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  • Question 1 - A 50-year-old woman has two sons, the youngest of whom has Down syndrome....

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman has two sons, the youngest of whom has Down syndrome. During a consultation for a different issue, she brings up that her eldest son is considering having children and she is concerned about the possibility of passing on Down syndrome. What is the most frequent genotypic abnormality observed in Down syndrome?

      Your Answer: Extra X chromosome

      Correct Answer: Extra chromosome

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Genetic Basis of Down Syndrome

      Down syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects approximately 1 in 700 births. The majority of cases (over 90%) are caused by trisomy 21, which occurs when there is an extra copy of chromosome 21. This is due to a mistake in cell division during the formation of the egg or sperm cell that leads to the zygote having three copies of chromosome 21 instead of the usual two.

      Contrary to popular belief, Down syndrome is not caused by an abnormal gene. Rather, it is a chromosomal disorder that is not inherited in the traditional sense. However, in rare cases (about 3.5%), Down syndrome can be caused by a translocation of chromosome 21, where a piece of the chromosome breaks off and attaches to another chromosome. This can be inherited from a parent who is a balanced translocation carrier, meaning they have no extra chromosome 21 themselves but have a piece of it attached to another chromosome.

      Another rare form of Down syndrome is mosaic trisomy 21, which occurs when nondisjunction (the failure of chromosomes to separate properly) happens after fertilization during early cell division. This results in some cells having the normal number of chromosomes while others have an extra chromosome 21. People with mosaic Down syndrome may have milder disabilities and less obvious physical features.

      Understanding the genetic basis of Down syndrome is important for families and healthcare providers to provide appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      20.1
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  • Question 2 - A 6-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his father. The boy...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his father. The boy has been complaining of an itchy bottom, so his father suspected threadworm infection and got some mebendazole over the counter. Despite a dose of the medication, he continues to have itching. External examination is normal.

      What is the most effective test to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Adhesive tape test

      Explanation:

      To investigate for threadworms when the diagnosis is unclear, the recommended method is the adhesive tape test. While lab confirmation is not typically necessary for diagnosis, the adhesive tape test can be used to confirm the presence of threadworm eggs. This involves applying clear adhesive tape to the perianal skin first thing in the morning, before washing or using the toilet, and sending the sample to the lab for microscopy. It may be necessary to repeat the test if initial results are inconclusive. Serology is not a reliable method for diagnosing threadworms, and skin scrape and skin swab tests are not commonly used in the UK.

      Threadworms: A Common Infestation Among Children in the UK

      Infestation with threadworms, also known as pinworms, is a prevalent condition among children in the UK. The infestation occurs when individuals swallow eggs present in their environment. Although around 90% of cases are asymptomatic, some possible features include perianal itching, especially at night, and vulval symptoms in girls.

      Diagnosis can be made by applying Sellotape to the perianal area and sending it to the laboratory for microscopy to see the eggs. However, most patients are treated empirically, and this approach is supported in the CKS guidelines.

      The recommended management for threadworm infestation is a combination of anthelmintic with hygiene measures for all members of the household. Mebendazole is used as a first-line treatment for children over six months old, with a single dose given unless the infestation persists. By following these guidelines, individuals can effectively manage and prevent the spread of threadworms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      330.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 70-year-old woman presents with severe sharp pain in the left groin following...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman presents with severe sharp pain in the left groin following a minor fall and is unable to walk. Radiological examination reveals a left neck of femur fracture. Routine laboratory evaluation shows a serum calcium concentration of 1.8 mmol/l (normal range 2.20–2.60 mmol/l), a serum phosphorus concentration of 0.72 mmol/l (normal range 0.7–1.4 mmol/l) and increased serum alkaline phosphatase activity. The serum parathyroid hormone level was subsequently found to be elevated.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Paget’s disease of bone

      Correct Answer: Vitamin D deficiency

      Explanation:

      Understanding Vitamin D Deficiency and its Differential Diagnosis

      Vitamin D deficiency is a common condition that can lead to osteomalacia, characterized by hypocalcaemia and hypophosphataemia. This deficiency can be caused by dietary deficiency or malabsorption. Patients with osteomalacia often have elevated serum alkaline phosphatase levels, and the severity and chronicity of the disease can affect calcium intake in the diet. Secondary hyperparathyroidism may also be present in patients with vitamin D insufficiency.

      Paget’s disease of bone, hypervitaminosis D, osteoporosis, and primary hyperparathyroidism are differential diagnoses that should be considered. Paget’s disease is associated with bone pain, increased risk of fracture, and elevated serum alkaline phosphatase activity, but serum calcium levels are usually normal. Hypervitaminosis D is associated with hypercalcaemia, while osteoporosis is not associated with any specific abnormality in the standard bone biochemistry profile. Primary hyperparathyroidism is also associated with hypercalcaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      124.7
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  • Question 4 - A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 48 hour history...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 48 hour history of dysuria and visible blood in his urine. He also reports some frequency of urination. However, he denies fever, abdominal pain or loin pain and feels generally well. He mentions that his urine has gradually cleared and looks normal again since he first noticed the frank blood. On examination, he appears systemically well with a regular pulse rate of 76 and blood pressure of 138/76 mmHg. His abdomen and loins are unremarkable on palpation. A urine sample is obtained and dipstick testing reveals leucocytes ++ and blood+++. You prescribe antibiotics to cover a urinary tract infection. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Advise him to complete the antibiotic course and seek review should he have any further visible haematuria

      Correct Answer: Send a urine sample to establish accurately the presence of a urinary infection

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral for Painless Visible Haematuria

      Male or female patients who present with painless visible haematuria should be referred urgently for specialist assessment. However, if a patient presents with dysuria and visible haematuria, it is important to establish whether there is a urinary tract infection. If an infection is present, it can be treated appropriately, and referral for further investigation of the haematuria may not be necessary.

      On the other hand, if an infection is not confirmed, urgent referral is warranted to investigate the haematuria with speed. Therefore, the next most appropriate step is to establish if a urinary tract infection is present. It is crucial to identify the underlying cause of haematuria to ensure prompt and effective treatment. Early referral and assessment can help prevent potential complications and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urgent And Unscheduled Care
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 63-year-old man initially reported experiencing itching on his back. Subsequently, he began...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man initially reported experiencing itching on his back. Subsequently, he began to experience abdominal discomfort, loss of appetite, weight loss, and fatigue. An x-ray was performed, which showed no abnormalities. What would be the gold standard management option?

      Your Answer: Refer routinely to gastroenterology

      Correct Answer: Urgent CT scan

      Explanation:

      Urgent CT Scan for Pancreatic Cancer in Elderly Patients with Red Flag Symptoms

      An urgent direct access CT scan is recommended within two weeks for patients aged 60 and over who have experienced weight loss and any of the following symptoms: diarrhoea, back pain, abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, constipation, or new-onset diabetes. CT scan is preferred over ultrasound unless CT is not available. Endoscopy is not necessary as the symptoms do not suggest stomach or oesophageal cancer, which would present with more dysphagia and dyspepsia. While a gastroenterology opinion may be required, it should not be requested routinely as the patient’s red flag symptoms warrant a more urgent approach. Although the patient is currently medically stable, an immediate referral to the medical assessment unit is not necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      62.4
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  • Question 6 - A 35-year-old man is referred by the practice nurse following a routine health...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man is referred by the practice nurse following a routine health check. He is a smoker with a strong family history of premature death from ischaemic heart disease. His fasting cholesterol concentration is 7.2 mmol/l and his estimated 10-year risk of a coronary heart disease event is >30%.
      Select from the list the single most suitable management option in this patient.

      Your Answer: Statin

      Explanation:

      NICE recommends primary prevention for individuals under 84 years old who have a risk of over 10% of developing cardiovascular disease, which can be estimated using the QRISK2 assessment tool. To address modifiable risk factors, interventions such as dietary advice, smoking cessation support, alcohol moderation, and weight reduction should be offered. For lipid management, both non-pharmacological and pharmacological interventions should be utilized, with atorvastatin 20 mg being the recommended prescription for primary prevention. Lipids should be checked after 3 months, with the aim of reducing non-HDL cholesterol by over 40%. However, excessive drug usage in the elderly should be considered carefully by doctors, as cardiovascular risks exceeding 5-10% may be found in elderly men based on age and gender alone. NICE advises against routinely prescribing fibrates, bile acid sequestrants, nicotinic acid, omega-3 fatty acid compounds, or a combination of a statin and another lipid-modifying drug. First-line treatment for primary hyperlipidaemia is a statin, with other options such as bile acid sequestrants being considered if statins are contraindicated or not tolerated. For primary prevention of CVD, high-intensity statin treatment should be offered to individuals under 84 years old with an estimated 10-year risk of 10% or more using the QRISK assessment tool. Diet modification alone is not recommended for individuals with a risk score over 30%. Ezetimibe can be considered for individuals with primary hypercholesterolaemia if a statin is contraindicated or not tolerated, but it is not the first choice of drug in this scenario.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      9.8
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  • Question 7 - A 32-year-old woman is being evaluated in surgery. She has asthma that is...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman is being evaluated in surgery. She has asthma that is hard to manage and is presently on a tapering regimen of steroids. Her respiratory specialist has requested that you consider measures to protect her bones. Upon reviewing her medical history, it is discovered that she has undergone 11 rounds of oral prednisolone in the past year, some of which have lasted for more than a week. What is the best course of action to take?

      Your Answer: Arrange a DEXA scan

      Explanation:

      To protect the bones of patients who are taking corticosteroids, those who are under 65 years old should undergo a DEXA scan before any treatment is initiated. For those who are 65 years old or older, it is recommended to begin taking alendronate as a preventative measure.

      Managing Osteoporosis Risk in Patients on Corticosteroids

      Osteoporosis is a significant risk for patients taking corticosteroids, which are commonly used in clinical practice. To manage this risk appropriately, the 2002 Royal College of Physicians (RCP) guidelines provide a concise guide to prevention and treatment. According to these guidelines, the risk of osteoporosis increases significantly once a patient takes the equivalent of prednisolone 7.5mg a day for three or more months. Therefore, it is crucial to manage patients in an anticipatory manner, starting bone protection immediately if it is likely that the patient will need to take steroids for at least three months.

      The RCP guidelines divide patients into two groups based on age and fragility fracture history. Patients over the age of 65 years or those who have previously had a fragility fracture should be offered bone protection. For patients under the age of 65 years, a bone density scan should be offered, and further management depends on the T score. If the T score is greater than 0, patients can be reassured. If the T score is between 0 and -1.5, a repeat bone density scan should be done in 1-3 years. If the T score is less than -1.5, bone protection should be offered.

      The first-line treatment for corticosteroid-induced osteoporosis is alendronate. Patients should also be replete in calcium and vitamin D. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can effectively manage the risk of osteoporosis in patients taking corticosteroids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A type-2 diabetic patient with chronic renal failure who is in their 70s...

    Correct

    • A type-2 diabetic patient with chronic renal failure who is in their 70s is prescribed metformin. What is the most probable severe complication that may arise from using this medication?

      Your Answer: Lactic acidosis

      Explanation:

      Metformin and Renal Failure: Understanding the Risks

      Metformin is a commonly prescribed medication for patients with type 2 diabetes. However, it is important to understand the risks associated with its use in patients with renal failure. Metformin can accumulate in the body and lead to life-threatening acidosis if not properly monitored. Therefore, it is recommended that the dose be adjusted or the drug avoided in patients with reduced kidney function. Additionally, treatment should be interrupted in patients at risk of tissue hypoxia or sudden deterioration in renal function. Despite these risks, metformin remains a first-line choice for most patients with type 2 diabetes, particularly those who are overweight. It is important for healthcare providers to carefully consider the risks and benefits of metformin use in patients with renal failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      22.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A mother brings her 4-year-old girl who is known to have Down's syndrome...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 4-year-old girl who is known to have Down's syndrome to surgery, as she is worried about her vision. Which of the following eye issues is the least commonly linked with Down's syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Retinal detachment

      Explanation:

      Vision and Hearing Issues in Down’s Syndrome

      Individuals with Down’s syndrome are at a higher risk of experiencing vision and hearing problems. When it comes to vision, they are more likely to have refractive errors, which can cause blurred vision. Strabismus, a condition where the eyes do not align properly, is also common in 20-40% of individuals with Down’s syndrome. Cataracts, which can cause cloudiness in the eye lens, are more prevalent in those with Down’s syndrome, both congenital and acquired. Recurrent blepharitis, an inflammation of the eyelids, and glaucoma, a condition that damages the optic nerve, are also potential issues.

      In terms of hearing, otitis media and glue ear are very common in individuals with Down’s syndrome. These conditions can lead to hearing problems, which can affect speech and language development. It is important for individuals with Down’s syndrome to receive regular vision and hearing screenings to detect and address any issues early on.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 10 - At her pill check, a 28-year-old woman inquires about transitioning from Microgynon 30...

    Incorrect

    • At her pill check, a 28-year-old woman inquires about transitioning from Microgynon 30 to Qlaira. What is the accurate statement about Qlaira?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Users take pills for every day of the 28 day cycle

      Explanation:

      Qlaira is taken daily for a 28-day cycle, with 26 pills containing estradiol +/- dienogest and 2 inactive pills. The dose of estradiol decreases gradually while the dose of dienogest increases during the cycle.

      Choice of Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      The combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) comes in different variations based on the amount of oestrogen and progestogen and the presentation. For first-time users, it is recommended to use a pill containing 30 mcg ethinyloestradiol with levonorgestrel/norethisterone. However, two new COCPs have been developed in recent years, namely Qlaira and Yaz, which work differently from traditional pills.

      Qlaira is a combination of estradiol valerate and dienogest with a quadriphasic dosage regimen designed to provide optimal cycle control. The pill is taken every day for a 28-day cycle, with 26 pills containing estradiol +/- dienogest and two pills being inactive. The dose of estradiol is gradually reduced, and that of dienogest is increased during the cycle to give women a more natural cycle with constant oestrogen levels. However, Qlaira is more expensive than standard COCPs, and there is limited safety data to date.

      On the other hand, Yaz combines 20mcg ethinylestradiol with 3mg drospirenone and has a 24/4 regime, unlike the normal 21/7 cycle. This shorter pill-free interval is better for patients with troublesome premenstrual symptoms and is more effective at preventing ovulation. Studies have shown that Yaz causes less premenstrual syndrome, and blood loss is reduced by 50-60%.

      In conclusion, the choice of COCP depends on various factors such as cost, safety data, and missed pill rules. It is essential to consult a healthcare provider to determine the most suitable COCP based on individual needs and medical history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 11 - A 30-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with concerns about the increasing frequency...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with concerns about the increasing frequency of his migraines. He used to experience headaches once or twice a month, but over the past four months, he has had to take sumatriptan around 20 days a month. He occasionally combines it with co-codamol, but this doesn't alleviate the pain.

      What is the best guidance you can offer this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Medication overuse headache must be excluded before starting prophylaxis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Migraine Prophylaxis: Important Considerations

      Migraine prophylaxis is a treatment option for individuals who experience frequent and debilitating migraines. However, before starting prophylaxis, it is crucial to rule out medication overuse headache, which can be caused by frequent use of acute drugs. If medication overuse headache is suspected, drug withdrawal is necessary.

      It is important to note that prophylaxis is not a substitute for acute treatment. While prophylaxis can reduce the frequency of attacks, acute treatment will still be required when migraines occur. Acute treatment typically involves simple analgesia, triptans, and antiemetics.

      When starting prophylaxis, it is essential to titrate the dose slowly to avoid side-effects that may lead to premature discontinuation. This slow dose titration can cause a delay in efficacy, which may trigger discontinuation. Therefore, a careful explanation is necessary.

      Prophylaxis is only indicated if migraines are significantly impacting daily function and quality of life, such as occurring more than once per week or being severe despite treatment. Other indications for prophylaxis include the risk of medication overuse headache or if acute treatments are contraindicated or ineffective.

      While NICE recommends propranolol, topiramate, or amitriptyline as the first-line approach for prophylaxis, triptans are used to manage acute attacks. Understanding these important considerations can help individuals make informed decisions about their migraine treatment options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 12 - A 45-year-old man complains of intermittent, unilateral pain above and behind his left...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man complains of intermittent, unilateral pain above and behind his left eye, which has been waking him up at night for the past ten days. The pain is described as severe and stabbing, lasting about 20 minutes and causing him to feel restless and agitated. He also experiences tearing from his left eye and nasal congestion. During attacks, he has noticed his left eyelid drooping. He recalls having similar symptoms for a few weeks last year, but they went away on their own and he did not seek medical attention. Physical examination reveals no abnormalities. He has been a smoker for most of his life.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cluster headache

      Explanation:

      Headache Disorders: Cluster Headache, Migraine, Paroxysmal Hemicrania, Temporal Arteritis, and Trigeminal Neuralgia

      Cluster headache is a type of headache disorder that commonly affects middle-aged men in clusters lasting weeks to months. Verapamil and prednisolone are used for prophylaxis, while sumatriptan and oxygen are the main treatments for the acute attack. Migraine lacks the specific features of cluster headache and tends to have bilateral autonomic symptoms. Paroxysmal hemicrania is another type of trigeminal autonomic cephalgia that occurs multiple times throughout the day but for shorter periods and is more frequently seen in women. It responds to indomethacin and is often used as a diagnostic aid. Temporal arteritis is unusual in this age group and is usually throbbing and continuous with focal tenderness on direct palpation. Trigeminal neuralgia is sometimes mistaken for cluster headache, but the attacks are much shorter and autonomic activation is rare.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 13 - A 65-year-old healthcare worker receives a needlestick injury from a patient who is...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old healthcare worker receives a needlestick injury from a patient who is not known to be a carrier of blood-borne viral infections and is thought to be a low risk of having such an infection.
      Select from the list the single most appropriate action.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Take blood for virology (HIV, hepatitis B, hepatitis C) from the injured worker

      Explanation:

      Risks and Guidelines for Healthcare Workers Exposed to Bloodborne Pathogens

      Healthcare workers are at risk of exposure to bloodborne pathogens such as HIV, hepatitis B, and hepatitis C. While the risk of transmission is low, it is important to follow clear guidelines from the Department of Health to ensure the safety of the worker.

      If a healthcare worker is exposed to blood, they should have blood taken for virology to check for HIV, hepatitis B, and hepatitis C. If there is a significant risk of HIV, post-exposure prophylaxis with antiretroviral therapy should be started as soon as possible. HIV status and hepatitis serology should be rechecked at 3 and 6 months, and liver function tests should be performed and repeated at these intervals as well. Female workers should also have their β-hCG level checked to exclude pregnancy.

      Ideally, a sample of blood should be obtained from the donor to determine if they are a potential source of infection. Healthcare workers should already be immune to hepatitis B from previous immunization, but if not, they may need to receive the vaccine.

      In summary, healthcare workers should be aware of the risks associated with exposure to bloodborne pathogens and follow the appropriate guidelines to ensure their safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 14 - When conducting a yearly evaluation for a senior living facility resident with multiple...

    Incorrect

    • When conducting a yearly evaluation for a senior living facility resident with multiple comorbidities, you observe that he has a heart rate of 57, indicating bradycardia. Which of his medications could be causing this side effect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Donepezil

      Explanation:

      Donepezil is a drug used for treating Alzheimer’s disease, but it may cause bradycardia as a side effect, along with other adverse reactions such as gastrointestinal problems, agitation, hallucinations, and syncope. Patients with conduction abnormalities or those taking negatively chronotropic medications like beta blockers, rate-limiting calcium channel blockers, or digoxin should use caution when taking these drugs. Although specialists like psychiatrists, elderly care specialists, and neurologists typically initiate the use of these medications, GPs may be asked to prescribe and monitor them under Shared Care Agreements, so it’s important to be aware of potential prescribing issues. The BNF lists neuroleptic malignant syndrome as a very rare adverse reaction.

      Dementia is a condition that affects a significant number of people in the UK, with Alzheimer’s disease being the most common cause followed by vascular and Lewy body dementia. Diagnosis can be challenging and often delayed, but assessment tools such as the 10-point cognitive screener and 6-Item cognitive impairment test are recommended by NICE for non-specialist settings. However, tools like the abbreviated mental test score, General practitioner assessment of cognition, and mini-mental state examination are not recommended. A score of 24 or less out of 30 on the MMSE suggests dementia.

      In primary care, a blood screen is usually conducted to exclude reversible causes like hypothyroidism. NICE recommends tests such as FBC, U&E, LFTs, calcium, glucose, ESR/CRP, TFTs, vitamin B12, and folate levels. Patients are often referred to old-age psychiatrists working in memory clinics. In secondary care, neuroimaging is performed to exclude other reversible conditions like subdural haematoma and normal pressure hydrocephalus and provide information on aetiology to guide prognosis and management. The 2011 NICE guidelines state that structural imaging is essential in investigating dementia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
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  • Question 15 - A 28-year-old female presents to the clinic with concerns about a possible pregnancy....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female presents to the clinic with concerns about a possible pregnancy. She has been consistently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) for the past six years and has two children aged 7 and 9. However, she had unprotected sexual intercourse 12 hours ago and failed to restart her pill three days ago after her week break. She is now seeking advice on post coital contraception. The patient's medical history includes severe trigeminal neuralgia, and she has been taking carbamazepine for the past three months. Based on FSRH guidance, what would be your approach to managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Emergency contraception not necessary

      Explanation:

      Emergency Contraception Options and Considerations

      The copper IUD is the most effective emergency contraception option, with a low documented failure rate. It can be inserted up to five days after the first episode of unprotected sexual intercourse or five days after the estimated date of ovulation. The IUD prevents implantation and is toxic to sperm.

      Levonorgestrel is another option, licensed for use within 72 hours of UPSI (may be effective up to 96 hours). It primarily inhibits ovulation and may be used more than once in a cycle. However, its effectiveness may be reduced in women taking liver enzyme-inducing drugs, such as carbamazepine. In such cases, a double dose of 3mg may be used off-license, but the effectiveness of this has not been studied.

      Ulipristal acetate is as effective as levonorgestrel up to 120 hours (five days) and delays or inhibits ovulation. However, it binds to progesterone receptors, so an additional method of contraception is required if on COCP or POP.

      All eligible women presenting within 120 hours of UPSI or within five days of expected ovulation should be offered a copper IUD, ideally at first presentation. If this is not possible, oral emergency contraception can be given in the interim, with the woman advised to return for the IUD at the earliest appropriate time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
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  • Question 16 - A 28-year-old woman presents with 13 months of amenorrhoea. For the past few...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with 13 months of amenorrhoea. For the past few months she has been experiencing hot flashes, night sweats, mood changes and pain on intercourse. Follicular stimulating hormone (FSH) has been > 40 µIU/l on two separate occasions, and her serum oestradiol level is low. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and prolactin are normal. Fasting blood glucose is normal. Pregnancy test is negative.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Premature ovarian insufficiency

      Explanation:

      Premature Ovarian Insufficiency: Causes and Symptoms

      Premature ovarian insufficiency (POI) is a condition that affects at least 1% of women under the age of 40 years. It is characterized by elevated follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), low oestradiol, and prolonged amenorrhoea. In most cases, no underlying cause is identified, but familial history, autoimmune lymphocytic oophoritis, infections, and iatrogenic causes such as surgery, radiotherapy, and chemotherapy may contribute to the condition. Spontaneous recovery of fertility is unlikely.

      Androgen-secreting adrenal tumour, hypopituitarism, polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS), and thyrotoxicosis are incorrect diagnoses for POI. Androgen-secreting adrenal tumour is rare and presents with hirsutism, acne, and clitoral enlargement. Hypopituitarism is caused by anterior pituitary tumours and may result in pressure features, ACTH deficiency, TSH deficiency, GH deficiency, ADH deficiency, and gonadotrophin deficiency. PCOS is unlikely due to the raised FSH and lack of hyperandrogenism. Thyrotoxicosis is ruled out by the normal TSH levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 17 - A 60-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner complaining of shortness of breath...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner complaining of shortness of breath during physical activity. He has a medical history of hypertension and has experienced a STEMI in the past. Upon examination, his pulse is 68 beats per minute, his blood pressure is 122/72 mmHg, and he displays bilateral pitting ankle edema. Which medication is most likely to decrease mortality in this patient? Choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      This man is experiencing heart failure due to ischaemic heart disease, which is a leading cause of death among men in the UK. Beta-blockers are the only medication proven to reduce all-cause mortality in patients with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction, and they can also help control hypertension. However, before starting treatment, his blood pressure and pulse should be checked to ensure that he is not at risk of bradycardia or hypotension. Spironolactone is not recommended for improving mortality in heart failure patients, but it can be used to treat hypertension and oedema. U&Es should be monitored regularly to avoid renal function deterioration and hyperkalaemia. Amlodipine and furosemide have not been shown to improve mortality in heart failure patients, but they can be used to control hypertension and oedema, respectively. U&Es should also be monitored regularly when using these medications. Ramipril has been shown to reduce hospital admissions in heart failure patients, but it can impair renal function and cause hyperkalaemia. U&Es should be checked regularly, and the medication should not be initiated if the patient’s potassium level is too high. Patients should also be advised to stop taking ramipril during diarrhoea or vomiting illnesses to avoid dehydration and acute kidney injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 18 - You are requested to assess a 76-year-old male who complains of experiencing a...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to assess a 76-year-old male who complains of experiencing a recent onset of yellowish tint in his vision. He mentions being on multiple medications but cannot recall their names. His medical history includes heart failure, benign prostatic hyperplasia, and COPD. Which of the following drugs is the most probable cause of this adverse effect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Digoxin

      Explanation:

      Yellow-green vision may be a side effect of digoxin.

      The use of digoxin carries a significant risk of toxicity due to its limited therapeutic range. One of the symptoms of toxicity is the appearance of yellow-tinted vision, also known as xanthopsia.

      Similarly, sildenafil use may result in cyanopsia or blue-tinted vision.

      Understanding Digoxin and Its Toxicity

      Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure patients. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, it has a narrow therapeutic index and can cause toxicity even when the concentration is within the therapeutic range.

      Toxicity may present with symptoms such as lethargy, nausea, vomiting, confusion, and yellow-green vision. Arrhythmias and gynaecomastia may also occur. Hypokalaemia is a classic precipitating factor as it increases the inhibitory effects of digoxin. Other factors include increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, and various electrolyte imbalances. Certain drugs, such as amiodarone and verapamil, can also contribute to toxicity.

      If toxicity is suspected, digoxin concentrations should be measured within 8 to 12 hours of the last dose. However, plasma concentration alone doesn’t determine toxicity. Management includes the use of Digibind, correcting arrhythmias, and monitoring potassium levels.

      In summary, understanding the mechanism of action, monitoring, and potential toxicity of digoxin is crucial for its safe and effective use in clinical practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 19 - A 62-year-old gentleman presents for a check-up. He has a medical history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old gentleman presents for a check-up. He has a medical history of hypertension, hyperlipidaemia, and obesity. He has come to discuss his blood sugar levels.

      Three months ago, his annual fasting blood tests showed a fasting glucose of 6.8 mmol/L. He subsequently had an HbA1c blood test performed which was 48 mmol/mol. This has been followed up just prior to this appointment with a repeat HbA1c blood test which is 50 mmol/mol.

      Today his urine dipstick was tested and is normal. He has no symptoms and feels well.

      What is the most appropriate action in this instance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diagnose diabetes mellitus and manage accordingly

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Diabetes using HbA1c Blood Testing

      Diabetes can be diagnosed in various ways, including the traditional fasting plasma glucose level or random plasma glucose level tests. However, the HbA1c blood test has become more popular in recent years as it reflects glycaemia over the preceding two to three months. A one-off test with a result of 48 mmol/mol or greater is compatible with diabetes mellitus.

      However, HbA1c should not be used as the sole test in the diagnosis of diabetes for symptomatic children and young people, presentation suggestive of type 1 diabetes, symptoms of diabetes of short duration, those at high risk of diabetes who are acutely ill, if medication is prescribed that can cause rapid fluctuations in sugar levels, and in the context of acute pancreatic damage or pancreatic surgery.

      For asymptomatic individuals with risk factors for type 2 diabetes mellitus, two HbA1c readings greater than 48 are sufficient for diagnosis. It is advisable to repeat the HbA1c to confirm the level before diagnosing diabetes. HbA1c has replaced the more cumbersome oral glucose tolerance test as the next step in investigating a raised or borderline plasma glucose.

      The concept of pre-diabetes has emerged to replace impaired glucose tolerance and impaired fasting glycaemia. Patients with HbA1c levels of 42-47 mmol/mol in the UK and 37-47 mmol/mol in the US are considered to have pre-diabetes and require monitoring for progression to diabetes and management of their cardiovascular risk factors. Anti-diabetic medication may be used in pre-diabetes.

      In conclusion, the diagnosis of diabetes using HbA1c blood testing has become more convenient and popular. However, it should not be used as the sole test in certain cases. The concept of pre-diabetes has emerged, and patients with borderline sugar levels require monitoring and management of their cardiovascular risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 20 - A 9-month-old boy has a temperature of 38.5°C. You first saw the child...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-month-old boy has a temperature of 38.5°C. You first saw the child two days ago and the child has been febrile since then. He now has a faint erythematous macular rash that blanches on pressure. The parents are anxious.
      Which option would be MOST IMPORTANT in making the decision to admit the child to hospital?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increasing family anxiety

      Explanation:

      Identifying Red Flags in Febrile Children

      Febrile illness in children can be a cause of concern for parents and healthcare providers. While most cases are self-limiting and resolve without complications, some may require urgent medical attention. It is important to identify red flags that indicate a potentially serious underlying condition.

      Factors that may increase family anxiety include a history of serious illness or death due to feverish illness, other illnesses affecting the child or family members, and parental instinct. Parents should not ignore their intuition and seek medical advice if they are concerned.

      While there are no set rules about how long a fever should last, parents should seek further advice if their child has been febrile for five days without resolution. In infants aged 0-3 months, a temperature of >38°C is a red flag, while a temperature of >39°C in infants aged 3-6 months is an amber flag. After six months of age, the temperature alone is no longer an indicator of intermediate or high risk.

      Reduced fluid intake, dry mucous membranes, reduced urine output, and reduced skin turgor are amber warning signs that require medical attention. A blanching erythematous rash is likely to indicate a viral infection and is not a cause for concern. However, non-blanching petechiae and patches in a sick child suggest meningococcal disease and require urgent medical attention.

      In conclusion, identifying red flags in febrile children is crucial for timely diagnosis and management of potentially serious conditions. Parents should seek medical advice if they are concerned about their child’s health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 21 - A 60-year-old man presents to the neurology outpatient clinic with a resting tremor...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents to the neurology outpatient clinic with a resting tremor in his left hand. Parkinson's disease is diagnosed, but he is currently not experiencing any significant disability. What is the recommended treatment approach?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: New generation dopamine receptor agonist e.g. ropinirole

      Explanation:

      As per the latest NICE guidelines of 2017, it is advised to administer a dopamine receptor agonist for motor symptoms that do not significantly impact the patient’s quality of life.

      Understanding the Mechanism of Action of Parkinson’s Drugs

      Parkinson’s disease is a complex condition that requires specialized management. The first-line treatment for motor symptoms that affect a patient’s quality of life is levodopa, while dopamine agonists, levodopa, or monoamine oxidase B (MAO-B) inhibitors are recommended for those whose motor symptoms do not affect their quality of life. However, all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause a wide variety of side effects, and it is important to be aware of these when making treatment decisions.

      Levodopa is nearly always combined with a decarboxylase inhibitor to prevent the peripheral metabolism of levodopa to dopamine outside of the brain and reduce side effects. Dopamine receptor agonists, such as bromocriptine, ropinirole, cabergoline, and apomorphine, are more likely than levodopa to cause hallucinations in older patients. MAO-B inhibitors, such as selegiline, inhibit the breakdown of dopamine secreted by the dopaminergic neurons. Amantadine’s mechanism is not fully understood, but it probably increases dopamine release and inhibits its uptake at dopaminergic synapses. COMT inhibitors, such as entacapone and tolcapone, are used in conjunction with levodopa in patients with established PD. Antimuscarinics, such as procyclidine, benzotropine, and trihexyphenidyl (benzhexol), block cholinergic receptors and are now used more to treat drug-induced parkinsonism rather than idiopathic Parkinson’s disease.

      It is important to note that all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause adverse effects, and clinicians must be aware of these when making treatment decisions. Patients should also be warned about the potential for dopamine receptor agonists to cause impulse control disorders and excessive daytime somnolence. Understanding the mechanism of action of Parkinson’s drugs is crucial in managing the condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 22 - A 50-year-old woman has a fungating metastatic breast cancer and is increasingly distressed...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman has a fungating metastatic breast cancer and is increasingly distressed by the malodorous discharge from the affected breast, which is causing considerable social embarrassment.

      From the list below, choose the single treatment which would help alleviate this symptom.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Allevyn dressings

      Explanation:

      Managing Foul Odors in Palliative Care

      In palliative care, managing foul odors is an important aspect of providing comfort to patients. One approach is to use metronidazole, which can improve smells caused by anaerobic organisms that infect fungating tumors. Another option is to use charcoal dressings, which absorb malodorous substances. It is recommended to familiarize oneself with the British National Formulary (BNF) section on prescribing in palliative care, as it contains valuable information that is often tested in exams. By utilizing these strategies, healthcare providers can help alleviate unpleasant odors and improve the quality of life for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
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  • Question 23 - What is the most suitable amount of adrenaline to administer during a heart...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most suitable amount of adrenaline to administer during a heart attack?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 10ml 1:10,000 IV

      Explanation:

      Here are the recommended doses of adrenaline for Adult Life Support (ALS):
      – Anaphylaxis: Administer 0.5mg or 0.5ml of 1:1,000 adrenaline via intramuscular injection.
      – Cardiac arrest: Administer 1 mg of adrenaline.

      Understanding Adrenaline and Its Effects on the Body

      Adrenaline is a hormone that is responsible for the body’s fight or flight response. It is released by the adrenal glands and acts on both alpha and beta adrenergic receptors. Adrenaline has various effects on the body, including increasing cardiac output and total peripheral resistance, causing vasoconstriction in the skin and kidneys, and stimulating glycogenolysis and glycolysis in the liver and muscle.

      Adrenaline also has different actions on alpha and beta adrenergic receptors. It inhibits insulin secretion by the pancreas and stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver and muscle through alpha receptors. On the other hand, it stimulates glucagon secretion in the pancreas, ACTH, and lipolysis by adipose tissue through beta receptors. Adrenaline also acts on beta 2 receptors in skeletal muscle vessels, causing vasodilation.

      Adrenaline is used in emergency situations such as anaphylaxis and cardiac arrest. The recommended adult life support adrenaline doses for anaphylaxis are 0.5ml 1:1,000 IM, while for cardiac arrest, it is 10ml 1:10,000 IV or 1 ml of 1:1000 IV. However, accidental injection of adrenaline can occur, and in such cases, local infiltration of phentolamine is recommended.

      In conclusion, adrenaline is a hormone that plays a crucial role in the body’s response to stress. It has various effects on the body, including increasing cardiac output and total peripheral resistance, causing vasoconstriction in the skin and kidneys, and stimulating glycogenolysis and glycolysis in the liver and muscle. Adrenaline is used in emergency situations such as anaphylaxis and cardiac arrest, and accidental injection can be managed through local infiltration of phentolamine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 24 - A 16-year-old male comes to the GP complaining of a sizable bruise on...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old male comes to the GP complaining of a sizable bruise on his upper right thigh. He accidentally hit it against the table while having a meal. Upon inquiry, he reveals that he tends to bleed excessively even after minor cuts and bruises. He also mentions that his family members have experienced similar symptoms across generations.

      Which is the most prevalent genetic clotting disorder that this patient is likely to have?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Von Willebrand's disease (vWD)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Von Willebrand’s Disease

      Von Willebrand’s disease is a genetic bleeding disorder that is inherited in an autosomal dominant or recessive manner. It is the most common inherited bleeding disorder, and it behaves like a platelet disorder. Patients with this condition often experience epistaxis and menorrhagia, while haemoarthroses and muscle haematomas are rare.

      The disease is caused by a deficiency or abnormality in von Willebrand factor, a large glycoprotein that promotes platelet adhesion to damaged endothelium and serves as a carrier molecule for factor VIII. There are three types of von Willebrand’s disease: type 1, which involves a partial reduction in vWF and accounts for 80% of cases; type 2, which is characterized by an abnormal form of vWF; and type 3, which involves a total lack of vWF and is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner.

      To diagnose von Willebrand’s disease, doctors may perform a bleeding time test, measure APTT, and check factor VIII levels. Defective platelet aggregation with ristocetin is also a common finding. Treatment options include tranexamic acid for mild bleeding, desmopressin to raise levels of vWF, and factor VIII concentrate. The type of von Willebrand’s disease a patient has doesn’t necessarily correlate with their symptoms, but common themes include excessive mucocutaneous bleeding, bruising without trauma, and menorrhagia in females.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 25 - A 54-year-old man with type 2 diabetes has recently had an HbA1c reading...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man with type 2 diabetes has recently had an HbA1c reading of 60 mmol/mol. He is currently taking the maximum dose of gliclazide as he experiences frequent loose stools with any form of metformin. What additional treatment options would you suggest?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gliptin

      Explanation:

      Metformin often causes mild gastrointestinal side effects, particularly when first taken. The severity and duration of these side effects depend on the dosage, but they typically improve over time. To minimize these effects, it’s best to start with a low dose, take the medication with food, and gradually increase the dosage.

      NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.

      Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.

      Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 26 - A 50-year-old man has had a painful right ear for 5 days. Moving...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man has had a painful right ear for 5 days. Moving the ear is painful. The external auditory canal is swollen and tender.
      Select the single most likely infecting organism.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa

      Explanation:

      Understanding Acute Otitis Externa: Causes and Complications

      Acute otitis externa is a condition characterized by inflammation of the outer ear canal. While infection is the most likely cause, skin diseases and irritants may also contribute to the condition. In the acute phase, there may be little discharge. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the most common cause, followed by other Gram-positive and Gram-negative species. Fungal pathogens like Candida albicans and Aspergillus species may also be responsible, especially after prolonged treatment with antibiotics. Malignant otitis externa, a rare but life-threatening complication, occurs when the infection spreads to the mastoid and temporal bones. It is usually caused by P. aeruginosa or S. aureus and affects elderly people with diabetes or those who are immunocompromised. Symptoms include intense pain and headache.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 27 - A 28-year-old woman visits her GP due to sudden appearance of lesions on...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman visits her GP due to sudden appearance of lesions on her arms. She was convinced by her mother to attend the appointment as she was not interested in seeking medical attention. The patient is unable to provide a clear history of the lesions' progression. Her medical history includes mild asthma, depression, and generalised anxiety disorder.

      Upon examination, the patient has well-defined, linear skin lesions on both arms. The lesions do not appear to be dry or scaly but seem to be excoriated. There are no apparent signs of infection.

      What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dermatitis artefacta

      Explanation:

      The sudden appearance of linear, well-defined skin lesions with a lack of concern or emotional response, known as ‘la belle indifference’, strongly suggests dermatitis artefacta or factitious dermatitis. This rare condition involves self-inflicted skin damage, and patients often deny their involvement. Treatment requires a collaborative approach between dermatologists and psychiatrists, with a focus on building a positive relationship with the patient. Other conditions such as dermatitis herpetiformis, lichen planus, and neurotic excoriations have different clinical presentations and are not consistent with the scenario described.

      Understanding Dermatitis Artefacta

      Dermatitis artefacta is a rare condition that affects individuals of any age, but is more common in females. It is characterised by self-inflicted skin lesions that patients typically deny are self-induced. The condition is strongly associated with personality disorder, dissociative disorders, and eating disorders, with a prevalence of up to 33% in patients with bulimia or anorexia.

      Patients with dermatitis artefacta present with well-demarcated linear or geometric lesions that appear suddenly and do not evolve over time. The lesions may be caused by scratching with fingernails or other objects, burning skin with cigarettes, or chemical exposure. Commonly affected areas include the face and dorsum of the hands. Despite the severity of the skin lesions, patients may display a nonchalant attitude, known as la belle indifference.

      Diagnosis of dermatitis artefacta is based on clinical history and exclusion of other dermatological conditions. Biopsy of skin lesions is not routine but may be helpful to exclude other conditions. Psychiatric assessment may be necessary. Differential diagnosis includes other dermatological conditions and factitious disorders such as Munchausen syndrome and malingering.

      Management of dermatitis artefacta involves a multidisciplinary approach with dermatologists, psychologists, and psychiatrists. Direct confrontation is unhelpful and may discourage patients from seeking medical help. Treatment includes providing occlusive dressing, topical antibiotics, and bland emollients. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors and cognitive behavioural therapy may be helpful, although evidence is limited.

      In summary, dermatitis artefacta is a rare condition that requires a multidisciplinary approach for management. Understanding the clinical features, risk factors, and differential diagnosis is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 28 - A pharmaceutical company is seeking participants for a clinical trial of a new...

    Incorrect

    • A pharmaceutical company is seeking participants for a clinical trial of a new drug treatment for Ulcerative colitis. They aim to enroll approximately 1000 individuals with the condition to determine if the drug is more effective than the current treatment in reducing disease activity.

      What stage of the clinical trial process does this treatment fall under?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phase 3

      Explanation:

      Phase 3 trials involve conducting larger studies on real patients to compare the effectiveness of a new treatment with the existing treatment options. These studies typically involve more than 1000 patients and aim to determine the efficacy of the new treatment in comparison to the licensed treatment for the same condition.

      Stages of Drug Development

      Drug development is a complex process that involves several stages before a drug can be approved for marketing. The process begins with Phase 1, which involves small studies on healthy volunteers to assess the pharmacodynamics and pharmacokinetics of the drug. This phase typically involves around 100 participants.

      Phase 2 follows, which involves small studies on actual patients to examine the drug’s efficacy and adverse effects. This phase typically involves between 100-300 patients.

      Phase 3 is the largest phase and involves larger studies of between 500-5,000 patients. This phase examines the drug’s efficacy and adverse effects and may compare it with existing treatments. Special groups such as the elderly or those with renal issues may also be studied during this phase.

      If the drug is shown to be safe and effective, it may be approved for marketing. However, Phase 4, also known as post-marketing surveillance, is still necessary. This phase involves monitoring the drug’s safety and effectiveness in a larger population over a longer period of time.

      In summary, drug development involves several stages, each with its own specific purpose and participant size. The process is rigorous to ensure that drugs are safe and effective before they are marketed to the public.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 29 - A 50-year-old man with poorly controlled type II diabetes presents with sudden onset...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with poorly controlled type II diabetes presents with sudden onset of visual loss in one eye. Examination of his eye reveals loss of red reflex, acuity of 6/24 in the affected eye (6/6 in the good eye) and blood in the posterior chamber of the eye. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitreous haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Visual Impairment: A Comparison of Vitreous Haemorrhage, Central Retinal Artery Occlusion, Branch Retinal Vein Occlusion, Commotio Retinae, and Vitreous Detachment

      Vitreous Haemorrhage: Patients with vitreous haemorrhage often experience floaters and a red hue, and the blood appears as a cloud in the vitreous. This condition is commonly seen in patients with proliferative diabetic retinopathy, as well as those who have experienced trauma or have other causes of proliferative retinopathy. It may also be an early sign of retinal tears and detachment.

      Central Retinal Artery Occlusion: Sudden loss of vision is the hallmark of central retinal artery occlusion. Fundoscopy reveals a pale retina due to retinal ischaemia, with the centre of the macula appearing as a cherry-red spot.

      Branch Retinal Vein Occlusion: Fundoscopy reveals superficial haemorrhages, retinal oedema, and cotton-wool spots in a sector of retina drained by the affected vein. The obstructed vein is dilated and tortuous. Visual loss largely depends on the compromise to macular drainage, and peripheral occlusions may be asymptomatic.

      Commotio Retinae: Commotio retinae, or Berlin’s oedema, is caused by blunt injury to the eye. Decreased vision in the injured eye occurs a few hours after the injury. The retina appears opaque and white in colour in the periphery, but the blood vessels are normal. It is usually self-limiting.

      Vitreous Detachment: Vitreous detachment is the most common cause of light flashes and floaters, but not visual loss. A slit-lamp examination is mandatory to exclude retinal tears, which are present in about 10% of cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 30 - A 78-year-old man presents with a suspected right sided deep vein thrombosis (DVT)....

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man presents with a suspected right sided deep vein thrombosis (DVT). He has a history of cardiac failure and is currently taking ramipril 5 mg BD, bisoprolol 7.5 mg OD, atorvastatin 20 mg OD and furosemide 40 mg OD.
      Upon examination, his right calf measures 2 cm larger than the left (when measured 10cm below the tibial tuberosity) and there is mild erythema of the skin on the right lower leg. Palpation of the back of the right calf elicits some tenderness. He also has mild bilateral pitting oedema of the feet that is symmetrical when comparing both feet.
      Which of the following would earn one point when calculating his two-level DVT Wells score?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The size difference of the calves

      Explanation:

      Two-Level DVT Wells Score

      A Two-Level DVT Wells score is a tool used to determine the likelihood of a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in a patient. The score is calculated based on several factors, including cancer, recent immobilization, major surgery, tenderness along the deep venous system, leg swelling, pitting edema, non-varicose collateral superficial veins, and past medical history of DVT.

      A score of one point is given for each of these factors, except for past medical history of DVT, which automatically scores one point. Two points are subtracted if another diagnosis is more likely. If the score is two points or more, the probability of a DVT is likely, while a score of one point or less indicates an unlikely probability.

      It is important to note that in this case, the swelling is not greater than 3 cm and the minimal pitting is equal on both sides, which may affect the overall score and probability of a DVT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Genomic Medicine (0/1) 0%
Urgent And Unscheduled Care (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular Health (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal Health (1/1) 100%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Children And Young People (0/1) 0%
Gynaecology And Breast (0/1) 0%
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