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  • Question 1 - You refer a 50-year-old patient with suspected dementia to the Memory clinic after...

    Incorrect

    • You refer a 50-year-old patient with suspected dementia to the Memory clinic after a mini-mental state exam indicates mild cognitive impairment. A dementia blood screen performed by yourself is normal. What is the most appropriate role of neuroimaging in the evaluation of patients with suspected dementia?

      Your Answer: Should only be performed if focal neurology found on examination

      Correct Answer: Neuroimaging is required in all cases

      Explanation:

      According to the NICE guidelines, neuroimaging is necessary for the diagnosis of dementia. Structural imaging, such as magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) or computed tomography (CT) scanning, should be used to rule out other cerebral pathologies and to aid in determining the subtype diagnosis. MRI is preferred for early diagnosis and detecting subcortical vascular changes. However, in cases where the diagnosis is already clear in individuals with moderate to severe dementia, imaging may not be necessary. It is important to seek specialist advice when interpreting scans in individuals with learning disabilities.

      Dementia is a condition that affects a significant number of people in the UK, with Alzheimer’s disease being the most common cause followed by vascular and Lewy body dementia. Diagnosis can be challenging and often delayed, but assessment tools such as the 10-point cognitive screener and 6-Item cognitive impairment test are recommended by NICE for non-specialist settings. However, tools like the abbreviated mental test score, General practitioner assessment of cognition, and mini-mental state examination are not recommended. A score of 24 or less out of 30 on the MMSE suggests dementia.

      In primary care, a blood screen is usually conducted to exclude reversible causes like hypothyroidism. NICE recommends tests such as FBC, U&E, LFTs, calcium, glucose, ESR/CRP, TFTs, vitamin B12, and folate levels. Patients are often referred to old-age psychiatrists working in memory clinics. In secondary care, neuroimaging is performed to exclude other reversible conditions like subdural haematoma and normal pressure hydrocephalus and provide information on aetiology to guide prognosis and management. The 2011 NICE guidelines state that structural imaging is essential in investigating dementia.

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  • Question 2 - A 75-year-old gentleman recently began taking donepezil for his moderate dementia. His family...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old gentleman recently began taking donepezil for his moderate dementia. His family became worried when they noticed he was more confused than usual. During examination, he displayed muscle rigidity, sweating, tremors, and was pyrexial. Repeated BP readings were: 160/90, 100/70, 150/80. A urine dipstick test came back negative, and his lung fields were clear upon auscultation. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

      Correct Answer: Pneumonia

      Explanation:

      Clues and Considerations for Patients on AChE Inhibitors

      When a patient presents with unexplained pyrexia, autonomic dysfunction, and muscle rigidity, a GP should take note of recent medication changes, such as the initiation of donepezil. These symptoms may indicate a serious adverse reaction to acetylcholinesterase (AChE) inhibitors, which are becoming more commonly prescribed. In such cases, the GP should discuss the case with the on-call medical team for an immediate review.

      To better understand the potential side effects of AChE inhibitors, it is helpful to review the CKS link provided below. This resource outlines both common and rare adverse reactions to these medications, which can range from gastrointestinal disturbances to more serious neurological symptoms. By staying informed and vigilant, healthcare providers can help ensure the safe and effective use of AChE inhibitors for their patients.

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  • Question 3 - An 80-year-old man is accompanied by his family who are worried about his...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man is accompanied by his family who are worried about his memory and behavior in the last six months. To rule out any reversible causes, a cognitive assessment is conducted which appears to validate the family's apprehensions. A set of blood tests are ordered, including a complete blood count, liver function tests, urea and electrolytes, and bone profile. What other blood tests should be requested?

      Your Answer: Thyroid function tests, vitamin B12, folate, glucose

      Explanation:

      Patients who are suspected to have dementia should undergo a blood screen that includes FBC, U&E, LFTs, calcium, glucose, ESR/CRP, TFTs, vitamin B12, and folate levels to identify any reversible causes. However, NICE doesn’t recommend routine testing for syphilis and HIV.

      Dementia is a condition that affects a significant number of people in the UK, with Alzheimer’s disease being the most common cause followed by vascular and Lewy body dementia. Diagnosis can be challenging and often delayed, but assessment tools such as the 10-point cognitive screener and 6-Item cognitive impairment test are recommended by NICE for non-specialist settings. However, tools like the abbreviated mental test score, General practitioner assessment of cognition, and mini-mental state examination are not recommended. A score of 24 or less out of 30 on the MMSE suggests dementia.

      In primary care, a blood screen is usually conducted to exclude reversible causes like hypothyroidism. NICE recommends tests such as FBC, U&E, LFTs, calcium, glucose, ESR/CRP, TFTs, vitamin B12, and folate levels. Patients are often referred to old-age psychiatrists working in memory clinics. In secondary care, neuroimaging is performed to exclude other reversible conditions like subdural haematoma and normal pressure hydrocephalus and provide information on aetiology to guide prognosis and management. The 2011 NICE guidelines state that structural imaging is essential in investigating dementia.

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  • Question 4 - When conducting a yearly evaluation for a senior living facility resident with multiple...

    Incorrect

    • When conducting a yearly evaluation for a senior living facility resident with multiple comorbidities, you observe that he has a heart rate of 57, indicating bradycardia. Which of his medications could be causing this side effect?

      Your Answer: Tamsulosin

      Correct Answer: Donepezil

      Explanation:

      Donepezil is a drug used for treating Alzheimer’s disease, but it may cause bradycardia as a side effect, along with other adverse reactions such as gastrointestinal problems, agitation, hallucinations, and syncope. Patients with conduction abnormalities or those taking negatively chronotropic medications like beta blockers, rate-limiting calcium channel blockers, or digoxin should use caution when taking these drugs. Although specialists like psychiatrists, elderly care specialists, and neurologists typically initiate the use of these medications, GPs may be asked to prescribe and monitor them under Shared Care Agreements, so it’s important to be aware of potential prescribing issues. The BNF lists neuroleptic malignant syndrome as a very rare adverse reaction.

      Dementia is a condition that affects a significant number of people in the UK, with Alzheimer’s disease being the most common cause followed by vascular and Lewy body dementia. Diagnosis can be challenging and often delayed, but assessment tools such as the 10-point cognitive screener and 6-Item cognitive impairment test are recommended by NICE for non-specialist settings. However, tools like the abbreviated mental test score, General practitioner assessment of cognition, and mini-mental state examination are not recommended. A score of 24 or less out of 30 on the MMSE suggests dementia.

      In primary care, a blood screen is usually conducted to exclude reversible causes like hypothyroidism. NICE recommends tests such as FBC, U&E, LFTs, calcium, glucose, ESR/CRP, TFTs, vitamin B12, and folate levels. Patients are often referred to old-age psychiatrists working in memory clinics. In secondary care, neuroimaging is performed to exclude other reversible conditions like subdural haematoma and normal pressure hydrocephalus and provide information on aetiology to guide prognosis and management. The 2011 NICE guidelines state that structural imaging is essential in investigating dementia.

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  • Question 5 - Which of the following is not a known cause of acute pancreatitis in...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not a known cause of acute pancreatitis in elderly patients?

      Your Answer: Hypocalcaemia

      Explanation:

      Acute pancreatitis can be caused by hypercalcaemia, rather than hypocalcaemia.

      Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is primarily caused by gallstones and alcohol consumption in the UK. However, there are other factors that can contribute to the development of this condition. A popular mnemonic used to remember these factors is GET SMASHED, which stands for gallstones, ethanol, trauma, steroids, mumps, autoimmune diseases, scorpion venom, hypertriglyceridaemia, hyperchylomicronaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypothermia, ERCP, and certain drugs. It is important to note that pancreatitis is seven times more common in patients taking mesalazine than sulfasalazine. CT scans can show diffuse parenchymal enlargement with oedema and indistinct margins in patients with acute pancreatitis.

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  • Question 6 - A 75-year-old gentleman has just begun taking galantamine for his moderate dementia. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old gentleman has just begun taking galantamine for his moderate dementia. He initially experienced a runny nose and dry cough. Presently, he is expressing concern about new mouth ulcers, a tender red rash on his trunk, and feeling generally unwell. When his skin is gently rubbed, blisters appear.

      What is the MOST PROBABLE diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Stevens-Johnson syndrome

      Correct Answer: Shingles

      Explanation:

      Galantamine and Serious Skin Reactions

      Clues that suggest a diagnosis of serious skin reactions include the recent use of galantamine, a prodromal illness, a tender red rash with mucosal involvement, and a positive Nikolsky sign. Patients taking galantamine should be informed about the signs of serious skin reactions and advised to discontinue the medication at the first appearance of a skin rash. Galantamine is known to increase the risk of developing Stevens-Johnson syndrome, erythema multiforme, and acute generalized exanthematous pustulosis. As the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors is becoming more common, it is important to review the common and rare side effects of these medications.

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  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old lady, with stable schizophrenia, had a routine ECG which showed a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old lady, with stable schizophrenia, had a routine ECG which showed a QTc interval of 480 ms. She takes only takes oral quetiapine regularly. She reported no symptoms and was otherwise well. Blood tests including electrolytes were normal.

      Which is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step?

      Your Answer: Stop quetiapine

      Correct Answer: Repeat ECG

      Explanation:

      Management of QTc Prolongation in a Psychiatric Patient

      It is important to seek advice from psychiatry before making any changes to medications in a psychiatric patient. Abruptly stopping an antipsychotic medication could lead to acute deterioration in the patient’s mental health.

      When managing QTc prolongation, it is important to consider the normal values for QTc, which are < 440 ms in men and <470 ms in women. The degree to which the QTc is increased is relevant to the next step of management. If the QTc is >500 ms or there is abnormal T-wave morphology, it would require discussion with the on-call cardiology team and consideration of stopping the suspected causative drug(s).

      Lithium would not typically be initiated by a general practitioner and would not be indicated in this case. Therefore, it is most appropriate to discuss with psychiatry for their advice. They may recommend lowering the antipsychotic dose and repeating the ECG. Proper management of QTc prolongation in a psychiatric patient requires collaboration between psychiatry and cardiology.

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  • Question 8 - What is the most suitable first-line medication for a 75-year-old woman with depression...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most suitable first-line medication for a 75-year-old woman with depression in primary care, assuming there are no contraindications?

      Your Answer: Sertraline

      Correct Answer: Amitriptylline

      Explanation:

      Pharmacological Options for Treating Depression in the Elderly

      There are several pharmacological options available for treating depression in the elderly, including selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), tricyclics, monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs), and serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs). However, all medications carry the risk of side effects, which may be more problematic in older patients who are more likely to be on additional medications and more susceptible to iatrogenic disease.

      A 2006 Cochrane review found that SSRIs and tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) were of equivalent efficacy, but TCAs were associated with a greater withdrawal rate due to side effects. The general view based on available evidence is that SSRIs are better tolerated and generally safer, although there are instances when a TCA may be more appropriate. For example, its sedative properties can be useful when a sleep disorder is part of the clinical problem.

      Of the options, sertraline is the only SSRI and is generally considered the most appropriate first-line treatment option in the absence of contraindications. Amitriptyline is a TCA and would generally not be used ahead of an SSRI. MAOIs should be prescribed by a specialist, and venlafaxine is considered a second-line option due to its greater risk of death from overdose. Haloperidol, an antipsychotic, should not be considered as an initial option in the treatment of depression.

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  • Question 9 - A 67-year-old smoker with severe bilateral carotid artery stenosis is seen following discharge...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old smoker with severe bilateral carotid artery stenosis is seen following discharge after suffering an ischaemic stroke. He has been treated with antiplatelet medication, lipid lowering medication and antihypertensives. He is following a smoking prevention programme and is in sinus rhythm. Apart from hypertension, there is no other relevant history.

      According to NICE CKS Guidance, what is the target systolic blood pressure range for this patient?

      Your Answer: 130-140

      Correct Answer: 120-130

      Explanation:

      Target Systolic Blood Pressure Range for Patients with Severe Bilateral Carotid Artery Stenosis

      When managing blood pressure following stroke or TIA, it is important to consider the presence of severe bilateral carotid artery stenosis. For most patients, the target systolic blood pressure should be below 130mmHg. However, in the presence of severe bilateral carotid artery stenosis, the target systolic blood pressure range should be between 140-150mmHg.

      It is important to note that other considerations such as lifestyle advice, lipid lowering therapy, and antiplatelets should also be taken into account. However, when specifically asked about the target systolic blood pressure range, it is important to focus on this without distraction. Treatment for hypertension may include a thiazide-like diuretic, long-acting calcium channel blocker, or angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor. By considering the presence of severe bilateral carotid artery stenosis, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate management for their patients.

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  • Question 10 - You are summoned to the residence of an 82-year-old man who is receiving...

    Incorrect

    • You are summoned to the residence of an 82-year-old man who is receiving home care for advanced prostate cancer. His condition has been declining for the past week and he has been under the care of community nurses. The nurses inform you that he has become increasingly 'bubbly' in the last 24 hours. Upon examination, you observe that he is experiencing uncontrollable respiratory secretions at the end of his life. What is the most suitable course of action to alleviate these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Morphine orally 5 mg every four hours

      Correct Answer: Hyoscine hydrobromide 400-600 micrograms subcutaneously every 4-8 hours

      Explanation:

      Managing Excessive Respiratory Secretions with Antimuscarinics

      Excessive respiratory secretions can be a distressing symptom for patients, particularly those at the end of life. Antimuscarinics are the most commonly used medications to help manage this symptom. Hyoscine hydrobromide is a commonly used antimuscarinic and can be given at a dose of 400-600 micrograms every four to eight hours. It can also be administered via a patch, which may be more acceptable to some patients. However, dry mouth is a common side effect.

      For patients who are less ill with intermittent symptoms, oral carbocisteine and nebulised saline may be effective in managing secretions. Nebulised saline can also be tried in more severe cases, but for intractable end-of-life secretions, antimuscarinics such as hyoscine hydrobromide are the best treatment option. If indicated, hyoscine hydrobromide can be given via a syringe driver to reduce the need for repeated injections.

      Other antimuscarinics that can be used include hyoscine butylbromide and glycopyrronium bromide. It is important to work closely with healthcare professionals to determine the most appropriate treatment plan for each individual patient.

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  • Question 11 - You are evaluating a 79-year-old patient with suspected heart failure. He was seen...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 79-year-old patient with suspected heart failure. He was seen a few days ago with gradual onset exertional breathlessness over the last few months and a clinical diagnosis of cardiac failure was made.

      He reports reduced exercise tolerance, being easily fatigued and some mild breathlessness lying flat in bed at night. He has never smoked and aside from a 10 year history of hypertension is otherwise fit and well with no other medical problems. He takes lisinopril 10 mg OD.

      On examination he is comfortable at rest sitting in a chair with no appreciable shortness of breath. He has very subtle pitting pedal oedema and some scattered bibasal crepitations on auscultation of the chest. Heart sounds are normal. Pulse rate is 72 bpm, blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg, oxygen saturations are 95% in room air.

      On reviewing the patient today with some initial investigations you can see that his chest x ray has been reported as 'cardiothoracic ratio is at the upper limit of normal with clear lung fields' and his ECG shows sinus rhythm with no evidence of previous myocardial infarction and no left ventricular hypertrophy or bundle branch block.

      His blood tests show a 'raised' brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) level of 900 ng/l.

      What is the next step in your management?

      Your Answer: Refer for specialist assessment and echocardiography within 2 weeks

      Correct Answer: Referral for specialist assessment not needed, initiate treatment for heart failure in primary care

      Explanation:

      The Importance of SNP Measurement in Suspected Heart Failure

      Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) and N terminal-pro-BNP (NT-proBNP) are peptide hormones produced in the heart that can help diagnose heart failure. Elevated levels of these hormones in the blood are indicative of cardiac failure and tend to correlate with the severity of the condition.

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends that SNP measurement be performed in patients with suspected heart failure to determine which patients should be referred for specialist assessment and echocardiography. It is important to note that the units used to measure SNP levels may vary between labs, so it is crucial to consider the units when interpreting the results.

      If a patient has a raised BNP level, they should be referred for assessment within six weeks. However, if a patient presents with signs and symptoms of heart failure and has previously had a myocardial infarction, SNP measurement may not be necessary, and they should be referred directly for assessment within two weeks.

      In summary, SNP measurement is a valuable tool in diagnosing heart failure and can help determine the appropriate course of action for patients with suspected cardiac failure.

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  • Question 12 - A 68-year-old female presents with fatigue and episodic palpitations.

    She presents during one...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old female presents with fatigue and episodic palpitations.

      She presents during one of these episodes and the ECG reveals atrial fibrillation which resolves within 30 minutes.

      What would be the most appropriate next investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer: Thyroid function tests

      Explanation:

      Paroxysmal Atrial Fibrillation: Possible Causes and Diagnostic Tests

      Paroxysmal atrial fibrillation (AF) can have various underlying causes, including thyrotoxicosis, mitral stenosis, ischaemic heart disease, and alcohol consumption. Therefore, it is essential to conduct thyroid function tests to aid in the diagnosis of AF, as it can be challenging to identify based solely on clinical symptoms. Additionally, an echocardiogram should be requested to evaluate left ventricular function and valve function, which would be obtained from a cardiologist. However, coronary angiography is unlikely to be performed. A full blood count, calcium, erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), or lipid tests would not be useful in characterizing and treating AF. By conducting these diagnostic tests, healthcare professionals can identify the underlying cause of AF and provide appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 13 - A 72-year-old man is admitted to hospital with shortness of breath. He is...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man is admitted to hospital with shortness of breath. He is diagnosed with atrial fibrillation and heart failure.

      Whilst in hospital he is started on:
      Aspirin 75 mg OD
      Simvastatin 40 mg ON
      Bisoprolol 5 mg OD
      Digoxin 125 mcg OD
      Ramipril 10 mg OD and
      Furosemide 40 mg OD.

      He comes to see you a few days after discharge complaining of feeling generally unwell. His wife tells you that he has been a bit confused and that he has vomited on several occasions. The patient also reports that his vision is blurred and has a yellow tinge to it.

      On examination, he is in atrial fibrillation at a rate of 60 beats per minute, his chest is clear and he has minimal pedal oedema.

      He was seen two days ago by the practice nurse for blood tests.
      The results showed
      Sodium 136 mmol/L (137 - 144)
      Potassium 2.8 mmol/L (3.5 - 4.9)
      Urea 6.4 mmol/L (2.5 - 7.5)
      Creatinine 124 μmol/L (60 - 110)

      What is the underlying cause of his unwellness?

      Your Answer: Renal artery stenosis

      Explanation:

      Symptoms of Digoxin Toxicity

      This patient is exhibiting symptoms of digoxin toxicity, which can occur when taking the medication for heart failure or atrial fibrillation. Hypokalaemia increases the risk of developing digoxin toxicity, which can cause confusion, vomiting, blurred vision, and xanthopsia (yellow tinge to vision). While confusion may also indicate an embolic CVA, the other symptoms do not fit. Liver failure would cause jaundice, but the patient’s vision has a yellow tinge, not their sclerae. Renal artery stenosis is usually suspected if renal function deteriorates after starting an ACE inhibitor, but the patient’s urea is normal. Therefore, the patient should be admitted to the hospital immediately for assessment and treatment. Digoxin-specific antibody fragments (Digibind ®) are available for use in cases of life-threatening overdosage, and may be necessary beyond withdrawing the digoxin and correcting any electrolyte abnormalities.

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  • Question 14 - A 72-year-old lady comes to your clinic complaining of headaches that have been...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old lady comes to your clinic complaining of headaches that have been bothering her for the past four months. She reports that the pain is located over the right fronto-parietal area and describes it as a constant dull ache that is worse at night and sometimes wakes her up from sleep. She has tried taking paracetamol, but it hasn't provided much relief. She denies experiencing any nausea, vomiting, loss of consciousness, seizures, forgetfulness, or tinnitus. Her medical history includes breast cancer at the age of 35, which required a right mastectomy. She has been managing her hypertension with amlodipine 10 mg daily for the past ten years. On examination, there is evidence of mild osteoarthritis in several joints, a right-sided mastectomy scar, and no neurological abnormalities or papilloedema. What is the next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Refer urgently for further investigation

      Correct Answer: Reassure the patient and advise her to re-attend if the symptoms worsen or she notices new signs or symptoms

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral for Cancer Patients with Neurological Symptoms

      In patients previously diagnosed with cancer, urgent referral is necessary if they develop any new neurological symptoms such as recent onset seizure, persistent headache, progressive neurological deficit, new mental or cognitive changes, or new neurological signs. Although amlodipine can cause headaches, if the patient has been taking the medication for a long time without problems, it is unlikely to be the cause of the symptoms.

      The referral pathway may vary by region, but the NICE guidance on suspected cancer: recognition and referral (NG12) recommends direct access for urgent MRI instead of referral to a neurologist. This is because it results in a faster diagnostic process for adults with a tumor, as they will be referred straight to a neurosurgeon after the scan instead of first to neurology, then for a scan, and then to neurosurgery.

      It is important to note that these recommendations are not requirements and do not override clinical judgment. Primary care clinicians have expertise in recognizing patients who are ill and knowing when something is wrong. Therefore, clinicians should trust their clinical experience where there are particular reasons that this guidance doesn’t pertain to the specific presentation of the patient.

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  • Question 15 - A 79-year-old male patient of yours scores 7/10 on the abbreviated mental test...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old male patient of yours scores 7/10 on the abbreviated mental test score.
      He says he is a bit worried about his memory. He is a retired lawyer. The three questions he got wrong related to short-term memory loss.
      What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Undertake a full assessment

      Correct Answer: Diagnose dementia

      Explanation:

      Management of Memory Loss in the Elderly

      MRCGP candidates are expected to have an understanding of the management of conditions commonly associated with old age, including memory loss. However, the correct course of management for memory loss would be to undertake a full assessment in the first instance. The abbreviated mental test is only a screening test and should not be used alone to form a diagnosis. If a significant problem is found, it is usual to refer to memory assessment services, which may be provided by a memory assessment clinic or community mental health teams. This should be the single point of referral for all people with a possible diagnosis of dementia. GPs would not normally initiate prescribing in this manner, although they may be involved in a shared care arrangement with specialist initiation and supervision of medication.

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  • Question 16 - You are preparing to conduct a search for all your elderly patients who...

    Incorrect

    • You are preparing to conduct a search for all your elderly patients who need the yearly flu shot. Which of the following groups should not be included in the registry?

      Your Answer: Patients with primary biliary cirrhosis

      Correct Answer: Asthmatics controlled with salbutamol only

      Explanation:

      If an asthmatic is at BTS stage 1 and only takes salbutamol, they do not require any vaccinations. However, if they are at BTS stages 2-4 and use a steroid inhaler, they should receive an annual influenza vaccination. For those with severe asthma who require regular or long-term use of prednisolone at BTS stage 5, they should receive both an annual influenza and pneumococcal vaccination.

      influenza vaccination is recommended in the UK between September and early November, as the influenza season typically starts in the middle of November. There are three types of influenza virus, with types A and B accounting for the majority of clinical disease. Prior to 2013, flu vaccination was only offered to the elderly and at-risk groups. However, a new NHS influenza vaccination programme for children was announced in 2013, with the children’s vaccine given intranasally and annually after the first dose at 2-3 years. It is important to note that the type of vaccine given to children and the one given to the elderly and at-risk groups is different, which explains the different contraindications.

      For adults and at-risk groups, current vaccines are trivalent and consist of two subtypes of influenza A and one subtype of influenza B. The Department of Health recommends annual influenza vaccination for all people older than 65 years and those older than 6 months with chronic respiratory, heart, kidney, liver, neurological disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, asplenia or splenic dysfunction, or a body mass index >= 40 kg/m². Other at-risk individuals include health and social care staff, those living in long-stay residential care homes, and carers of the elderly or disabled person whose welfare may be at risk if the carer becomes ill.

      The influenza vaccine is an inactivated vaccine that cannot cause influenza, but a minority of patients may develop fever and malaise that lasts 1-2 days. It should be stored between +2 and +8ºC and shielded from light, and contraindications include hypersensitivity to egg protein. In adults, the vaccination is around 75% effective, although this figure decreases in the elderly. It takes around 10-14 days after immunisation before antibody levels are at protective levels.

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  • Question 17 - A 68-year-old man attends for his annual COPD review.

    As part of his assessment...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man attends for his annual COPD review.

      As part of his assessment you discuss his symptoms. He tells you that he can walk around without any problems on level ground but if he has to hurry or walk up an incline then he becomes breathless and has to stop to catch his breath.

      How would you grade his degree of breathlessness according to the Medical Research Council (MRC) dyspnoea scale?

      Your Answer: Grade 2

      Correct Answer: Grade 1

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Grading Patients’ Symptoms

      Grading patients’ symptoms is a crucial aspect of assessing disease severity, tailoring treatment, and monitoring treatment effect. One useful tool for this purpose is the Medical Research Council (MRC) dyspnoea scale, which has been introduced as part of the quality and outcomes framework in General practice. As part of the COPD assessment, it is essential to record the MRC grading in the patient notes.

      The MRC dyspnoea scale grades the degree of breathlessness related to activities. The scale ranges from grade 0, where the patient is not troubled by breathlessness except on strenuous exercise, to grade 4, where the patient is too breathless to leave the house or breathless when dressing or undressing. By using this scale, healthcare professionals can accurately assess the severity of a patient’s symptoms and tailor treatment accordingly. It is essential to record the MRC grading in the patient notes to monitor treatment effect and adjust treatment plans as necessary. Overall, grading patients’ symptoms is a crucial aspect of providing effective healthcare and improving patient outcomes.

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  • Question 18 - At what age will a death certified as due to old age or...

    Correct

    • At what age will a death certified as due to old age or senility alone not be referred to the coroner?

      Your Answer: 80

      Explanation:

      Changes in Acceptable Age for Old Age as Sole Cause of Death

      The acceptable age for old age as the sole cause of death has changed from 70 years to 80 years. Doctors are now advised to avoid using old age alone as a cause of death whenever possible. However, there are limited circumstances where it is acceptable, such as when the doctor has personally cared for the deceased over a long period, observed a gradual decline in their health and functioning, and is not aware of any identifiable disease or injury that contributed to the death. In such cases, the doctor must be certain that there is no reason to report the death to the coroner. For more information, doctors can refer to the Guidance for doctors completing Medical Certificates of Cause of Death in England and Wales from the Office for National Statistics’ Death Certification Advisory Group.

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  • Question 19 - A 65-year-old woman is seen for follow-up. You had previously seen her with...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman is seen for follow-up. You had previously seen her with chronic shortness of breath and symptoms of heart failure. After primary care investigation, she was urgently referred to the cardiologists due to an abnormal ECG and elevated brain natriuretic peptide level. The echocardiogram performed by the cardiologists confirmed a diagnosis of heart failure with left ventricular dysfunction.
      Her current medications include: lisinopril 10 mg daily, atorvastatin 20 mg daily, furosemide 20 mg daily, and pantoprazole 40 mg daily.
      During examination, her blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg, pulse rate is 75 beats per minute and regular, her lungs are clear, and heart sounds are normal. There is no peripheral edema.
      What is the most appropriate next step in her pharmacological management at this point?

      Your Answer: No additional medication indicated

      Correct Answer: Add in bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      Beta-Blockers for Heart Failure Patients

      Beta-blockers are recommended for all patients with heart failure due to left ventricular systolic dysfunction, regardless of age or comorbidities such as peripheral vascular disease, interstitial pulmonary disease, erectile dysfunction, diabetes, or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease without reversibility. However, asthma is a contraindication to beta-blocker use.

      Bisoprolol, carvedilol, or nebivolol are the beta-blockers of choice for treating chronic heart failure due to left ventricular systolic dysfunction. These three beta-blockers have been proven effective in clinical trials and have prognostic benefits. Bisoprolol and carvedilol reduce mortality in all grades of stable heart failure, while nebivolol is licensed for stable mild to moderate heart failure in patients over the age of 70.

      Even if a patient with heart failure is currently well and showing no signs of fluid overload, beta-blockers are still recommended due to their prognostic benefits.

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  • Question 20 - A 68-year-old man presents with ankle swelling and signs of heart failure. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents with ankle swelling and signs of heart failure. He has a past medical history of hypertensive heart disease and is currently taking amlodipine and bendroflumethiazide. He was recently treated for an infection at the hospital but cannot recall the name of the medication or the infection. What are some possible causes of heart failure in this patient?

      Your Answer: Erythromycin

      Correct Answer: Itraconazole

      Explanation:

      Itraconazole and Heart Failure Risk

      The use of itraconazole, a common antifungal medication, can increase the risk of heart failure in certain patients. Those most at risk include individuals with a history of heart disease, those taking calcium antagonists, and the elderly. Patients with liver disease or who are taking statins may also experience adverse effects from itraconazole. It is recommended that baseline liver function tests be performed before starting treatment. While dyspepsia, abdominal pain, nausea, and constipation are common side effects, the negative ionotropic effect of itraconazole can lead to heart failure in susceptible patients. Therefore, itraconazole should be avoided in patients with a history of heart failure unless the benefits outweigh the risks.

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  • Question 21 - A 75-year-old woman is brought to the clinic by her son who is...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old woman is brought to the clinic by her son who is worried about her memory. A mini-mental state examination (scored out of 30) is conducted. What is the appropriate threshold to indicate the presence of dementia?

      Your Answer: 24 or less

      Explanation:

      Dementia is a condition that affects a significant number of people in the UK, with Alzheimer’s disease being the most common cause followed by vascular and Lewy body dementia. Diagnosis can be challenging and often delayed, but assessment tools such as the 10-point cognitive screener and 6-Item cognitive impairment test are recommended by NICE for non-specialist settings. However, tools like the abbreviated mental test score, General practitioner assessment of cognition, and mini-mental state examination are not recommended. A score of 24 or less out of 30 on the MMSE suggests dementia.

      In primary care, a blood screen is usually conducted to exclude reversible causes like hypothyroidism. NICE recommends tests such as FBC, U&E, LFTs, calcium, glucose, ESR/CRP, TFTs, vitamin B12, and folate levels. Patients are often referred to old-age psychiatrists working in memory clinics. In secondary care, neuroimaging is performed to exclude other reversible conditions like subdural haematoma and normal pressure hydrocephalus and provide information on aetiology to guide prognosis and management. The 2011 NICE guidelines state that structural imaging is essential in investigating dementia.

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  • Question 22 - A 70-year-old man is referred with a three month history of progressive disorientation...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man is referred with a three month history of progressive disorientation and falls.

      Four weeks beforehand, he locked his wife out of their house, claiming that she was trying to steal his clothes. He had also telephoned the police in the middle of night, claiming that he could see men hiding under his bed.

      On examination, his face is expressionless, his speech is quiet and monotonic. There are no cranial nerve palsies, otherwise. Increased tone is present in all four limbs, with a slow festinant gait. Reflexes, power and sensation are all normal.

      Halfway through your examination he tells you that he is leaving the room, because of the lobsters coming through the window. Unfortunately, therefore, formal cognitive testing and basic investigations cannot be performed.

      Based on this evidence, what is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lewy body dementia

      Correct Answer: Parkinson's disease

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Parkinsonism with Dementia, Paranoia, and Visual Hallucinations

      This patient is exhibiting symptoms of parkinsonism, including bradykinesia and rigidity. However, the presence of florid visual hallucinations and paranoid ideation make Parkinson’s disease unlikely. Additionally, the patient’s normal eye movements and postural blood pressure suggest a parkinsonism plus syndrome is not the cause, while the absence of incontinence and gait abnormalities make normal pressure hydrocephalus less probable. The combination of parkinsonism with dementia, paranoia, and visual hallucinations is commonly seen in dementia with Lewy bodies. A diagnosis of Lewy body dementia should be considered in this case.

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  • Question 23 - A 72-year-old man presents to his GP with a complaint of rapidly worsening...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents to his GP with a complaint of rapidly worsening shortness of breath over the past four to five weeks. He reports bilateral ankle swelling and has experienced two episodes of gasping for breath in the past week. The patient has a history of hypertension and takes indapamide and amlodipine. On examination, his BP is 122/72, his pulse is 90 and regular, and he has bibasal crackles on chest auscultation and bilateral pitting edema. Laboratory investigations reveal a hemoglobin level of 122 g/L (135-177), white cells of 8.3 ×109/L (4-11), platelets of 182 ×109/L (150-400), sodium of 141 mmol/L (135-146), potassium of 4.7 mmol/L (3.5-5), creatinine of 122 μmol/L (79-118), and BNP of 520 pg/mL (<100). Based on the latest NICE guidance, what is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Arrange 12 lead ECG, and ECHO. If abnormal, refer to a specialist.

      Correct Answer: Commence ramipril and review in four weeks

      Explanation:

      Referral Guidelines for Suspected Heart Failure with Elevated BNP Levels

      According to NICE CG106, individuals with suspected heart failure and an NT-proBNP level between 400 and 2,000 ng/litre should be referred for specialist assessment and transthoracic echocardiography within 6 weeks. Urgent referral within 2 weeks is recommended for those with NT-proBNP levels above 2,000 ng/litre due to the poor prognosis associated with very high levels of BNP.

      For individuals with NT-proBNP levels below 400 ng/litre, alternative causes for symptoms of heart failure should be reviewed. If there is still concern that the symptoms may be related to heart failure, consultation with a physician with subspeciality training in heart failure is recommended.

      It is important to note that very high levels of BNP carry a poor prognosis with respect to both morbidity and increased risk of hospital admission and mortality from heart failure. If transthoracic echocardiogram images are poor, other imaging methods such as radionucleotide scanning or transoesophageal echo should be considered.

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  • Question 24 - A 68-year-old man presents to the clinic with his wife. She is worried...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man presents to the clinic with his wife. She is worried about his significant cognitive decline over the past few months. Throughout the day, his level of consciousness fluctuates greatly, and he often sleeps for two hours or more. One of your colleagues prescribed him benzodiazepines to aid his sleep, and he reportedly drinks a glass of whisky in the evening. Additionally, there are concerns about visual hallucinations. During the examination, you observe signs of Parkinsonism.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lewy body dementia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lewy Body Dementia

      Lewy body dementia is a unique type of dementia that shares characteristics with both dementia and Parkinson’s disease. Patients with Lewy body dementia often experience fluctuating levels of consciousness, with daytime somnolence lasting more than two hours per day. They may also experience visual hallucinations, Parkinsonian movement features, delusions, and syncopal attacks more commonly than other types of dementia.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to be able to recognize the main features of Lewy body dementia and avoid prescribing traditional neuroleptics, which can significantly impact movement and even result in sudden death for patients with this disease. With an increased emphasis on the diagnosis and management of dementia in primary care, having an awareness of the different types of dementia and their respective aetiologies and risk factors is crucial.

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  • Question 25 - At what age can the term 'Old age' be included on a death...

    Correct

    • At what age can the term 'Old age' be included on a death certificate?

      Your Answer: 80 years

      Explanation:

      The cause of death cannot be certified as ‘Old age’ unless the deceased was at least 80 years old.

      Death Certification in the UK

      There are no legal definitions of death in the UK, but guidelines exist to verify it. According to the current guidance, a doctor or other qualified personnel should verify death, and nurse practitioners may verify but not certify it. After a patient has died, a doctor needs to complete a medical certificate of cause of death (MCCD). However, there is a list of circumstances in which a doctor should notify the Coroner before completing the MCCD.

      When completing the MCCD, it is important to note that old age as 1a is only acceptable if the patient was at least 80 years old. Natural causes is not acceptable, and organ failure can only be used if the disease or condition that led to the organ failure is specified. Abbreviations should be avoided, except for HIV and AIDS.

      Once the MCCD is completed, the family takes it to the local Registrar of Births, Deaths, and Marriages office to register the death. If the Registrar decides that the death doesn’t need reporting to the Coroner, he/she will issue a certificate for Burial or Cremation and a certificate of Registration of Death for Social Security purposes. Copies of the Death Register are also available upon request, which banks and insurance companies expect to see. If the family wants the burial to be outside of England, an Out of England Order is needed from the coroner.

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  • Question 26 - What is the accurate statement about pharmacology in elderly individuals? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the accurate statement about pharmacology in elderly individuals?

      Your Answer: There tends to be a reduced plasma protein binding of drugs with age

      Correct Answer: Renal function tends to remain stable despite advancing age

      Explanation:

      Care of Older Adults in General Practice

      The Royal College of General Practitioners (RCGP) has emphasized that the care of older adults will be a significant part of a General Practitioner’s workload. It is crucial to consider issues such as comorbidity, communication difficulties, polypharmacy, and the need for support for increasingly dependent patients.

      One important factor to keep in mind is that there is a reduced plasma protein binding of drugs with age. This can result in more drug availability, leading to side effects. Additionally, declining renal and hepatic function in the elderly can make them more susceptible to drug toxicity. Therefore, it may be necessary to prescribe lower doses than those given to a healthy adult.

      As people age, their renal function tends to decline, and the rate of gastric emptying slows down. Hepatic mass and blood flow also decrease, and intestinal motility tends to decrease with age. These factors must be considered when prescribing medication to older adults.

      The British National Formulary provides guidelines for prescribing medication to the elderly, and it is essential to follow these guidelines to ensure the safety and well-being of older patients.

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  • Question 27 - An 80-year-old man who lives alone is evaluated. He has a history of...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man who lives alone is evaluated. He has a history of dementia. His neighbors are becoming worried about his behavior as they frequently observe him wandering outside in a seemingly disoriented state. You believe he may require a care package or residential care, but he adamantly refuses to consider such an option. Which legal framework is the most suitable for addressing this matter?

      Your Answer: Mental Health Act

      Correct Answer: Mental Capacity Act

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate legal framework to use for non-mental health disorders is the Mental Capacity Act. This act, which was established in 2005 and implemented in 2007, applies to individuals over the age of 16 and outlines who can make decisions on behalf of a patient who becomes incapacitated, such as after a stroke. Mental capacity encompasses the ability to make decisions regarding daily life, healthcare, and financial matters.

      The Mental Capacity Act is based on five key principles. Firstly, a person is assumed to have capacity unless it is proven otherwise. Secondly, a person should not be considered unable to make a decision unless all possible steps have been taken to assist them in doing so. Thirdly, a person should not be deemed incapable of making a decision simply because they make an unwise choice. Fourthly, any action or decision made on behalf of a person who lacks capacity must be in their best interests. Finally, before any action or decision is taken, consideration must be given to whether there is a less restrictive way to achieve the desired outcome that respects the person’s rights and freedom.

      When patients lack capacity, they are typically treated without issue. However, problems arise when these patients refuse treatment that is deemed to be in their best interest. In such cases, there are three frameworks that can be used: common law for emergency scenarios, the Mental Capacity Act for physical disorders affecting brain function, and the Mental Health Act for mental disorders. For patients already admitted to hospital, a section 5(2) may be used if there is not enough time for a more formal section 2 or 3. An example of this would be a patient with a mental health disorder attempting to discharge themselves, which could result in harm. For a more detailed review, the BMJ article When and how to treat patients who refuse treatment provides an excellent resource.

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  • Question 28 - You are visiting a local nursing home to see a new resident who...

    Correct

    • You are visiting a local nursing home to see a new resident who is complaining of an itchy rash when you get an urgent call to see a 78-year-old lady who has collapsed in the dining room.

      The relief staff at the home tell you that she is a diabetic and has had a stroke some years ago, but they do not know much else about her.

      On examination, she is lying in the recovery position on the floor and her BP is 115/70 mmHg, pulse 95 she is bathed in sweat and is unresponsive. She has adequate air entry on auscultation of the chest and there is no danger in the immediate vicinity. Trained nursing staff are at hand to help you with her management and take any further action.

      What would be your first action in this situation?

      Your Answer: Check her finger prick glucose

      Explanation:

      Managing Hypoglycaemia in Nursing Homes

      Hypoglycaemia is a common occurrence in nursing homes and can lead to significant neurological impairment if not managed promptly. When a patient is suspected of having hypoglycaemia, the first step is to check their finger prick glucose level. This should be done after ensuring their airway, breathing, and circulation are stable.

      Early intervention with a glucagon injection can prevent further complications. It is important to note that nursing home ‘strokes’ are a common cause of admissions to emergency departments. Therefore, prompt management of hypoglycaemia can potentially avoid such admissions.

      If the patient is unconscious, they should be placed in the recovery position until medical help arrives. By following these steps, nursing home staff can effectively manage hypoglycaemia and prevent further complications.

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  • Question 29 - A cardiologist has written to you about the result of an echocardiogram of...

    Incorrect

    • A cardiologist has written to you about the result of an echocardiogram of an 85-year-old patient, whom she has recently seen in clinic. Your patient has been diagnosed with severe heart failure and the cardiologist has written to you to ask that you initiate treatment with spironolactone.

      The most recent renal function tests taken four months earlier do not preclude treatment with spironolactone.

      With regard to monitoring electrolytes (including potassium and creatinine) after initiation, and assuming there is no further dose increase, what would you advise?

      Your Answer: 1 week after initiation, monthly for first 3 months, then every 3 months for 1 year

      Correct Answer: 1 week after initiation, then monthly for the first year

      Explanation:

      Monitoring Electrolytes in Spironolactone Treatment

      The British National Formulary recommends monitoring electrolytes when administering spironolactone to patients. If hyperkalaemia occurs, the medication should be discontinued. In cases of severe heart failure, it is crucial to monitor potassium and creatinine levels. This monitoring should occur one week after initiation and after any dose increase. For the first three months, monthly monitoring is necessary, followed by every three months for one year, and then every six months. By closely monitoring electrolytes, healthcare professionals can ensure the safe and effective use of spironolactone in their patients.

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  • Question 30 - An 80-year-old male presented with cough, dyspnoea and fever.

    He has a mild early...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old male presented with cough, dyspnoea and fever.

      He has a mild early Alzheimer's dementia and type 2 diabetes mellitus for which he takes metformin 500 mg tds. On examination, he has sats of 96% on air, has a pulse of 90 bpm, blood pressure of 110/50 mmHg, a temperature of 37.6°C and a respiration rate of 32/min. There is no neck stiffness nor abnormal neurology.

      Chest examination reveals bibasal crackles and decreased breath sounds in the left lung base.

      Blood samples were taken that morning and a call to the lab reveals the following:

      Haemoglobin 129 g/L (115-165)
      White cell count 16.6 ×109/L (4-11)
      93% neutrophils -
      5% band forms -
      2% lymphocytes -
      Platelets 420 ×109/L (150-400)
      Urea 8.2 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)

      Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Admit to hospital

      Correct Answer: Oral ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Scoring Systems for Decision Making in Pneumonia Treatment

      When it comes to deciding whether to treat or admit a patient with pneumonia, scoring systems can be helpful. The CURB-65 severity score and the CRB-65 score are two commonly used systems. The CRB-65 score is recommended for use in primary care and assigns one point for each of confusion, respiratory rate of 30/min or more, systolic blood pressure below 90 mmHg (or diastolic below 60 mmHg), and age 65 years or older. Patients with a score of 0 are at low risk of death and do not require hospitalization, while those with a score of 1 or 2 are at increased risk and should be considered for referral and assessment. Patients with a score of 3 or more are at high risk and require urgent hospital admission. The CURB-65 score is used for patients with a score of 2 or more to be admitted, while those with a score of 0-1 may be admitted if there are other issues. While an experienced GP may admit a patient regardless of the score, understanding these systems is important for medical exams.

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  • Question 31 - An 82-year-old man and his wife come to see you with concerns about...

    Incorrect

    • An 82-year-old man and his wife come to see you with concerns about his memory. He has forgotten how to do simple tasks in the kitchen and has become confused about his whereabouts. His medical history is unremarkable except for hypertension, which is managed with ramipril. On examination, he appears well with a BP of 142/84 mmHg, a pulse of 75 regular, and an MMSE score of 22. You are fortunate to be in the catchment area for the local university hospital and have access to further investigations. What is the best approach to managing his condition?

      Your Answer: If he becomes severely disturbed then he can be detained under the Mental Health Act

      Correct Answer: Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors may be started by any GP

      Explanation:

      Pharmacological Interventions for Alzheimer’s Disease

      Only specialists in the care of patients with Alzheimer’s should initiate treatment with acetylcholinesterase inhibitors. NICE guidance on prescribing of these inhibitors caused controversy as it recommended use only in patients with moderate disease. However, a revised guidance in March 2011 suggested that acetylcholinesterase inhibitors were an option in mild disease. Traditional anti-psychotics should be avoided if possible due to the increased risk of cardiovascular events in this age group.

      When it comes to initiating pharmacological interventions for dementia, NICE Pathways recommends that only specialists in the care of patients with dementia should initiate treatment. This includes psychiatrists, neurologists, and physicians specializing in the care of older people. Carers’ views on the patient’s condition at baseline should also be sought. It’s important to note that some GPs in rural Scotland can start acetylcholinesterase inhibitors while waiting for review by psychiatrists, but this is a limited regional variation in practice. For the AKT exam, you would be tested on national guidance and consensus, not regional variation.

      In terms of the patient’s current condition, he has dementia of the Alzheimer’s type, but he is relatively well at the moment. Therefore, there is no need for his wife to obtain power of attorney immediately.

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  • Question 32 - You are working a morning session in a GP practice in the north...

    Correct

    • You are working a morning session in a GP practice in the north of England.

      Out of the six prescriptions you sign that morning, which one would be exempt from NHS prescription charges for a patient who is 65 years old?

      Your Answer: A prescription of desogestrel ('Cerazette') as a contraceptive

      Explanation:

      Prescription charges do not apply to prescribed contraceptives in England, as they are exempt from such charges. Other exempt drugs include STI treatments and medications that a GP can administer. It is important to note that this exemption only applies to England and not to Wales, Scotland, or Northern Ireland. However, if Dianette is prescribed for acne rather than as a contraceptive, it would be subject to prescription charges. Additionally, there are extensive lists of medical conditions that qualify patients for free prescriptions.

      Prescription Charges in England: Who is Eligible for Free Prescriptions?

      In England, prescription charges apply to most medications, but certain groups of people are entitled to free prescriptions. These include children under 16, those aged 16-18 in full-time education, the elderly (aged 60 or over), and individuals who receive income support or jobseeker’s allowance. Additionally, patients with a prescription exemption certificate are exempt from prescription charges.

      Certain medications are also exempt from prescription charges, such as contraceptives, STI treatments, hospital prescriptions, and medications administered by a GP.

      Women who are pregnant or have had a child in the past year, as well as individuals with certain chronic medical conditions, are eligible for a prescription exemption certificate. These conditions include hypoparathyroidism, hypoadrenalism, diabetes insipidus, diabetes mellitus, myasthenia gravis, hypothyroidism, epilepsy, and certain types of cancer.

      For patients who are not eligible for free prescriptions but receive frequent prescriptions, a pre-payment certificate (PPC) may be a cost-effective option. PPCs are cheaper if the patient pays for more than 14 prescriptions per year.

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  • Question 33 - An 80-year-old woman presents to you with complaints of exertional breathlessness and leg...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman presents to you with complaints of exertional breathlessness and leg swelling that has developed over the past few months. She has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and a previous myocardial infarction. Her current medications include metformin 500 mg TDS, aspirin 75 mg OD, ramipril 7.5 mg OD, simvastatin 40 mg ON, and bisoprolol 5 mg OD. Recent blood tests done at her diabetic annual review show normal full blood count, renal function, liver function, and thyroid function. Her latest HbA1c is 50 mmol/mol. On clinical examination, you note bibasal crepitations on auscultation of the chest, a slightly raised jugular venous pressure, and bilateral pitting lower limb edema to the ankles. She is comfortable at rest, with a pulse rate of 80 bpm and regular, blood pressure of 138/84 mmHg, and oxygen saturations of 97% in air. Based on your assessment, you diagnose her with cardiac failure. What is the next appropriate step in the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Refer for specialist assessment and echocardiography

      Correct Answer: Measure NT-proBNP

      Explanation:

      Next Steps in Diagnosing Heart Failure

      This patient is presenting with symptoms and signs of heart failure. The next step in the diagnosis, according to NICE’s summary flowchart, is to measure NT-proBNP. This will help determine the urgency of referral for specialist clinical assessment, which may include transthoracic echocardiography. Other potential steps in the diagnosis process include performing an ECG, chest X-ray, blood tests, urinalysis, peak flow, or spirometry. However, since these options are not listed, it is important to choose the best option available, which in this case is measuring NT-proBNP. It is crucial to read the question carefully to ensure the correct next step is taken in the diagnosis process.

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  • Question 34 - A 55-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner reporting a weight loss of...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner reporting a weight loss of 10 kg in the past four months. He has been experiencing increased fatigue but has not made any changes to his diet or exercise routine.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Colorectal cancer

      Correct Answer: Prostate cancer

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Unexplained Weight Loss in Older Adults

      Unexplained weight loss in older adults is a symptom of malignancy and should be investigated promptly. The most prevalent cancer among men in the UK is prostate cancer, which frequently presents with no specific symptoms. Other symptoms of prostate cancer include lower urinary tract symptoms, anorexia, haematuria, erectile dysfunction, lethargy, and low back pain. Lung cancer and colorectal cancer can also cause weight loss, but they are less common among men than prostate cancer. Lung cancer may present with fatigue, shortness of breath, cough, chest pain, haemoptysis, or recurrent chest infections, and may be associated with finger clubbing or lymphadenopathy. Colorectal cancer may cause a change in bowel habit, rectal bleeding, fatigue, and abdominal pain, and may be accompanied by an abdominal or rectal mass. Frailty is another possible cause of unintentional weight loss, but it is usually associated with other indicators, such as slow gait speed, loss of grip strength, exhaustion, and low levels of physical activity. Type I diabetes mellitus can also cause weight loss, but it is more commonly diagnosed in young people, while Type II diabetes is more likely to occur in older age and is associated with weight gain rather than weight loss.

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  • Question 35 - A senior, delicate lady is admitted to the nearby nursing home following a...

    Correct

    • A senior, delicate lady is admitted to the nearby nursing home following a stroke. How can her risk of developing a pressure ulcer be evaluated appropriately?

      Your Answer: Waterlow score

      Explanation:

      The Waterlow score is utilized to recognize patients who are susceptible to developing pressure ulcers.

      Understanding Pressure Ulcers and Their Management

      Pressure ulcers are a common problem among patients who are unable to move parts of their body due to illness, paralysis, or advancing age. These ulcers typically develop over bony prominences such as the sacrum or heel. Malnourishment, incontinence, lack of mobility, and pain are some of the factors that predispose patients to the development of pressure ulcers. To screen for patients who are at risk of developing pressure areas, the Waterlow score is widely used. This score includes factors such as body mass index, nutritional status, skin type, mobility, and continence.

      The European Pressure Ulcer Advisory Panel classification system grades pressure ulcers based on their severity. Grade 1 ulcers are non-blanchable erythema of intact skin, while grade 2 ulcers involve partial thickness skin loss. Grade 3 ulcers involve full thickness skin loss, while grade 4 ulcers involve extensive destruction, tissue necrosis, or damage to muscle, bone, or supporting structures with or without full thickness skin loss.

      To manage pressure ulcers, a moist wound environment is encouraged to facilitate ulcer healing. Hydrocolloid dressings and hydrogels may help with this. The use of soap should be discouraged to avoid drying the wound. Routine wound swabs should not be done as the vast majority of pressure ulcers are colonized with bacteria. The decision to use systemic antibiotics should be taken on a clinical basis, such as evidence of surrounding cellulitis. Referral to a tissue viability nurse may be considered, and surgical debridement may be beneficial for selected wounds.

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  • Question 36 - You are seeing a 63-year-old gentleman with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary...

    Incorrect

    • You are seeing a 63-year-old gentleman with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
      His most recent spirometry done six weeks ago shows an FEV1 of 62% predicted and doesn't appear to vary very much over time. He is currently using an inhaled short-acting beta agonist as required. He tells you that despite using his inhaler up to four times a day he feels persistently breathless.
      He stopped smoking five years ago. He denies any acute infective symptoms or haemoptysis. On reviewing the history and the clinical record he has not been treated for an acute exacerbation in the last year.
      On examination there is some global reduction in air entry bilaterally but no other focal chest signs. Heart sounds are normal and there is no peripheral oedema. A recent chest x ray is reported as being unchanged from one performed 18 months previously.
      Which of the following is the next most appropriate step in his pharmacological management?

      Your Answer: Add in a LABA+ICS in a combination inhaler

      Correct Answer: Add in a regular ICS

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for COPD Patients with Persistent Breathlessness

      Here we have a patient with COPD who is persistently breathless despite regular use of a short acting beta agonist (SABA) and has an FEV1 of greater than 50%. In this case, add-on inhaled treatment is indicated. According to available guidelines and evidence, the options are to start a long acting beta agonist (LABA) or a long acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA).

      Of the options given, the addition of a LAMA is the correct answer, provided there are no asthmatic features or indicators of steroid responsiveness. If these features are present, then a combination of LABA and inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) would be considered. It is important to note that proper treatment options should be discussed with a healthcare professional.

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  • Question 37 - During a new patient consultation for an 82-year-old man who has recently joined...

    Incorrect

    • During a new patient consultation for an 82-year-old man who has recently joined the practice, you observe that he is significantly underweight and suspect that he may be malnourished. As per NICE guidelines, what is the BMI threshold for diagnosing malnutrition?

      Your Answer: < 17 kg/m²

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Understanding Malnutrition and its Management

      Malnutrition is a complex and multifactorial problem that can be difficult to manage. It is an important consequence of and contributor to chronic disease. NICE defines malnutrition as having a Body Mass Index (BMI) of less than 18.5, unintentional weight loss greater than 10% within the last 3-6 months, or a BMI of less than 20 and unintentional weight loss greater than 5% within the last 3-6 months.

      Around 10% of patients aged over 65 years are malnourished, with the majority of those living independently. Screening for malnutrition is mostly done using the Malnutrition Universal Screen Tool (MUST), which takes into account BMI, recent weight change, and the presence of acute disease. It categorizes patients into low, medium, and high risk and should be done on admission to care/nursing homes and hospitals or if there is concern, such as an elderly, thin patient with pressure sores.

      Managing malnutrition is difficult, but NICE recommends a few points. If the patient is high-risk, dietician support is necessary. A ‘food-first’ approach with clear instructions, such as adding full-fat cream to mashed potato, is preferred over just prescribing oral nutritional supplements (ONS) like Ensure. If ONS is used, it should be taken between meals, rather than instead of meals.

      In conclusion, malnutrition is a serious issue that requires proper screening and management. By following the guidelines set by NICE, healthcare professionals can help prevent and treat malnutrition in their patients.

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  • Question 38 - You think that an 80-year-old man has dementia.

    Which one of the following is...

    Incorrect

    • You think that an 80-year-old man has dementia.

      Which one of the following is more suggestive of vascular dementia than Alzheimer's?

      Your Answer: Marked short term memory loss

      Correct Answer: Emotional lability

      Explanation:

      Emotional lability in Vascular Dementia

      Emotional lability, which refers to sudden and exaggerated changes in mood or emotions, is a common symptom in patients with vascular dementia. This type of dementia is caused by reduced blood flow to the brain, leading to damage in different areas of the brain. Emotional lability can manifest as sudden outbursts of anger, crying spells, or inappropriate laughter.

      On the other hand, other symptoms such as memory loss, confusion, and difficulty with language and communication are more suggestive of Alzheimer’s disease. It is important to differentiate between the two types of dementia as they have different underlying causes and may require different treatment approaches.

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  • Question 39 - A 70-year-old man has a very poor memory. He makes up stories to...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man has a very poor memory. He makes up stories to account for gaps in his memory. He doesn't realise what he is doing.

      On examination he seems apathetic and has an unsteady gait. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Alzheimer's disease

      Correct Answer: Complex partial seizures

      Explanation:

      Korsakoff’s Syndrome: A Case of Poor Memory and Confabulation

      Looking at this case history, it is evident that the patient is experiencing poor memory, confabulation, lack of insight, apathy, and an ataxic gait. These symptoms are typical of Korsakoff’s Syndrome, which is commonly caused by alcohol abuse. The syndrome presents with a triad of symptoms, including mental confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia. Confabulation is a characteristic of Korsakoff’s, making it the most likely diagnosis of those given above. However, it can be prevented by administering thiamine.

      In summary, Korsakoff’s Syndrome is a serious condition that can result in poor memory, confabulation, and other debilitating symptoms. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial in preventing further damage and improving the patient’s quality of life.

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  • Question 40 - A 78-year-old man presents with angina, episodes of feeling dizzy and faint, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man presents with angina, episodes of feeling dizzy and faint, and breathlessness. He has noticed progressively worsening symptoms over the last 1-2 years.

      On examination he has a slow rising carotid pulse on palpation.

      Which of the following is most likely to be heard on auscultation of his heart?

      Your Answer: Early diastolic murmur heard at the left sternal edge in inspiration

      Correct Answer: Ejection systolic murmur that radiates to the carotids

      Explanation:

      Valvular Heart Disorders and Their Classic Symptoms

      Aortic stenosis is a common valvular heart disorder that mainly affects older people. It is characterized by scarring and calcium build-up that narrows the valve over time. Classic symptoms include angina, dizziness/syncope, and cardiac failure. Without intervention, the condition usually deteriorates progressively.

      On examination, a slow rising pulse is a characteristic finding, and the classic murmur is that of an ejection systolic murmur radiating to the carotids. Tricuspid stenosis is characterized by an early diastolic murmur heard at the left sternal edge in inspiration. Aortic regurgitation is marked by a high-pitched early diastolic murmur heard best in expiration with the patient sitting forward. Mitral regurgitation is indicated by a pansystolic murmur at the apex radiating to the axilla. Finally, mitral stenosis is characterized by a rumbling mid-diastolic murmur heard best in expiration with the patient lying on their left side.

      In summary, understanding the classic symptoms and examination findings of valvular heart disorders is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate management.

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  • Question 41 - A 68-year old gentleman is seen for follow up. He has recently been...

    Correct

    • A 68-year old gentleman is seen for follow up. He has recently been diagnosed with heart failure. His echocardiogram shows a reduced ejection fraction. On reviewing his medications you can see that he has been taking atenolol going back many years for hypertension.

      Which of the following beta blockers would you recommend he switches to in order to enhance his heart failure treatment?

      Your Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      Beta Blockers for Heart Failure

      Beta blockers have been proven to increase the survival rate of patients with heart failure in numerous clinical trials. In the UK, there are three licensed drugs for this purpose: Bisoprolol, Carvedilol, and Nebivolol. If a patient is newly diagnosed with left ventricular systolic function and is already taking a beta blocker, it is recommended to switch them to one of the beta blockers that have been shown to be effective in treating heart failure. This can help improve the patient’s overall health and increase their chances of survival.

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  • Question 42 - A 70-year-old nursing home resident, with a long-term catheter in situ, had a...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old nursing home resident, with a long-term catheter in situ, had a urine sample sent for investigation after staff felt her urine was more cloudy than usual. The MSU grew Escherichia coli. The patient is otherwise well with a normal general examination, normal observations and is at their baseline cognition.

      Which is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step?

      Your Answer: No treatment

      Correct Answer: Oral trimethoprim for three days

      Explanation:

      Managing Urinary Tract Infection in Adults with Long-Term Indwelling Catheters

      The SIGN guidance provides clear instructions on how to manage urinary tract infection (UTI) in adults with long-term indwelling catheters. It states that all patients with such catheters are bacteriuric, but treatment is not necessary unless they exhibit symptoms such as new costovertebral tenderness, fevers, rigors, or new onset delirium. It is important to note that classical UTI symptoms cannot be relied upon in these patients. Additionally, the guidance advises against sending urine samples for culture based on the appearance or smell of the urine. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively manage UTI in this patient population.

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  • Question 43 - A 68-year-old male patient mentions to you, in passing, that he is worried...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old male patient mentions to you, in passing, that he is worried he might have a stroke. Which of the following is the single, strongest risk factor for developing a stroke?

      Your Answer: Hypertension

      Explanation:

      Diabetes, hypertension, hypercholesterolaemia, and smoking are all factors that increase the risk of developing a stroke. However, among these options, hypertension is the most significant risk factor for stroke. High blood pressure can damage the blood vessels in the brain, leading to a stroke. Therefore, it is crucial to manage hypertension through lifestyle changes and medication to reduce the risk of stroke. By controlling hypertension, individuals can significantly reduce their risk of stroke.

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  • Question 44 - A pediatrics consultant has entered into a shared care agreement with you regarding...

    Incorrect

    • A pediatrics consultant has entered into a shared care agreement with you regarding a patient's antibiotic prescribing and monitoring. She has initiated treatment with antibiotics and after a period of stable monitoring, has entered into a shared care agreement with you for ongoing prescribing and monitoring, with any future dose changes initiated by the consultant.
      With regard to shared care prescribing, the legal responsibility for prescribing lies with:

      Your Answer: The doctor who signs the prescription

      Correct Answer: Both the specialist and the GP

      Explanation:

      Legal Responsibility for Prescribing

      According to the British National Formulary, the Department of Health has advised that legal responsibility for prescribing lies with the doctor who signs the prescription. This guideline is outlined in circular EL (91) 127, which clarifies the responsibility for prescribing between hospitals and general practitioners.

      Prescribing issues are a popular examination theme, and it is important to remember this guidance when answering related questions. By understanding that the doctor who signs the prescription holds legal responsibility, healthcare professionals can ensure safe and effective prescribing practices. Remembering this key point can help prevent errors and ensure patient safety.

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  • Question 45 - An 80-year-old woman presents for a check-up. She complains of feeling fatigued and...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman presents for a check-up. She complains of feeling fatigued and drained and requests some tests. She has a medical history of hypertension treated with valsartan, chronic atrial fibrillation and chronic heart failure managed with digoxin and furosemide, and asthma for which she uses salbutamol. During the examination, her potassium level is measured and found to be low at 3.1 mmol/l. Which medication is the probable culprit for her hypokalaemia?

      Your Answer: Furosemide

      Correct Answer: Salbutamol

      Explanation:

      Medications and their effects on potassium levels

      Whilst both salbutamol and furosemide can lead to hypokalaemia, furosemide has a more significant impact on potassium levels at therapeutic doses. On the other hand, digoxin toxicity may cause vomiting and hypokalaemia, but it is not directly linked to low potassium levels. In contrast, spironolactone and valsartan are known to cause hyperkalaemia. It is important to be aware of the potential effects of medications on potassium levels to ensure appropriate monitoring and management of electrolyte imbalances.

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  • Question 46 - A 75-year-old man presents with a short history of increasing confusion.

    Preceding this, he...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man presents with a short history of increasing confusion.

      Preceding this, he fell three weeks ago in the bathroom. In the afternoon he was examined by his GP and he was alert with a normal physical examination. The patient has a history of hypertension for which he takes bendroflumethiazide.

      Three weeks later the patient was visited at home because the dazed state had returned. He is afebrile, has a pulse of 80 per minute regular and blood pressure of 152/86 mmHg. His response to questions is slightly slowed, he is disoriented in time and there is some deficit in recent memory.

      The patient moves slowly, but muscle strength is preserved. Neurologic examination shows slight hyperactivity of the tendon reflexes on the right. Plantar responses are unclear because of bilateral withdrawal. That gives him a GCS score of 14.

      Which of the following would be the most appropriate next investigation for this man?

      Your Answer: Dopplers of the carotid arteries

      Correct Answer: Serum alcohol concentration

      Explanation:

      Chronic Subdural Haematoma in the Elderly

      The patient’s history of a previous fall and subsequent development of confusion and neurological symptoms suggest a possible diagnosis of chronic subdural haematoma. The best investigation for this condition is a CT scan, which is the preferred choice over a skull x-ray that may only reveal a fracture.

      Chronic subdural haematoma is a common condition in the elderly, and it occurs when blood accumulates between the brain and the outermost layer of the brain’s protective covering. This condition can cause a range of symptoms, including confusion, headaches, and difficulty with balance and coordination. If left untreated, chronic subdural haematoma can lead to serious complications, such as seizures, coma, and even death.

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  • Question 47 - An 88-year-old female patient of yours has multiple medical problems.

    She takes aspirin, paracetamol,...

    Incorrect

    • An 88-year-old female patient of yours has multiple medical problems.

      She takes aspirin, paracetamol, bisoprolol, ramipril, codeine, omeprazole and nifedipine. She says she tries to remember to take her tablets but she doesn't attend for repeat prescriptions as often as she should. When compliant, she is stable and well.

      Which one of the following regarding this lady's treatment is correct?

      Your Answer: You should reduce the number of medications prescribed

      Correct Answer: You should give 'once daily' regimens where possible

      Explanation:

      Factors to Consider in Drug Treatments for MRCGP Exam

      For the MRCGP exam, it is important to have a good understanding of the factors associated with drug treatments. This includes knowledge of drug metabolism, absorption, and excretion. Candidates should also be aware of multiple prescribing, non-compliance by patients, and iatrogenic disease.

      In this scenario, it is important to consider the patient’s medication regimen and the possibility of non-compliance. While it may be premature to talk about stopping medications, it is recommended to give ‘once daily’ regimens where possible. Admitting the patient to residential care solely for medication compliance is extreme and likely unnecessary.

      To further enhance knowledge on medication compliance, the BMJ offers evidence and tips on the use of medication compliance aids. Additionally, the ABC of monitoring drug therapy provides a comprehensive guide on patient compliance.

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  • Question 48 - An 85-year-old man patient of yours is discharged from hospital after receiving treatment...

    Incorrect

    • An 85-year-old man patient of yours is discharged from hospital after receiving treatment for a urinary tract infection.

      Three days after discharge the lab calls you to say that they received a urine sample before his discharge and there was E. coli present in the urine. However, there are no signs of infection. You call the man back to your surgery to check that he is okay. He has no pain while urinating and says he feels much better.

      Which of the following is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Watch and wait

      Correct Answer: Treatment with vancomycin

      Explanation:

      Management of Asymptomatic Clostridium difficile Infection

      A watch and wait policy is recommended for patients with asymptomatic Clostridium difficile infection. Mild cases may not require specific antibiotic treatment, but if necessary, oral metronidazole is the preferred option (dose: 400-500 mg tds for 10-14 days). This has been shown to be as effective as oral vancomycin in mild to moderate cases.

      For those who wish to read in greater detail, the link below contains the latest guidance and analysis. However, it is important to note that the information provided is more detailed than what is required for the average GP and only a broad understanding of the management and national recommendations is expected for the exam.

      In this case, the patient is asymptomatic and there are no toxins present, therefore no treatment is necessary.

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  • Question 49 - A 65-year-old man presents to the GP clinic for follow-up. He reports experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to the GP clinic for follow-up. He reports experiencing shortness of breath on exercise, which has worsened over the past few months. He can now only walk 200-300 yards on flat ground and has difficulty climbing stairs. The patient has a history of hypertension and is currently taking amlodipine 5 mg and indapamide 2.5 mg. In the clinic, his blood pressure is 195/90, and he has bibasal crackles indicative of heart failure, but no ankle edema is present.

      The following investigations were conducted:
      - Haemoglobin: 139 g/L (115-165)
      - White cells: 7.1 ×109/L (4-11)
      - Platelets: 203 ×109/L (150-400)
      - Sodium: 139 mmol/L (135-146)
      - Potassium: 4.3 mmol/L (3.5-5)
      - Creatinine: 129 μmol/L (79-118)
      - Ejection fraction: 55%

      What is the most appropriate next therapy for this patient?

      Your Answer: Bisoprolol

      Correct Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      Management of Heart Failure with Preserved Ejection Fraction

      Whilst the patient in question has been diagnosed with heart failure, their ejection fraction is preserved. According to the NICE guidelines on Chronic heart failure (NG106), the recommended course of action is to manage the patient’s comorbidities. In this case, the patient’s hypertension is the most significant issue, and stepwise blood pressure control with ACE inhibition is the next logical addition to their therapy. If the patient had a reduced ejection fraction, a bblocker would be added at the same time.

      Additionally, the patient should be referred for an abdominal ultrasound to check for differential kidney size, which could indicate the presence of renovascular disease. By addressing the patient’s comorbidities and monitoring for potential complications, healthcare providers can effectively manage heart failure with preserved ejection fraction.

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  • Question 50 - You are called to a nursing home to see a 85-year-old lady who...

    Incorrect

    • You are called to a nursing home to see a 85-year-old lady who has become acutely confused.

      She has a past medical history of hypertension and hypothyroidism. These are well controlled on bendroflumethazide 2.5 mg OD and thyroxine 100 mcg OD.

      On arrival she is disoriented to time and place; and the nursing staff report that earlier she seemed to be hallucinating. On examination, she has a temperature of 38.1°C, pulse rate of 92 regular and a blood pressure of 108/88 mmHg. Blood sugar is 4.6.

      What is the next most appropriate acute action?

      Your Answer: Give oral glucose

      Correct Answer: Think sepsis and check symptoms and signs using a local or national tool

      Explanation:

      Management of Acute Confusional State in Elderly Patients

      This patient is presenting with an acute confusional state and pyrexia, which is most likely caused by an underlying infection. An anxiolytic is not the appropriate treatment as it doesn’t address the underlying cause. Additionally, oral glucose is not necessary as the patient’s blood sugar is within the normal range. While a cerebrovascular accident should be considered in any elderly patient who is confused, this patient doesn’t exhibit any focal neurological signs and the clinical picture is more consistent with an infective cause. Therefore, administering aspirin is not recommended.

      For elderly patients over 65 years old, a urine dipstick test should not be performed. Instead, healthcare providers should use the PINCH ME method to exclude other causes of delirium. In cases of an acutely confused, pyrexial, elderly patient, sepsis should be considered and managed accordingly.

      When it comes to urinary tract infections, antibiotics should only be prescribed when appropriate. Factors such as the severity of symptoms, the presence of complicating factors, and the likelihood of bacterial infection should be taken into account before prescribing antibiotics. Overuse of antibiotics can lead to antibiotic resistance, so it is important to use them judiciously.

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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Older Adults (13/50) 26%
Passmed