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Question 1
Correct
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A 50-year-old man with type 2 diabetes presents for review. He reports feeling well and having recently undergone foot and optometrist checks. He enjoys drinking alcohol on the weekends, limiting himself to 4-5 standard drinks each Saturday. His HbA1c remains stable at 48 mmol/L while taking metformin. However, his liver function tests reveal the following results:
Bilirubin: 18 µmol/L (3 - 17)
ALP: 95 u/L (30 - 100)
ALT: 157 u/L (3 - 40)
γGT: 40 u/L (8 - 60)
AST: 74 u/L (3 - 40)
Albumin: 37 g/L (35 - 50)
What is the most likely cause of these findings?Your Answer: Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease
Explanation:Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease is the most common cause of abnormal liver function tests (LFT) in patients with type 2 diabetes. This condition is prevalent in developed countries and should be assessed through a reassessment of the patient’s LFTs and an ultrasound if necessary. The patient’s weekend drinking habits are not significant enough to suggest alcoholic liver disease as the cause of the LFT derangement. Drug-induced liver injuries (DILI) are not predictable and can present with various LFT changes, including cholestatic and mixed patterns. Gallstone disease is more common in overweight fertile females and presents with a cholestatic pattern of LFT derangement. Viral hepatitis is a possible cause but not the most likely answer in this case. A liver screen may be necessary if the LFT derangement persists without explanation from an ultrasound.
Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease: Causes, Features, and Management
Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is a prevalent liver disease in developed countries, primarily caused by obesity. It is a spectrum of disease that ranges from simple steatosis (fat in the liver) to steatohepatitis (fat with inflammation) and may progress to fibrosis and liver cirrhosis. NAFLD is believed to be the hepatic manifestation of the metabolic syndrome, with insulin resistance as the key mechanism leading to steatosis. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is a term used to describe liver changes similar to those seen in alcoholic hepatitis but without a history of alcohol abuse.
NAFLD is usually asymptomatic, but patients may present with hepatomegaly, increased echogenicity on ultrasound, and elevated ALT levels. The enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) blood test is recommended by NICE to check for advanced fibrosis in patients with incidental findings of NAFLD. If the ELF blood test is not available, non-invasive tests such as the FIB4 score or NAFLD fibrosis score may be used in combination with a FibroScan to assess the severity of fibrosis. Patients with advanced fibrosis should be referred to a liver specialist for further evaluation, which may include a liver biopsy to stage the disease more accurately.
The mainstay of treatment for NAFLD is lifestyle changes, particularly weight loss, and monitoring. There is ongoing research into the role of gastric banding and insulin-sensitizing drugs such as metformin and pioglitazone in the management of NAFLD. While there is no evidence to support screening for NAFLD in adults, it is essential to identify and manage incidental findings of NAFLD to prevent disease progression and complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 57-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of experiencing indigestion for the past two months. She is in good health, has never had a similar episode before, and is not taking any regular medication. Notably, she has not experienced any recent weight loss or vomiting, and her abdominal examination is normal. What is the best initial course of action?
Your Answer: Lifestyle advice + one month course of a full-dose proton pump inhibitor
Explanation:As per the revised NICE guidelines of 2015, there is no need for an immediate endoscopy referral for her. However, if she fails to respond to treatment, a non-urgent referral would be advisable.
Management of Dyspepsia and Referral Criteria for Suspected Cancer
Dyspepsia is a common condition that can be managed through a stepwise approach. The first step is to review medications that may be causing dyspepsia and provide lifestyle advice. If symptoms persist, a full-dose proton pump inhibitor or a ‘test and treat’ approach for H. pylori can be tried for one month. If symptoms still persist, the alternative approach should be attempted.
For patients who meet referral criteria for suspected cancer, urgent referral for an endoscopy within two weeks is necessary. This includes patients with dysphagia, an upper abdominal mass consistent with stomach cancer, and patients aged 55 years or older with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia. Non-urgent referral is recommended for patients with haematemesis and patients aged 55 years or older with treatment-resistant dyspepsia, upper abdominal pain with low haemoglobin levels, or raised platelet count with symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, weight loss, reflux, dyspepsia, or upper abdominal pain.
Testing for H. pylori infection can be done through a carbon-13 urea breath test, stool antigen test, or laboratory-based serology. If symptoms have resolved following a ‘test and treat’ approach, there is no need to check for H. pylori eradication. However, if repeat testing is required, a carbon-13 urea breath test should be used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 68-year-old gentleman presents with a change in bowel habit. He reports that over the last two to three months he is opening his bowels four to five times a day and the consistency of his stools has become very loose. He has noticed small amounts of blood in his faeces but put this down to 'piles'.
Previously, he used to open his bowels on average once a day and has no personal history of any gastrointestinal problems. There is no family history of bowel problems, he has not lost any weight and he denies any rectal blood loss. Stool mc&s is normal as are his recent blood tests which show that he is not anaemic. Abdominal and rectal examinations are normal.
He tells you that he is not overly concerned about the symptoms as about two months ago he submitted his bowel screening samples and recently had a letter saying that his screening tests were negative. What is the most appropriate next approach in this instance?Your Answer: Refer him urgently to a specialist for investigation of his lower gastrointestinal tract
Explanation:Importance of Urgent Referral for Patients with Bowel Symptoms
Screening tests are designed for asymptomatic individuals in an at-risk population. However, it is not uncommon for patients with bowel symptoms to mention that they are not worried as they have done their bowel screening and it was negative.
In the case of a 66-year-old man with persistent changes in bowel habit towards looser stools with some rectal bleeding, urgent referral for further investigation is necessary. It is important to note that relying on recent bowel screening results may falsely reassure patients and delay necessary medical attention.
Therefore, it is crucial for healthcare professionals to prioritize the patient’s current symptoms and promptly refer them for further evaluation, regardless of their previous screening results. Early detection and treatment can significantly improve outcomes for patients with bowel symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner concerned that he may have cirrhosis of the liver. He has regularly drunk more than 30 units of alcohol every week for many years. Over the last three months, he has lost 2 kg in weight. He attributes this to a poor appetite.
On examination, there are no obvious features.
What is the most appropriate advice you can provide this patient?
Your Answer: An ultrasound (US) scan of the liver is now necessary
Correct Answer: The presence of chronic hepatitis C infection makes a diagnosis of liver cirrhosis more likely
Explanation:Diagnosing Liver Cirrhosis in Patients with Chronic Hepatitis C Infection
Liver cirrhosis is a common complication of chronic hepatitis C infection and can be caused by other factors such as alcohol consumption. Patients with chronic hepatitis C infection who are over 55 years old, male, and consume moderate amounts of alcohol are at higher risk of developing cirrhosis. However, cirrhosis can be asymptomatic until complications arise. An ultrasound scan can detect cirrhosis and its complications, but a liver biopsy is the gold standard for diagnosis. Abnormal liver function tests may indicate liver damage, but they are not always conclusive. The absence of signs doesn’t exclude a diagnosis of liver cirrhosis. Further investigation is necessary before considering a liver biopsy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man visits his doctor with worries about a slight yellowing of his sclera. During the examination, he displays mild jaundice and reports experiencing occasional jaundice in the past. Blood tests are conducted, revealing an elevated total bilirubin level of 48 µmol/l (normal <21 µmol/l) and no other irregularities. Which of the following supplementary discoveries would strongly suggest that Gilbert syndrome is the underlying cause?
Your Answer: Resolution of symptoms on fasting
Correct Answer: Unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia
Explanation:Understanding Gilbert Syndrome: Symptoms and Diagnosis
Gilbert syndrome is a genetic condition that affects 5-10% of the population. It is usually asymptomatic, but can cause mild jaundice during physical stressors such as fasting, infection, or lack of sleep. This is due to an abnormality in the liver enzyme responsible for conjugating bilirubin, resulting in unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia. However, symptoms such as fatigue, loss of appetite, nausea, and abdominal pain are rare and may reflect the underlying stressor rather than the condition itself. Diagnosis is often made through routine liver function tests or the appearance of jaundice without other signs. Clay-coloured stools would suggest an alternative diagnosis such as biliary obstruction, while concomitant diabetes mellitus is not linked to Gilbert syndrome. Fasting can trigger an episode of jaundice, so resolution of symptoms during fasting would go against the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old girl comes to the clinic with her parents who are worried about her experiencing recurrent episodes of abdominal pain, loss of appetite, and nausea for the past two months. Upon further inquiry, the pain is severe, occurs in the mornings, is intermittent, and can happen during vacations. Her weight is at the 50th percentile, and there are no abnormalities found during the examination. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: School avoidance
Correct Answer: Abdominal migraine
Explanation:Abdominal Migraine: Recurrent Episodes of Midline Abdominal Pain in Children
Abdominal migraine is a disorder that mainly affects children and is characterized by recurrent episodes of midline abdominal pain. The pain can last from 1-72 hours and is of moderate to severe intensity. During the attacks, patients may experience anorexia, nausea, and vomiting. Marked pallor is commonly noted, and some patients may appear flushed. The pain is severe enough to interfere with normal daily activities, and many children describe their mood during the attack as one of intense misery. However, patients are completely symptom-free between attacks.
Abdominal migraine is an idiopathic disorder, meaning that the cause is unknown. It is unlikely to be school avoidance as the symptoms are episodic and can occur outside of school times.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male blood donor presents with the following blood results:
Bilirubin 41 µmol/L
ALP 84 U/L
ALT 23 U/L
Albumin 41 g/L
His medical history reveals recent complaints of coryzal symptoms and a non-productive cough. Based on these findings, what is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Infectious mononucleosis
Correct Answer: Gilbert's syndrome
Explanation:Gilbert’s syndrome is typically characterized by a rise in bilirubin levels in response to physiological stress. Therefore, it is likely that a 22-year-old male with isolated hyperbilirubinemia has Gilbert’s syndrome. Dubin-Johnson and Rotor syndrome, which both result in conjugated bilirubinemia, can be ruled out based on a normal dipstick urinalysis. Viral infections are often responsible for triggering a bilirubin increase in individuals with Gilbert’s syndrome.
Gilbert’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the way bilirubin is processed in the body. It is caused by a deficiency of UDP glucuronosyltransferase, which leads to unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia. This means that bilirubin is not properly broken down and eliminated from the body, resulting in jaundice. However, jaundice may only be visible during certain conditions such as fasting, exercise, or illness. The prevalence of Gilbert’s syndrome is around 1-2% in the general population.
To diagnose Gilbert’s syndrome, doctors may look for a rise in bilirubin levels after prolonged fasting or the administration of IV nicotinic acid. However, treatment is not necessary for this condition. While the exact mode of inheritance is still debated, it is known to be an autosomal recessive disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 62-year-old Chinese man comes to the General Practice Surgery complaining of weight loss, jaundice and right upper quadrant pain that has been going on for 3 months. He is a non-smoker and only drinks alcohol occasionally.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC)
Explanation:Comparison of Liver Cancer Types and Symptoms
Hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) is a primary liver cancer that originates from hepatocytes and is commonly caused by alcohol abuse, viral hepatitis, and metabolic liver disease. It is more prevalent in Asia and Africa due to the high incidence of hepatitis B, hepatitis C, and aflatoxin exposure. Symptoms of HCC include right upper quadrant pain, jaundice, and weight loss.
Oesophageal cancer, cholangiocarcinoma, pancreatic carcinoma, and stomach cancer can also present with similar symptoms to HCC, but each has its own unique risk factors and prevalence. Oesophageal cancer is mainly caused by alcohol and tobacco use, while cholangiocarcinoma is a rare cancer of the bile ducts. Pancreatic carcinoma is more common in older individuals or those with chronic pancreatitis. Stomach cancer may cause similar symptoms if it metastasizes to the liver, but it is less common than HCC.
In summary, while these cancers may present similarly, the patient’s ethnicity, age, and risk factors can help determine the most likely type of liver cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with mild jaundice after experiencing flu-like symptoms. He has no prior medical conditions and is in good health. After being evaluated by a Gastroenterologist, it is suspected that he may have Gilbert syndrome. What test result would be most suitable for confirming this diagnosis?
Your Answer: Elevated serum aspartate aminotransferase (AST) activity
Correct Answer: Absence of bilirubin in the urine
Explanation:Distinguishing Gilbert Syndrome from Haemolysis: Key Indicators
Gilbert syndrome is a genetic condition that causes unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia without any signs of liver disease or haemolysis. One key indicator is the absence of bilirubin in the urine, as excess bilirubin is unconjugated and doesn’t appear in the urine. Additionally, there should be no signs of liver function abnormality, despite a slight increase in serum aspartate aminotransferase (AST) activity that may occur in haemolysis. Another distinguishing factor is the maintenance of normal urinary urobilinogen excretion, as opposed to an increase in haemolytic jaundice. Finally, an increased reticulocyte count, which is elevated in haemolysis, should prompt investigation for an alternative diagnosis in Gilbert syndrome. Overall, understanding these key indicators can aid in distinguishing Gilbert syndrome from haemolysis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman with no past medical history has been struggling to lose weight. She has been attending supervised weight loss sessions and gym classes, but has not been successful in her efforts. She was prescribed orlistat 120 mg, to be taken after each meal, 10 weeks ago when she weighed 100 kg (BMI 37 kg/m2). After 10 weeks of taking orlistat, she now weighs 97.5 kg. What would be the most appropriate management in this situation?
Your Answer: Continue orlistat and review in 12 weeks
Correct Answer: Discontinue orlistat
Explanation:Options for Managing Inadequate Weight Loss with Orlistat
Orlistat is a medication used to aid weight loss by reducing the absorption of dietary fat. However, if a patient fails to lose at least 5% of their body weight after 12 weeks of treatment, orlistat should be discontinued. Here are some options for managing inadequate weight loss with orlistat:
1. Discontinue orlistat: If a patient has not lost at least 5% of their starting weight, orlistat should be discontinued. A lower weight loss target may be considered for patients with type II diabetes.
2. Increase activity levels: Increasing physical activity can help with weight loss. However, it is important to address any underlying issues that may be hindering weight loss.
3. Refer for bariatric surgery: Bariatric surgery may be an option for patients with a BMI of 40 kg/m2 or more, or 35–40 kg/m2 with significant comorbidity that could be improved with weight loss. Non-surgical methods of weight loss should be attempted prior to referral.
4. Increase the dose to 180 mg with meals: The maximum dose of orlistat is 120 mg up to three times a day. A 60 mg preparation is available over the counter. However, increasing the dose beyond the recommended maximum is not advised.
It is important to regularly review progress and adjust treatment accordingly to ensure the best outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old nurse had a needlestick injury six months ago. She did not present immediately to Occupational Health but eventually came because she began to feel tired and lethargic. She has a raised alanine aminotransferase (ALT) level, anti-hepatitis B surface antibodies and anti-hepatitis C virus (HCV) antibodies. Low levels of HCV ribonucleic acid (RNA) are detected. A liver biopsy reveals early inflammatory changes.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Resolving hepatitis C infection
Correct Answer: Chronic hepatitis C infection
Explanation:Explanation of Hepatitis C Infection and Differential Diagnosis
Hepatitis C virus (HCV) ribonucleic acid (RNA) is detected in a patient, indicating active hepatitis C infection. The presence of anti-HCV antibodies and an 8-month history since exposure confirms that the infection is now chronic. Liver biopsy may show varying degrees of inflammation, fibrosis, and cirrhosis, with this patient exhibiting early inflammatory changes.
Autoimmune hepatitis, which is associated with antinuclear antibodies (ANA) and/or anti-smooth muscle antibodies (SMA), is not consistent with the presence of anti-HCV antibodies and HCV RNA. Chronic hepatitis B infection is also ruled out, as the patient’s anti-hepatitis B antibodies are likely due to vaccination. Functional symptoms may cause tiredness and lethargy, but the patient’s deranged liver function tests and positive hepatitis C antibodies indicate an underlying diagnosis of hepatitis C.
Understanding Hepatitis C Infection and Differential Diagnosis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old boy presents with gastrointestinal symptoms and you suspect Crohn's disease. What is the most common symptom of Crohn's disease?
Your Answer: Repeated flu-like symptoms
Correct Answer: Abdominal pain
Explanation:Understanding Crohn’s Disease
Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract, from the mouth to the anus. The exact cause of Crohn’s disease is unknown, but there is a strong genetic component. Inflammation occurs in all layers of the affected area, which can lead to complications such as strictures, fistulas, and adhesions.
Symptoms of Crohn’s disease typically appear in late adolescence or early adulthood and can include nonspecific symptoms such as weight loss and lethargy, as well as more specific symptoms like diarrhea, abdominal pain, and perianal disease. Extra-intestinal features, such as arthritis, erythema nodosum, and osteoporosis, are also common in patients with Crohn’s disease.
To diagnose Crohn’s disease, doctors may look for raised inflammatory markers, increased faecal calprotectin, anemia, and low levels of vitamin B12 and vitamin D. It’s important to note that Crohn’s disease shares some features with ulcerative colitis, another type of inflammatory bowel disease, but there are also important differences between the two conditions. Understanding the symptoms and diagnostic criteria for Crohn’s disease can help patients and healthcare providers manage this chronic condition more effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man returns after he was found to have abnormal liver biochemistry. Investigations showed he had an alanine aminotransferase (ALT) of 98 iu/l and was Hep B surface-antigen positive.
Select from the list the single statement that is true of chronic hepatitis due to the hepatitis B virus.Your Answer: The majority of patients have persistent low grade symptoms
Correct Answer: It carries an increased risk of subsequent hepatocellular carcinoma
Explanation:Understanding Chronic Hepatitis B Infection
Chronic hepatitis B infection occurs in up to 10% of adults who contract the virus. This means that the virus remains in the body long-term, with the surface antigen (HBsAg) persisting in the serum. However, up to two-thirds of people in the chronic phase remain well and do not experience any liver damage or other issues. This is known as the carrier state or chronic inactive hepatitis B, where HBeAg is absent, anti-HBe is present, and HBV DNA levels are low or undetectable. While carriers can still transmit the virus, their infectivity is lower than those with chronic active hepatitis.
Around 20% of carriers will eventually clear the virus naturally, but this can take several years. However, some carriers may experience spontaneous reactivation of hepatitis B due to the emergence of the HBeAg-negative strain of the virus. The remaining individuals with chronic hepatitis B experience persistent liver inflammation, also known as chronic active hepatitis B. Symptoms can include muscle aches, fatigue, nausea, lack of appetite, intolerance to alcohol, liver pain, jaundice, and depression. HBeAg is usually still present, and the virus is still replicating, with raised HBV DNA levels and high infectivity. Transaminase levels may be elevated, but not always significantly.
If left untreated, chronic active hepatitis B can lead to cirrhosis and even hepatocellular carcinoma. It’s important to note that hepatitis D is a separate virus that only infects individuals who are already infected with hepatitis B. Understanding the different phases and potential outcomes of chronic hepatitis B infection is crucial for proper management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 14
Correct
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What is the most accurate statement regarding gastrointestinal bleeding in patients who are using non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)?
Your Answer: It is due to depletion of mucosal prostaglandin E (PGE) levels
Explanation:NSAIDs and Gastrointestinal Bleeds: Risk Factors and Mechanisms
Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are commonly used for pain relief and inflammation management. However, their use is associated with an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeds, particularly in patients with pre-existing gastric or duodenal ulcers. Even those without a history of ulcers are at risk, with the relative risk varying among different NSAID preparations. NSAIDs directly damage the gastric mucosal barrier by depleting mucosal PGE levels, which decreases the gastroduodenal defence mechanisms and cytoprotective effect of PGE, resulting in mucosal injury, erosions and ulceration.
Several factors increase the risk of ulceration in the setting of NSAID use, including previous peptic ulcer disease, advanced age, female sex, high doses or combinations of NSAIDs, long-term NSAID use, concomitant use of anticoagulants, and severe comorbid illnesses. Even low-dose aspirin, with increasing use, is a major cause of upper gastrointestinal problems, particularly bleeding. It is important to note that NSAIDs may have adverse effects in all parts of the gastrointestinal tract, not only the stomach or duodenum; the oesophagus, small intestine and colon may also be affected. Endoscopic evidence of peptic ulceration is found in 20% of NSAID users even in the absence of symptoms.
In conclusion, while NSAIDs are effective in managing pain and inflammation, their use is associated with an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeds. Patients with pre-existing gastric or duodenal ulcers are particularly at risk, but other factors such as advanced age, high doses or combinations of NSAIDs, and concomitant use of anticoagulants also increase the risk. It is important to weigh the benefits and risks of NSAID use and consider alternative pain management strategies in high-risk patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman visited her doctor with complaints of intense pain in the anal area. She reported that the pain began after she strained to have a bowel movement. She had been experiencing constipation for the past 4 days and had been using over-the-counter laxatives. During the examination, the doctor observed a painful, firm, bluish-black lump at the edge of the anus.
What is the probable reason for her symptoms?Your Answer: Thrombosed haemorrhoid
Explanation:Thrombosed haemorrhoids are characterized by severe pain and the presence of a tender lump. Upon examination, a purplish, swollen, and tender subcutaneous perianal mass can be observed. If the patient seeks medical attention within 72 hours of onset, referral for excision may be necessary. However, if the condition has progressed beyond this timeframe, patients can typically manage their symptoms with stool softeners, ice packs, and pain relief medication. Symptoms usually subside within 10 days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 16
Correct
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A patient with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) and a tendency towards loose stools has not responded well to loperamide and antispasmodics. According to NICE, what is the recommended second-line medication class for this condition?
Your Answer: Tricyclic antidepressant
Explanation:The initial medication prescribed for individuals with irritable bowel syndrome typically includes antispasmodics, as well as loperamide for diarrhea or laxatives for constipation. If these treatments prove ineffective, low-dose tricyclic antidepressants such as amitriptyline (5-10 mg at night) may be considered as a secondary option to alleviate abdominal pain and discomfort, according to NICE guidelines. Linaclotide may also be an option for those experiencing constipation. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors may be used as a tertiary treatment.
Managing irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) can be challenging and varies from patient to patient. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines in 2015 to provide recommendations for the management of IBS. The first-line pharmacological treatment depends on the predominant symptom, with antispasmodic agents recommended for pain, laxatives (excluding lactulose) for constipation, and loperamide for diarrhea. If conventional laxatives are not effective for constipation, linaclotide may be considered. Low-dose tricyclic antidepressants are the second-line pharmacological treatment of choice. For patients who do not respond to pharmacological treatments, psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioral therapy, hypnotherapy, or psychological therapy may be considered. Complementary and alternative medicines such as acupuncture or reflexology are not recommended. General dietary advice includes having regular meals, drinking at least 8 cups of fluid per day, limiting tea and coffee to 3 cups per day, reducing alcohol and fizzy drink intake, limiting high-fiber and resistant starch foods, and increasing intake of oats and linseeds for wind and bloating.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner, reporting increased fatigue over the past few weeks. She has no other symptoms and no signs of liver disease upon examination. She was diagnosed with hepatitis B infection ten years ago and is concerned that the infection may still be active. What is the most suitable test for this patient?
Your Answer: Hepatitis B virus (HBV) deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)
Explanation:Understanding Hepatitis B Markers
Hepatitis B virus (HBV) can be detected through various markers in the blood. The most sensitive indicator of viral replication is the presence of HBV DNA, which is found in high concentrations in both acute and chronic infections. A high level of HBV DNA is associated with an increased risk of liver damage and cancer. Effective antiviral treatment can lower the HBV DNA level.
Anti-HBAb levels indicate decreased viral replication and infectivity in chronic carriers. These patients will only exhibit low levels of HBV DNA.
HBeAg testing is indicated in the follow-up of chronic infection. In those with chronic (active) infection, it remains positive. However, hepatitis B virus DNA can be found without e antigen in hepatitis due to mutant strains of the virus.
Anti-HBsAb is a marker of immunity to hepatitis B. Patients who are immune to the disease as a result of previous infection will also be positive for anti-HBeAg, but they will have cleared HBsAg and will not exhibit detectable HBV DNA. Patients who have been vaccinated for hepatitis B will also be positive for anti-HBsAb, without having any other positive markers.
The presence of IgM anti-HBc indicates acute hepatitis, but doesn’t provide detail on the likelihood that the condition has become chronic. Understanding these markers can help in the diagnosis and management of hepatitis B.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis (UC) is found to have sigmoid adenocarcinoma on surveillance colonoscopy. He was diagnosed with UC at the age of 14, with the disease mostly confined to the sigmoid colon and rectum. Although his symptoms have generally been well controlled on mesalazine, he has had relapses associated with poor compliance every 1–2 years.
Which single factor is this patient’s history most associated with the risk of developing colonic cancer?
Your Answer: Poor compliance with therapy
Correct Answer: Onset of disease in childhood
Explanation:Understanding the Risk Factors for Colonic Adenocarcinoma in Ulcerative Colitis Patients
Colonic adenocarcinoma is a serious complication that can develop in 3-5% of patients with ulcerative colitis (UC). The cancer tends to be multicentric and atypical in appearance, and it can rapidly metastasize. To prevent this, it is important to understand the risk factors associated with the onset of the disease in childhood.
One of the main risk factors for colon cancer in colitis is the early age of onset, which is before the age of 15 years. Other risk factors include extensive disease (pancolitis), duration (more than ten years), and unremitting disease. Colonoscopic surveillance is recommended for all patients, starting about ten years after the onset of symptoms.
It is important to note that annual relapses are not a risk factor for colonic carcinoma since there is remittance in between episodes. Chronic active inflammation and unremitting disease are the main risk factors.
Left-sided colitis is also a risk factor, but extensive disease and pancolitis carry a higher risk of developing colon cancer. Poor compliance with therapy is not a risk factor in itself, but unremitting disease is a risk factor for colon cancer in UC.
Finally, patients with proctitis alone do not need colonoscopy surveillance, as they are not at increased risk of developing colon cancer compared to the general population. Understanding these risk factors can help prevent the onset of colonic adenocarcinoma in UC patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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You have a consultation scheduled with Mr. Smith, a 74-year-old man who is interested in participating in the NHS bowel cancer screening program. He has never submitted the home test kits before and wants to know if he is eligible for screening.
Your Answer: Home test kits will be sent out every 2 years, submit test within the screening program
Correct Answer: He can self-refer for home test kit
Explanation:Patients who are over the age of 74 are no longer eligible for bowel cancer screening within the NHS screening program. However, they can still receive a home test kit every 2 years by self-referral (helpline number on NHS website). It is important to note that if a patient develops symptoms of bowel cancer, they should be formally investigated according to NICE suspected cancer guidelines. Additionally, in areas where bowel scope screening has been rolled out, patients can self-refer up to the age of 60 for one-off bowel scope screening.
Colorectal Cancer Screening with FIT Test
Overview:
Colorectal cancer is often developed from adenomatous polyps. Screening for this cancer has been proven to reduce mortality by 16%. The NHS provides home-based screening for older adults through the Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT). Although a one-off flexible sigmoidoscopy was trialled in England, it was abandoned in 2021 due to the inability to recruit enough clinical endoscopists, which was further exacerbated by the COVID-19 pandemic. However, the trial showed promising early results, and it remains to be seen whether flexible sigmoidoscopy will be used in future bowel screening programmes.Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) Screening:
The NHS offers a national screening programme every two years to all men and women aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland. Patients aged over 74 years may request screening. Eligible patients are sent FIT tests through the post. FIT is a type of faecal occult blood (FOB) test that uses antibodies that specifically recognise human haemoglobin (Hb). It is used to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. FIT has advantages over conventional FOB tests as it only detects human haemoglobin, not animal haemoglobin ingested through diet. Only one faecal sample is needed compared to the 2-3 for conventional FOB tests. Although a numerical value is generated, this is not reported to the patient or GP. Instead, they will be informed if the test is normal or abnormal. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy.Colonoscopy:
Approximately 5 out of 10 patients will have a normal exam, 4 out of 10 patients will be found to have polyps that may be removed due to their premalignant potential, and 1 out of 10 patients will be found to have cancer. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 46-year-old gentleman presents with lower gastrointestinal symptoms. He has a history of irritable bowel syndrome and has suffered with infrequent bouts of abdominal bloating and loose stools on and off for years. These are usually managed with mebeverine and loperamide. The diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome was a clinical one and the only investigation he has had in the past were blood tests.
Over the last four weeks he has noticed that this has changed and that his bowels have been persistently loose and significantly more frequent than usual. He has no family history of bowel problems.
On examination he is systemically well with no fever. His abdomen is soft and non-tender with no palpable masses. Rectal examination reveals nothing focal. His weight is stable.
Which of the following investigations should you offer your patient?Your Answer: Faecal occult blood
Explanation:Investigating Acute Bowel Symptoms in a Patient with Irritable Bowel Syndrome
When a patient with a history of irritable bowel syndrome presents with acute bowel symptoms, it is important to investigate the underlying cause. However, certain investigations may not be appropriate in this context. For example, an abdominal ultrasound scan is not helpful in investigating bowel symptoms. Similarly, CEA tumour marker testing is a specialist investigation and not suitable for primary care. Ca125 is a marker for ovarian cancer and not relevant in this scenario.
According to NICE guidelines, testing for occult blood in faeces should be offered to assess for colorectal cancer in adults aged 50 and over with unexplained abdominal pain or weight loss, or in those under 60 with changes in their bowel habit or iron-deficiency anaemia. Stool mc+s may be requested, but it would not be helpful in risk stratifying the patient for urgent referral for colorectal cancer if an infective aetiology is not suspected. Therefore, it is important to choose appropriate investigations based on the patient’s symptoms and medical history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 21
Correct
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Sarah is a 35-year-old woman who presented to her GP with abdominal pain. The pain was burning in nature and was localised to her epigastric area. A stool test for Helicobacter pylori was done, which came back as positive. Accordingly, she was treated with eradication therapy for one week. Despite the treatment, her symptoms have continued. She would like to be tested to check the bacteria has been eradicated. She is not keen on being referred for an endoscopy.
Which of the following investigations should she be referred for?Your Answer: Urea breath test
Explanation:Tests for Helicobacter pylori
There are several tests available to diagnose Helicobacter pylori infection. One of the most common tests is the urea breath test, where patients consume a drink containing carbon isotope 13 enriched urea. The urea is broken down by H. pylori urease, and after 30 minutes, the patient exhales into a glass tube. Mass spectrometry analysis calculates the amount of 13C CO2, which determines the presence of H. pylori. However, this test should not be performed within four weeks of treatment with an antibacterial or within two weeks of an antisecretory drug.
Another test is the rapid urease test, also known as the CLO test. This test involves mixing a biopsy sample with urea and pH indicator, and a color change indicates H. pylori urease activity. Serum antibody tests remain positive even after eradication, and the sensitivity and specificity are 85% and 80%, respectively. Culture of gastric biopsy provides information on antibiotic sensitivity, with a sensitivity of 70% and specificity of 100%. Gastric biopsy with histological evaluation alone has a sensitivity and specificity of 95-99%. Lastly, the stool antigen test has a sensitivity of 90% and specificity of 95%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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You see a 36-year-old lady with weight loss, abdominal pain, loose stools and bloody diarrhoea. She has been having these symptoms for 6 weeks. She smokes 10 cigarettes a day. She drinks minimal alcohol. She had an appendicectomy 3 years ago while on holiday in Morocco. She also suffers from anal fissures and mouth ulcers.
You suspect she has Crohn's disease and you refer her to the local gastroenterology team.
Which statement below is correct?Your Answer: The incidence and prevalence of Crohn's disease is decreasing worldwide
Correct Answer: The median age of diagnosis for Crohn's disease is approximately 30 years old
Explanation:Crohn’s disease is typically diagnosed around the age of 30, with the median age at diagnosis being 30 years.
After an appendicectomy, the risk of Crohn’s disease increases initially but returns to the same level as the general population after approximately 5 years.
The global incidence and prevalence of Crohn’s disease are on the rise.
In contrast to ulcerative colitis, smoking is a risk factor for developing Crohn’s disease.
The use of oral contraceptive drugs may elevate the risk of inflammatory bowel disease in women.
Understanding Crohn’s Disease
Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract, from the mouth to the anus. The exact cause of Crohn’s disease is unknown, but there is a strong genetic component. Inflammation occurs in all layers of the affected area, which can lead to complications such as strictures, fistulas, and adhesions.
Symptoms of Crohn’s disease typically appear in late adolescence or early adulthood and can include nonspecific symptoms such as weight loss and lethargy, as well as more specific symptoms like diarrhea, abdominal pain, and perianal disease. Extra-intestinal features, such as arthritis, erythema nodosum, and osteoporosis, are also common in patients with Crohn’s disease.
To diagnose Crohn’s disease, doctors may look for raised inflammatory markers, increased faecal calprotectin, anemia, and low levels of vitamin B12 and vitamin D. It’s important to note that Crohn’s disease shares some features with ulcerative colitis, another type of inflammatory bowel disease, but there are also important differences between the two conditions. Understanding the symptoms and diagnostic criteria for Crohn’s disease can help patients and healthcare providers manage this chronic condition more effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 40-year-old police officer attends his General Practitioner to request screening for hepatitis B. He was exposed to blood from a person possibly infected with hepatitis B virus around three weeks ago. He has never been vaccinated against this and requests blood screening. He feels well and has no comorbidities.
What is the most important test to perform at this stage?
Your Answer: Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg)
Explanation:Hepatitis B Markers: Understanding the Different Types
Hepatitis B is a viral infection that affects the liver. It is important to detect and monitor the different markers associated with the disease to determine the stage of infection and the appropriate treatment. Here are the different types of hepatitis B markers and their significance:
1. Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) – This is the first marker to appear in the serum after infection. It indicates the presence of the viral envelope and can be detected between one to nine weeks after infection. Its persistence indicates chronic hepatitis B.
2. Anti-hepatitis B envelope antigen (anti-HBeAg) – This antibody appears after the clearance of the e antigen, signifying the resolution of the acute phase.
3. Hepatitis B envelope antigen (HBeAg) – This marker develops during the early phases of the acute infection and can persist in chronic infections. It is associated with high levels of viral replication and infectivity.
4. Immunoglobulin G (IgG) anti-hepatitis B core antigen (anti-HBc) – This antibody stays positive for life following infection with hepatitis B, even once cleared.
5. Immunoglobulin M (IgM) anti-hepatitis B core antigen (anti-HBc) – This antibody confirms the diagnosis of acute infection but is detectable later than HBsAg.
Understanding these markers is crucial in the diagnosis and management of hepatitis B. Regular monitoring of these markers can help determine the progression of the disease and the effectiveness of treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 65-year-old man presents with new onset bilateral gynaecomastia.
He has been diagnosed with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome and heart failure in the last year. He underwent normal puberty at age 14.
Which of the following drugs would be most likely to cause gynaecomastia?Your Answer: Rabeprazole sodium
Explanation:Drugs that can cause gynaecomastia
Research has shown that the risk of developing gynaecomastia is almost insignificant when using other drugs as part of the treatment of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. However, there are other drugs that can cause gynaecomastia, including spironolactone, digoxin, methyldopa, gonadotrophins, and cyproterone acetate.
Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is a condition where a gastrin-secreting pancreatic adenoma is associated with peptic ulcer, and 50-60% of cases are malignant. It is suspected in patients with multiple peptic ulcers that are resistant to drugs and occurs in approximately 0.1% of patients with duodenal ulcer disease.
A case study into male gynaecomastia has shown that spironolactone induced gynaecomastia by blocking androgen production, blocking androgens from binding to their receptors, and increasing both total and free oestrogen levels. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of these drugs and to discuss any concerns with a healthcare professional.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 25
Correct
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Samantha, 74, visits her doctor complaining of jaundice. She has a history of heavy alcohol consumption, drinking around 35-40 units per week. Samantha denies experiencing any abdominal pain, and her abdominal examination doesn't reveal any pain, but a palpable gallbladder is detected. Blood tests are conducted, and the results are as follows:
- Albumin: 30 g/L
- Alk Phos: 342 U/L
- ALT: 95 U/L
- Bilirubin: 102 mol/L
- INR: 1.4
- GGT: 123 U/L
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Pancreatic cancer
Explanation:Pancreatic cancer is the most likely cause based on Courvoisier’s sign, which indicates that a painless, enlarged gallbladder and mild jaundice are unlikely to be caused by gallstones and more likely to be caused by a malignancy of the pancreas or biliary tree. Alcoholic hepatitis and primary biliary cirrhosis are possible differentials, but the absence of pain and an enlarged gallbladder makes them less likely. Paracetamol overdose is not a probable cause as it doesn’t typically result in a painless, palpable gallbladder and jaundice.
Pancreatic cancer is a type of cancer that is often diagnosed late due to its nonspecific symptoms. The majority of pancreatic tumors are adenocarcinomas and are typically found in the head of the pancreas. Risk factors for pancreatic cancer include increasing age, smoking, diabetes, chronic pancreatitis, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma, and mutations in the BRCA2 and KRAS genes.
Symptoms of pancreatic cancer can include painless jaundice, pale stools, dark urine, and pruritus. Courvoisier’s law states that a palpable gallbladder is unlikely to be due to gallstones in the presence of painless obstructive jaundice. However, patients often present with nonspecific symptoms such as anorexia, weight loss, and epigastric pain. Loss of exocrine and endocrine function can also occur, leading to steatorrhea and diabetes mellitus. Atypical back pain and migratory thrombophlebitis (Trousseau sign) are also common.
Ultrasound has a sensitivity of around 60-90% for detecting pancreatic cancer, but high-resolution CT scanning is the preferred diagnostic tool. The ‘double duct’ sign, which is the simultaneous dilatation of the common bile and pancreatic ducts, may be seen on imaging.
Less than 20% of patients with pancreatic cancer are suitable for surgery at the time of diagnosis. A Whipple’s resection (pancreaticoduodenectomy) may be performed for resectable lesions in the head of the pancreas, but side-effects such as dumping syndrome and peptic ulcer disease can occur. Adjuvant chemotherapy is typically given following surgery, and ERCP with stenting may be used for palliation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man has a bilirubin concentration of 55 μmol/l (normal value <21 μmol/l). He has suffered from episodic jaundice in the past but is otherwise fit and well. His diagnosis is Gilbert syndrome.
Which of the following is associated with Gilbert syndrome?
Your Answer: Conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia
Correct Answer: γ-glutamyltransferase in the normal range
Explanation:Understanding Gilbert Syndrome: Symptoms, Risks, and Diagnosis
Gilbert syndrome is a common, benign condition that causes mild unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia. It is familial and occurs in 5-10% of adults in Western Europe. While some patients may experience symptoms such as fatigue, nausea, and abdominal pain, many are asymptomatic. Jaundice is usually mild and can worsen with physical exertion, fasting, or dehydration. However, liver function tests, including γ-glutamyltransferase, should be normal.
Unlike other liver conditions, Gilbert syndrome doesn’t cause abnormal liver histology or conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia. It is also not a risk factor for kernicterus at birth.
Diagnosis of Gilbert syndrome is based on clinical presentation and elevated unconjugated bilirubin levels. Fasting can actually increase bilirubin levels in this condition. Therefore, it is important to rule out other liver disorders if abnormal liver function tests or histology are present.
Overall, understanding the symptoms, risks, and diagnosis of Gilbert syndrome can help healthcare providers provide appropriate care and management for patients with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 27
Correct
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A 65-year-old man presents to the General Practice Surgery with jaundice.
On examination, he has an enlarged, nodular liver. He is referred to hospital where a computed tomography (CT) scan of his abdomen reveals a cirrhotic liver with a large mass. A CT-guided biopsy of the mass demonstrates a malignant tumour derived from hepatic parenchymal cells.
What is the most likely causative agent in this patient?Your Answer: Hepatitis B virus
Explanation:Viral Causes of Cancer: A Comparison
There are several viruses that have been linked to the development of cancer in humans. Among these, hepatitis B virus is one of the most significant causes of cancer in many parts of the world, particularly in China where liver cancer accounts for about 20% of all cancer deaths. Infant vaccination against the virus is now being introduced to protect the new generation, but it doesn’t provide retrospective protection. On the other hand, hepatitis C is a more common cause of liver cancer in Europe and the United States.
Human T-lymphocyte virus, Epstein–Barr virus, and human herpesvirus type 8 are also known to cause cancer in humans, but not liver cancer. Human T-lymphocyte viruses can cause adult T-cell leukaemia/lymphoma, while Epstein–Barr virus has been linked with Hodgkin’s lymphoma, Burkitt’s lymphoma, nasopharyngeal cancer, and gastric cancer. Human herpesvirus type 8 is associated with Kaposi’s sarcoma, which is most often found in men who have sex with men but can also occur in heterosexuals.
Human papillomavirus (HPV) is another virus that has been linked to cancer, but not liver cancer. HPV types 6 and 11 cause anogenital warts, while HPV16 and HPV18 are responsible for more than two thirds of all cervical cancers globally. HPV infection is also associated with anogenital cancer and some nasopharyngeal cancers.
In summary, while several viruses have been linked to the development of cancer in humans, their specific associations vary. It is important to understand these associations in order to develop effective prevention and treatment strategies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old male presents two weeks following a knee replacement with severe diarrhea. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Salmonella
Correct Answer: Clostridium difficile
Explanation:The probable reason for the patient’s condition is Clostridium difficile, which could have been caused by the administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics during the operation. According to NICE guidelines, patients undergoing clean surgery with prosthesis or implant placement, clean-contaminated surgery, contaminated surgery, or surgery on a dirty or infected wound should receive antibiotics to prevent surgical site infections. In cases of contaminated or infected wounds, prophylaxis should be accompanied by antibiotic treatment.
Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.
To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male undergoes an endoscopy after being referred by his GP with recurrent indigestion.
The endoscopy reveals a small duodenal ulcer and Helicobacter pylori is demonstrated to be present. He has not been given eradication treatment before and is allergic to penicillin.
You consider a seven day, twice daily course of eradication therapy.
How would you treat this patient?Your Answer: Omeprazole 40 mg, Amoxicillin, Metronidazole
Correct Answer: Esomeprazole 10 mg, Metronidazole, Tetracycline
Explanation:Helicobacter Infection and Treatment
Helicobacter infection is common in patients with duodenal and peptic ulceration. The recommended therapy includes acid suppression and eradication of Helicobacter. Triple therapy with a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) such as omeprazole, along with two antibiotics (amoxicillin/clarithromycin plus metronidazole), has been found to be highly effective.
It is important to note that patients who are allergic to penicillin require a different treatment regimen. The lowest cost treatment option should be chosen, taking into account previous exposure to clarithromycin or metronidazole. In cases where the patient is allergic to penicillin and has had previous exposure to clarithromycin, bismuth and tetracycline should be added to the treatment regimen.
The recommended PPI doses for Helicobacter pylori eradication therapy are esomeprazole 20 mg, lansoprazole 30 mg, omeprazole 20-40 mg, pantoprazole 40 mg, and rabeprazole 20 mg. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure effective treatment of Helicobacter infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old lady presents to you with complaints of progressive bloating and feeling full for the past two months. She requests a prescription for Colpermin, as her sister found it helpful for her IBS. Additionally, she reports experiencing urinary frequency for several weeks and suspects a UTI. On examination, her abdomen appears non-specifically bloated, and a urine dip reveals trace protein but no blood, glucose, or leukocytes. She went through menopause at 54, is nulliparous, and has a family history of psoriasis. There are no known allergies. What would be the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Prescribe trimethoprim 200 mg bd for three days
Correct Answer: Arrange abdominal ultrasound scan
Explanation:Consideration of Ovarian Cancer in New Onset IBS after 50
This patient presenting with new onset IBS after the age of 50 should prompt consideration of ovarian cancer. According to NICE guidelines, symptoms such as bloating, early satiety, pelvic/abdominal pain, and urinary frequency/urgency should raise suspicion of ovarian cancer. CA 125 is the test of choice if ovarian cancer is being considered.
Risk factors for ovarian cancer include nulliparity and late menopause. Symptoms that should raise suspicion of ovarian cancer include progressive bloating, early satiety, and urinary frequency. A vaginal examination should be performed if ovarian cancer is suspected since abdominal examination alone can miss an ovarian mass. The family history of psoriasis is not relevant in this case.
Prescribing Colpermin is not necessarily incorrect, but IBS is a diagnosis of exclusion that should be given once serious and common alternatives have been ruled out. Prescribing an antibiotic is inappropriate because there is no evidence of infection here.
An abdominopelvic scan would be an alternative to arranging CA 125, but an abdominal scan by itself is usually not sufficient to fully examine the ovaries. If a CA 125 was high, an ultrasound scan would be arranged to assess the ovaries in more detail, and the results of the two would be combined in an RMI score to assess the risk of malignancy.
In summary, it is important to consider ovarian cancer in cases of new onset IBS after 50, especially if symptoms such as bloating, early satiety, pelvic/abdominal pain, and urinary frequency/urgency are present. A thorough examination and appropriate tests should be performed to rule out this serious condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 31
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman comes in for evaluation. She reports having 'IBS' and experiencing occasional episodes of abdominal pain, bloating, and loose stools for the past two years. However, her symptoms have significantly worsened over the past two weeks. She is now having 3-4 watery, grey, 'frothy' stools per day, along with increased abdominal bloating, cramps, and flatulence. She also feels that she has lost weight based on the fit of her clothes. The following blood tests are ordered:
Hb 10.9 g/dl
Platelets 199 * 109/l
WBC 7.2 * 109/l
Ferritin 15 ng/ml
Vitamin B12 225 ng/l
Folate 2.1 nmol/l
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Coeliac disease
Explanation:The key indicators in this case suggest that the patient may have coeliac disease, as evidenced by her anaemia and low levels of ferritin and folate. While her description of diarrhoea is typical, some patients may have more visibly fatty stools.
It is unlikely that the patient has irritable bowel syndrome, as her blood test results would not be consistent with this diagnosis. While menorrhagia may explain her anaemia and low ferritin levels, it would not account for the low folate.
Coeliac disease is much more common than Crohn’s disease, and exams typically provide more clues to suggest a diagnosis of Crohn’s (such as mouth ulcers).
Understanding Coeliac Disease
Coeliac disease is an autoimmune disorder that affects approximately 1% of the UK population. It is caused by sensitivity to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. Repeated exposure to gluten leads to villous atrophy, which causes malabsorption. Coeliac disease is associated with various conditions, including dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and autoimmune hepatitis. It is strongly linked to HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8.
To diagnose coeliac disease, NICE recommends screening patients who exhibit signs and symptoms such as chronic or intermittent diarrhea, failure to thrive or faltering growth in children, persistent or unexplained gastrointestinal symptoms, prolonged fatigue, recurrent abdominal pain, sudden or unexpected weight loss, unexplained anemia, autoimmune thyroid disease, dermatitis herpetiformis, irritable bowel syndrome, type 1 diabetes, and first-degree relatives with coeliac disease.
Complications of coeliac disease include anemia, hyposplenism, osteoporosis, osteomalacia, lactose intolerance, enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma of the small intestine, subfertility, and unfavorable pregnancy outcomes. In rare cases, it can lead to esophageal cancer and other malignancies.
The diagnosis of coeliac disease is confirmed through a duodenal biopsy, which shows complete atrophy of the villi with flat mucosa and marked crypt hyperplasia, intraepithelial lymphocytosis, and dense mixed inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria. Treatment involves a lifelong gluten-free diet.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 32
Correct
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A 67-year-old male presents with problems with constipation.
He has a history of ischaemic heart disease for which he is receiving medication.
Which of the following agents is most likely to be responsible for his presentation?Your Answer: Aspirin
Explanation:Verapamil and its Side Effects
Verapamil is a medication that is commonly known to cause constipation. In addition to this, it is also associated with other side effects such as oedema and headaches. Oedema is the swelling of body tissues, usually in the legs and feet, while headaches can range from mild to severe. It is important to be aware of these potential side effects when taking verapamil and to speak with a healthcare provider if they become bothersome or persistent. Proper monitoring and management can help to alleviate these symptoms and ensure the safe and effective use of verapamil.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 35 year old woman has been diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). She has previously visited the gastroenterology clinic and all tests, including colonoscopy, were normal. Her main concerns are abdominal pain, bloating, and constipation. Despite taking antispasmodics, regular movicol, and following a dietician advice, she still experiences symptoms. She has tried other laxatives before, but with little improvement. What would be the most suitable next step?
Your Answer: Reflexology
Correct Answer: Linaclotide
Explanation:The diagnosis and management of IBS have been addressed by NICE in their guidance. The first line of pharmacological treatment includes antispasmodics such as Hyoscine or mebeverine, loperamide for diarrhea, and laxatives for constipation. Lactulose should be avoided. If the above treatments have not helped, second-line options include tricyclic antidepressants such as up to 30 mg amitriptyline. Third-line options include serotonin selective reuptake inhibitors. Linaclotide can be considered if the patient has had constipation for at least 12 months and has not benefited from different laxatives. Other management options include dietary advice and psychological treatments. However, acupuncture and reflexology are not recommended for managing IBS.
Managing irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) can be challenging and varies from patient to patient. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines in 2015 to provide recommendations for the management of IBS. The first-line pharmacological treatment depends on the predominant symptom, with antispasmodic agents recommended for pain, laxatives (excluding lactulose) for constipation, and loperamide for diarrhea. If conventional laxatives are not effective for constipation, linaclotide may be considered. Low-dose tricyclic antidepressants are the second-line pharmacological treatment of choice. For patients who do not respond to pharmacological treatments, psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioral therapy, hypnotherapy, or psychological therapy may be considered. Complementary and alternative medicines such as acupuncture or reflexology are not recommended. General dietary advice includes having regular meals, drinking at least 8 cups of fluid per day, limiting tea and coffee to 3 cups per day, reducing alcohol and fizzy drink intake, limiting high-fiber and resistant starch foods, and increasing intake of oats and linseeds for wind and bloating.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man visits the GP clinic complaining of rectal bleeding that has been ongoing for two days. He has experienced eight episodes of diarrhoea in the past 24 hours, with visible blood mixed with stool. He also reports feeling nauseous and having abdominal pain. The patient has a medical history of ulcerative colitis, hypertension, and type 2 diabetes, and is currently taking mesalazine enteric coated 800 mg twice daily, amlodipine 10 mg once daily, and metformin 500mg twice daily.
During the examination, the patient appears pale and has a temperature of 38ºC. His heart rate is 108/min, and his blood pressure is 112/74 mmHg. The abdominal exam reveals generalised tenderness and guarding, but no rebound tenderness.
What is the appropriate course of action for managing this patient's condition?Your Answer: Commence on rectal mesalazine
Correct Answer: Urgent hospital admission
Explanation:The appropriate course of action for a severe flare-up of ulcerative colitis is urgent hospital admission for IV corticosteroids. This is based on the Truelove and Witts’ severity index, which indicates that the patient is experiencing a severe flare-up due to symptoms such as opening their bowels more than 6 times per day and systemic upset (e.g. fever and tachycardia). NICE guidelines recommend immediate hospital admission for assessment and treatment with IV corticosteroids. It should be noted that a short course of oral steroids or rectal mesalazine may be used for mild to moderate flare-ups, while loperamide and dose increases of mesalazine are not appropriate for managing severe flare-ups.
Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools per day, the amount of blood, and the presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Severe cases should be treated in a hospital setting with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin.
To maintain remission, patients with proctitis and proctosigmoiditis may use topical aminosalicylate alone or in combination with an oral aminosalicylate. Those with left-sided and extensive ulcerative colitis may require a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. Patients who have experienced severe relapses or multiple exacerbations may benefit from oral azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended for UC management, but probiotics may help prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.
In summary, the management of ulcerative colitis involves a combination of inducing and maintaining remission. Treatment options vary depending on the severity and location of the condition, with mild-to-moderate cases typically treated with topical aminosalicylate and severe cases requiring hospitalization and intravenous medication. Maintaining remission may involve using a combination of oral and topical medications or a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. While methotrexate is not recommended, probiotics may be helpful in preventing relapse in mild to moderate cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of persistent dyspepsia and unintentional weight loss of one stone over the past six months. She takes a daily multivitamin, low-dose aspirin, and a statin. The GP suspects gastric cancer and notes that she has blood group A and is a lifelong non-smoker. What is a risk factor for gastric adenocarcinoma?
Your Answer: Aspirin use
Correct Answer: Blood group A
Explanation:Risk Factors and Protective Measures for Gastric Adenocarcinoma
Gastric adenocarcinoma, or stomach cancer, is a serious and potentially deadly disease. There are several risk factors that increase the likelihood of developing this cancer, including Helicobacter pylori infection, increasing age, male sex, family history, lower socioeconomic status, smoking, pernicious anaemia, and blood group A. The exact reason for the increased risk associated with blood group A is still unknown, but it may be related to a different inflammatory response to H. pylori infection.
On the other hand, there are also protective measures that can reduce the risk of developing or dying from gastric adenocarcinoma. Long-term aspirin use has been found to be protective in multiple studies, as has a high dietary intake of vitamin C, which is an antioxidant. Additionally, being female and using statins may also be protective factors, although more research is needed to confirm these findings.
Overall, understanding the risk factors and protective measures for gastric adenocarcinoma can help individuals make informed decisions about their health and potentially reduce their risk of developing this cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 36
Incorrect
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You see a 38-year-old lady who has come to you for help reducing her weight. Her BMI is 32 kg/m2. She has tried joining a local dieting group and increasing her physical activity but is still finding it difficult to lose weight. After discussion, it is decided to start her on orlistat. She manages to lose 2Kg after 3 months treatment. She wants to know how much longer she is allowed to be on this medication.
Following an initial weight loss at 3 months, what is the restriction on how long orlistat should be prescribed?Your Answer: 12 months
Correct Answer: 3 months
Explanation:Orlistat Prescription Guidelines
Orlistat is a medication that inhibits pancreatic lipase and is prescribed to patients with a BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more (or 28 kg/m2 with an associated risk factor). Patients are expected to lose 5% of their initial body weight at 3 months for the prescription to be continued. However, for patients with diabetes, a 3% loss of body weight at 3 months is recommended.
Beyond the initial weight loss at 3 months, there is no restriction on how long orlistat should be prescribed. The decision to continue treatment should be made on an individual basis, taking into account the benefits, risks, and cost of treatment. Regular reviews should be undertaken to assess the benefits, risks, and costs of treatment. According to NICE, For people who have lost the recommended amount of weight, there is no restriction on how long orlistat may be prescribed. This should be reviewed at regular intervals.
In summary, orlistat is a medication that can be prescribed for an extended period of time, but the decision to continue treatment should be made on an individual basis, taking into account the benefits, risks, and cost of treatment. Regular reviews should be conducted to ensure that the medication is still appropriate for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 37
Incorrect
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You are the GP trainee doing your morning clinic. You see a 35-year-old woman with coeliac disease.
Which of the following is indicated as part of her management?Your Answer: Annual stool test for faecal occult blood
Correct Answer: Administration of the pneumococcal vaccine
Explanation:To prevent overwhelming pneumococcal sepsis due to hyposplenism, Coeliac UK advises that individuals with coeliac disease receive a pneumococcal infection vaccine and a booster every five years. Pertussis vaccines beyond those in the vaccination schedule are unnecessary. According to NICE CKS guidelines, annual blood tests for FBC, ferritin, thyroid function tests, liver function tests, B12, and folate are recommended. Calprotectin is utilized to assess gut inflammation, often as part of the diagnostic process for inflammatory bowel disease. Faecal occult blood testing is typically conducted if there are concerns about bowel cancer.
Managing Coeliac Disease with a Gluten-Free Diet
Coeliac disease is a condition that requires the management of a gluten-free diet. Gluten-containing cereals such as wheat, barley, rye, and oats must be avoided. However, some patients with coeliac disease can tolerate oats. Gluten-free foods include rice, potatoes, and corn. Compliance with a gluten-free diet can be checked by testing for tissue transglutaminase antibodies.
Patients with coeliac disease often have functional hyposplenism, which is why they are offered the pneumococcal vaccine. Coeliac UK recommends that patients with coeliac disease receive the pneumococcal vaccine and have a booster every five years. influenza vaccine is given on an individual basis according to current guidelines.
Overall, managing coeliac disease requires strict adherence to a gluten-free diet and regular immunisation to prevent infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman of African ethnic origin frequently experiences abdominal tenderness and bloating and intermittently suffers from diarrhoea. She has been dealing with these symptoms for a few years and knows that some of her family members have had similar issues. Her condition has worsened since she arrived in the UK 2 years ago, but she denies any problems with adjusting to life here. On physical examination, there are no abnormalities detected.
What is the most suitable initial management step for this patient?Your Answer: Reassurance
Correct Answer: Trial of dairy-free diet
Explanation:Lactose intolerance is a common condition among people of Far-Eastern and African origin, affecting up to 85% and over 60% of these populations, respectively. This is due to a deficiency of the enzyme lactase, which breaks down lactose. In contrast, people from northern Europe are less likely to experience lactose intolerance as they have a higher lactose intake and are more likely to inherit the ability to digest lactose. Lactose intolerance can cause symptoms similar to irritable bowel syndrome, such as bloating and diarrhea, as undigested lactose is broken down by gut bacteria. Diagnosis can be confirmed through the lactose breath hydrogen test or by trialing a dairy-free diet. While a small intestinal mucosal biopsy can directly assay lactase activity, it is usually too invasive for a mild condition. Women with lactose intolerance should seek alternative sources of dietary calcium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 39
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman has been diagnosed as having coeliac disease. She has started on a gluten-free diet.
Select from the list the single most correct statement about her management.Your Answer: IgA anti-tissue transglutaminase antibodies and endomysial antibodies disappear if the diet is maintained
Explanation:Managing Coeliac Disease with a Gluten-Free Diet
Coeliac disease is a condition where the immune system reacts to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. The resulting damage to the intestinal mucosa can cause a range of symptoms, including abdominal pain, bloating, and diarrhoea. However, starting a gluten-free diet can lead to rapid improvement.
The diet involves avoiding all foods containing wheat, barley, or rye, such as bread, cake, and pies. Oats can be consumed in moderate quantities if they are free from other contaminating cereals, as they do not damage the intestinal mucosa in most coeliac patients. Rice, maize, potatoes, soya, jam, syrup, sugar, and treacle are all allowed. Gluten-free flour, bread, biscuits, and pasta can be prescribed on the NHS, and Coeliac UK provides a list of prescribable products.
To monitor the response to the diet, serial tTGA or EMA antibodies can be used. If these antibodies continue to be present in the blood, it suggests dietary lapses.
Supplements of calcium, vitamin D, iron, and folic acid are only necessary if dietary intake is inadequate, which is often the case, particularly in elderly patients. Most patients with coeliac disease have some degree of hyposplenism, which warrants immunisation against influenza, pneumococcus, and H. influenza type B. However, lifelong prophylactic antibiotics are not needed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman is known to have diverticular disease. She has experienced pain in the left iliac fossa intermittently in the past put now the pain is more persistent and more severe. She is tender in the left iliac fossa but there is no guarding or rebound tenderness and a mass is not felt. Her temperature is 38oC.
Select from the list the single most useful drug in these circumstances.Your Answer: Amoxicillin
Correct Answer: Co-amoxiclav
Explanation:Management of Diverticulitis in Primary Care
Diverticulitis is a common condition that can be managed in primary care, provided there are no complications. If the patient is not dehydrated, experiencing severe bleeding, or showing signs of perforation, abscess or fistula formation, or significant comorbidity, they can be treated at home.
The first step in treatment is to prescribe broad-spectrum antibiotics that cover anaerobes and Gram-negative rods. Co-amoxiclav or a combination of ciprofloxacin and metronidazole (if allergic to penicillin) are good options. The course of antibiotics should last for at least 7 days.
If the patient’s symptoms worsen or persist beyond 48 hours, hospital admission may be necessary. However, with proper management and monitoring, most cases of diverticulitis can be successfully treated in primary care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 41
Incorrect
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You are monitoring a 40-year-old male patient who has recently finished a two-week Helicobacter pylori treatment for dyspepsia. If he has ceased his eradication therapy today and is not on any other medication, what is the earliest time frame for conducting a urea breath test to confirm eradication?
Your Answer: Straight away
Correct Answer: In 4 weeks time
Explanation:To undergo a urea breath test, one must not have taken antibiotics within the last four weeks and must not have taken any antisecretory drugs, such as PPI, within the last two weeks.
Tests for Helicobacter pylori
There are several tests available to diagnose Helicobacter pylori infection. One of the most common tests is the urea breath test, where patients consume a drink containing carbon isotope 13 enriched urea. The urea is broken down by H. pylori urease, and after 30 minutes, the patient exhales into a glass tube. Mass spectrometry analysis calculates the amount of 13C CO2, which determines the presence of H. pylori. However, this test should not be performed within four weeks of treatment with an antibacterial or within two weeks of an antisecretory drug.
Another test is the rapid urease test, also known as the CLO test. This test involves mixing a biopsy sample with urea and pH indicator, and a color change indicates H. pylori urease activity. Serum antibody tests remain positive even after eradication, and the sensitivity and specificity are 85% and 80%, respectively. Culture of gastric biopsy provides information on antibiotic sensitivity, with a sensitivity of 70% and specificity of 100%. Gastric biopsy with histological evaluation alone has a sensitivity and specificity of 95-99%. Lastly, the stool antigen test has a sensitivity of 90% and specificity of 95%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner complaining of painful swelling on the side of his anus that has been present for 10 days. Upon perianal examination, there is an inflamed, tender swelling that extends 12 cm lateral to the anus. Due to pain, a digital rectal examination was not performed. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Inflamed anal skin tag
Correct Answer: Ischiorectal abscess
Explanation:Differentiating Anorectal Conditions: Ischiorectal Abscess, Rectocele, Inflamed Anal Skin Tag, Perianal Abscess, and Pilonidal Abscess
An ischiorectal abscess is a deeper and larger abscess that is further from the anus. It presents as a deep, tender swelling and may not have external signs until late. When it discharges, it does so through an external opening that is typically more than 5 cm from the anus.
A rectocele is a prolapse of the wall between the rectum and the vagina and is not usually painful. It is not present in male patients.
An anal skin tag is a fibro-epithelial polyp that hangs off the skin around the outside of the anus. It may become infected and inflamed, but it would not extend 12 cm from the anus.
A perianal abscess is a simple anorectal abscess that arises from glandular crypts in the anus or rectum. It presents as a red, tender swelling close to the anus.
A pilonidal abscess presents as a painful, tender lump in the natal cleft, which may be fluctuant and have a purulent discharge. It may also have accompanying cellulitis. However, the location described here is not consistent with a pilonidal abscess.
In summary, understanding the characteristics and locations of different anorectal conditions can aid in their differentiation and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 43
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a history of weight loss of 8 kg, frothy stools and general malaise. Her haemoglobin level is 102 g/l, with a mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 98 fl. The GP is considering a diagnosis of coeliac disease.
What is the single feature that best supports this diagnosis?
Your Answer: Dermatitis herpetiformis
Explanation:Dermatitis herpetiformis is a skin disease that causes blisters and is linked to coeliac disease. Both conditions are thought to be caused by autoantibodies that attack transglutaminase enzymes. DH is often seen in patients with coeliac disease, with around 80% of DH patients also showing signs of coeliac disease on small intestine biopsy. A rectal biopsy showing neutrophil infiltration would not be enough to diagnose coeliac disease, as a biopsy from the small intestine is needed to confirm the condition. Coeliac disease is a genetic disorder, and if one family member has it, there is a chance that their first-degree relatives may also be affected. Metronidazole would not help with coeliac disease symptoms, but may be used to treat other gastrointestinal conditions. Hydrogen breath testing is used to diagnose bacterial overgrowth and carbohydrate malabsorption, as bacteria in the intestine produce hydrogen during carbohydrate breakdown.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 44
Correct
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You see a 30-year-old lady with a rash on her arm. It started as a small red pimple on her right forearm but has grown into a painful deep ulcer. She has Crohn's disease but is currently not on any treatment for it. She takes the combined contraceptive pill and occasional ibuprofen for headaches.
You suspect she has pyoderma gangrenosum.Your Answer: Extra-intestinal manifestations are common affecting up to 35% of people with Crohn's disease
Explanation:Pyoderma gangrenosum, which is not linked to disease activity, can occur as a manifestation of Crohn’s disease outside of the intestines.
The use of oral contraceptive drugs may elevate the likelihood of developing inflammatory bowel disease in women.
Inflammatory bowel disease relapse or exacerbation may be heightened by the use of NSAIDs.
Following an episode of infectious gastroenteritis, the risk of developing Crohn’s disease is increased by four times, particularly within the first year.
Understanding Crohn’s Disease
Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract, from the mouth to the anus. The exact cause of Crohn’s disease is unknown, but there is a strong genetic component. Inflammation occurs in all layers of the affected area, which can lead to complications such as strictures, fistulas, and adhesions.
Symptoms of Crohn’s disease typically appear in late adolescence or early adulthood and can include nonspecific symptoms such as weight loss and lethargy, as well as more specific symptoms like diarrhea, abdominal pain, and perianal disease. Extra-intestinal features, such as arthritis, erythema nodosum, and osteoporosis, are also common in patients with Crohn’s disease.
To diagnose Crohn’s disease, doctors may look for raised inflammatory markers, increased faecal calprotectin, anemia, and low levels of vitamin B12 and vitamin D. It’s important to note that Crohn’s disease shares some features with ulcerative colitis, another type of inflammatory bowel disease, but there are also important differences between the two conditions. Understanding the symptoms and diagnostic criteria for Crohn’s disease can help patients and healthcare providers manage this chronic condition more effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 45
Incorrect
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Primary biliary cirrhosis is most characteristically associated with:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-mitochondrial antibodies
Explanation:The M rule for primary biliary cholangitis includes the presence of IgM and anti-Mitochondrial antibodies, specifically the M2 subtype, in middle-aged women.
Primary biliary cholangitis is a chronic liver disorder that affects middle-aged women. It is thought to be an autoimmune condition that damages interlobular bile ducts, causing progressive cholestasis and potentially leading to cirrhosis. The classic presentation is itching in a middle-aged woman. It is associated with Sjogren’s syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis, systemic sclerosis, and thyroid disease. Diagnosis involves immunology and imaging tests. Management includes ursodeoxycholic acid, cholestyramine for pruritus, and liver transplantation in severe cases. Complications include cirrhosis, osteomalacia and osteoporosis, and an increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman presents to the clinic with abnormal liver function tests (LFTs). She reports drinking no more than 3 units of alcohol per week and has no significant medical history. Her dentist prescribed amoxicillin for a dental infection 2 weeks ago. On physical examination, she is overweight with a BMI of 30 kg/m2. Her LFTs reveal:
ALT 120 U/L (5-40)
AST 130 U/L (10-40)
Alkaline phosphatase 200 U/L (45-105)
What is the most likely cause of her abnormal LFTs?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease
Explanation:Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease (NAFLD) and its Causes
Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is a common condition caused by the accumulation of fat in the liver, leading to inflammation. It is often associated with obesity, hypertension, dyslipidaemia, and insulin resistance. NAFLD is the most likely cause of liver enzyme abnormalities in patients with these conditions. However, other causes of hepatitis should be excluded before making this diagnosis.
Patients who are obese and diabetic are advised to lose weight and control their diabetes. A low-fat, low-calorie diet is usually recommended alongside treatment to lower HbA1c. Patients with NAFLD should avoid alcohol or other substances that could be harmful to the liver. It is important to note that deranged liver enzymes are not listed as side effects for amoxicillin in the British National Formulary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman with a history of migraine experiences inadequate relief from the recommended dose of paracetamol during acute attacks. She consumes 10 units of alcohol per week and smokes 12 cigarettes per day.
What could be a contributing factor to this issue?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Delayed gastric emptying
Explanation:During acute migraine attacks, patients often experience delayed gastric emptying. Therefore, prokinetic agents like metoclopramide are commonly added to analgesics. Changes in P450 enzyme activity, such as those caused by smoking or drinking, are unlikely to have a significant impact on the metabolism of paracetamol.
Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options
Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the management of migraines.
For acute treatment, a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol is recommended as first-line therapy. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective or not tolerated, a non-oral preparation of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be offered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.
Prophylaxis should be considered if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends either topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity.
For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be used as a type of mini-prophylaxis. Specialists may also consider candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, such as erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects such as weight gain and drowsiness.
It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering the various treatment options available, migraines can be effectively managed and their impact on daily life reduced.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 48
Incorrect
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An 83-year-old woman comes to her doctor with a recent weight loss of 6 kg over the past three months, without any significant pain. During the examination, she appears drawn and emaciated, with deep yellow sclera. She has experienced jaundice twice before, once in her teens, and her sister has also had it. She typically enjoys a glass or two of wine on weekends and smokes 10 cigarettes per day. What is the probable reason for her jaundice?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Infective hepatitis
Explanation:Causes of Jaundice and their Characteristics
Jaundice can be caused by various conditions, each with their own unique characteristics. Cancer of the pancreas, particularly in the head, can cause painless jaundice. On the other hand, cancer in the body or tail of the pancreas can present with dull, unremitting central abdominal pain or back pain. Smoking is a known risk factor for pancreatic cancer.
Gilbert’s syndrome, a familial condition, can also cause jaundice. However, the jaundice in this case is pale yellow and the patient typically feels well. While Gilbert’s syndrome is not uncommon, it is important to consider other potential causes of jaundice, especially if the patient has significant weight loss. As a wise surgeon once said, People with IBS get Ca bowel too – never forget that.
Hepatitis A is more commonly seen in adolescents and young adults. Primary biliary cirrhosis, on the other hand, has its peak incidence in the fifth decade of life and often presents with generalized pruritus or asymptomatic hepatomegaly. Understanding the characteristics of different causes of jaundice can help in making an accurate diagnosis and providing appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents with indigestion that has been troubling him for the past two months. He reports no prior history of these symptoms and states that he has been able to eat and drink normally. However, he has noticed a recent weight loss. He denies any abdominal pain or changes in bowel habits. On examination, his abdomen appears normal. Laboratory tests, including a full blood count, renal function, liver function, and C-reactive protein, are all within normal limits. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Abdominal and erect x ray today
Explanation:Urgent Upper Gastrointestinal Endoscopy for Stomach Cancer Assessment
Urgent upper gastrointestinal endoscopy is necessary within two weeks for individuals experiencing dysphagia to assess for stomach cancer. Additionally, patients aged 55 or over with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia should also undergo this procedure. A directed admission is not required, and x-rays are unnecessary as the patient doesn’t have an acute abdomen. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends endoscopy over an ultrasound scan. This history necessitates an urgent investigation, and a routine referral to gastroenterology would not be appropriate. It is important to note that knowledge of the patient’s H Pylori status would not alter the need for urgent OGD, and referral should not be delayed for this reason.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 50
Incorrect
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When managing women of any age and non-menstruating men who present with unexplained iron deficiency anaemia, what is the threshold haemoglobin level that should prompt urgent referral?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 120 g/L for men and women
Explanation:Iron Deficiency Anaemia and its Possible Causes
Iron deficiency anaemia is a condition that can be diagnosed through a low serum ferritin, red cell microcytosis, and hypochromia. It is often caused by gastrointestinal issues such as colonic cancer, gastric cancer, and coeliac disease. To determine the underlying cause, patients should undergo a PR examination, urine testing, and coeliac screen.
In some cases, unexplained iron deficiency anaemia can be an early indication of an underlying malignancy. Menorrhagia may also cause iron deficiency in women of childbearing age, but a detailed history should be taken to rule out other possible causes. Any man or non-menstruating woman presenting with anaemia should be referred for urgent investigation. It is important to understand the appropriate referral thresholds and look out for additional red flags that may warrant referral.
It is important to note that while occult bleeding from the gastrointestinal tract is a common cause of iron deficiency anaemia, blood loss may also occur through other means, such as urological cancers. Therefore, it is crucial to consider all possible causes and conduct thorough investigations to determine the underlying issue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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