypertensive Retinopathy from Other Eye Conditions

      Hypertensive retinopathy is a serious condition that can lead to vision loss if left untreated. A grade 4 hypertensive retinopathy, as classified by the Keith-Wagener-Barker system, is characterized by bilateral optic disc swelling and cotton-wool spots. This condition can cause a reduction in visual acuity and color vision due to optic neuropathy secondary to hypertension.

      It is important to differentiate hypertensive retinopathy from other eye conditions that may present with similar symptoms. Proliferative diabetic retinopathy, for example, is unlikely if the patient’s type II diabetes is well-controlled. The presence of cotton-wool spots does not indicate diabetic retinopathy.

      An intracranial space-occupying lesion is also not indicated in the patient’s history. Optic neuritis, while it can present with loss of optic nerve function, is more likely to present unilaterally and without cotton-wool spots.

      Pre-proliferative diabetic retinopathy is also unlikely in this case, as the patient’s diabetes is well-controlled. In diabetic retinopathy, optic discs will not be raised.

      In summary, a thorough understanding of the patient’s medical history and symptoms is necessary to accurately diagnose hypertensive retinopathy and differentiate it from other eye conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 19 - A 45-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 7-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 7-day history of fever and night sweats. His parameters include a blood pressure of 110/80 mmHg, oxygen saturation of 99%, heart rate of 115 bpm and a temperature of 38.5°C.
      On examination, a murmur is elicited at the right upper sternal edge. Infective endocarditis is suspected and an echocardiogram is done which shows multiple vegetations on the aortic valve.
      Which of the following is the best next step to confirm the diagnosis?
      Select the SINGLE best management option from the list below.
      Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Two positive blood cultures drawn > 12 hours apart

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Infective Endocarditis: Criteria and Testing

      In order to diagnose infective endocarditis, the modified Duke’s criteria are used. One major criterion can be fulfilled by echocardiography and the other by blood cultures. If a patient has one major criterion and one minor criterion, they need another major criterion or at least two other minor criteria to confirm the diagnosis. Two positive blood cultures drawn more than 12 hours apart fulfill the other major criterion, confirming the diagnosis.

      A chest X-ray is not necessary in this case, as it would not provide enough information to support a diagnosis of infective endocarditis.

      If a patient has one major criterion and one minor criterion, one positive blood culture of an atypical organism would fit a minor criterion for diagnosis, but would not be enough to confirm the diagnosis.

      Two positive blood cultures taken at the same time from different sites would not be appropriate, as they need to be drawn at least 12 hours apart to fulfill the major criterion. Even if this criterion is fulfilled, the patient would still need another major criterion or additional minor criteria to confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 20 - As a healthcare professional, you are providing dietary recommendations to a middle-aged patient...

    Incorrect

    • As a healthcare professional, you are providing dietary recommendations to a middle-aged patient who has been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus and is struggling with obesity. According to the latest NICE guidelines, which of the following should not be promoted?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Food products specifically targeted at diabetics

      Explanation:

      According to NICE, it is not recommended to consume foods that are marketed exclusively for individuals with diabetes.

      NICE updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022, reflecting advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. The first-line drug of choice remains metformin, which should be titrated up slowly to minimize gastrointestinal upset. HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients and checked every 3-6 months until stable, with consideration for relaxing targets on a case-by-case basis. Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates and controlling intake of foods containing saturated fats and trans fatty acids. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease. Only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin, with atorvastatin 20mg as the first-line choice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 21 - A 32-year-old male immigrant from India undergoes testing for latent TB. Results from...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male immigrant from India undergoes testing for latent TB. Results from both the Mantoux skin test and interferon release gamma assay confirm the presence of latent TB. What treatment options are available for the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Isoniazid with pyridoxine for 6 months

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Latent Tuberculosis

      Latent tuberculosis is a disease that can remain dormant in the body for years without causing any symptoms. However, if left untreated, it can develop into active tuberculosis, which can be life-threatening. To prevent this from happening, NICE now offers two choices for treating latent tuberculosis.

      The first option is a combination of isoniazid (with pyridoxine) and rifampicin for three months. This is recommended for people under the age of 35 who are concerned about the hepatotoxicity of the drugs. Before starting this treatment, a liver function test is conducted to assess the risk factors.

      The second option is a six-month course of isoniazid (with pyridoxine) for people who are at risk of interactions with rifamycins. This includes individuals with HIV or those who have had a transplant. The risk factors for developing active tuberculosis include silicosis, chronic renal failure, HIV positivity, solid organ transplantation with immunosuppression, intravenous drug use, haematological malignancy, anti-TNF treatment, and previous gastrectomy.

      In summary, the choice of treatment for latent tuberculosis depends on the individual’s clinical circumstances and risk factors. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 22 - A 70-year-old man has been diagnosed with active tuberculosis and started on antibiotics....

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man has been diagnosed with active tuberculosis and started on antibiotics. He has a history of chronic kidney disease stage 4 and atrial fibrillation treated with warfarin. His INR taken 2 days after starting treatment is elevated at 7.8. Which antibiotic is the likely cause of this result?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Isoniazid

      Explanation:

      The cytochrome p450 system is inhibited by isoniazid, which leads to a decrease in the metabolism of warfarin. This results in an increase in the INR and prolongation of its effects. Although erythromycin is metabolized by the cytochrome p450 system, it is not used in the initial phase of anti-tuberculosis treatment. Levofloxacin is not typically used in the initial phase of anti-tuberculosis treatment, but it may be used in combination with other agents if standard treatment is discontinued due to hepatotoxicity. Pyridoxine, which is vitamin B6, is not utilized in the treatment of tuberculosis.

      P450 Enzyme System and its Inducers and Inhibitors

      The P450 enzyme system is responsible for metabolizing drugs in the body. Induction of this system usually requires prolonged exposure to the inducing drug, unlike P450 inhibitors, which have rapid effects. Some drugs that induce the P450 system include antiepileptics like phenytoin and carbamazepine, barbiturates such as phenobarbitone, rifampicin, St John’s Wort, chronic alcohol intake, griseofulvin, and smoking, which affects CYP1A2 and is the reason why smokers require more aminophylline.

      On the other hand, some drugs inhibit the P450 system, including antibiotics like ciprofloxacin and erythromycin, isoniazid, cimetidine, omeprazole, amiodarone, allopurinol, imidazoles such as ketoconazole and fluconazole, SSRIs like fluoxetine and sertraline, ritonavir, sodium valproate, and acute alcohol intake. It is important to be aware of these inducers and inhibitors as they can affect the metabolism and efficacy of drugs in the body. Proper dosing and monitoring can help ensure safe and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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  • Question 23 - A 32-year-old man has had > 15 very short relationships in the past...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man has had > 15 very short relationships in the past year, all of which he thought were the love of his life. He is prone to impulsive behaviour such as excessive spending and binge drinking, and he has experimented with drugs. He also engages in self-harm.
      Which of the following personality disorders most accurately describes him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Borderline personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Understanding Personality Disorders: Clusters and Traits

      Personality disorders can be categorized into three main clusters based on their characteristics. Cluster A includes odd or eccentric personalities such as schizoid and paranoid personality disorder. Schizoid individuals tend to be emotionally detached and struggle with forming close relationships, while paranoid individuals are suspicious and distrustful of others.

      Cluster B includes dramatic, erratic, or emotional personalities such as borderline and histrionic personality disorder. Borderline individuals often have intense and unstable relationships, exhibit impulsive behavior, and may have a history of self-harm or suicide attempts. Histrionic individuals are attention-seeking, manipulative, and tend to be overly dramatic.

      Cluster C includes anxious personalities such as obsessive-compulsive personality disorder. These individuals tend to be perfectionists, controlling, and overly cautious.

      Understanding the different clusters and traits associated with personality disorders can help individuals recognize and seek appropriate treatment for themselves or loved ones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 24 - A 7-year-old girl is brought in for evaluation. Her medical records indicate that...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl is brought in for evaluation. Her medical records indicate that she has previously received treatment for constipation, but is generally healthy. The mother reports that the child is currently passing only one hard stool every 3-4 days, which resembles 'rabbit droppings'. There is no history of overflow soiling or diarrhea. The abdominal examination is normal. What is the most suitable initial intervention?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Advice on diet/fluid intake + Movicol Paediatric Plain

      Explanation:

      Understanding and Managing Constipation in Children

      Constipation is a common problem in children, with the frequency of bowel movements decreasing as they age. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the diagnosis and management of constipation in children. A diagnosis of constipation is suggested by two or more symptoms, including infrequent bowel movements, hard stools, and associated distress or pain. Most cases of constipation in children are idiopathic, but other causes such as dehydration, low-fiber diet, and medication use should be considered and excluded.

      If a diagnosis of constipation is made, NICE recommends assessing for faecal impaction before starting treatment. Treatment for faecal impaction involves using polyethylene glycol 3350 + electrolytes (Movicol Paediatric Plain) as the first-line treatment, with the addition of a stimulant laxative if necessary. Maintenance therapy involves a similar regime, with adjustments to the starting dose and the addition of other laxatives if necessary.

      It is important to note that dietary interventions alone are not recommended as first-line treatment, although ensuring adequate fluid and fiber intake is important. Regular toileting and non-punitive behavioral interventions should also be considered. For infants, extra water, gentle abdominal massage, and bicycling the legs can be helpful for constipation. If these measures are not effective, lactulose can be added.

      In summary, constipation in children can be managed effectively with a combination of medication, dietary adjustments, and behavioral interventions. It is important to follow NICE guidelines and consider the individual needs of each child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 25 - A 32-year-old patient presents with a month-long fever and occasional afebrile episodes. Blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old patient presents with a month-long fever and occasional afebrile episodes. Blood cultures and infection screening have yielded negative results. During examination, the patient has a temperature of 38°C and nontender lymph nodes in the neck. What is the most crucial step in reaching a diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lymph node biopsy

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Lymph Node Biopsy in Diagnosing Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

      When it comes to diagnosing Hodgkin’s lymphoma, a lymph node biopsy is the most reliable method. Fine-needle aspiration should not be used as the sole method for diagnosis. In addition to the biopsy, a thorough evaluation should include a medical history and examination, blood tests, liver function tests, serum protein tests, HIV testing, chest radiograph, CT scans, and bone marrow biopsy. Gallium scans can also be performed to document radioisotope uptake by the tumor. Lymphangiography may be necessary if the presentation of Hodgkin’s lymphoma is subdiaphragmatic. While a raised ESR can indicate Hodgkin’s lymphoma, it is not the most important step in obtaining a diagnosis. Similarly, repeating a CRP test or blood cultures would not be appropriate if the initial results were negative. In summary, a lymph node biopsy is crucial in diagnosing Hodgkin’s lymphoma and should be the first step in the evaluation process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 26 - A 58-year-old male patient contacts the GP clinic complaining of severe headache and...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old male patient contacts the GP clinic complaining of severe headache and right eye pain that started 5 hours ago while he was watching a movie in the cinema. He also experienced blurred vision, nausea, and vomiting once. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute angle closure glaucoma

      Explanation:

      Acute angle closure glaucoma is identified by symptoms such as eye pain, reduced visual clarity, aggravation with mydriasis (e.g. in a dark cinema), and haloes around lights. It may also cause a general feeling of illness. Migraine with aura is an unlikely diagnosis as it does not involve eye pain. Sudden painless loss of vision is a symptom of vitreous haemorrhage. While optic neuritis can cause eye pain, it typically does not worsen with mydriasis.

      Glaucoma is a group of disorders that cause optic neuropathy due to increased intraocular pressure (IOP). However, not all patients with raised IOP have glaucoma, and vice versa. Acute angle-closure glaucoma (AACG) is a type of glaucoma where there is a rise in IOP due to impaired aqueous outflow. Factors that increase the risk of AACG include hypermetropia, pupillary dilatation, and lens growth associated with age. Symptoms of AACG include severe pain, decreased visual acuity, haloes around lights, and a hard, red-eye. Management of AACG is an emergency and requires urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. Emergency medical treatment is necessary to lower the IOP, followed by definitive surgical treatment once the acute attack has subsided.

      There are no specific guidelines for the initial medical treatment of AACG, but a combination of eye drops may be used, including a direct parasympathomimetic, a beta-blocker, and an alpha-2 agonist. Intravenous acetazolamide may also be administered to reduce aqueous secretions. Definitive management of AACG involves laser peripheral iridotomy, which creates a small hole in the peripheral iris to allow aqueous humour to flow to the angle. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if symptoms of AACG are present to prevent permanent vision loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 27 - A 72-year-old male presents with weight loss and heat intolerance. He is taking...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old male presents with weight loss and heat intolerance. He is taking multiple medications for atrial fibrillation, ischaemic heart disease and rheumatoid arthritis. Thyroid function tests are requested and the results are shown in the table below:
      Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 0.2 mU/L
      Free T4 35 pmol/L
      What is the most likely cause of these findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amiodarone

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone and Thyroid Dysfunction

      Amiodarone is a medication used to treat heart rhythm disorders. However, around 1 in 6 patients taking amiodarone develop thyroid dysfunction. This can manifest as either amiodarone-induced hypothyroidism (AIH) or amiodarone-induced thyrotoxicosis (AIT).

      The pathophysiology of AIH is thought to be due to the high iodine content of amiodarone causing a Wolff-Chaikoff effect. This is an autoregulatory phenomenon where thyroxine formation is inhibited due to high levels of circulating iodide. Despite this, amiodarone may be continued if desirable.

      On the other hand, AIT may be divided into two types: type 1 and type 2. Type 1 is caused by excess iodine-induced thyroid hormone synthesis, while type 2 is caused by amiodarone-related destructive thyroiditis. In patients with AIT, amiodarone should be stopped if possible.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor patients taking amiodarone for any signs of thyroid dysfunction and adjust treatment accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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  • Question 28 - A 35-year-old woman presents with amenorrhoea and occasional breast discharge. She has never...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with amenorrhoea and occasional breast discharge. She has never been pregnant and has not been sexually active for the past year. She is not on any regular medications and has had regular menstrual cycles in the past. On breast examination, there are no palpable abnormalities and she has normal secondary sexual characteristics. What is the most appropriate initial investigation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prolactin level

      Explanation:

      Investigating Hyperprolactinaemia: Tests and Imaging

      Hyperprolactinaemia is a condition characterized by elevated levels of prolactin, often caused by a microadenoma in the pituitary gland. While no single test can determine the cause of hyperprolactinaemia, a prolactinoma is likely if the prolactin level is above 250 ng/ml. Inhibitory effects of raised prolactin may result in low levels of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), but this is not diagnostic. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is the preferred imaging technique for investigating the cause of hyperprolactinaemia, rather than a skull computed tomography (CT) or X-ray, which may only show enlarged pituitary fossa with large adenomas. Additionally, thyroid function tests may be necessary to investigate mildly raised prolactin levels in the absence of pituitary pathology.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 29 - A 78-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of left-sided...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of left-sided weakness, facial droop, and dysphasia that started 3 hours ago. He has a medical history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, diabetes mellitus, and asthma.

      Upon examination, his pulse is regular at 88 beats per minute, respiratory rate is 15 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation is 97% on room air. His temperature is 37.4ºC, blood pressure is 215/120 mmHg, and blood sugar is 6.8mmol/L. Heart sounds are normal, lungs are clear, and abdomen is soft and nontender. Neurological examination reveals left hemianopia and 0/5 power in the left upper and lower limbs.

      Before considering thrombolysis, what additional steps should be taken based on the patient's examination findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe labetalol

      Explanation:

      Before considering thrombolysis for a patient, it is crucial to ensure that their blood pressure is well-controlled. If the patient’s blood pressure is above 200/120mmHg, thrombolysis cannot be performed. In such cases, medications like Labetalol are administered to rapidly lower the blood pressure. The other options mentioned are not suitable as the patient’s chest and BM examinations were normal. Additionally, statins do not play a role in the acute management of stroke.

      The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The management of acute stroke includes maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage. Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends thrombectomy for people who have acute ischaemic stroke and confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation demonstrated by computed tomographic angiography or magnetic resonance angiography. Secondary prevention includes the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 30 - A 32-year-old woman with epilepsy complains of acne and bleeding gums. Which medication...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman with epilepsy complains of acne and bleeding gums. Which medication is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phenytoin

      Explanation:

      Side Effects of Common Anticonvulsants

      Anticonvulsants are medications used to treat seizures and epilepsy. However, they commonly have side effects that patients should be aware of. Here are some of the common or more serious side effects reported for some of the most commonly prescribed anticonvulsants:

      Phenytoin: This medication can cause paraesthesia, gingival hypertrophy, tiredness, acne, hirsutism, coarsening of facial appearance, peripheral neuropathy, Steven-Johnson syndrome, and blood dyscrasias (such as aplastic anaemia and megaloblastic anaemia).

      Sodium valproate (Epilim®): Side effects of this medication may include weight gain, thrombocytopenia, transient hair loss, aggression and behavioural changes, ataxia and tremors.

      Carbamazepine: Dry mouth, fatigue, hyponatraemia, blood dyscrasia (such as aplastic anaemia), thrombocytopenia, haemolytic anaemia, eosinophilia, dermatitis, gynaecomastia, male infertility, hepatitis, and restlessness are all possible side effects of this medication.

      Lamotrigine (Lamictal®): Skin rash and hypersensitivity, blurred vision, dizziness, sleep disturbance, and joint pains are some of the side effects that may occur with this medication.

      Levetiracetam (Keppra®): Weight change and anorexia, abdominal pains, nausea, diarrhoea, and anxiety are all possible side effects of this medication.

      It’s important to note that gingival hypertrophy and tenderness are common effects of phenytoin, but not the other medications listed. Patients taking phenytoin should be encouraged to maintain good oral hygiene. Overall, patients should be aware of the potential side effects of their anticonvulsant medication and discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Respiratory Medicine (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (0/1) 0%
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