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  • Question 1 - A 61-year-old woman returns to get the results of recent blood tests she...

    Correct

    • A 61-year-old woman returns to get the results of recent blood tests she had done for non-specific malaise, lethargy, and weight loss. The only abnormality discovered during the blood tests was a 580 x 10 9 /l increase in platelets. Her platelets were also elevated on a blood test taken 6 months earlier, according to her previous results. You're aware of the recent emergence of elevated platelet levels as a cancer risk marker and decide to look into it.Which of the following cancers is most likely to cause isolated thrombocytosis?

      Your Answer: Colorectal cancer

      Explanation:

      Raised platelet levels have emerged as a cancer risk marker, according to a large population-based study published in 2017(link is external). According to the study, 12 percent of men and 6% of women with thrombocytosis were diagnosed with cancer within a year. These figures increased to 18% in men and 10% in women if a second platelet count was taken within 6 months of the first and showed an increased or stable elevated platelet count.The researchers discovered that thrombocytosis linked to cancer is most common in colorectal and lung cancers, and it is linked to a worse prognosis. Furthermore, one-third of the cancer patients in the study had no other symptoms that would have prompted an immediate cancer referral.The exact mechanism by which these cancers cause thrombocytosis is unknown, but one theory proposes the existence of pathogenic feedback loops between malignant cells and platelets, with a reciprocal interaction between tumour growth and metastasis, as well as thrombocytosis and platelet activation. Another hypothesis is that thrombocytosis occurs independently of cancer but aids in its spread and progression.The findings show that routinely testing for thrombocytosis could cut the time it takes to diagnose colorectal and lung cancer by at least two months. In the UK, this could result in around 5500 earlier cancer diagnoses per year.Because the positive predictive value of thrombocytosis in middle age for cancer (10%) is higher than the positive predictive value for a woman in her 50s presenting with a new breast lump (8.5%), this is clearly an important research paper that should be used to adjust future clinical practise. The current NICE guidelines predate these new research findings, so we’ll have to wait and see how they affect cancer referral guidelines in the UK.Because there are so many possible cancers associated with thrombocytosis, the treating clinician should take a thorough history and perform a thorough clinical examination if a patient is diagnosed with it. Further investigation and the most appropriate referral route should be aided by this information.It’s worth noting that the patients in the study had their blood tests done for a medical reason rather than as a random screening test.If there are no other symptoms to guide investigation and referral (one-third of the patients in the study had no other symptoms), keep in mind that the two most common cancers encountered were colorectal and lung cancer, so a chest X-ray and a faecal immunochemical test (FIT) for faecal blood may be reasonable initial investigations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      103
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 49-year-old man known sickle cell disease patient received a blood transfusion and...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man known sickle cell disease patient received a blood transfusion and developed a mild fever and dark urine 6 days after transfusion. His investigations show raised bilirubin, raised LDH, and a positive Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT).Which transfusion reaction is most likely occurred?

      Your Answer: Graft-vs-host disease

      Correct Answer: Delayed haemolytic reaction

      Explanation:

      Delayed haemolytic transfusion reactions (DHTRs) commonly occurs 4-8 days after blood transfusion, but can occur up to a month after. Signs and symptoms include jaundice, fever, an inadequate rise in PCV, reticulocytosis, a positive antibody screen and a positive Direct Antiglobulin Test (Coombs test). DHTRs usually have a benign course and require no treatment but sometimes, life-threatening haemolysis with severe anaemia and renal failure can occur so haemoglobin levels and renal function should be monitored.Acute haemolytic reaction aka immediate haemolytic transfusion reaction presents with fever, chills, pain at transfusion site, nausea, vomiting, dark urine and feeling of ‘impending doom’. Often, it occurs due to ABO incompatibility.Febrile transfusion reaction presents with a 1 degree rise in temperature from baseline during transfusion. Patient may have chills and malaise. It is the most common transfusion reaction (1 in 8 transfusions) and is usually caused by cytokines released from leukocytes in transfused red cell or platelet components.Transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO) presents as acute or worsening respiratory distress within 6 hours of transfusion of a large volume of blood. It is common in patients with diminished cardiac reserve or chronic anaemia. Elderly patients, infants and severely anaemic patients are particularly susceptible. Clinical features of TACO include: Acute respiratory distress, Tachycardia, Hypertension, Acute/worsening pulmonary oedema on chest X-ray. The BNP is usually raised to at least 1.5 times the pre-transfusion baseline.Graft versus host disease(GVHD) is an immune mediated condition that arises from a complex interaction between donor and recipients adaptive immunity. It presents as dermatitis, hepatitis and enteritis developing within 100 days after stem cell or bone marrow transplant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      130.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A patient is found to be anaemic. Which one of the following blood...

    Correct

    • A patient is found to be anaemic. Which one of the following blood results would favour a diagnosis of anaemia of chronic disease rather than iron deficiency:

      Your Answer: Low total iron binding capacity (TIBC)

      Explanation:

      Anaemia of chronic disease is one of the most common causes of normocytic anaemia. The anaemia is usually mild (Hb > 90 g/L) and non-progressive. Anaemia of chronic disease is usually associated with low serum iron, low transferrin saturation, and a low total iron binding capacity (TIBC) with normal or raised ferritin which differentiates it from iron deficiency anaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A six-year-old boy presents with coryzal symptoms that have persisted for more than...

    Correct

    • A six-year-old boy presents with coryzal symptoms that have persisted for more than two weeks. He was born and raised in the Middle East. His mother claims he has been tired and has complained of various 'aches and pains.' On examination, you find splenomegaly and enlarged cervical lymph nodes. His legs and arms are covered in petechiae.In this case, what is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL)

      Explanation:

      ALL is the most common leukaemia in children, with a peak incidence between the ages of 2 and 5.ALL has a wide range of clinical symptoms, but many children present with an acute illness that resembles coryza or a viral infection. ALL also has the following features:Weakness and sluggishness all overMuscle, joint, and bone pain that isn’t specificAnaemiaPetechiae and unexplained bruisingOedemaLymphadenopathyHepatosplenomegalyThe following are typical features of a full blood count in patients with ALL:Anaemia (normocytic or macrocytic)Leukopenia affects about half of the patients (WCC 4 x 109/l).Around 25% of patients have leucocytosis (WCC > 10 x 109/l).Around 25% of patients have hyperleukocytosis (WCC > 50 x 109/l).Thrombocytopaenia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      31.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Reed-Sternberg cells are characteristic of which of the following malignancies: ...

    Correct

    • Reed-Sternberg cells are characteristic of which of the following malignancies:

      Your Answer: Hodgkin lymphoma

      Explanation:

      Lymphomas are a group of diseases caused by malignant lymphocytes that accumulate in lymph nodes and other lymphoid tissue and cause the characteristic clinical feature of lymphadenopathy. The major subdivision of lymphomas is into Hodgkin lymphoma (HL) and non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL) and this is based on the histological presence of Reed-Sternberg cells present in HL. Hodgkin lymphoma can present at any age but is rare in children and has a peak incidence in young adults. There is an almost 2 : 1 male predominance. Most patients present with painless, asymmetrical, firm and discrete enlargement of superficial lymph nodes. Cervical nodes are involved in 60-70% of cases, axillary nodes in 10-15% and inguinal nodes in 6-12%. Modest splenomegaly occurs during the course of the disease in 50% of patients; the liver may also be enlarged. Bone marrow failure involvement is unusual in early disease. The prognosis depends on age, stage and histology, but overall approximately 85% of patients are cured. Alcohol‐induced pain and pruritus are two well‐known but rare symptoms in HL.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Regarding iron deficiency anaemia, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding iron deficiency anaemia, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: Blood loss due to menorrhagia is the most common cause of iron deficiency anaemia in pre-menopausal women in the UK.

      Correct Answer: Dietary insufficiency is the most common cause of iron deficiency anaemia in adult men in the UK.

      Explanation:

      Blood loss from the gastrointestinal (GI) tract is the most common cause of iron deficiency anaemia in adult men and postmenopausal women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      100.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following statements about sickle cell disease is TRUE: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements about sickle cell disease is TRUE:

      Your Answer: Hand-foot syndrome is frequently a first presentation of the disease.

      Explanation:

      Hand-foot syndrome in children is typically the first symptom of the disease, produced by infarction of the metaphysis of small bones. The disease is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait. By adulthood, the spleen has usually infarcted. Infection with the B19 parvovirus is usually followed by an aplastic crisis. Thrombocytopenia is caused by splenic sequestration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 62-year-old woman presents with a 3-month history of lethargy and tiredness. She...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old woman presents with a 3-month history of lethargy and tiredness. She states that she has also felt very itchy, particularly after a hot bath and that she is often dizzy and sweaty. On examination she appears plethoric and you note the presence of splenomegaly. Her blood tests today show that her haemoglobin level is 16.9 g/dl.What is the most likely diagnosis in this case? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Polycythaemia vera

      Explanation:

      Polycythaemia vera (PCV), which is also referred to as polycythaemia rubra vera, is a clonal haematological malignancy in which the bone marrow produces too many red blood cells. It may also result in the overproduction of white blood cells and platelets. It is most commonly seen in the elderly and the mean age at diagnosis is 65-74 years.Patients can be completely asymptomatic and it is often discovered as an incidental finding on a routine blood count. Approximately 1/3 of patients present with symptoms due to thrombosis, of these 3/4 have arterial thrombosis and 1/4 venous thrombosis. Features include stroke, myocardial infarction, deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism.The other clinical features of PCV include:Plethoric appearanceLethargy and tirednessSplenomegaly (common)Pruritis (in 40% – particularly after exposure to hot water)Headaches, dizziness and sweating (in 30%)Gouty arthritis (in 20%)Budd-Chiari syndrome (in 5-10%)Erythromyalgia (in 18.5 g/dl in men, 16.5 g/dl in womenElevated red cell mass > 25% above mean normal predicted valuePresence of JAK2 mutationMinor criteria:Bone marrow biopsy showing hypercellularity with prominent erythroid, granulocytic and megakaryocytic proliferationSerum erythropoietin level below normal rangeEndogenous erythroid colony formation in vitroThe main aim of treatment is to normalize the full blood count and prevent complications such as thrombosis. Venesection is the treatment of choice but hydroxyurea can also be used to help control thrombocytosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - The least likely feature of anaemia is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The least likely feature of anaemia is:

      Your Answer: Bounding pulse

      Correct Answer: Narrow pulse pressure

      Explanation:

      Non-specific signs of anaemia include: 1. pallor of mucous membranes or nail beds (if Hb < 90 g/L), 2. tachycardia3. bounding pulse4. wide pulse pressure5. flow murmurs 6. cardiomegaly 7. signs of congestive cardiac failure (in severe cases)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 60-year-old female is referred to the Oncology clinic due to the presence...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old female is referred to the Oncology clinic due to the presence of lumps in her neck. There is a non-tender enlargement of several groups of cervical lymph nodes on examination. She is sent for a lymph node biopsy. The results show the presence of lymphoma cells, but there are no Reed-Sternberg cells. Which one is most appropriate for this case out of the following diagnoses?

      Your Answer: Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma

      Explanation:

      Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma (NHL) causes neoplastic transformation of both B cell (85%) and T cell (15%) lines. The most common presentation is with enlarged, rubbery, painless lymph nodes. The patient may also have B symptoms which consist of night sweats, weight loss and fevers. Multiple myeloma most commonly presents with bone pain, especially in the back and ribs. The presence of Reed-Sternberg cells characterises Hodgkin’s lymphoma. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia will present with features of anaemia, thrombocytopenia and leukopenia. The most common symptoms of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia are fatigue, night sweats and low-grade fever.The peak incidence of NHL is in the 50-70 years age group, it affects men and women equally, but affects the Caucasian population more commonly than black and Asian ethnic groups.The following are recognised risk factors for NHL:Chromosomal translocations and molecular rearrangementsEpstein-Barr virus infectionHuman T-cell leukaemia virus type-1 (HTLV-1)Hepatitis CCongenital and acquired immunodeficiency statesAutoimmune disorders, e.g. Sjogren’s syndrome and Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 66-year-old female with a history of stroke one year ago presents to...

    Correct

    • A 66-year-old female with a history of stroke one year ago presents to the Family Medicine clinic complaining of fatigue, weight loss, and tongue discolouration. On examination, she seems malnourished, her tongue is beefy red, and an ataxic gait pattern is noticed. Which ONE of the following conditions does this patient most likely have?

      Your Answer: Vitamin B12 deficiency

      Explanation:

      A history of stroke and poor nutritional status points towards a nutritional deficiency as the most likely cause of her symptoms. The examination would differentiate between Vitamin B12 and Folic acid deficiency as in the former. The patient has a beefy red tongue and symptoms indicating peripheral nervous system involvement or subacute combined spinal cord degeneration. The patient may also have a lemon-yellow skin colour, loss of proprioception and vibratory sense and oral ulceration. Investigations in B12 deficiency can reveal the following:1. Macrocytic anaemia2. Neutropoenia3. Thrombocytopaenia4. Blood film: anisocytosis, poikilocytosis5. Low serum B126. Raised serum bilirubin (haemolysis)7. Intrinsic factor antibodies8. Positive Schilling test

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - How does dipyridamole mediate its antiplatelet effect: ...

    Incorrect

    • How does dipyridamole mediate its antiplatelet effect:

      Your Answer: It is a vitamin K antagonist.

      Correct Answer: It is a phosphodiesterase inhibitor.

      Explanation:

      Dipyridamole inhibits both the reuptake of adenosine and phosphodiesterase, preventing the degradation of cAMP and thus blocking the platelet aggregation response to ADP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Regarding disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: Thrombocytosis results in widespread platelet aggregation.

      Explanation:

      DIC is characterised by a widespread inappropriate intravascular deposition of fibrin with consumption of coagulation factors and platelets. This may occur as a consequence of many disorders that release procoagulant material into the circulation or cause widespread endothelial damage or platelet aggregation. Increased activity of thrombin in the circulation overwhelms its normal rate of removal by natural anticoagulants. In addition to causing increased deposition of fibrin in the microcirculation and widespread platelet aggregation to the vessels, intravascular thrombin formation interferes with fibrin polymerisation. Intense fibrinolysis is stimulated by thrombi on vascular walls and the release of fibrin degradation products again interferes with fibrin polymerisation. The combined action of thrombin and plasmin causes depletion of fibrinogen and all coagulation factors, compounded by thrombocytopaenia caused by platelet consumption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      290.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A patient presents with epistaxis. She tells you that she has a rare...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents with epistaxis. She tells you that she has a rare platelet disorder and gives you her haematology outpatient letter that contains information about it. You learn that her disorder is caused by low levels of glycoprotein IIb/IIIa.What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Von Willebrand disease

      Correct Answer: Glanzamann’s thromboasthenia

      Explanation:

      Glanzmann’s thromboasthenia is a rare platelet disorder in which platelets contain defective or low levels of glycoprotein IIb/IIIa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 20-year-old male who is a known patient of sickle cell disease presents...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old male who is a known patient of sickle cell disease presents to the Emergency Room with a sustained erection that is extremely painful. Out of the following clinical syndromes, which one does this patient most likely have?

      Your Answer: Priapism

      Explanation:

      Sickling of red blood cells can lead to several different clinical syndromes. If the sickling occurs in the corpora cavernosa, it can lead to a sustained, painful erection of the penis, referred to as priapism. One of the complications is long-term impotence. It is important to seek a urological opinion immediately in this case, but in the interim, treat with perineal ice packs and walk up and down the stairs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of megaloblastic anaemia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of megaloblastic anaemia?

      Your Answer: Increased lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) level

      Correct Answer: Raised reticulocyte count

      Explanation:

      The LDH level is usually markedly increased in severe megaloblastic anaemia. Reticulocyte counts are inappropriately low, representing a lack of production of RBCs due to massive intramedullary haemolysis. These findings are characteristics of ineffective haematopoiesis that occurs in megaloblastic anaemia as well as in other disorders such as thalassemia major.The common feature in megaloblastosis is a defect in DNA synthesis in rapidly dividing cells. To a lesser extent, RNA and protein synthesis are impaired. Unbalanced cell growth and impaired cell division occur since nuclear maturation is arrested. More mature RBC precursors are destroyed in the bone marrow prior to entering the bloodstream (intramedullary haemolysis).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      477.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 18 year old male presents to the GP with painless asymmetrical cervical...

    Correct

    • A 18 year old male presents to the GP with painless asymmetrical cervical lymphadenopathy. Histological examination of a biopsied lymph node demonstrates Reed-Sternberg cells. What is the most likely diagnosis:

      Your Answer: Hodgkin lymphoma

      Explanation:

      Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a malignant tumour of the lymphatic system that is characterised histologically by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells (multinucleated giant cells). The annual incidence of Hodgkin’s lymphoma in the UK is approximately 3 per 100,000 per year. The peak incidence is in young adults aged 20-35, and there is a slight male predominance.The following are recognised risk factors for Hodgkin’s lymphoma:Male genderAge 20-35Positive family historyEpstein-Barr virus infectionImmunosuppression including HIV infectionProlonged use of human growth hormoneMost patients present with an enlarged, but otherwise asymptomatic lymph node. The most commonly affected lymph nodes are in the supraclavicular and lower cervical areas. Other common clinical features include shortness of breath and chest discomfort secondary to mediastinal mass. Mediastinal masses are sometimes discovered as incidental findings on routine chest X-rays. Approximately 30% of patients with Hodgkin’s lymphoma develop splenomegaly.‘B’ symptoms occur in approximately 25% of patients. The ‘B’ symptoms of Hodgkin’s lymphoma are:Fever (>38ºC)Night sweatsWeight loss (>10% over 6 months)Pain after alcohol consumption is a pathognomonic sign of Hodgkin’s lymphoma, it is, however, not a ‘B’ symptom. It is rare though, only occurring in 2-3% of patients with Hodgkin’s lymphoma.The Ann Arbour clinical staging is as follows:Stage I: one involved lymph node groupStage II two involved lymph node groups on one side of the diaphragmStage III: lymph node groups involved on both sides of the diaphragmStage IV: Involvement of extra-nodal tissues, such as the liver or bone marrowDiagnosis is made by lymph node biopsy, which should be taken from a sufficiently large specimen or excisional biopsy, as opposed to a fine needle biopsy. The Reed-Sternberg cell is the most useful diagnostic feature. This is a giant cell with twin mirror-image nuclei and prominent ‘owl’s eye’ nucleoli.The Reed-Sternberg cell of Hodgkin’s LymphomaHistological typing depends upon the other cells within the diseased tissue. Nodular sclerosing is the most common type of Hodgkin’s lymphoma. Lymphocyte-depleted and lymphocyte-predominant are rare subtypes.The majority of cases can be successfully treated, and unlike many other malignancies even if the first-line treatment fails, a cure can often be achieved with second-line therapies. Stage 1 Hodgkin’s lymphoma is usually treated with radiotherapy alone, but more advanced stages require combination chemotherapy. In localised disease treated with irradiation, there is a 5-year survival rate of greater than 80%. In disseminated disease treated with chemotherapy, the 5-year survival falls to around 50%. Overall, a 5-year survival of >70% should be achieved.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 66-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with a nose bleed. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 66-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with a nose bleed. She says that she has been having frequent episodes of nose bleeds over the past four months, along with increasing fatigue and some weight loss. On examination, she has a diffuse petechial rash and hypertrophy of the gingiva. Which one of the following conditions is this patient most likely to have?

      Your Answer: Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML)

      Correct Answer: Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML)

      Explanation:

      The history of nosebleeds and fatigue, and gingival hyperplasia presents a typical picture of acute myeloid leukaemia. Leukemic infiltrates within the gingiva cause hypertrophy and distinguish this condition from other types of leukaemia. The fatigue is secondary to anaemia, while the nosebleeds are caused by thrombocytopenia secondary to leukemic infiltration of bone marrow. Patients may also report frequent infections secondary to neutropenia and hepatosplenomegaly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - One of the following statements about acute lymphoblastic leukaemia(ALL) is true. ...

    Correct

    • One of the following statements about acute lymphoblastic leukaemia(ALL) is true.

      Your Answer: It is classified using the FAB classification

      Explanation:

      ALL affects children predominantly.The CNS is commonly involved in ALL.The Philadelphia chromosome is present in 25% of adult ALL and 5% of childhood ALL cases.The cure rate in children is approximately 80% in children and 50% in adults.ALL is classified into 3 groups using the French-American-British (FAB) classification:ALL-L1: small uniform cellsALL-L2: large varied cellsALL-L3: large varied cells with vacuoles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following is NOT a heritable risk factor for venous thrombosis:...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is NOT a heritable risk factor for venous thrombosis:

      Your Answer: Von Willebrand disease

      Explanation:

      Approximately one-third of patients who suffer DVT or PE have an identifiable heritable risk factor, although additional risk factors are usually present when they develop the thrombosis. The history of a spontaneous DVT in a close relative increases an individual’s risk of DVT even if no known genetic predisposition can be identified.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      24.9
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the following clinical features is NOT a typical feature of haemolytic...

    Correct

    • Which of the following clinical features is NOT a typical feature of haemolytic anaemias:

      Your Answer: Angular cheilitis

      Explanation:

      Features include: AnaemiaJaundice (caused by unconjugated bilirubin in plasma, bilirubin is absent from urine)Pigment gallstonesSplenomegalyAnkle ulcersExpansion of marrow with, in children, bone expansion e.g. frontal bossing in beta-thalassaemia majorAplastic crisis caused by parvovirus

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 1-year-old male is brought to the paediatrician by his mother due to...

    Correct

    • A 1-year-old male is brought to the paediatrician by his mother due to swelling of the right knee after a minor fall. On examination, the right knee is swollen, fluctuant and tender. Ultrasound-guided aspiration reveals a massive hemarthrosis. Family history shows that his older brother also has a bleeding disorder. Which one of the following conditions does the patient most likely have?

      Your Answer: Haemophilia A

      Explanation:

      A diagnosis of Haemophilia is supported in this patient by the family history and the presence of hemarthrosis-both characteristics of Haemophilia. Haemophilia A is caused by Factor VIII deficiency, leading to impaired coagulation. This disease typically presents after six months when the child starts crawling. Von Willebrand disease presents with nosebleeds and hematomas. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura presents with bruises that resemble a rash. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency presents with haemolytic anaemia induced by specific drugs or foods. Factor V Leiden mutation causes blood clotting rather than bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - How does abciximab mediate its antiplatelet effect: ...

    Correct

    • How does abciximab mediate its antiplatelet effect:

      Your Answer: It is a GPIIb/IIIa inhibitor.

      Explanation:

      Abciximab, eptifibatide and tirofiban are GPIIb/IIIa inhibitors, inhibiting platelet aggregation by preventing the binding of fibrinogen, von Willebrand factor and other adhesive molecules.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      30.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - How does aspirin mediate its antiplatelet effect: ...

    Incorrect

    • How does aspirin mediate its antiplatelet effect:

      Your Answer: It is a vitamin K antagonist.

      Correct Answer: It irreversibly inhibits cyclo-oxygenase

      Explanation:

      Aspirin irreversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase and blocks the platelet production of thromboxane A2 (TXA2), thus inhibiting platelet aggregation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Regarding haemophilia A, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding haemophilia A, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: Haemophilia A is caused by a deficiency of factor VIII.

      Correct Answer: In haemophilia both the APTT and PT are prolonged.

      Explanation:

      Haemophilia A is the most common of the hereditary clotting factor deficiencies. The inheritance is sex-linked but up to one-third of patients have no family history and these cases result from recent mutation. The vast majority of cases are inherited in an X-linked recessive fashion, affecting males born to carrier mothers. Females born to affected fathers can also, rarely, be affected due to homozygosity for the gene, where there is marriage to close relatives. The defect is an absence or low level of plasma factor VIII. The APTT is prolonged but the PT is normal. Recurrent painful haemarthroses and muscle haematomas dominate the clinical course of severely affected patients and if inadequately treated, lead to progressive joint deformity and disability. Local pressure can cause entrapment neuropathy or ischaemic necrosis. Prolonged bleeding occurs after dental extractions or post-trauma. Spontaneous haematuria and gastrointestinal haemorrhage may occur. The clinical severity of the disease correlates inversely with the factor VIII level. Operative and post-traumatic haemorrhage are life-threatening both in severely and mildly affected patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following is NOT a feature characteristic of intravascular haemolysis: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a feature characteristic of intravascular haemolysis:

      Your Answer: Haemoglobinaemia

      Correct Answer: Bilirubinuria

      Explanation:

      Features of intravascular haemolysis include:haemoglobinaemia, methaemalbuminaemia, haemoglobinuria (dark urine) and haemosiderinuria

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      39.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 30-year-old male presents with easy bruising and bleeding gums, feeling very tired...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male presents with easy bruising and bleeding gums, feeling very tired lately, and recurrent chest infections over the past few months. He had glandular fever approximately 6 months ago and feels that his symptoms started after that. His full blood count today is as follows: Hb 6.3 g/dl (11.5-14 g/dl) MCV 90 fl (80-100 fl) WCC 2.0 x 10 9 /l (4-11 x 10 9 /l) Platelets 15 x 10 9 /l (150-450 x 10 9 /l)The SINGLE most likely diagnosis is?

      Your Answer: Iron deficiency anaemia

      Correct Answer: Aplastic anaemia

      Explanation:

      Aplastic anaemia is a life-threatening failure of haemopoiesis characterised by pancytopenia and hypocellular bone marrow. It is rare and patients present with features of recurrent infections secondary to (leukocytopenia), increased bleeding tendency (secondary to thrombocytopenia) and anaemia. In aplastic anaemia, there is damage to the bone marrow and the haematopoietic stems cells leading to pancytopenia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      38.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Regarding anaemia, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding anaemia, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: Anaemia may occur from an increase in plasma volume.

      Correct Answer: Anaemia is usually associated with a decrease in red cell 2,3 - DPG.

      Explanation:

      Anaemia is defined as a reduction in haemoglobin concentration below the normal range for the age and sex of the individual. Children tend to have lower haemoglobin than adults, and women tend to have lower haemoglobin than men. Anaemia may occur from an actual reduction in total circulating haemoglobin mass, or with an increase in plasma volume e.g. in pregnancy, causing a dilutional anaemia. After acute major blood loss, anaemia is not immediately apparent because total blood volume is reduced and it takes up to a day for plasma volume to be replaced and hence the degree of anaemia to become apparent. The initial clinical features in acute haemorrhage are therefore a result of reduction in blood volume rather than that of anaemia. When anaemia develops slowly, the associated symptoms are often very mild as the body has time to adapt to the fall in haemoglobin. This involves mechanisms such as an increase in red cell 2,3 -diphosphoglycerate (2,3 – DPG), which shifts the oxygen dissociation curve to the right, allowing enhanced delivery of O2 to the tissues, and an increase in stroke volume and heart rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
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  • Question 29 - A 53 year old male is found to have megaloblastic anaemia secondary to...

    Incorrect

    • A 53 year old male is found to have megaloblastic anaemia secondary to folate deficiency. He has a known history of alcohol abuse. Which of the following is characteristic of this condition?

      Your Answer: Suppressed β-chain synthesis

      Correct Answer: Increased mean corpuscular volume (MCV)

      Explanation:

      Megaloblastic anaemia occurs when there is inhibition of DNA synthesis as red blood cells are produced. Impairment of DNA synthesis causes the cell cycle to be unable to progress from the growth stage to the mitosis stage. As a result, there is continuous cell growth without division, with an increase in mean corpuscular volume (MCV), which presents as macrocytosis. The most common cause of this defect in red cell DNA synthesis is hypovitaminosis, in particular, vitamin B12 deficiency or folate deficiency.Folate is an essential vitamin that can be found in most foods, and is highest in liver, green vegetables and yeast. 200 – 250 μg is found in the normal daily diet, and about 50% is absorbed. The daily adult requirement is about 100 μg and its absorption is principally from the duodenum and jejunum. Folate stores are normally only adequate for 4 months and so clinical features of folate deficiency usually become evident after this time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 31-year-old man with sickle-cell disease receives a blood transfusion for symptomatic anaemia....

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old man with sickle-cell disease receives a blood transfusion for symptomatic anaemia. He presents to the Emergency Department three weeks later with a rash, fever, and diarrhoea. He has pancytopenia and abnormal liver function results on blood tests.Which of the transfusion reactions is most likely to have happened?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Graft-vs-host disease

      Explanation:

      Blood transfusion can be a life-saving treatment with significant clinical benefits, but it also comes with a number of risks and potential complications, including:Immunological side effectsErrors in administration (episodes of ‘wrong blood’)Viruses and Infections (bacterial, viral, possibly prion)ImmunodilutionA culture of better safety procedures as well as steps to reduce the use of transfusion has emerged as a result of growing awareness of avoidable risk and improved reporting systems. Transfusion errors, on the other hand, continue to occur, and some serious adverse reactions go unreported.Transfusion-associated graft-vs-host disease (TA-GVHD) is a rare blood transfusion complication that causes fever, rash, and diarrhoea 1-4 weeks after the transfusion. Pancytopenia and liver function abnormalities are common laboratory findings.TA-GVHD, unlike GVHD following allogeneic marrow transplantation, causes profound marrow aplasia with a mortality rate of >90%. Survival is uncommon, with death occurring within 1-3 weeks of the onset of symptoms.Because of immunodeficiency, severe immunosuppression, or shared HLA antigens, viable T lymphocytes in blood components are transfused, engraft, and react against the recipient’s tissues, and the recipient is unable to reject the donor lymphocytes.The following is a list of the most common transfusion reactions and complications:1) Reaction to a febrile transfusionThe temperature rises by one degree from the baseline. Chills and malaise are also possible symptoms.The most common response (1 in 8 transfusions).Cytokines from leukocytes in transfused red cell or platelet components are usually to blame.Only supportive. The use of paracetamol is beneficial.2) Acute haemolytic reaction is a type of haemolytic reaction that occurs when theFever, chills, pain at the transfusion site, nausea, vomiting, and dark urine are all symptoms of a transfusion reaction.Early on, many people report a sense of ‘impending doom.’The most serious reaction. ABO incompatibility is frequently caused by a clerical error.STOP THE TRANSFUSION OF INFORMATION. IV fluids should be given. It’s possible that diuretics will be required.3) Haemolytic reaction that is delayedIt usually happens 4 to 8 days after a blood transfusion.Fever, anaemia, jaundice, and haemoglobinuria are all symptoms that the patient has.Positive Coombs test for direct antiglobulin.Because of the low titre antibody, it is difficult to detect in a cross-match, and it is unable to cause lysis at the time of transfusion.The majority of delayed haemolytic reactions are harmless and do not require treatment.Anaemia and renal function should be monitored and treated as needed.4) Reaction to allergensForeign plasma proteins are usually to blame, but anti-IgA could also be to blame.Urticaria, pruritus, and hives are typical allergic reactions. It’s possible that it’s linked to laryngeal oedema or bronchospasm.Anaphylaxis is a rare occurrence.Antihistamines can be used to treat allergic reactions symptomatically. It is not necessary to stop transfusions.If the patient develops anaphylaxis, the transfusion should be stopped and the patient should be given adrenaline and treated according to the ALS protocol.5) TRALI (Transfusion Related Acute Lung Injury)Within 6 hours of transfusion, there was a sudden onset of non-cardiogenic pulmonary oedema.It’s linked to the presence of antibodies to recipient leukocyte antigens in the donor blood.The most common cause of death from transfusion reactions is this.STOP THE TRANSFUSION OF INFORMATION. Oxygen should be given to the patient. Around 75% of patients will require aggressive respiratory support.The use of diuretics should be avoided.6) TACO (Transfusion Associated Circulatory Overload)Acute or worsening respiratory distress within 6 hours of a large blood transfusion. Fluid overload and pulmonary and peripheral oedema can be seen. Rapid blood pressure rises are common. BNP is usually 1.5 times higher than it was before the transfusion. It is most common in the elderly and those who have chronic anaemia.Blood transfusions should be given slowly, over the course of 3-4 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Haematology (21/29) 72%
Pathology (21/29) 72%
Passmed