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  • Question 1 - You encounter a 55-year-old woman who is currently on estrogen-only hormone-replacement therapy (HRT)...

    Correct

    • You encounter a 55-year-old woman who is currently on estrogen-only hormone-replacement therapy (HRT) and has a Mirena® levonorgestrel intrauterine system (LNG-IUS) for endometrial protection (not contraception). She has been following this HRT regimen for the past 3 years. She is curious about when she should consider replacing her Mirena®. What guidance should you provide to this patient?

      Your Answer: She should have it changed every 4 years

      Explanation:

      When women use an IUS for endometrial protection as part of their HRT regimen, they need to replace the device every 4 years according to the BNF or 5 years according to the FSRH. The Mirena® IUS is effective in protecting the endometrium from the effects of exogenous estrogen, and the BNF recommends its use for this purpose. However, if the Mirena® IUS is used for contraception and inserted after the age of 45, it can remain in place until menopause, even if the woman is still having periods.

      Women over the age of 40 still require effective contraception until they reach menopause, despite a significant decline in fertility. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has produced specific guidance for this age group, titled Contraception for Women Aged Over 40 Years. No method of contraception is contraindicated by age alone, with all methods being UKMEC1 except for the combined oral contraceptive pill (UKMEC2 for women >= 40 years) and Depo-Provera (UKMEC2 for women > 45 years). The FSRH guidance provides specific considerations for each method, such as the use of COCP in the perimenopausal period to maintain bone mineral density and reduce menopausal symptoms. Depo-Provera use is associated with a small loss in bone mineral density, which is usually recovered after discontinuation. The FSRH also provides a table detailing how different methods may be stopped based on age and amenorrhea status. Hormone replacement therapy cannot be relied upon for contraception, and a separate method is needed. The FSRH advises that the POP may be used in conjunction with HRT as long as the HRT has a progestogen component, while the IUS is licensed to provide the progestogen component of HRT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      47
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which one of the following statements regarding hand, foot and mouth disease is...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding hand, foot and mouth disease is incorrect?

      Your Answer: May be caused by enterovirus 71

      Correct Answer: Palm and sole lesions tend to occur before oral ulcers

      Explanation:

      Oral lesions typically manifest before palm and sole lesions in cases of hand, foot and mouth disease.

      Hand, Foot and Mouth Disease: A Contagious Condition in Children

      Hand, foot and mouth disease is a viral infection that commonly affects children. It is caused by intestinal viruses from the Picornaviridae family, particularly coxsackie A16 and enterovirus 71. This condition is highly contagious and often occurs in outbreaks in nurseries.

      The clinical features of hand, foot and mouth disease include mild systemic upset such as sore throat and fever, followed by the appearance of oral ulcers and vesicles on the palms and soles of the feet.

      Symptomatic treatment is the only management option available, which includes general advice on hydration and analgesia. It is important to note that there is no link between this disease and cattle, and children do not need to be excluded from school. However, the Health Protection Agency recommends that children who are unwell should stay home until they feel better. If there is a large outbreak, it is advisable to contact the agency for assistance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      21.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A Pediatrician cares for patients living in a local refugee accommodation centre. The...

    Incorrect

    • A Pediatrician cares for patients living in a local refugee accommodation centre. The doctor is concerned about overcrowding, as he is aware that living in overcrowded accommodation increases the risk of communicable diseases and mental illness.
      Which of the following living situations is the most acceptable according to the bedroom standard?

      Your Answer: A married couple sharing a room with their 5-year-old twin boys

      Correct Answer: Two 18-year-old male cousins sharing a bedroom

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Bedroom Standard: A Guide to Housing Overcrowding

      The bedroom standard is a commonly used measure of overcrowding in housing. It outlines the minimum requirements for the number of bedrooms needed based on the occupants’ ages and relationships. Here are some examples of how the bedroom standard applies to different living situations:

      – Two 18-year-old male cousins sharing a bedroom: This is acceptable according to the bedroom standard as they are of the same sex and between the ages of 10 and 20.
      – A married couple sleeping on a pull-out bed in the family’s living room: This is not acceptable according to the bedroom standard as a living room or kitchen should not be used as a bedroom.
      – A 12-year-old boy sharing a room with his 13-year-old sister: This is not acceptable according to the bedroom standard as they are of opposite sexes.
      – A married couple sharing a room with their 5-year-old twin boys: This is not acceptable according to the bedroom standard as the family should have at least two separate bedrooms.
      – A pair of sisters aged 22 and 26 years sharing a room: This is not acceptable according to the bedroom standard as an individual aged 21 years or more should have their own room.

      Understanding the bedroom standard is important for ensuring adequate living conditions and avoiding overcrowding in housing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      186.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 26-year-old woman is 18 weeks pregnant. She works as a kindergarten teacher,...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old woman is 18 weeks pregnant. She works as a kindergarten teacher, and two children in the kindergarten have developed Chickenpox. Her own mother is certain that she had Chickenpox as a child.
      What is the most appropriate piece of advice to give in order to reassure this woman that her baby is not at risk from this Chickenpox contact?

      Your Answer: The patient is at low risk of developing an infection as she is sure she had a previous Chickenpox infection

      Explanation:

      Understanding Chickenpox Serology Results in Pregnancy

      Chickenpox infection during pregnancy can have serious consequences for both the mother and the fetus. Therefore, it is important to determine a woman’s immunity status before she is exposed to the virus. Serology testing can help determine if a woman has been previously infected or vaccinated against Chickenpox. Here are the possible results and their implications:

      – Negative IgG and negative IgM serology: This indicates that the woman has not been previously exposed to the virus and is not immune. She should avoid exposure and receive immunoglobulin if she has significant exposure. She should also be vaccinated postpartum.
      – Positive IgG and negative IgM serology: This indicates that the woman has been previously infected or vaccinated and has protective immunity against re-infection. This is the desired result if the woman has no history of Chickenpox.
      – Positive IgG and positive IgM serology: This suggests recent infection, but should not be used alone to diagnose infection. Clinical presentation should also be considered. If the woman develops Chickenpox, she should receive acyclovir.
      – No serology testing needed: If the woman has a definite history of Chickenpox, she is considered immune and doesn’t need serology testing.

      It is important to note that a history of Chickenpox may not be a reliable predictor of immunity in women from overseas, and serology testing may be necessary. The NICE guidance on Chickenpox infection in pregnancy provides further recommendations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      39.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 70-year-old man comes to see you after his recent prostatectomy for localised...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man comes to see you after his recent prostatectomy for localised prostate cancer. He was diagnosed after presenting with minimal symptoms and as such he is worried about relapse and recurrence of his prostate cancer.

      He tells you that his specialist mentioned that he would have a PSA blood test performed periodically as a means of monitoring for recurrence. How often should he have his PSA checked?

      Your Answer: At 1, 3 and 6 months then at least six monthly thereafter

      Correct Answer: At six weeks, then at least six monthly for two years, then at least annually thereafter

      Explanation:

      Monitoring Prostate Cancer Patients

      Patients who have had prostate cancer require regular monitoring to check for any signs of recurrence or progression. This is usually done through PSA blood tests, which can be done at the GP surgery. However, it is important to note that patients should be under the direction of a specialist for monitoring and follow-up appointments.

      As a GP, it is important to have an understanding of the monitoring process so that you can effectively counsel and advise patients who may have concerns about recurrence. Fear of recurrence is a common issue amongst cancer survivors, and they may feel more comfortable discussing this with their GP.

      NICE has provided guidance on active surveillance and monitoring post-treatment, which can help inform your consultations with patients. By understanding the necessary monitoring, you can provide better support and care for patients who have been affected by prostate cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      32.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - You diagnose a left-sided sudden sensorineural hearing loss (SSNHL) in a normally fit...

    Correct

    • You diagnose a left-sided sudden sensorineural hearing loss (SSNHL) in a normally fit and well 36-year-old woman who has come to see you in your GP clinic. She developed her symptoms over a few hours yesterday and now can not hear at all through her left ear. Her examination shows no obvious external or middle ear causes.

      What is your next step?

      Your Answer: Refer her for assessment within 24 hours by an ENT specialist

      Explanation:

      Immediate referral to an ENT specialist or emergency department is necessary for individuals experiencing acute sensorineural hearing loss. This is considered an emergency and requires urgent audiology assessment and a brain MRI. According to NICE CKS guidelines, individuals with sudden onset hearing loss (unilateral or bilateral) within the past 30 days, without any external or middle ear causes, should be referred within 24 hours. Additionally, those with unilateral hearing loss accompanied by focal neurology, head or neck injury, or severe infections such as necrotising otitis externa or Ramsay Hunt syndrome should also be referred urgently. Referral to a specialist other than ENT or non-urgent referral options are incorrect.

      When a patient experiences a sudden loss of hearing, it is crucial to conduct a thorough examination to determine whether it is conductive or sensorineural hearing loss. If it is the latter, known as sudden-onset sensorineural hearing loss (SSNHL), it is imperative to refer the patient to an ear, nose, and throat (ENT) specialist immediately. The majority of SSNHL cases have no identifiable cause, making them idiopathic. To rule out the possibility of a vestibular schwannoma, an MRI scan is typically performed. ENT specialists administer high-dose oral corticosteroids to all patients with SSNHL.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      426.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - You receive a letter from the police asking for a patient's medical history...

    Incorrect

    • You receive a letter from the police asking for a patient's medical history in relation to a driver's license application. The patient has consented for this information to be shared.

      How should you proceed with this request?

      Your Answer: The patient must attend for a face to face examination

      Correct Answer: The patient must attend for face to face examination

      Explanation:

      Responding to a Police Letter for Medical Examination

      When you receive a police letter requesting a medical examination, it is important to respond within 21 days. Even if you have conscientious objections, failing to respond can put your professional standing at risk. Note that this work is not considered part of NHS services, so you may be charged a fee. However, you do not necessarily need to attend a face-to-face examination, as most forms can be completed using your medical records. Ultimately, it is crucial to respond to the initial police letter promptly and professionally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Leadership And Management
      233.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Samantha is a 58-year-old woman who works from home as a freelance writer....

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 58-year-old woman who works from home as a freelance writer. She owns her own home but requires assistance with daily tasks due to her severe osteoarthritis. She recently applied for Attendance Allowance but was informed that she is not eligible. What is the reason for Samantha's ineligibility for Attendance Allowance?

      Your Answer: Because Attendance Allowance is only available to those over 60 years

      Correct Answer: Because Greg is aged under 65 years

      Explanation:

      The reason why Greg is not eligible for Attendance Allowance is because he is under 65 years of age. This benefit is specifically for individuals who are over 65 and require assistance with personal care due to physical or mental disability. Those who are under 65 and require similar assistance should apply for Personal Independence Payment instead. To be eligible for Attendance Allowance, one must have a physical or mental disability that is severe enough to require assistance with personal care or supervision for safety reasons. The allowance is paid at different levels depending on the level of assistance required.

      Patients who suffer from chronic illnesses or cancer and require assistance with caring for themselves may be eligible for benefits. Those under the age of 65 can claim Personal Independence Payment (PIP), while those aged 65 and over can claim Attendance Allowance (AA). PIP is tax-free and divided into two components: daily living and mobility. Patients must have a long-term health condition or disability and have difficulties with activities related to daily living and/or mobility for at least 3 months, with an expectation that these difficulties will last for at least 9 months. AA is also tax-free and is for those who need help with personal care. Patients should have needed help for at least 6 months to claim AA.

      Patients who have a terminal illness and are not expected to live for more than 6 months can be fast-tracked through the system for claiming incapacity benefit (IB), employment support allowance (ESA), DLA or AA. A DS1500 form is completed by a hospital or hospice consultant, which contains questions about the diagnosis, clinical features, treatment, and whether the patient is aware of the condition/prognosis. The form is given directly to the patient and a fee is payable by the Department for Works and Pensions (DWP) for its completion. This ensures that the application is dealt with promptly and that the patient automatically receives the higher rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      56.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A father brings his 15-month-old daughter into surgery. Since yesterday she seems to...

    Correct

    • A father brings his 15-month-old daughter into surgery. Since yesterday she seems to be straining whilst passing stools. He describes her screaming, appearing to be in pain and pulling her knees up towards her chest. These episodes are now occurring every 15-20 minutes. This morning he noted a small amount of blood in her nappy. She is taking around 50% of her normal feeds and vomiting 'green fluid' every hour. On examination, she appears irritable and lethargic but is well hydrated and apyrexial. On examination, her abdomen seems distended but no discrete mass is found.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Intussusception

      Explanation:

      Understanding Intussusception

      Intussusception is a medical condition where one part of the bowel folds into the lumen of the adjacent bowel, usually around the ileocecal region. This condition is most common in infants between 6-18 months old, with boys being affected twice as often as girls. Symptoms of intussusception include severe, crampy abdominal pain, inconsolable crying, vomiting, and bloodstained stool, which is a late sign. During a paroxysm, the infant will draw their knees up and turn pale, and a sausage-shaped mass may be felt in the right upper quadrant.

      To diagnose intussusception, ultrasound is now the preferred method of investigation, which may show a target-like mass. Treatment for intussusception involves reducing the bowel by air insufflation under radiological control, which is now widely used first-line compared to the traditional barium enema. If this method fails, or the child has signs of peritonitis, surgery is performed. Understanding the symptoms and treatment options for intussusception is crucial for parents and healthcare professionals to ensure prompt and effective management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      25.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 27-year-old male presents with irregular skin discoloration on his upper back after...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old male presents with irregular skin discoloration on his upper back after returning from a 2-week vacation in Ibiza. Although he applied sunscreen intermittently, he did experience mild sunburn in the area, which has since healed. He doesn't experience any pain or itching, but he is self-conscious about the appearance of his skin. During the examination, there are scattered pale pink macules covered with fine scales visible over his upper back, despite having a suntan. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pityriasis versicolor

      Explanation:

      The patient has pityriasis Versicolor, a fungal infection that affects sebum-rich areas of skin. It presents as multiple round or oval macules that may coalesce, with light pink, red or brown colour and fine scale. Itching is mild. It is not vitiligo, sunburn or pityriasis rosea, nor tinea corporis.

      Understanding Pityriasis Versicolor

      Pityriasis versicolor, also known as tinea versicolor, is a fungal infection that affects the skin’s surface. It is caused by Malassezia furfur, which was previously known as Pityrosporum ovale. This condition is characterized by patches that are commonly found on the trunk area. These patches may appear hypopigmented, pink, or brown, and may become more noticeable after sun exposure. Scaling is also a common feature, and mild itching may occur.

      Pityriasis versicolor can affect healthy individuals, but it may also occur in people with weakened immune systems, malnutrition, or Cushing’s syndrome. Treatment for this condition typically involves the use of topical antifungal agents. According to NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries, ketoconazole shampoo is a cost-effective option for treating large areas. If topical treatment fails, alternative diagnoses should be considered, and oral itraconazole may be prescribed.

      In summary, pityriasis versicolor is a fungal infection that affects the skin’s surface. It is characterized by patches that may appear hypopigmented, pink, or brown, and scaling is a common feature. Treatment typically involves the use of topical antifungal agents, and oral itraconazole may be prescribed if topical treatment fails.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      94.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 35-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner complaining of diarrhoea, bloating and flatulence...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner complaining of diarrhoea, bloating and flatulence that have been ongoing for 3 years. She has also noticed a significant weight loss, dropping from 65 kg to 57kg in the past few months. She reports that her symptoms worsen after consuming gluten-containing foods. Upon examination, her BMI is 18.5 kg/m2. An oesopho-gastro-duodenoscopy is performed, and she is diagnosed with coeliac disease through jejunal biopsy. What is the most appropriate procedure to perform at the time of this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Coeliac Disease Patients: Which Ones are Indicated?

      Coeliac disease is a condition that can increase the risk of osteoporosis due to the malabsorption of calcium. In patients who are at a higher risk of osteoporosis, a Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan should be conducted. This includes patients who have persistent symptoms on a gluten-free diet lasting for at least one year, poor adherence to a gluten-free diet, weight loss of more than 10%, BMI less than 20 kg/m2, or age over 70 years.

      In addition to DEXA scans, other diagnostic tests may be considered based on the patient’s symptoms and risk factors. Flexible colonoscopy is not routinely indicated for coeliac disease patients unless specific bowel symptoms or pathology are suspected. Abdominal ultrasound (US) is not indicated for coeliac disease patients unless there is suspected pathology in solid organs such as the liver, gallbladder, pancreas, or kidney. Barium enema is not frequently used and is not specifically indicated for coeliac disease patients. Chest X-ray (CXR) is not routinely indicated for coeliac disease patients, but may be considered in patients with unexplained weight loss, chronic cough, haemoptysis, or shortness of breath.

      In summary, DEXA scans are indicated for coeliac disease patients at a higher risk of osteoporosis, while other diagnostic tests should be considered based on the patient’s symptoms and risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - As a General Practitioner, which of the following items is NOT eligible for...

    Correct

    • As a General Practitioner, which of the following items is NOT eligible for personal administration claims?

      Your Answer: Salbutamol nebules

      Explanation:

      Understanding Personally Administered Items in General Medical Services

      Personally administered items are prescription items that are prescribed and administered by a member of the practice team. These items attract payment under General Medical Services Statement of Financial Entitlement 2005 section 17. Examples of personally administered items include vaccines, anaesthetics, injections, intrauterine contraceptive devices, contraceptive caps and diaphragms, diagnostic reagents, pessaries, and sutures.

      It is important to note that Nexplanon cannot be claimed as a personally administered item since it is an implant, not an injection. An FP10 prescription should be provided instead. However, Goserelin, Leuprorelin, and Triptorelin can be claimed as personally administered items, even though they are implants.

      High-volume vaccines such as influenza, typhoid, hepatitis A, hepatitis B, pneumococcal, and meningococcal are claimed on the form FP34PD. For other vaccines, an FP10 is needed. Dressings, hormonal implants, nebules, catheters, and clinical reagents cannot be claimed as personally administered items and require an FP10 prescription.

      It is important to note that items that are personally administered do not attract a prescription charge. Both dispensing and non-dispensing doctors can claim a fee from the Prescription Pricing Authority. The fee per item decreases with an increasing number of items. If a practice is claiming more than 400 items per month, it is financially beneficial to split them into batches for each doctor rather than send one batch for the whole practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      31.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - You encounter a 16-year-old female patient who is interested in learning about the...

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 16-year-old female patient who is interested in learning about the most appropriate forms of contraception for her. During your discussion, you highlight the advantages of long-acting reversible contraception, and she expresses interest in learning more about the contraceptive implant and its mechanism of action. What is the primary mode of action of the contraceptive implant?

      Your Answer: Preventing ovulation and implantation

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of ovulation

      Explanation:

      The main way in which the contraceptive implant works is by stopping ovulation. It may also have secondary effects such as changing cervical mucous to prevent sperm from entering and thinning the endometrium to potentially prevent implantation, but these are not its primary mode of action.

      Understanding the Mode of Action of Contraceptives

      Contraceptives are designed to prevent pregnancy by various mechanisms. The mode of action of standard contraceptives and emergency contraception is summarized in the table below, based on documents produced by the Faculty for Sexual and Reproductive Health (FSRH).

      Standard contraceptives include the combined oral contraceptive pill, progestogen-only pill, injectable contraceptive, implantable contraceptive, and intrauterine contraceptive device/system. The combined oral contraceptive pill and some progestogen-only pills work by inhibiting ovulation, while others thicken cervical mucous to prevent sperm from reaching the egg. Injectable and implantable contraceptives primarily inhibit ovulation, but also thicken cervical mucous. Intrauterine devices decrease sperm motility and survival, while the intrauterine system prevents endometrial proliferation and thickens cervical mucous.

      Emergency contraception, which is used after unprotected sex or contraceptive failure, includes levonorgestrel, ulipristal, and the intrauterine contraceptive device. Levonorgestrel and ulipristal work by inhibiting ovulation, while the intrauterine contraceptive device is toxic to sperm and ovum and can also inhibit implantation.

      Understanding the mode of action of contraceptives is important for choosing the most appropriate method for an individual’s needs and preferences. It is also essential for using contraceptives effectively and maximizing their effectiveness in preventing unintended pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      29.6
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  • Question 14 - An 8-year-old boy comes to the General Practitioner with his father complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • An 8-year-old boy comes to the General Practitioner with his father complaining of bed-wetting, thirst and increasing lethargy for the past 2 weeks. The father reports that his son has lost some weight. The patient appears healthy and the examination is normal. Urinalysis reveals 4+ glucose and moderate ketones. His capillary blood glucose level is 16 mmol/l.
      What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Send urine for culture and review in General Practice in one week

      Correct Answer: Acute Paediatric referral to be seen today

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Management of Suspected Diabetes Mellitus in a Paediatric Patient

      When a paediatric patient presents with symptoms of polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss, along with a raised capillary blood glucose, diabetes mellitus is a likely diagnosis. This insidious onset over several weeks can make it difficult to detect, and children may appear well despite being in diabetic ketoacidosis. Therefore, it is crucial to confirm the diagnosis and initiate appropriate treatment on the same day to prevent any life-threatening complications.

      While urine culture may be appropriate for suspected urinary tract infections, elevated blood glucose makes diabetes mellitus a more likely diagnosis. Therefore, arranging for fasting blood sugar, haemoglobin A1c, and paediatric outpatient review within two weeks is necessary.

      Initiating insulin therapy in primary care is essential, but the patient will also need urgent secondary care investigation, such as blood gas analysis, to rule out ketoacidosis. The patient may require fluid resuscitation and extensive education regarding diabetes, which can be best accessed in secondary care.

      Although measuring C-peptide may distinguish between different types of diabetes, it is usually unnecessary in patients with features suggestive of type I diabetes, as seen in this patient. Therefore, appropriate management of suspected diabetes mellitus in a paediatric patient involves prompt diagnosis, initiation of insulin therapy, and urgent secondary care investigation to prevent any life-threatening complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      33.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A study was conducted to evaluate the effectiveness of a new autoantibody test...

    Incorrect

    • A study was conducted to evaluate the effectiveness of a new autoantibody test for detecting suspected Hashimoto's disease in individuals over the age of 50. The test was administered to 1000 participants who reported fatigue, and all test results were compared to FNA biopsy results, which served as the gold standard for diagnosing Hashimoto's disease. The table below shows the results:

      Antibody +ve Antibody -ve Total
      Hashimoto's disease confirmed at FNA 35 15 50
      No evidence of disease at FNA 30 920 950

      What is the approximate sensitivity of the autoantibody test for detecting Hashimoto's disease in individuals over the age of 50?

      Your Answer: 80%

      Correct Answer: 70%

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sensitivity in Medical Testing

      Sensitivity is a crucial measure of a medical test’s ability to identify individuals with a particular condition. It is calculated as the proportion of true positives correctly identified by the test. For instance, if 50 individuals have Hashimoto’s disease according to the gold standard test of biopsy, and 35 of these are identified by the antibody test, the sensitivity of the test is 70%. This means that the test correctly identified 35 out of 50 true positives, while 15 were falsely identified as negative. In other words, sensitivity is the ability of a test to detect the presence of a condition in those who have it. Understanding sensitivity is essential in evaluating the accuracy and reliability of medical tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      39.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which statement accurately describes chest pain? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement accurately describes chest pain?

      Your Answer: Pleuritic pain is sharp and localised and aggravated by coughing

      Explanation:

      Pain and Innervation in the Diaphragm, Lungs, and Pericardium

      The diaphragm is innervated by the phrenic nerve, which only supplies the central portion of the muscle. Therefore, pain originating in the outer diaphragm will not be referred to the tip of the shoulder. Additionally, the lung parenchyma and visceral pleura are insensitive to pain, meaning that any discomfort felt in these areas is likely due to surrounding structures.

      Pericarditis, inflammation of the pericardium surrounding the heart, can cause chest pain. However, this pain is typically relieved by sitting forward. This is because the pericardium is attached to the diaphragm and sternum, and sitting forward can reduce pressure on these structures, alleviating the pain. Understanding the innervation and sensitivity of these structures can aid in the diagnosis and management of chest pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      23.8
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  • Question 17 - A 65-year-old man presents to the General Practice Surgery with jaundice.
    On examination, he...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to the General Practice Surgery with jaundice.
      On examination, he has an enlarged, nodular liver. He is referred to hospital where a computed tomography (CT) scan of his abdomen reveals a cirrhotic liver with a large mass. A CT-guided biopsy of the mass demonstrates a malignant tumour derived from hepatic parenchymal cells.
      What is the most likely causative agent in this patient?

      Your Answer: Human papillomavirus (HPV)

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis B virus

      Explanation:

      Viral Causes of Cancer: A Comparison

      There are several viruses that have been linked to the development of cancer in humans. Among these, hepatitis B virus is one of the most significant causes of cancer in many parts of the world, particularly in China where liver cancer accounts for about 20% of all cancer deaths. Infant vaccination against the virus is now being introduced to protect the new generation, but it doesn’t provide retrospective protection. On the other hand, hepatitis C is a more common cause of liver cancer in Europe and the United States.

      Human T-lymphocyte virus, Epstein–Barr virus, and human herpesvirus type 8 are also known to cause cancer in humans, but not liver cancer. Human T-lymphocyte viruses can cause adult T-cell leukaemia/lymphoma, while Epstein–Barr virus has been linked with Hodgkin’s lymphoma, Burkitt’s lymphoma, nasopharyngeal cancer, and gastric cancer. Human herpesvirus type 8 is associated with Kaposi’s sarcoma, which is most often found in men who have sex with men but can also occur in heterosexuals.

      Human papillomavirus (HPV) is another virus that has been linked to cancer, but not liver cancer. HPV types 6 and 11 cause anogenital warts, while HPV16 and HPV18 are responsible for more than two thirds of all cervical cancers globally. HPV infection is also associated with anogenital cancer and some nasopharyngeal cancers.

      In summary, while several viruses have been linked to the development of cancer in humans, their specific associations vary. It is important to understand these associations in order to develop effective prevention and treatment strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      40.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - You are a new partner in an inner city practice, having recently completed...

    Correct

    • You are a new partner in an inner city practice, having recently completed GP training. A teenage patient presents in a very poor state of health. She is very thin and has multiple injection site marks. She tells you she has previously been prescribed methadone and is seeking to restart this.

      What is your most appropriate response?

      Your Answer: Do not prescribe and refer to specialist service

      Explanation:

      Safe Prescribing of Methadone

      It is crucial that doctors do not feel pressured to prescribe methadone without proper evaluation and consideration of the patient’s history. Methadone is a potent drug that can be dangerous if not prescribed correctly. Therefore, the prescriber must be experienced and competent in handling such cases.

      Before prescribing methadone, the patient should undergo a drug screening, and their previous GP or drug team should be contacted. It is also advisable to involve a local drug worker in the patient’s care. Only after these steps should methadone be prescribed, and at a low dose, gradually increasing under the supervision of a pharmacist. The principle of start low, go slow should be followed to ensure the patient’s safety.

      By following these guidelines, doctors can ensure that methadone is prescribed safely and effectively, minimizing the risks associated with this potent drug.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      81.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 70-year-old man with atrial fibrillation takes digoxin. He visited his General Practitioner...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man with atrial fibrillation takes digoxin. He visited his General Practitioner (GP) reporting discomfort and swelling in his ankles, and was prescribed Drug X alongside his current medication. After two weeks, he experiences nausea, diarrhoea, and reports seeing yellow. What is the probable identity of Drug X?

      Your Answer: Furosemide

      Explanation:

      Medications and their interactions in a case of digoxin toxicity

      Digoxin toxicity is a serious condition that can present with gastrointestinal upset, changes to vision, hypokalaemia, and cardiac arrhythmias. Co-prescribing of a thiazide or loop diuretic can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity by reducing potassium levels. Other risk factors for digoxin toxicity include age, poor renal function, and calcium-channel blockers.

      Amiodarone can be used in atrial fibrillation but should only be prescribed in secondary care and would not be prescribed for the ankle swelling that may have led to the digoxin prescription. Propranolol and sotalol do not interact with digoxin and would not have caused the symptoms of digoxin toxicity. Warfarin doesn’t interact with digoxin and would not be prescribed to treat the original symptoms of ankle swelling. It is important to consider medication interactions and risk factors when prescribing medications to avoid adverse effects such as digoxin toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      32.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - What is the primary treatment for Morton's neuroma? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary treatment for Morton's neuroma?

      Your Answer: Avoid high heels + supinatory insoles

      Correct Answer: Avoid high heels + metatarsal pads

      Explanation:

      Understanding Morton’s Neuroma

      Morton’s neuroma is a non-cancerous growth that affects the intermetatarsal plantar nerve, typically in the third inter-metatarsophalangeal space. It is more common in women than men, with a ratio of 4:1. The condition is characterized by pain in the forefoot, particularly in the third inter-metatarsophalangeal space, which worsens when walking. Patients may describe the pain as a shooting or burning sensation, and they may feel as though they have a pebble in their shoe. In addition, there may be a loss of sensation in the toes.

      To diagnose Morton’s neuroma, doctors typically rely on clinical examination, although ultrasound may be helpful in confirming the diagnosis. One diagnostic technique involves attempting to hold the neuroma between the finger and thumb of one hand while squeezing the metatarsals together with the other hand. If a clicking sound is heard, it may indicate the presence of a neuroma.

      Management of Morton’s neuroma typically involves avoiding high-heels and using a metatarsal pad. If symptoms persist for more than three months despite these measures, referral to a specialist may be necessary. Orthotists may provide patients with a metatarsal dome orthotic, while secondary care options may include corticosteroid injection or neurectomy of the affected interdigital nerve and neuroma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      50.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which one of the following statements regarding fungal nail infections is inaccurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding fungal nail infections is inaccurate?

      Your Answer: Diagnosis should be confirmed by microbiology before starting treatment

      Correct Answer: Treatment is successful in around 90-95% of people

      Explanation:

      Fungal Nail Infections: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Fungal nail infections, also known as onychomycosis, can affect any part of the nail or the entire nail unit. However, toenails are more susceptible to infection than fingernails. The primary cause of fungal nail infections is dermatophytes, with Trichophyton rubrum being the most common. Yeasts, such as Candida, and non-dermatophyte molds can also cause fungal nail infections. Risk factors for developing a fungal nail infection include increasing age, diabetes mellitus, psoriasis, and repeated nail trauma.

      The most common symptom of a fungal nail infection is thickened, rough, and opaque nails. Patients may present with unsightly nails, which can be a source of embarrassment. Differential diagnoses include psoriasis, repeated trauma, lichen planus, and yellow nail syndrome. To confirm a fungal nail infection, nail clippings or scrapings of the affected nail should be examined under a microscope and cultured. However, the false-negative rate for cultures is around 30%, so repeat samples may be necessary if clinical suspicion is high.

      Asymptomatic fungal nail infections do not require treatment unless the patient is bothered by the appearance. Topical treatment with amorolfine 5% nail lacquer is recommended for limited involvement, while oral terbinafine is the first-line treatment for more extensive involvement due to a dermatophyte infection. Fingernail infections require 6 weeks to 3 months of therapy, while toenails should be treated for 3 to 6 months. Oral itraconazole is recommended for more extensive involvement due to a Candida infection, with pulsed weekly therapy being the preferred method.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      51.9
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - During a routine contraception review, you ask a 27-year-woman whether she has any...

    Incorrect

    • During a routine contraception review, you ask a 27-year-woman whether she has any troublesome vaginal discharge or any unscheduled bleeding. She says that she has no unscheduled bleeding and that she has always had a very slight, clear, intermittent vaginal discharge. She has no other symptoms and is in a stable relationship.

      What is the most probable reason for this?

      Your Answer: She should be screened for STI

      Correct Answer: The most likely cause is a physiological discharge

      Explanation:

      Causes of Vaginal Discharge in Women

      This woman is experiencing occasional vaginal discharge. There are several potential causes of vaginal discharge, including candidiasis, bacterial vaginosis, and physiological discharge. Candidiasis is typically associated with itch and a thick discharge, while bacterial vaginosis is often intermittent and accompanied by a profuse and smelly discharge. However, given the patient’s age and stable relationship, physiological discharge is the most likely cause.

      In this case, it may not be necessary to conduct a speculum exam unless the patient specifically requests it. Initially, the patient can be reassured without further investigation. However, if investigation is deemed necessary, a self-taken lower vaginal swab would be a reasonable option.

      It is important to note that normality is a common theme in the MRCGP exam, and understanding the various causes of vaginal discharge is an important aspect of primary care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      106.9
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 50-year-old man visits your clinic. He has been suffering from chronic bronchitis...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man visits your clinic. He has been suffering from chronic bronchitis for several years and was diagnosed with mesothelioma two months ago. He worked as an electrician for a long time and also worked as a dockworker. He expresses his dissatisfaction with the care he has received from you and the local hospital and wants to file a complaint. He also wants to review his medical records. You assure him that you will take care of it, but he insists on seeing the records right away. What is the legal timeframe for you to comply with his request?

      Your Answer: You must give him a copy of the records immediately

      Correct Answer: You must give him a copy of the records within 10 days

      Explanation:

      Accessing Medical Records

      Patients have the right to access their medical records, but it is important to obtain their consent before releasing any information to others, including their relatives. However, parents of young children are entitled to view their children’s records. For children over 16 and those under 16 who understand the significance of allowing others to see their records, their consent must be obtained before releasing any information.

      The NHS Choices website provides guidance on how to request access to health records, and it is important to note that GDPR regulations require access to be granted within one calendar month. NHS England advises that access should be granted within 28 days. The British Medical Association also provides a helpful PDF guide on accessing medical records. By following these guidelines, patients can ensure that their medical information is kept confidential and that they have control over who can access their records.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      65.7
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 50-year-old male presents concerned about his risk of developing diabetes.

    His family history...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male presents concerned about his risk of developing diabetes.

      His family history reveals that his mother and maternal uncle both have diabetes. He has central obesity with a waist measurement of 110 cm. On examination, his blood pressure is 130/82 mmHg, his BMI is 30.2 kg/m2.

      His investigations reveal:

      Fasting cholesterol 5.2 mmol/L (<5.2) 200 mg/dL (<200)

      Triglycerides 1.4 mmol/L (0.45-1.69) 124 mg/dL (40-150)

      HDL cholesterol 1.1 mmol/L (>1.55) 42 mg/dL (>60)

      Fasting glucose 6.2 mmol/L (3.0-6.0) 111 mg/dL (54-108)

      In addition to his waist measurement which one of this man's observations is a criterion for the diagnosis of the metabolic syndrome?

      Your Answer: HDL concentration of 1.1 mmol/L (42 mg/dL)

      Correct Answer: Triglyceride concentration of 1.4 mmol/L (124 mg/dL)

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Metabolic Syndrome

      The metabolic syndrome is a group of features that increase the risk of cardiovascular disease and diabetes. The latest definition by the IDF includes central obesity (waist circumference of ≥94 cm for men and ≥80 cm for women) plus any two of the following: hypertriglyceridemia (>1.7 mmol/L), low HDL concentration (<1.03 mmol/L for males and <1.29 mmol/L for females), high blood pressure (≥130/85 mmHg or on treatment for hypertension), and fasting glucose (≥5.6 mmol/L or known to have type 2 diabetes). In our patient's case, the elevated fasting glucose of 6.2 mmol/L fulfills this diagnostic criterion. It is important to note that BMI is not a factor in the diagnostic criteria, as waist circumference is a more significant predictor of risk. Understanding the metabolic syndrome and its diagnostic criteria is crucial in identifying and managing individuals at risk for cardiovascular disease and diabetes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 70-year-old man with metastatic prostate cancer is experiencing increased pain and frequent...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man with metastatic prostate cancer is experiencing increased pain and frequent vomiting while taking oral modified-release morphine sulphate 60mg bd. It has been decided to switch to subcutaneous administration. What is the appropriate dosage of morphine for a continuous subcutaneous infusion over a 24-hour period?

      Your Answer: 120mg

      Correct Answer: 60mg

      Explanation:

      In this scenario, the BNF suggests administering half the usual oral dose of morphine.

      When morphine is given through injection (subcutaneous, intramuscular, or intravenous), the recommended dose is approximately half of the oral dose. If the patient is no longer able to swallow, a continuous subcutaneous infusion of morphine is typically used.

      Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects include nausea, drowsiness, and constipation, which are usually transient but may persist. Denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain in addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      35.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - From the date indicated on a prescription for a Controlled Drug in Schedules...

    Incorrect

    • From the date indicated on a prescription for a Controlled Drug in Schedules 2, 3, or 4 under the Misuse of Drugs regulations 2001 (and subsequent amendments), how many days is it considered valid?

      Your Answer: 7 days

      Correct Answer: 14 days

      Explanation:

      Prescription Guidelines for Medications and Controlled Drugs

      Prescriptions for medications and controlled drugs must adhere to specific guidelines to ensure patient safety and prevent misuse. A prescription for medication is valid for 28 days from the date stated on the prescription, and the quantity prescribed should not exceed a 30-day supply unless exceptional circumstances are clearly stated in the patient’s notes. Controlled drugs are subject to even stricter regulations, including requirements for indelible prescriptions signed and dated by the prescriber, specifying the prescriber’s address, and stating the name and address of the patient, the form and strength of the preparation, the total quantity or number of dosage units to be supplied, and the dose. A pharmacist cannot dispense a controlled drug unless all required information is provided on the prescription. It is important for healthcare professionals to follow these guidelines to ensure the safe and appropriate use of medications and controlled drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 65-year old man with prostate cancer presents with gynaecomastia.

    Which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year old man with prostate cancer presents with gynaecomastia.

      Which of the following treatments would explain this presentation?

      Your Answer: Bisphosphonate infusions

      Correct Answer: Radical prostatectomy

      Explanation:

      Iatrogenic Causes of Gynaecomastia: The Role of Gonadorelin Injections

      There are various iatrogenic causes of gynaecomastia that healthcare providers should consider when evaluating a patient with this condition. In this case, the culprit behind the breast enlargement is the gonadorelin injections.

      Gonadorelin analogues initially stimulate the release of luteinising hormone (LH) by the pituitary gland. However, in the early stages of treatment, this can cause a tumour flare, which can lead to complications such as spinal cord compression and ureteric obstruction. To prevent this problem, an anti-androgen may be prescribed alongside the gonadorelin injections.

      Once treatment is established, gonadorelin analogues produce a clinical picture similar to menopause in females and orchidectomy in males. This occurs as continued use results in hypogonadism due to negative feedback. Typical clinical features include hot flashes, sweating, sexual dysfunction, and gynaecomastia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 19-year-old female is brought to the hospital from her dormitory at college...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old female is brought to the hospital from her dormitory at college with suspected meningitis. She complained of a severe headache, fever, and vomiting that had been getting worse for the past two days. After a lumbar puncture, it was confirmed that she has a positive culture for Neisseria meningitidis.

      What antibiotic should be prescribed for her college roommates?

      Your Answer: Benzylpenicillin

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Prophylaxis for contacts of patients with meningococcal meningitis typically involves the use of oral ciprofloxacin or rifampicin. Amoxicillin is primarily used in the treatment of meningitis in young children who are at a higher risk for listeria meningitis. In emergency situations, benzylpenicillin is the preferred treatment for meningitis, but it is not used for prophylaxis. Cephalosporins, such as cefalexin, are typically used in the treatment of bacterial meningitis rather than for prophylaxis.

      When suspected bacterial meningitis is being investigated and managed, it is important to prioritize timely antibiotic treatment to avoid negative consequences. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and if meningococcal disease is suspected in a prehospital setting, intramuscular benzylpenicillin may be given. An ABC approach should be taken initially, and senior review is necessary if any warning signs are present. A key decision is when to attempt a lumbar puncture, which should be delayed in certain circumstances. Management of patients without indication for delayed LP includes IV antibiotics, with cefotaxime or ceftriaxone recommended for patients aged 3 months to 50 years. Additional tests that may be helpful include blood gases and throat swab for meningococcal culture. Prophylaxis needs to be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis, and meningococcal vaccination should be offered to close contacts when serotype results are available.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      35.7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 35-year-old woman has had a renal transplant six months ago. Other than...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman has had a renal transplant six months ago. Other than chronic kidney disease and her subsequent transplant, she has no significant medical history or family history. There is a shared-care protocol between the Transplant Unit and the General Practitioner.
      Which of the following is this patient most likely to receive as part of this protocol?

      Your Answer: Depot medroxyprogesterone acetate

      Explanation:

      Managing Women’s Health after Renal Transplant: Contraception, Cancer Screening, and Vaccinations

      Women who have undergone renal transplant and are of childbearing age should use effective contraception to prevent unintended pregnancy. The most effective methods include intrauterine contraceptive devices, etonogestrel implants, and depot medroxyprogesterone acetate. The latter is particularly suitable as it doesn’t interact with immunosuppressive drugs commonly used in transplant patients. While pregnancy is possible after a renal transplant, it is recommended to wait for at least a year and plan it carefully. Women should also manage their cardiovascular risk factors and keep up-to-date with vaccinations and cancer screening.

      Renal transplant recipients have a higher incidence of cancer than the general population, so regular cancer screening is essential. Breast screening typically starts at 50 years, while cervical screening may not require additional tests. Warfarin is unlikely to be prescribed after a renal transplant, but if necessary, careful monitoring is required. Live vaccines, including Zostavax® shingles vaccine, should be avoided due to the risk of lower efficacy and immunosuppression. Instead, Shingrix® vaccine can be used where indicated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 65-year-old woman has been experiencing a shift in her eyesight in recent...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman has been experiencing a shift in her eyesight in recent weeks. She is unable to read small text, even with her regular reading glasses. There is a constant slight blurriness in the center, and lines always appear distorted instead of straight.
      Which retinal indication is most likely linked to this condition? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Drusen

      Explanation:

      Common Retinal Abnormalities and Their Characteristics

      Retinal abnormalities can cause vision problems and may be indicative of underlying health conditions. Here are some common retinal abnormalities and their characteristics:

      Drusen: These are yellow or white accumulations of extracellular material that accumulate in the retina. Large numbers of drusen are a sign of age-related macular degeneration.

      Disc swelling: Unilateral swelling may be due to demyelinating optic neuritis, non-arteritic anterior ischaemic optic neuropathy, retinal vein occlusion, or diabetic papillopathy. Bilateral swelling may be due to papilloedema, toxic optic neuropathy, or malignant hypertension.

      Cotton-wool spots: These appear as fluffy white patches on the retina and are caused by poor axonal metabolism due to ischaemia. Diabetes and hypertension are the two most common diseases that cause these spots.

      Flame haemorrhages: These are intraretinal haemorrhages that may be ‘dot’ or ‘blot’ shaped or flame-shaped, depending on their depth within the retina. They are most commonly due to hypertension, retinal vein occlusion, and diabetes.

      Vitreous haemorrhage: This occurs when blood is seen as a cloud in the vitreous. It may be an early sign of retinal tears and detachment but is most commonly seen in patients with proliferative diabetic retinopathy.

      Understanding these common retinal abnormalities and their characteristics can help with early detection and treatment of underlying health conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Maternity And Reproductive Health (1/3) 33%
Children And Young People (1/3) 33%
Population Health (0/1) 0%
Allergy And Immunology (1/2) 50%
Kidney And Urology (0/2) 0%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (1/1) 100%
Leadership And Management (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal Health (0/2) 0%
Dermatology (2/2) 100%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (2/3) 67%
Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular Health (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse (1/1) 100%
Consulting In General Practice (0/1) 0%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
End Of Life (0/1) 0%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (1/1) 100%
Eyes And Vision (0/1) 0%
Passmed