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Question 1
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not an example of delusional misidentification?
Your Answer: Intermetamorphosis
Correct Answer: Cotard's syndrome
Explanation:Cotard’s syndrome is a condition where an individual has a false belief that they are deceased of do not exist.
Delusional Misidentification Syndrome
Delusional misidentification syndrome refers to a group of disorders where individuals believe that the identity of a person, object, of place has been altered of changed. There are several subtypes of this syndrome, including Capgras syndrome, Fregoli syndrome, intermetamorphosis, subjective doubles, reduplicative paramnesia, mirrored self, delusional companions, and clonal pluralisation of the self. Each subtype is characterised by a specific delusion, such as believing that a loved one has been replaced by an exact double of that a place has been duplicated. These delusions can have a significant impact on an individual’s daily life and require appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which enzyme converts L-DOPA to dopamine?
Your Answer: Tyrosine hydroxylase
Correct Answer: DOPA decarboxylase
Explanation:Tyrosine is converted to L-DOPA by the enzyme tyrosine hydroxylase. L-DOPA is then converted to dopamine by the enzyme dopa decarboxylase.
Neurotransmitters are substances used by neurons to communicate with each other and with target tissues. They are synthesized and released from nerve endings into the synaptic cleft, where they bind to receptor proteins in the cellular membrane of the target tissue. Neurotransmitters can be classified into different types, including small molecules (such as acetylcholine, dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, and GABA) and large molecules (such as neuropeptides). They can also be classified as excitatory or inhibitory. Receptors can be ionotropic or metabotropic, and the effects of neurotransmitters can be fast of slow. Some important neurotransmitters include acetylcholine, dopamine, GABA, norepinephrine, and serotonin. Each neurotransmitter has a specific synthesis, breakdown, and receptor type. Understanding neurotransmitters is important for understanding the function of the nervous system and for developing treatments for neurological and psychiatric disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Which drug experiences the most substantial first-pass metabolism?
Your Answer: Pregabalin
Correct Answer: Imipramine
Explanation:The First Pass Effect in Psychiatric Drugs
The first-pass effect is a process in drug metabolism that significantly reduces the concentration of a drug before it reaches the systemic circulation. This phenomenon is related to the liver and gut wall, which absorb and metabolize the drug before it can enter the bloodstream. Psychiatric drugs are not exempt from this effect, and some undergo a significant reduction in concentration before reaching their target site. Examples of psychiatric drugs that undergo a significant first-pass effect include imipramine, fluphenazine, morphine, diazepam, and buprenorphine. On the other hand, some drugs undergo little to no first-pass effect, such as lithium and pregabalin.
Orally administered drugs are the most affected by the first-pass effect. However, there are other routes of administration that can avoid of partly avoid this effect. These include sublingual, rectal (partly avoids first pass), intravenous, intramuscular, transdermal, and inhalation. Understanding the first-pass effect is crucial in drug development and administration, especially in psychiatric drugs, where the concentration of the drug can significantly affect its efficacy and safety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 4
Correct
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What substance belongs to the category of catecholamines?
Your Answer: Dopamine
Explanation:Catecholamines are a group of chemical compounds that have a distinct structure consisting of a benzene ring with two hydroxyl groups, an intermediate ethyl chain, and a terminal amine group. These compounds play an important role in the body and are involved in various physiological processes. The three main catecholamines found in the body are dopamine, adrenaline, and noradrenaline. All of these compounds are derived from the amino acid tyrosine. Overall, catecholamines are essential for maintaining proper bodily functions and are involved in a wide range of physiological processes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 5
Incorrect
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What is the term used to describe the phenomenon where individuals tend to put in less effort when working in a group compared to when working individually?
Your Answer: Deindividuation
Correct Answer: Social loafing
Explanation:Understanding Social Loafing
Social loafing is a common phenomenon that occurs when people work in groups. It refers to the tendency of individuals to exert less effort when working in a group than when working alone. This can be attributed to the diffusion of responsibility, where individuals feel less accountable for their actions when working in a group. As a result, they may not put in as much effort as they would if they were working alone. Social loafing can have negative consequences for group performance, as it can lead to a lack of motivation and a decrease in productivity. Therefore, it is important to understand the causes of social loafing and take steps to prevent it from occurring in group settings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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What is the term used to describe the disciplinary action of taking away a child's train set for hitting their friend?
Your Answer: Positive punishment
Correct Answer: Negative punishment
Explanation:The objective is to decrease the occurrence of the conduct through punishment, which involves taking away a pleasurable stimulus (the train set).
Operant Conditioning: Reinforcement, Punishment, and More
Operant conditioning, also known as instrumental learning, is a theory of learning developed by B.F. Skinner. It suggests that people learn by interacting with their environment. Reinforcement and punishment are key concepts in operant conditioning. A reinforcer is a stimulus of event that increases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Reinforcement can be positive of negative. Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by adding a rewarding stimulus, while negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by removing an unpleasant stimulus. A punisher is a stimulus that decreases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Positive punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by adding an unpleasant stimulus, while negative punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by removing a pleasant stimulus.
Primary reinforcers are instinctual desires such as food, water, social approval, and sex. Secondary reinforcers, also known as conditioned reinforcers, are not innately appreciated and people have to learn to like them through classical conditioning of other methods. Secondary reinforcers include things such as money. Different patterns of reinforcement have different influences on the response. There are five main reinforcement schedules: fixed interval, variable interval, fixed ratio, variable ratio, and random. Variable ratio schedules are most resistant to extinction.
Shaping and chaining are techniques used when an exact behavior cannot be performed and so cannot be rewarded. Shaping involves rewarding successive, increasingly accurate approximations to the behavior, while chaining involves breaking a complex task into smaller, more manageable sections. Escape conditioning refers to a situation whereby an aversive situation is removed after a response. It is a form of negative reinforcement. Habituation refers to the phenomenon whereby there is a decrease in response to a stimulus over time. Covert sensitization is a technique used whereby someone learns to use mental imagery to associate a behavior with a negative consequence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Piaget's theory of child development suggests that when a child attempts to feed from a bottle for the first time, they must adjust their sucking technique. What is this an example of according to Piaget's theory?
Your Answer: Conditioning
Correct Answer: Accommodation
Explanation:Piaget’s Stages of Development and Key Concepts
Piaget developed four stages of development that describe how children think and acquire knowledge. The first stage is the Sensorimotor stage, which occurs from birth to 18-24 months. In this stage, infants learn through sensory observation and gain control of their motor functions through activity, exploration, and manipulation of the environment.
The second stage is the Preoperational stage, which occurs from 2 to 7 years. During this stage, children use symbols and language more extensively, but they are unable to think logically of deductively. They also use a type of magical thinking and animistic thinking.
The third stage is the Concrete Operational stage, which occurs from 7 to 11 years. In this stage, egocentric thought is replaced by operational thought, which involves dealing with a wide array of information outside the child. Children in this stage begin to use limited logical thought and can serialise, order, and group things into classes on the basis of common characteristics.
The fourth and final stage is the Formal Operations stage, which occurs from 11 through the end of adolescence. This stage is characterized by the ability to think abstractly, to reason deductively, to define concepts, and also by the emergence of skills for dealing with permutations and combinations.
Piaget also developed key concepts, including schema, assimilation, and accommodation. A schema is a category of knowledge and the process of obtaining that knowledge. Assimilation is the process of taking new information into an existing schema, while accommodation involves altering a schema in view of additional information.
Overall, Piaget’s stages of development and key concepts provide a framework for understanding how children learn and acquire knowledge.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 8
Incorrect
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What is the meaning of the term autochthonous delusion?
Your Answer: A secondary delusion
Correct Answer: A primary delusion
Explanation:Borderline Learning Disability
Borderline learning disability is a term used to describe individuals with an IQ between 70-85. This category is not officially recognized as a diagnosis by the ICD-11. It is estimated that approximately 15% of the population falls within this range (Chaplin, 2005). Unlike mild learning disability, borderline learning disability is not typically associated with deficits in adaptive functioning, such as grooming, dressing, safety, of money management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 9
Correct
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Which syndrome would you suspect if a man tells his GP that he believes his wife is having an affair, but his wife denies it and expresses worry about his mental well-being?
Your Answer: Othello
Explanation:Types of Delusions
Delusions come in many different forms. It is important to familiarize oneself with these types as they may be tested in an exam. Some of the most common types of delusions include:
– Folie a deux: a shared delusion between two or more people
– Grandiose: belief that one has special powers, beliefs, of purpose
– Hypochondriacal: belief that something is physically wrong with the patient
– Ekbom’s syndrome: belief that one has been infested with insects
– Othello syndrome: belief that a sexual partner is cheating on them
– Capgras delusion: belief that a person close to them has been replaced by a double
– Fregoli delusion: patient identifies a familiar person (usually suspected to be a persecutor) in other people they meet
– Syndrome of subjective doubles: belief that doubles of him/her exist
– Lycanthropy: belief that one has been transformed into an animal
– De Clérambault’s syndrome: false belief that a person is in love with them
– Cotard’s syndrome/nihilistic delusions: belief that they are dead of do not exist
– Referential: belief that others/TV/radio are speaking directly to of about the patient
– Delusional perception: belief that a normal percept (product of perception) has a special meaning
– Pseudocyesis: a condition whereby a woman believes herself to be pregnant when she is not. Objective signs accompany the belief such as abdominal enlargement, menstrual disturbance, apparent foetal movements, nausea, breast changes, and labour pains.Remembering these types of delusions can be helpful in understanding and diagnosing patients with delusional disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 10
Correct
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Which of the following is the least probable cause of electroencephalographic alterations?
Your Answer: Quetiapine
Explanation:Antipsychotics and Their Effects on EEG
The use of antipsychotics has been found to have an impact on the EEG of patients taking them. A study conducted on the subject found that clozapine had the highest percentage of EEG changes at 47.1%, followed by olanzapine at 38.5%, risperidone at 28.0%, and typical antipsychotics at 14.5%. Interestingly, quetiapine did not show any EEG changes in the study. However, another study found that 5% of quetiapine users did experience EEG changes. These findings suggest that antipsychotics can have varying effects on EEG and should be monitored closely in patients taking them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A parent is worried about their 30-month-old toddler's language skills. What is the expected minimum number of words at this age?
Your Answer: 300
Correct Answer: 240
Explanation:Delayed language development is often linked to various factors, such as being male, belonging to a larger family, coming from a lower social class (IV and V), and experiencing neglect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
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Question 12
Correct
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What is the mechanism of action of dexamphetamine in treating ADHD?
Your Answer: Inhibiting dopamine and noradrenaline reuptake
Explanation:ADHD medications can be classified into stimulant and non-stimulant drugs. The therapeutic effects of these drugs are believed to be mediated through the action of noradrenaline in the prefrontal cortex. Common side effects of these drugs include decreased appetite, insomnia, nervousness, headache, and nausea. Stimulant drugs like dexamphetamine, methylphenidate, and lisdexamfetamine inhibit the reuptake of dopamine and noradrenaline. Non-stimulant drugs like atomoxetine, guanfacine, and clonidine work by increasing noradrenaline levels in the synaptic cleft through different mechanisms. The most common side effects of these drugs are decreased appetite, somnolence, headache, and abdominal pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 13
Correct
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What statement accurately describes the LUNSERS?
Your Answer: It includes 'red herring' items
Explanation:The LUNSERS is a self-administered rating scale consisting of 51 items used to detect side effects caused by antipsychotic medication. It comprises 41 established side effects of neuroleptics and 10 additional items that are not known to be side effects of such medication, such as hair loss and chilblains, to validate the results. The scale’s validity and reliability were assessed in a sample of 50 male and female patients with an average age of 46 years and 16 years of antipsychotic use, as well as a group of 50 healthy controls, with promising outcomes. Furthermore, the LUNSERS’ validity was compared to that of the UKU, which is the gold standard and takes approximately 60 minutes to complete.
In psychiatry, various questionnaires and interviews are used to assess different conditions and areas. It is important for candidates to know whether certain assessment tools are self-rated of require clinical assistance. The table provided by the college lists some of the commonly used assessment tools and indicates whether they are self-rated of clinician-rated. For example, the HAMD and MADRS are clinician-rated scales used to assess the severity of depression, while the GDS is a self-rated scale used to screen for depression in the elderly. The YMRS is a clinician-rated scale used to assess the severity of mania in patients with bipolar disorder, while the Y-BOCS is used to measure both the severity of OCD and the response to treatment. The GAF provides a single measure of global functioning, while the CGI requires the clinician to rate the severity of the patient’s illness at the time of assessment. The CAMDEX is a tool developed to assist in the early diagnosis and measurement of dementia in the elderly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 14
Incorrect
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What method is employed during an interview to provide patients with an opportunity to contemplate their issues?
Your Answer: Open questioning
Correct Answer: Silence
Explanation:Interview Techniques: The Power of Silence
Silence can be a powerful tool in conducting interviews, especially in healthcare settings. When used at the appropriate time, it can give patients the chance to sit and think, process their thoughts, and provide more thoughtful and meaningful responses.
By allowing for moments of silence during an interview, healthcare professionals can create a safe and comfortable space for patients to express themselves. This can be particularly important when discussing sensitive of emotional topics, as patients may need time to gather their thoughts and feelings before sharing them.
Moreover, silence can also be used strategically to encourage patients to elaborate on their responses. By simply waiting a few seconds after a patient has finished speaking, healthcare professionals can signal that they are interested in hearing more and give patients the opportunity to expand on their thoughts.
Overall, incorporating moments of silence into interviews can help healthcare professionals build stronger relationships with their patients, gain deeper insights into their needs and concerns, and ultimately provide more effective care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 15
Incorrect
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How can the ethnic differences observed in psychiatry in the UK be accurately described?
Your Answer: People from Black minorities have higher than average rates of self-harm
Correct Answer: People from Black minorities have the highest rate of mental illness in UK
Explanation:Institutional Racism in Psychiatry
There has been growing concern that institutional racism may be contributing to the overrepresentation of Black patients in mental health settings. Despite ethnic minorities making up only 9% of the UK population, the 2010 ‘Count me in Census’ found that 23% of inpatients and those on CTOs were from Black and minority ethnic groups. Black minority groups also had higher rates of admission, detention, and seclusion.
While patient factors, such as higher rates of mental illness in Black minority groups, may contribute to these findings, there is also a suggestion of inherent racism within psychiatry. This may manifest in perceptions of Black and minority ethnic patients being at greater risk, as well as systemic factors that disadvantage these groups.
It is important to address these issues and work towards a more equitable and just mental health system for all patients, regardless of their ethnicity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 16
Incorrect
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In what stage of the cell cycle does the process of DNA replication occur?
Your Answer: M phase
Correct Answer: S phase
Explanation:Cytokinesis: The Final Stage of Cell Division
Cytokinesis is the final stage of cell division, where the cell splits into two daughter cells, each with a nucleus. This process is essential for the growth and repair of tissues in multicellular organisms. In mitosis, cytokinesis occurs after telophase, while in meiosis, it occurs after telophase I and telophase II.
During cytokinesis, a contractile ring made of actin and myosin filaments forms around the cell’s equator, constricting it like a belt. This ring gradually tightens, pulling the cell membrane inward and creating a furrow that deepens until it reaches the center of the cell. Eventually, the furrow meets in the middle, dividing the cell into two daughter cells.
In animal cells, cytokinesis is achieved by the formation of a cleavage furrow, while in plant cells, a cell plate forms between the two daughter nuclei, which eventually develops into a new cell wall. The timing and mechanism of cytokinesis are tightly regulated by a complex network of proteins and signaling pathways, ensuring that each daughter cell receives the correct amount of cytoplasm and organelles.
Overall, cytokinesis is a crucial step in the cell cycle, ensuring that genetic material is equally distributed between daughter cells and allowing for the growth and development of multicellular organisms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 17
Incorrect
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What brain region has been identified as a target for deep brain stimulation (DBS) in individuals with treatment-resistant depression?
Your Answer: Subgenual cingulate gyrus
Correct Answer: Nucleus accumbens
Explanation:Deep brain stimulation (DBS) for treatment resistant depression targets specific brain regions based on their known involvement in pleasure, reward, and mood regulation. The nucleus accumbens is targeted due to its role in pleasure and reward processing. The inferior thalamic peduncle is targeted based on PET studies showing hyperactivity in depression. The lateral habenula is chosen due to observed hypermetabolism in depressed patients. The subgenual cingulate gyrus is targeted due to its hyperactivity in depression. The ventral capsule/ventral striatum is chosen based on its association with improved mood and reduced depressive symptoms following ablation treatments for OCD and depression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 18
Correct
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A teenager has stopped smoking and instead started using an e-cigarette. They are initially pleased about this change but then are told that e-cigarettes also pose a risk to their health. They continue to smoke e-cigarettes but feel upset about the possible health risks. They then decide to stop smoking and immediately feel better.
Which of the following is illustrated by this teenager's experience?Your Answer: Cognitive dissonance
Explanation:Chunking is a strategy that involves dividing complex tasks into smaller, more manageable chunks of subtasks. This approach can help alleviate unpleasant feelings that arise when faced with a task that seems overwhelming of difficult to complete.
Cognitive Dissonance is a term used to describe the uncomfortable feeling that arises when there is a conflict between an individual’s attitudes, beliefs, of behaviors. This feeling can lead to a change in behavior of beliefs. The theory of cognitive dissonance suggests that people have an inner drive to maintain cognitive consistency and avoid dissonance. This drive can result in irrational of maladaptive behaviors. Dissonance can be reduced by changing attitudes, behaviors, of beliefs, acquiring new information, of reducing the importance of the cognitions. Overall, cognitive dissonance plays a significant role in shaping human behavior and decision-making.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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What is the appropriate approach for paternalistic intervention in preventing teenage suicide?
Your Answer: Long term paternalistic suicide prevention with autonomous individuals is considered morally permissible
Correct Answer: Beauchamp views paternalism as applying only to autonomous individuals
Explanation:Beauchamp (1993) argued that paternalism only applies to individuals who are capable of making decisions for themselves. In cases where an individual lacks autonomy, healthcare staff have a duty to make decisions on their behalf in their best interests. This includes preventing non-autonomous individuals from attempting suicide.
Deep autonomy provides further justification for paternalistic suicide prevention measures. While acknowledging an autonomous person’s right to take their own life, it could be argued that intervening in a suicide attempt allows the person to reflect and reconsider their decision.
The ‘cry for help’ model can also justify paternalistic interventions as individuals can be given help in finding happiness rather than resorting to suicide in a moment of hopelessness.
However, longer-term suicide prevention measures are generally criticized in the literature, especially in the case of autonomous individuals. Detaining an autonomous individual in a psychiatric hospital for an extended period solely to prevent suicide would be an unjustifiable abuse of civil liberty in the vast majority of cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Ethics And Philosophy Of Psychiatry
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Question 20
Correct
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A doctor wants to collect evidence of her patients' satisfaction with their medical treatment. She gives each patient a form after their appointment and asks them to complete it. The form consists of just one statement which reads 'the medical treatment I received today was very effective'. Underneath the statement is a list of options to select from which reads 'strongly agree' agree' 'neutral', 'disagree', 'strongly disagree'.
What type of scale has the doctor used?Your Answer: Likert Scale
Explanation:Attitude scales are used to measure a person’s feelings and thoughts towards something. There are several types of attitude scales, including the Thurstone scale, Likert scale, semantic differential scale, and Gutman scale. The Thurstone scale involves creating a list of statements and having judges score them based on their negativity of positivity towards an issue. Respondents then indicate whether they agree of disagree with each statement. The Likert scale asks respondents to indicate their degree of agreement of disagreement with a series of statements using a five-point scale. The semantic differential scale presents pairs of opposite adjectives and asks respondents to rate their position on a five- of seven-point scale. The Gutman scale involves a list of statements that can be ordered hierarchically, with each statement having a corresponding weight. Respondents’ scores on the scale indicate the number of statements they agree with.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 21
Incorrect
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What is the tool used to evaluate an individual's capacity for abstract thinking?
Your Answer: Rey-Osterrieth Complex Figure Test
Correct Answer: Goldstein-Scheerer Object Sort Test
Explanation:The Goldstein-Scheerer Object Sort Test
The Goldstein-Scheerer Object Sort Test is a tool used to evaluate a person’s ability to think abstractly and form concepts effectively. This test involves sorting objects based on their colour of material and copying block patterns using coloured cubes. The purpose of this test is to assess the patient’s cognitive abilities and determine their level of abstract thinking. By analyzing the patient’s performance on this test, healthcare professionals can gain insight into their cognitive functioning and develop appropriate treatment plans. The Goldstein-Scheerer Object Sort Test is a valuable tool for assessing cognitive abilities and can be used in a variety of healthcare settings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 22
Correct
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What is a true statement about imprinting?
Your Answer: It occurs during a sensitive period
Explanation:Imprinting – A Rapid, Unreinforced, Irreversible Attachment in Animals and Humans
Imprinting is a fascinating phenomenon observed in some animals and humans, where a phase-sensitive attachment is formed towards the first conspicuous object seen after birth of hatching. Konrad Lorenz’s classic experiment with Greylag geese demonstrated that imprinting consists of three stages – following response, attachment development, and sexual preference formation. Imprinting is a rapid process that can occur within minutes, and it does not require any reinforcement to happen. It also occurs during a clearly defined period known as the critical period, and once it happens, it is irreversible.
Imprinting has been observed in various species, including birds, mammals, and even humans. In humans, imprinting can occur during the early stages of life and can influence social and emotional development. For example, infants may develop an attachment towards their primary caregiver, which can shape their future relationships and social interactions.
Overall, imprinting is a fascinating and complex phenomenon that highlights the importance of early experiences in shaping an individual’s behavior and preferences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 23
Correct
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What is the percentage of children who exhibit a secure attachment based on Ainsworth's initial research?
Your Answer: 70%
Explanation:Attachment (Ainsworth)
Psychologist Mary Ainsworth developed the ‘Strange Situation procedure’ to study and categorize attachment in children aged 12 to 18 months. The procedure involves seven steps, including two separations and two reunions, and takes place in one room. The child’s attachment is classified into one of three styles: secure, anxious-resistant, and anxious-avoidant. A fourth category, disorganized, is sometimes observed. Ainsworth suggested that the child’s attachment style is determined by the primary caregiver’s behavior.
Mary Main later developed the Adult Attachment Interview and identified four categories of attachment in adults that correspond to those observed in the strange situation. The distribution of adult attachment styles correlates with those of the strange situation, with 70% of children and adults having secure attachment. Attachment styles also seem to be passed on to subsequent generations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 24
Correct
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How can we describe the absence of a link between two successive ideas?
Your Answer: Asyndesis
Explanation:Echolalia refers to the act of repeating someone else’s spoken words without any meaningful connection of context. This behavior is often observed in individuals with certain neurological of developmental disorders.
Formal Thought Disorders
In formal thought disorders, changes in the speed, coherence, and cogency of thought can be observed from a patient’s speech. These disorders can also be self-reported and may be accompanied by enhanced use of nonverbal language. One possible indication is a lack of an adequate connection between two consecutive thoughts, which is called ‘asyndesis’.
There are several types of formal thought disorders, including inhibited thinking, retarded thinking, circumstantial thinking, restricted thinking, perseverative thinking, rumination, pressured thinking, flight of ideas, tangential thinking, thought blocking, disruption of thought, incoherence/derailment, and neologisms.
Inhibited thinking is about the subjective experience of the patient, who may feel that their thinking process is slowed down of blocked by an inner wall of resistance. Retarded thinking, on the other hand, is about the observed quality of thought as inferred through speech, where the flow of thought processes is slowed down and sluggish.
Circumstantial thinking refers to an inability to separate the essential from the unessential during a conversation without rendering the conversation incoherent. Restricted thinking involves a limited range of thought content, fixation on one particular topic of a small number of topics only, and a stereotyped pattern of thinking.
Perseverative thinking is characterized by the persistent repetition of previously used words, phrases, of details to the point where they become meaningless in the context of the current stage of the interview. Rumination is the endless mental preoccupation with, of excessive concern over, mostly unpleasant thoughts.
Pressured thinking, also known as crowding of thought, is when the patient feels helplessly exposed to the pressures of floods of different ideas of thoughts. Flight of ideas involves an increasing multitude of thoughts and ideas which are no longer firmly guided by clear goal-directed thinking.
Tangential thinking occurs when the patient appears to understand the contents of the questions addressed to them but provides answers which are completely out of context. Thought blocking of disruption of thought refers to sudden disruption of an otherwise normal flow of thought of speech for no obvious reason.
Incoherence of derailment is when the interviewer is unable to establish sensible connections between the patient’s thinking and verbal output, which is sometimes also called derailment. Neologisms involve the formation of new words of usage of words which disregard normal conventions and are generally not easily understandable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Which renowned French doctor is attributed with implementing kinder care for patients in mental institutions in Paris during the year 1793?
Your Answer: de Clérambault
Correct Answer: Pinel
Explanation:In 1793, Philippe Pinel was entrusted with the care of inmates at the Bicêtre Hospital in Paris, where he is renowned for his efforts in liberating patients from their chains and introducing a new approach to treatment known as ‘moral treatment’. This progressive method had already been adopted by a handful of other reformers in Britain and other countries. Bleuler, a Swiss psychiatrist, is credited with coining the term ‘schizophrenia’, while de Clérambault’s name is associated with a syndrome characterized by delusions of love (erotomania). Esquirol, on the other hand, was a student of Pinel, and Mesmer was a German physician who gained notoriety for his belief in ‘animal magnetism’ of ‘mesmerism’.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- History Of Psychiatry
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Question 26
Correct
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Which of the following is associated with dynamic mutations?
Your Answer: Fragile X
Explanation:Trinucleotide Repeat Disorders: Understanding the Genetic Basis
Trinucleotide repeat disorders are genetic conditions that arise due to the abnormal presence of an expanded sequence of trinucleotide repeats. These disorders are characterized by the phenomenon of anticipation, which refers to the amplification of the number of repeats over successive generations. This leads to an earlier onset and often a more severe form of the disease.
The table below lists the trinucleotide repeat disorders and the specific repeat sequences involved in each condition:
Condition Repeat Sequence Involved
Fragile X Syndrome CGG
Myotonic Dystrophy CTG
Huntington’s Disease CAG
Friedreich’s Ataxia GAA
Spinocerebellar Ataxia CAGThe mutations responsible for trinucleotide repeat disorders are referred to as ‘dynamic’ mutations. This is because the number of repeats can change over time, leading to a range of clinical presentations. Understanding the genetic basis of these disorders is crucial for accurate diagnosis, genetic counseling, and the development of effective treatments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 27
Incorrect
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What gas functions as a neurotransmitter?
Your Answer: Nitrogen
Correct Answer: Carbon monoxide
Explanation:It’s important to differentiate between nitrogen and nitrous oxide, as they have distinct properties. Nitrogen is not a neurotransmitter, while nitrous oxide is sometimes used for its anesthetic and analgesic effects.
Neurotransmitters are substances used by neurons to communicate with each other and with target tissues. They are synthesized and released from nerve endings into the synaptic cleft, where they bind to receptor proteins in the cellular membrane of the target tissue. Neurotransmitters can be classified into different types, including small molecules (such as acetylcholine, dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, and GABA) and large molecules (such as neuropeptides). They can also be classified as excitatory or inhibitory. Receptors can be ionotropic or metabotropic, and the effects of neurotransmitters can be fast of slow. Some important neurotransmitters include acetylcholine, dopamine, GABA, norepinephrine, and serotonin. Each neurotransmitter has a specific synthesis, breakdown, and receptor type. Understanding neurotransmitters is important for understanding the function of the nervous system and for developing treatments for neurological and psychiatric disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 28
Incorrect
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What is the purpose of the Sally-Anne test?
Your Answer: Attachment behaviour
Correct Answer: Theory of mind
Explanation:The Sally-Anne Test and the Theory of Mind
The Sally-Anne test, conducted by Simon Baron-Cohen, led to the development of the theory of mind idea. The experiment involved several groups of children, including those with autism. During the test, a skit was performed where Sally put a marble in a basket and left the room. Anne then removed the marble from the basket and placed it in a box. When Sally returned, the children were asked where she would look for her marble.
The results showed that most non-autistic children correctly identified the basket, while most autistic children pointed to of named the box. This led the researchers to conclude that the autistic children who chose the box lacked the ability to understand that Sally did not know the marble was in the box. The Sally-Anne test thus became a crucial tool in understanding the theory of mind, which refers to the ability to attribute mental states to oneself and others.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 29
Correct
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Which of the following dimensions were included in Eysenck's classification scheme from 1970?
Your Answer: Psychoticism
Explanation:Eysenck’s classification system consisted of three dimensions: Psychoticism, Neuroticism, and Introversion-extraversion. Despite its theoretical appeal, it has not been widely utilized, possibly due to challenges in its practical application in clinical settings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 30
Incorrect
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What is the accurate statement regarding culture-specific disorders?
Your Answer: Myriachit is a similar disease to amok
Correct Answer: South Asians rarely complain about mental health problems
Explanation:Depression can be presented differently across cultures. For example, Afro-Caribbean men may report erectile dysfunction and other physical symptoms when experiencing depression. South Asians may also experience mental health problems, but are more likely to report physical symptoms rather than psychological distress. In the United Kingdom, there is a higher prevalence of schizophrenia among black immigrants. In Siberia, there is a type of jumping disease called Myriachit, which may be similar to latah, a culture-bound syndrome seen in Southeast Asia characterized by hyper-suggestibility, echolalia, echopraxia, coprolalia, disorganization, and automatic obedience. Amok is another culture-bound syndrome that typically occurs in men and involves a period of withdrawal followed by sudden outbursts of homicidal aggression. Susto is a culture-bound syndrome seen in Latin America that is attributed to severe fright causing the soul to leave the body and is characterized by anxiety, sadness, altered sleep and eating habits, and physical symptoms such as headache, stomach-ache, muscle aches, and diarrhea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Stigma And Culture
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