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  • Question 1 - What is the recommended ratio of chest compressions to ventilations for adult cardiopulmonary...

    Incorrect

    • What is the recommended ratio of chest compressions to ventilations for adult cardiopulmonary arrest for a rescuer working alone, according to the Resuscitation Council (UK) guidelines?

      Your Answer: 15:02

      Correct Answer: 15:01

      Explanation:

      CPR Guidelines for Adults

      For adults, the recommended CPR technique involves a chest compression to ventilation ratio of 30:2. It is important to stay up-to-date with the latest guidelines provided by the Resuscitation Council (UK) as they offer useful and clearly presented algorithms. Familiarizing yourself with the latest information is crucial as the management of acute emergencies in the primary care setting is a popular subject for MRCGP AKT examination questions. You will be expected to be competent at carrying out the latest guidance, so make sure to read and understand the most recent guidelines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urgent And Unscheduled Care
      30.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 68-year old male presents with dyspepsia.

    On further questioning his symptoms started about...

    Correct

    • A 68-year old male presents with dyspepsia.

      On further questioning his symptoms started about two months ago. He has been getting epigastric discomfort and heartburn; he also feels a little bit more breathless than usual and puts this down to being a heavy smoker for the last forty years. He doesn't take any regular medications and has not used any over-the-counter remedies recently. He thinks he's lost some weight.

      On examination, he looks a little pale and has some angular stomatitis.

      What is the most appropriate management strategy?

      Your Answer: Refer for urgent gastroscopy

      Explanation:

      Identifying ‘Alarm’ Symptoms in Primary Care Patients with Dyspepsia

      When evaluating patients with dyspepsia in primary care, it is crucial to identify any ‘alarm’ symptoms or ‘red flags’ that may indicate a more serious underlying condition. By taking a targeted history and performing a thorough examination, healthcare providers can determine which patients require urgent referral for further investigation and which can be managed in the community.

      In the case of a male patient over 55-years-old with persistent unexplained dyspepsia, signs of anaemia (such as shortness of breath, pallor, and angular stomatitis), and a history of smoking, these ‘alarm’ features suggest the need for urgent referral for endoscopy to investigate the possibility of upper gastrointestinal (GI) cancer. The June 2015 update recommends a 2-week referral for patients over 55 with weight loss, abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia. By identifying and acting on ‘alarm’ symptoms, healthcare providers can ensure timely diagnosis and treatment of potentially serious conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      66.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Individuals with primary antibody deficiencies often experience repeated infections. What is the most...

    Correct

    • Individuals with primary antibody deficiencies often experience repeated infections. What is the most common symptom observed in these individuals?

      Your Answer: Respiratory infection

      Explanation:

      Understanding Primary Antibody Deficiencies: Causes, Symptoms, and Diagnosis

      Primary antibody deficiencies refer to a group of rare disorders that affect the body’s ability to produce effective antibodies against pathogens. These disorders may be caused by a mutation in a single gene or by multiple genetic factors, similar to diabetes. While primary antibody deficiencies are the most common forms of primary immune deficiency, other primary immune deficiencies involve defects in cellular immunity, phagocyte defects, and complement defects. It is important to distinguish primary antibody deficiencies from secondary immune deficiencies caused by factors such as malignancy, malnutrition, or immunosuppressive therapy.

      Clinical history is crucial in identifying primary antibody deficiencies. Patients of any age who experience recurrent infections, particularly in the respiratory tract, should be investigated if the frequency or severity of infection is unusual or out of context. While most patients are under 20 years old, common variable immunodeficiency typically peaks in the second or third decade of life. A systematic review has found that respiratory and sinus infections are the most common presenting symptoms, followed by gastrointestinal and cutaneous infections. Meningitis, septic arthritis/osteomyelitis, and ophthalmic infections are much less common.

      In summary, understanding primary antibody deficiencies is essential in diagnosing and managing patients with recurrent infections. Clinical history plays a crucial role in identifying these disorders, which can be caused by genetic factors and affect the body’s ability to produce effective antibodies against pathogens.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      38.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 65-year-old man with a history of hypertension and dyslipidaemia visits the clinic....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with a history of hypertension and dyslipidaemia visits the clinic. His wife is worried about his increasing forgetfulness. He frequently loses things around the house and struggles to find his way back home when he goes to the shops alone. What characteristic would strongly suggest vascular dementia?

      Your Answer: Cerebellar signs before presentation with significant memory loss

      Correct Answer: Stepwise deterioration in symptoms with a clearly measurable difference between steps and no reversal

      Explanation:

      Understanding Vascular Dementia

      Vascular dementia is a type of cognitive decline that includes multi-infarct dementia and other forms of intellectual deterioration in individuals at high risk of atherosclerosis. Unlike Alzheimer’s, it is characterized by a stepwise progression, although it may also present as a steadily progressive dementia. A history of risk factors such as transient ischemic attacks (TIAs), stroke, hypertension, smoking, and hypercholesterolemia can raise suspicion of vascular dementia.

      Aggression without significant short-term memory loss is more commonly associated with frontal lobe dementia, while Parkinsonian features are typical of Lewy body dementia. Understanding the different types of dementia and their associated symptoms can help individuals and their loved ones better manage the condition and seek appropriate medical care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      56.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 6-month-old infant is presented by their caregiver with concerns about bruising on...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old infant is presented by their caregiver with concerns about bruising on their legs. The infant is healthy and has received all recommended vaccinations. The caregiver is unsure how the bruising occurred and is worried about a possible bleeding disorder.

      What would be the most suitable next step to take?

      Your Answer: Refer the patient to the rapid access paediatric clinic to be seen within the week

      Correct Answer: Refer the patient for same day paediatric assessment and discuss with the paediatric consultant on-call

      Explanation:

      Any bruising observed in a non-mobile infant should be immediately referred for paediatric assessment on the same day. The urgency of the situation is the main concern.

      Delaying the assessment until later in the week, waiting for blood test results, or consulting with the safeguarding lead is not appropriate. It is also not necessary to contact emergency services at this point, unless the parents refuse to take the child for assessment.

      The appropriate action is to refer the infant for same-day paediatric assessment and inform the on-call consultant. If the child doesn’t attend the hospital on the same day, the paediatric team should escalate the situation.

      Recognizing Child Abuse: Signs and Symptoms

      Child abuse is a serious issue that can have long-lasting effects on a child’s physical and emotional well-being. It is important to recognize the signs and symptoms of child abuse in order to protect vulnerable children. One way that abuse may come to light is through a child’s own disclosure. However, there are other factors that may indicate abuse, such as inconsistencies in a child’s story or repeated visits to emergency departments. Children who appear frightened or withdrawn may also be experiencing abuse, exhibiting a state of frozen watchfulness.

      Physical signs of abuse can also be indicative of maltreatment. Bruising, fractures (especially in the metaphyseal area or posterior ribs), and burns or scalds are all possible signs of abuse. Additionally, a child who is failing to thrive or who has contracted a sexually transmitted infection may be experiencing abuse. It is important to be aware of these signs and to report any concerns to the appropriate authorities. By recognizing and addressing child abuse, we can help protect vulnerable children and promote their safety and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      64.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A syringe driver is ordered for a patient who is in the final...

    Incorrect

    • A syringe driver is ordered for a patient who is in the final stages of metastatic breast cancer. Which of the following medications is not compatible with dexamethasone, metoclopramide, and midazolam?

      Your Answer: Diamorphine

      Correct Answer: Cyclizine

      Explanation:

      Several drugs are incompatible with cyclizine when used in syringe drivers.

      When a patient in palliative care is unable to take oral medication due to various reasons such as nausea, dysphagia, intestinal obstruction, weakness or coma, a syringe driver should be considered. In the UK, there are two main types of syringe drivers: Graseby MS16A (blue) and Graseby MS26 (green). The delivery rate for the former is given in mm per hour, while the latter is given in mm per 24 hours.

      Most drugs are compatible with water for injection, but for certain drugs such as granisetron, ketamine, ketorolac, octreotide, and ondansetron, sodium chloride 0.9% is recommended. Commonly used drugs for various symptoms include cyclizine, levomepromazine, haloperidol, metoclopramide for nausea and vomiting, hyoscine hydrobromide, hyoscine butylbromide, or glycopyrronium bromide for respiratory secretions/bowel colic, midazolam, haloperidol, levomepromazine for agitation/restlessness, and diamorphine as the preferred opioid for pain.

      When mixing drugs, diamorphine is compatible with most other drugs used, including dexamethasone, haloperidol, hyoscine butylbromide, hyoscine hydrobromide, levomepromazine, metoclopramide, and midazolam. However, cyclizine may precipitate with diamorphine when given at higher doses, and it is incompatible with a number of drugs such as clonidine, dexamethasone, hyoscine butylbromide (occasional), ketamine, ketorolac, metoclopramide, midazolam, octreotide, and sodium chloride 0.9%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      32.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 28-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of several episodes of...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of several episodes of haematospermia over the past few weeks. He denies any urinary symptoms or pain and reports no other unusual bleeding. He is generally healthy and not on any regular medications.
      What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Chlamydial infection

      Explanation:

      Causes of Haematospermia in a Young Adult

      Haematospermia, the presence of blood in semen, can be a distressing symptom for men. In those under 40 years of age, infections are the most common cause, with sexually transmitted infections (STIs) such as chlamydia being a likely culprit, especially in the absence of urinary symptoms. Haemophilia A, a genetic disorder that affects blood clotting, is unlikely to present with haematospermia as the first symptom, especially in a young adult. Malignant hypertension, a rare and severe form of high blood pressure, can cause end-organ damage but is an unusual cause of haematospermia. Prostate cancer, which is more common in older men, can also cause haematospermia, but is usually associated with urinary symptoms and erectile dysfunction. Prostatitis, an inflammation of the prostate gland, can cause haematospermia and other symptoms such as pain and fever, but is less common than UTIs or STIs. A thorough medical history, physical examination, and appropriate investigations can help identify the underlying cause of haematospermia and guide treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      36.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 60-year-old woman with longstanding diabetes presents with proteinuria. Her serum creatinine level...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman with longstanding diabetes presents with proteinuria. Her serum creatinine level is normal.
      What is the most common renal complication in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Renal papillary necrosis

      Correct Answer: Glomerulosclerosis

      Explanation:

      Complications of Diabetes Mellitus: Diabetic Nephropathy

      Diabetes mellitus is a chronic metabolic disorder that affects various organs in the body. People with diabetes are at a higher risk of developing atherosclerosis, urinary infections, and papillary necrosis. However, the most significant complications arise from diabetic nephropathy, which affects the glomeruli in the kidneys.

      There are three major histological changes that occur in the glomeruli of people with diabetic nephropathy. Firstly, hyperglycemia directly induces mesangial expansion. Secondly, the glomerular basement membrane thickens. Finally, glomerular sclerosis occurs due to intraglomerular hypertension, which can be caused by a dilated afferent renal artery or ischaemic injury.

      It is important to note that obstructive uropathy is not a common complication of diabetes mellitus. Therefore, it is crucial for individuals with diabetes to manage their blood glucose levels and undergo regular kidney function tests to prevent and manage diabetic nephropathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      22.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 32-year-old man comes to the clinic after getting cement in his eye...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man comes to the clinic after getting cement in his eye while working on a construction site. He is experiencing severe pain in the eye, sensitivity to light, and is having difficulty with examination due to intense blepharospasm. What is the most suitable initial course of action in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Irrigate the eye with water for 15–20 minutes

      Correct Answer: Irrigate the eye with saline for 15–20 minutes

      Explanation:

      First Aid Treatment for Chemical Eye Burns

      Chemical eye burns require immediate first aid treatment before history-taking or examination. The priority is to remove the substance causing the burn. Copious irrigation with normal saline or non-sterile water is crucial for 15-30 minutes, checking the pH every five minutes if possible. If a topical anaesthetic is needed, add a drop every five minutes. Contact lenses should be removed, and the patient’s head tilted back over the sink. Referral to the nearest eye hospital should be made after initial management due to the high risk of corneal scarring.

      Alkali substances are particularly dangerous as they penetrate rapidly and can cause irreversible damage at a pH value above 11.5. There is no need to use a burr to remove any foreign body, as this may cause further damage.

      Administering chloramphenicol ointment is not indicated for chemical eye burns. Instead, the patient should be advised to attend the local Ophthalmology Department for review.

      If only water is available, it should be used to irrigate the eye. However, if saline is an option, it would be the preferred choice as it helps to neutralize the acid. Remember, prompt first aid treatment is crucial to prevent long-term damage to the eye.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      70.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 30-year-old man comes in for a drug review. During the discussion of...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man comes in for a drug review. During the discussion of his illicit opioid use, it becomes apparent that he is extremely anxious about quitting drugs completely but is interested in attempting a maintenance program. He also abuses alcohol and consumes up to 40 units per week. He has been referred to a community treatment program to assist with his decreased use of drugs and alcohol.
      What is the best course of action for managing this patient next?

      Your Answer: Offer a buprenorphine prescription to help manage withdrawal effects

      Correct Answer: Offer a harm-reduction programme but advise that complete detoxification remains the goal of treatment

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Substance Abuse

      Substance abuse can have harmful effects on a person’s health, and reducing the use of alcohol and illicit drugs is an appropriate treatment goal. While maintenance can be an important step towards detoxification and abstinence, complete detoxification should always be the main goal of a reduction programme. It is important to discuss this with the patient when treatment is commenced.

      When it comes to opioid reduction, it is recommended to achieve complete detoxification from alcohol before attempting to reduce opioid use. Withdrawal effects can be managed with appropriate medical care, and patients should not be penalised for using illicit substances. However, it is important to discuss the impact of continued drug use on the treatment programme.

      While there doesn’t need to be a strict timeline imposed at the start of treatment, it is important to work towards reducing drug and alcohol use. Buprenorphine and methadone are both recommended for substitute prescribing, but methadone is typically prescribed as the first choice. The choice of drug may depend on patient preference or experience with the medication. Overall, the goal of treatment should be to achieve complete detoxification and abstinence from substance abuse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 6 week-old infant is presented to your clinic as the mother has...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 week-old infant is presented to your clinic as the mother has observed a white spot in the baby's mouth. Upon examination, a small white papule of around 1 mm size is visible on the lower gum. The baby is being breastfed and feeding without any issues. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Herpes gingivitis

      Correct Answer: Epstein's pearl

      Explanation:

      Understanding Epstein’s Pearl

      Epstein’s pearl is a type of cyst that is present in the mouth from birth. It is commonly found on the hard palate, but can also be seen on the gums. Parents may mistake it for a tooth that is about to erupt. However, there is no need for concern as it tends to resolve on its own within a few weeks. Treatment is not usually required.

      In summary, Epstein’s pearl is a harmless cyst that is commonly found in the mouth of newborns. It is important for parents to be aware of its presence and not mistake it for a dental issue. With time, it will naturally disappear without any intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      48.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - You are examining pathology results for a 68-year-old woman who is typically healthy...

    Incorrect

    • You are examining pathology results for a 68-year-old woman who is typically healthy and takes no medication. Her routine blood tests, including a full blood count, renal and liver function, are all normal. A urine dip was also normal. You notice a urine albumin: creatinine ratio (ACR) result and an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) result of >90 mL/min/1.73 m2. Her early morning ACR is 5.

      As per NICE guidelines, what stage of chronic kidney disease (CKD) does this woman fall under?

      Your Answer: G1A0

      Correct Answer: G1A2

      Explanation:

      A patient with a urine ACR of 5 and an eGFR greater than 90 mL/min/1.73 m2 is classified as having G1A2 CKD. CKD is categorized based on the eGFR and urine ACR, with G1 representing stage 1 and an eGFR greater than 90 mL/min/1.73 m2, and A2 representing a urine ACR of 3-70 mg/mmol. Patients with G1A1 or G2A2 classification are not considered to have CKD in the absence of kidney damage markers.

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a condition where the kidneys are not functioning properly. To estimate renal function, serum creatinine levels are often used, but this may not be accurate due to differences in muscle. Therefore, formulas such as the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) equation are used to estimate the glomerular filtration rate (eGFR). The MDRD equation takes into account serum creatinine, age, gender, and ethnicity. However, factors such as pregnancy, muscle mass, and recent red meat consumption may affect the accuracy of the result.

      CKD can be classified based on the eGFR. Stage 1 CKD is when the eGFR is greater than 90 ml/min, but there are signs of kidney damage on other tests. If all kidney tests are normal, there is no CKD. Stage 2 CKD is when the eGFR is between 60-90 ml/min with some sign of kidney damage. Stage 3a and 3b CKD are when the eGFR is between 45-59 ml/min and 30-44 ml/min, respectively, indicating a moderate reduction in kidney function. Stage 4 CKD is when the eGFR is between 15-29 ml/min, indicating a severe reduction in kidney function. Stage 5 CKD is when the eGFR is less than 15 ml/min, indicating established kidney failure, and dialysis or a kidney transplant may be necessary. It is important to note that normal U&Es and no proteinuria are required for a diagnosis of CKD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      24.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What is a true statement about Giardia lamblia? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about Giardia lamblia?

      Your Answer: May be excluded by stool microscopy

      Explanation:

      Giardia Lamblia and Traveller’s Diarrhoea

      Giardia lamblia is a common cause of traveller’s diarrhoea, often accompanied by E. coli. It can also lead to intestinal malabsorption. The preferred treatment for this condition is metronidazole.

      Stool microscopy is a traditional method of detecting cysts and oocysts, but it is laborious and less sensitive than the current antigen detection test. A single stool examination can identify only 50% of cases, while three stool samples can detect up to 90%.

      Unlike E. coli 0157 infection, giardiasis doesn’t cause blood loss. HUS, a severe complication, is not associated with giardiasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 30-year-old man presents with a 10-day history of mucopurulent anal discharge, anal...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man presents with a 10-day history of mucopurulent anal discharge, anal bleeding, and pain during defecation.
      What is the MOST PROBABLE diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Candidiasis

      Correct Answer: Gonorrhoea

      Explanation:

      Symptoms and Causes of Rectal Infections

      Rectal infections can have various symptoms and causes. Gonorrhoea, for instance, is often asymptomatic but may cause anal discharge or perianal/anal pain, pruritus, or bleeding. Primary syphilis, on the other hand, is characterized by a painless ulcer or chancre. Candidiasis is associated with a perianal intertrigenous rash, while Crohn’s disease may lead to perianal pendulous skin tags, abscesses, and fistulas. Salmonella infection, meanwhile, causes acute diarrhea, vomiting, abdominal cramps, and fever. It is important to seek medical attention if you experience any of these symptoms to receive proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      25.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - According to NICE guidelines, if a patient with diabetes has a 5 year...

    Incorrect

    • According to NICE guidelines, if a patient with diabetes has a 5 year coronary event risk of >10% but no microalbuminuria, at what threshold level of BP (stage 2 hypertension) should you offer treatment?

      Your Answer: 135/75 mmHg

      Correct Answer: 140/80 mmHg

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Hypertension Management

      NICE guidelines for hypertension management were updated in 2019, with a key point to note being the use of the word offer versus discuss. It’s important to pay attention to this difference in wording when answering questions about hypertension management.

      Under the updated guidelines, there are no longer separate guidelines for managing hypertension in diabetes. For individuals with stage 1 hypertension (135/85 to 149/94), lifestyle advice should be offered and treatment should be discussed. However, for those with stage 2 hypertension (150/95 or more), treatment should be offered.

      By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can provide effective hypertension management for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer
      32.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - What is the single correct statement concerning the use of inhaled corticosteroids? ...

    Correct

    • What is the single correct statement concerning the use of inhaled corticosteroids?

      Your Answer: Hoarseness is a side-effect

      Explanation:

      Understanding Inhaled Corticosteroids: Uses, Benefits, and Side Effects

      Inhaled corticosteroids are commonly used to manage reversible and irreversible airways disease. They can also help distinguish between asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) when used for 3-4 weeks. If there is clear improvement over this period, it suggests asthma. In COPD, inhaled corticosteroids can reduce exacerbations when combined with an inhaled long-acting beta2 agonist. However, it’s important to use corticosteroid inhalers regularly for maximum benefit, and improvement of symptoms usually occurs within 3-7 days.

      While inhaled corticosteroids are generally safe, high doses used for prolonged periods can induce adrenal suppression. However, in children, growth restriction associated with systemic corticosteroid therapy and high dose inhaled corticosteroids doesn’t seem to occur with recommended doses. Although initial growth velocity may be reduced, there appears to be no effect on achieving normal adult height. The most common side-effects are hoarseness, throat irritation, and candidiasis of the mouth or throat. Candidiasis can be reduced by using a spacer device and rinsing the mouth with water or cleaning a child’s teeth after taking a dose. Paradoxical bronchospasm is a rare occurrence.

      In summary, inhaled corticosteroids are a valuable tool in managing airways disease, but it’s important to use them as directed and be aware of potential side-effects. With proper use, they can provide significant relief and improve quality of life for those with asthma and COPD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      59.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 6-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his father. The boy...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his father. The boy has been complaining of an itchy bottom, so his father suspected threadworm infection and got some mebendazole over the counter. Despite a dose of the medication, he continues to have itching. External examination is normal.

      What is the most effective test to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Serology

      Correct Answer: Adhesive tape test

      Explanation:

      To investigate for threadworms when the diagnosis is unclear, the recommended method is the adhesive tape test. While lab confirmation is not typically necessary for diagnosis, the adhesive tape test can be used to confirm the presence of threadworm eggs. This involves applying clear adhesive tape to the perianal skin first thing in the morning, before washing or using the toilet, and sending the sample to the lab for microscopy. It may be necessary to repeat the test if initial results are inconclusive. Serology is not a reliable method for diagnosing threadworms, and skin scrape and skin swab tests are not commonly used in the UK.

      Threadworms: A Common Infestation Among Children in the UK

      Infestation with threadworms, also known as pinworms, is a prevalent condition among children in the UK. The infestation occurs when individuals swallow eggs present in their environment. Although around 90% of cases are asymptomatic, some possible features include perianal itching, especially at night, and vulval symptoms in girls.

      Diagnosis can be made by applying Sellotape to the perianal area and sending it to the laboratory for microscopy to see the eggs. However, most patients are treated empirically, and this approach is supported in the CKS guidelines.

      The recommended management for threadworm infestation is a combination of anthelmintic with hygiene measures for all members of the household. Mebendazole is used as a first-line treatment for children over six months old, with a single dose given unless the infestation persists. By following these guidelines, individuals can effectively manage and prevent the spread of threadworms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      37.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - An 80-year-old woman trips and falls, landing on her outstretched hand and resulting...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman trips and falls, landing on her outstretched hand and resulting in a distal radius fracture (Colles' fracture). She has a history of depression and osteoarthritis but no other significant medical conditions. What is the best course of action to address her risk of future fractures?

      Your Answer: Arrange a DEXA scan

      Correct Answer: Start alendronate 70mg once weekly

      Explanation:

      Patients aged 75 years or older who have experienced a fragility fracture should be initiated on oral alendronate 70mg once weekly without the need for a DEXA scan, as they are presumed to have osteoporosis.

      Osteoporosis is a condition that weakens bones, making them more prone to fractures. When a patient experiences a fragility fracture, which is a fracture that occurs from a low-impact injury or fall, it is important to assess their risk for osteoporosis and subsequent fractures. The management of patients following a fragility fracture depends on their age.

      For patients who are 75 years of age or older, they are presumed to have underlying osteoporosis and should be started on first-line therapy, such as an oral bisphosphonate, without the need for a DEXA scan. However, the 2014 NOGG guidelines suggest that treatment should be started in all women over the age of 50 years who’ve had a fragility fracture, although BMD measurement may sometimes be appropriate, particularly in younger postmenopausal women.

      For patients who are under the age of 75 years, a DEXA scan should be arranged to assess their bone mineral density. These results can then be entered into a FRAX assessment, along with the fact that they’ve had a fracture, to determine their ongoing fracture risk. Based on this assessment, appropriate treatment can be initiated to prevent future fractures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which one of the following statements best describes a type II statistical error?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements best describes a type II statistical error?

      Your Answer: The null hypothesis is rejected when it is true

      Correct Answer: The null hypothesis is accepted when it is false

      Explanation:

      Type II error – the false hypothesis is not rejected when it is true.

      Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      43.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 28-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus for 12 years has persistent...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus for 12 years has persistent microalbuminuria.
      She is taking twice daily premixed insulin.
      On examination:
      Blood pressure 128/80 mmHg -
      HbA1c <48 mmol/mol (20-46)
      <6.5% (3.8-6.4)
      What would be the next most suitable treatment option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Avoid excessive exercise

      Explanation:

      Management of Microalbuminuria in Type 1 Diabetes

      This patient with Type 1 diabetes has persistent microalbuminuria, putting them at risk of developing albuminuria and end-stage renal disease. Studies have shown that angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors can reduce the progression to albuminuria in hypertensive patients and also decrease microalbuminuria in normotensive Type 1 diabetics. However, since the patient’s HbA1c is satisfactory, there is no need to alter their current therapy. Metformin is not recommended for this type of patient, and there is no known benefit to dietary restriction or avoiding exercise in those with microalbuminuria. By managing microalbuminuria in Type 1 diabetes, patients can reduce their risk of developing more severe kidney disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      271.7
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 28-year-old man comes in for a routine check-up with his GP. He...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man comes in for a routine check-up with his GP. He is a non-smoker and has been feeling generally well. However, he has noticed that his gums have been bleeding when he brushes his teeth. He admits that he has been under a lot of stress lately and has not been brushing his teeth as regularly as he should.

      Upon examination, there are no signs of ulceration or leukoplakia. The margins of his gums appear red but are not actively bleeding. There is no evidence of a dental abscess, and he has no fever.

      What would be the most appropriate course of action based on his current presentation?

      Your Answer: Advise he should arrange routine dental review

      Explanation:

      Patients who present with gingivitis should be advised to regularly visit a dentist for routine check-ups. Antibiotics are typically not necessary for this condition.

      There is no need for urgent dental review, as there are no signs of acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis or oral malignancy. Benzydamine mouthwash may provide temporary pain relief, but it is not recommended for gingivitis. Chlorhexidine mouthwash may be used as an adjunct to dental review and antibiotic therapy for necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis.

      In cases of simple gingivitis, antibiotics are generally not prescribed.

      Understanding Gingivitis and its Management

      Gingivitis is a dental condition that is commonly caused by poor oral hygiene. It is characterized by red and swollen gums that bleed easily. In severe cases, it can lead to acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis, which is accompanied by painful bleeding gums, bad breath, and ulcers on the gums.

      For patients with simple gingivitis, regular dental check-ups are recommended, and antibiotics are usually not necessary. However, for those with acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis, it is important to seek immediate dental attention. In the meantime, oral metronidazole or amoxicillin may be prescribed for three days, along with chlorhexidine or hydrogen peroxide mouthwash and simple pain relief medication.

      It is crucial to maintain good oral hygiene to prevent gingivitis from developing or worsening. This includes brushing teeth twice a day, flossing daily, and using mouthwash regularly. By understanding the causes and management of gingivitis, individuals can take steps to protect their oral health and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 78-year-old male presents with cognitive impairment and is diagnosed with dementia.

    Which of...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old male presents with cognitive impairment and is diagnosed with dementia.

      Which of the following is the most probable cause of the dementia?

      Your Answer: Lewy body dementia

      Correct Answer: Alzheimer’s disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Dementia: Types and Symptoms

      Dementia is a clinical condition that involves the loss of cognitive function in multiple domains beyond what is expected from normal aging. This condition affects areas such as memory, attention, language, and problem-solving. Alzheimer’s disease is the most common form of dementia, accounting for about two-thirds of all cases. The initial symptom is usually forgetfulness for newly acquired information, followed by disorientation and progressive cognitive decline with personality disruption.

      Other types of dementia include blood vessel disease (multi-infarct dementia), dementia with Lewy bodies, and frontotemporal dementia (Pick’s disease). Less common disorders such as Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, progressive supranuclear palsy, Huntington’s disease, and AIDS-associated dementia also contribute to the remaining cases.

      It is important to understand the different types and symptoms of dementia to provide appropriate care and support for individuals affected by this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
      16.4
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  • Question 23 - Your practice manager is ordering influenza vaccinations for the forthcoming vaccination programme ahead...

    Incorrect

    • Your practice manager is ordering influenza vaccinations for the forthcoming vaccination programme ahead of the winter. She asks you about storage of the intranasal influenza vaccination for adults.
      Which of the following is the correct advice to give?

      Your Answer: It can be stored at room temperature (up to 25°C) providing it is protected from light

      Correct Answer: It should be stored specifically between +2°C and +8°C in line with the storage of the intramuscular influenza vaccines

      Explanation:

      Vaccine Storage and Sensitivity

      To maintain the potency and effectiveness of vaccines, it is important to store them properly. Vaccines can be sensitive to changes in temperature and exposure to light, which can reduce their shelf life and potency. Excessive heat can cause a decline in potency, while freezing can increase reactogenicity and reduce vaccine potency. Freezing can also lead to cracks in vaccine containers, which can result in contamination.

      The nasal influenza vaccine should be stored between +2°C and +8°C and protected from light, similar to the intramuscular influenza vaccine. Refrigeration with close temperature monitoring is necessary to achieve this. However, the nasal influenza vaccine can be left out of the refrigerator for up to 12 hours before use, as long as it is not exposed to temperatures above 25°C. If it has not been used within 12 hours, it should be disposed of rather than re-refrigerated for future use. Proper vaccine storage is crucial to ensure their effectiveness and safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      85.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Samantha, a 10-year-old girl, visits your clinic with her mother. She reports having...

    Correct

    • Samantha, a 10-year-old girl, visits your clinic with her mother. She reports having a constant headache for several weeks. Her mother is extremely worried. However, Samantha is always anxious during medical appointments and refuses to cooperate with a thorough examination.

      As a healthcare provider, you are concerned about Samantha's condition and decide to request an immediate referral. What is the maximum time frame within which she should receive an appointment with a specialist?

      Your Answer: 3 days

      Explanation:

      Referral Guidelines for Children with Suspected Cancer

      When a child presents with symptoms and signs of cancer, it is important to refer them to a paediatrician or a specialist children’s cancer service, if appropriate. If the child experiences headaches and vomiting that cause early morning waking or occur on waking, this could be a sign of raised intracranial pressure, and an immediate referral should be made.

      It is important to note that patients have a legal right to be seen by a specialist within two weeks of being urgently referred for suspected cancer by their GP. If this is not possible, the NHS must do everything it reasonably can to offer them clinically appropriate alternatives. By following these referral guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure that children with suspected cancer receive timely and appropriate care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      35.6
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 78-year-old male visits his GP complaining of sudden complete loss of vision...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old male visits his GP complaining of sudden complete loss of vision in his right eye without any pain. He has a medical history of hypercholesterolaemia, which is diet controlled, and hypertension, for which he takes amlodipine. On examination, his eye and fundoscopy appear normal, and his blood pressure is 145/80 mmHg. What is the initial medication you would prescribe?

      Your Answer: Enoxaparin 40 mg

      Correct Answer: Aspirin 300 mg

      Explanation:

      If someone experiences a brief, painless loss of vision in one eye (known as amaurosis fugax), it should be treated as a transient ischemic attack (TIA). This means that immediate administration of 300 mg of aspirin is recommended, and if the person’s ABCD2 score is greater than 3 or they are experiencing a crescendo TIA, they should be admitted to the hospital. Otherwise, they should be referred to a TIA clinic right away. Apixaban is typically used for cardiovascular disease, while enoxaparin 40 mg is the recommended dose for preventing deep vein thrombosis in individuals with normal kidney function.

      Sudden loss of vision can be a scary symptom for patients, but it can be caused by a variety of factors. Transient monocular visual loss (TMVL) is a term used to describe a sudden, temporary loss of vision that lasts less than 24 hours. The most common causes of sudden painless loss of vision include ischaemic/vascular issues, vitreous haemorrhage, retinal detachment, and retinal migraine.

      Ischaemic/vascular issues, also known as ‘amaurosis fugax’, can be caused by a wide range of factors such as thrombosis, embolism, temporal arteritis, and hypoperfusion. It may also represent a form of transient ischaemic attack (TIA) and should be treated similarly with aspirin 300 mg. Altitudinal field defects are often seen, and ischaemic optic neuropathy can occur due to occlusion of the short posterior ciliary arteries.

      Central retinal vein occlusion is more common than arterial occlusion and can be caused by glaucoma, polycythaemia, and hypertension. Severe retinal haemorrhages are usually seen on fundoscopy. Central retinal artery occlusion, on the other hand, is due to thromboembolism or arteritis and features include afferent pupillary defect and a ‘cherry red’ spot on a pale retina.

      Vitreous haemorrhage can be caused by diabetes, bleeding disorders, and anticoagulants. Features may include sudden visual loss and dark spots. Retinal detachment may be preceded by flashes of light or floaters, which are also symptoms of posterior vitreous detachment. Differentiating between these conditions can be done by observing the specific symptoms such as a veil or curtain over the field of vision, straight lines appearing curved, and central visual loss. Large bleeds can cause sudden visual loss, while small bleeds may cause floaters.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      141.2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - As a GP participating in research projects, you have a patient who is...

    Incorrect

    • As a GP participating in research projects, you have a patient who is curious about a study testing a new antihypertensive medication. You inform them that the drug has undergone testing on several volunteers, but has not yet been approved for sale. The manufacturers are currently seeking patients to compare the effectiveness of this new drug to existing antihypertensives before it can be licensed and prescribed by all doctors.

      In which phase of the drug trial are you seeking patients for recruitment?

      Your Answer: Phase 2

      Correct Answer: Phase 3

      Explanation:

      Phase 3 trials involve larger studies conducted on real patients, where the effectiveness of a new treatment is compared to existing treatments.

      To elaborate, phase 1 trials typically involve testing a drug on a small group of healthy individuals to assess its pharmacokinetics, pharmacodynamics, and dosage. Phase 2 trials involve testing the drug on actual patients with the condition it is intended to treat, to evaluate its efficacy and potential side effects.

      In phase 3 trials, the new treatment is compared to existing treatments, which requires a much larger sample size than phase 1 and 2 trials. Phase 4 trials involve ongoing observation after the treatment has been approved for sale, to monitor any long-term effects.

      There is no such thing as phase 5 trials.

      Stages of Drug Development

      Drug development is a complex process that involves several stages before a drug can be approved for marketing. The process begins with Phase 1, which involves small studies on healthy volunteers to assess the pharmacodynamics and pharmacokinetics of the drug. This phase typically involves around 100 participants.

      Phase 2 follows, which involves small studies on actual patients to examine the drug’s efficacy and adverse effects. This phase typically involves between 100-300 patients.

      Phase 3 is the largest phase and involves larger studies of between 500-5,000 patients. This phase examines the drug’s efficacy and adverse effects and may compare it with existing treatments. Special groups such as the elderly or those with renal issues may also be studied during this phase.

      If the drug is shown to be safe and effective, it may be approved for marketing. However, Phase 4, also known as post-marketing surveillance, is still necessary. This phase involves monitoring the drug’s safety and effectiveness in a larger population over a longer period of time.

      In summary, drug development involves several stages, each with its own specific purpose and participant size. The process is rigorous to ensure that drugs are safe and effective before they are marketed to the public.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - One option needs to be selected from the following tumour types that are...

    Incorrect

    • One option needs to be selected from the following tumour types that are NOT hormone responsive.

      Your Answer: Endometrial

      Correct Answer: Renal cell

      Explanation:

      Hormonal Therapy for Metastatic Cancer: A Review of Treatment Options

      Hormonal therapy has been used in the treatment of various types of metastatic cancer, but its effectiveness varies depending on the cancer type. In renal cell cancer, hormonal therapy has not shown promising results. However, medroxyprogesterone acetate may be used to treat cancer-related anorexia or loss of appetite.

      For metastatic/locally advanced carcinoma of the prostate, testosterone ablation with orchidectomy or anti-androgens can produce a clinical remission in the majority of cases.

      In breast cancer, anti-oestrogen therapy with tamoxifen can be effective for oestrogen-receptor positive tumours, which make up 60% of breast tumours.

      In metastatic endometrial cancer, progestogens may be effective in 30% of cases.

      For high-risk thyroid cancer, thyroxine can be used to suppress thyroid-stimulating hormone.

      Overall, hormonal therapy can be a useful treatment option for certain types of metastatic cancer, but it is important to consider the specific cancer type and individual patient factors when determining the most appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      21.4
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  • Question 28 - What are the correct steps to take when completing the DWP ESA113 medical...

    Incorrect

    • What are the correct steps to take when completing the DWP ESA113 medical report for a patient who has applied for employment and support allowance and for whom you have been providing Med3 'fit notes'?

      Your Answer: The BMA advise a standard fee should be charged to the patient for this work

      Correct Answer: There is a contractual obligation for you to provide this medical report

      Explanation:

      GP Obligations for DWP Medical Reports

      GPs have a contractual obligation to complete medical reports for the Department for Work and Pensions (DWP) free of charge. This obligation is covered by the contractual arrangements between GPs and the relevant Primary Care Trust. The reports are required for Universal Credit or Employment and Support Allowance on an ESA113 or FRR2 form. The DWP obtains consent from the patient to approach the GP for the report, so there is no need for the GP to seek first-hand consent or a copy of the consent from the patient. The forms should be returned within 5 working days of receipt. It is acceptable for a practice nurse to complete the report, but the GP must authorise it by signing it at the end.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Leadership And Management
      48
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 72-year-old woman was recently diagnosed with atrial fibrillation during a routine pulse...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman was recently diagnosed with atrial fibrillation during a routine pulse check. She has a medical history of fatty liver disease and well-managed hypertension, which is treated with amlodipine. Her weekly alcohol consumption is 14 units.

      Her blood test results are as follows:

      - Hb 110 g/L (115 - 160)
      - Creatinine 108 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      - Estimated GFR (eGFR) 57 mL/min/1.73 m² (>90)
      - ALT 50 u/L (3 - 40)

      To evaluate her bleeding risk before initiating anticoagulation therapy, her ORBIT score is computed.

      What factors would increase this patient's ORBIT score?

      Your Answer: Anaemia and eGFR <60

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      The ORBIT score includes anaemia and renal impairment as factors that indicate a higher risk of bleeding in patients with atrial fibrillation who are receiving anticoagulation treatment. This scoring tool is now recommended by NICE guidelines for assessing bleeding risk. The ORBIT score consists of five parameters, including age (75+ years), anaemia (haemoglobin <130 g/L in males, <120 g/L in females), bleeding history, and renal impairment (eGFR <60 mL/min/1.73 m²). In this patient's case, her anaemia and renal function would meet the criteria for scoring. Age is not a relevant factor as she is under 75 years old. Alcohol intake is not a criterion used in the ORBIT score, and hypertension is not included in this scoring tool but would be considered in the CHA2DS2-VASc scoring tool for assessing stroke risk. Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management, including the use of anticoagulation therapy. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend assessing the need for anticoagulation in all patients with a history of AF, regardless of whether they are currently experiencing symptoms. The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy, with a score of 2 or more indicating the need for anticoagulation. However, it is important to ensure a transthoracic echocardiogram has been done to exclude valvular heart disease, which is an absolute indication for anticoagulation. When considering anticoagulation therapy, doctors must also assess the patient’s bleeding risk. NICE recommends using the ORBIT scoring system to formalize this risk assessment, taking into account factors such as haemoglobin levels, age, bleeding history, renal impairment, and treatment with antiplatelet agents. While there are no formal rules on how to act on the ORBIT score, individual patient factors should be considered. The risk of bleeding increases with a higher ORBIT score, with a score of 4-7 indicating a high risk of bleeding. For many years, warfarin was the anticoagulant of choice for AF. However, the development of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) has changed this. DOACs have the advantage of not requiring regular blood tests to check the INR and are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF. The recommended DOACs for reducing stroke risk in AF are apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban. Warfarin is now used second-line, in patients where a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 57-year-old male patient complains of intense pain deep in his right ear...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old male patient complains of intense pain deep in his right ear accompanied by dizziness and a sensation of the room spinning. Upon clinical examination, he displays a partial facial nerve paralysis on the right side and vesicular lesions on the anterior two-thirds of his tongue. What condition is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ramsay Hunt syndrome

      Explanation:

      Although vesicular lesions are typically observed in the external auditory canal and pinna, they can also appear on the front two-thirds of the tongue and the soft palate.

      Understanding Ramsay Hunt Syndrome

      Ramsay Hunt syndrome, also known as herpes zoster oticus, is a condition that occurs when the varicella zoster virus reactivates in the geniculate ganglion of the seventh cranial nerve. The first symptom of this syndrome is often auricular pain, followed by facial nerve palsy and a vesicular rash around the ear. Other symptoms may include vertigo and tinnitus.

      To manage Ramsay Hunt syndrome, doctors typically prescribe oral aciclovir and corticosteroids. These medications can help reduce the severity of symptoms and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      0
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Urgent And Unscheduled Care (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
Allergy And Immunology (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular Health (0/2) 0%
Children And Young People (0/3) 0%
End Of Life (0/1) 0%
Kidney And Urology (1/2) 50%
Eyes And Vision (1/2) 50%
Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse (0/1) 0%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (2/3) 67%
People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer (0/1) 0%
Respiratory Health (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal Health (1/1) 100%
Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge (0/2) 0%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (0/2) 0%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (0/2) 0%
Older Adults (0/1) 0%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Leadership And Management (0/1) 0%
Passmed