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  • Question 1 - A 45-year-old man with a history of GORD symptoms presents to the clinic...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man with a history of GORD symptoms presents to the clinic after a three month trial of omeprazole 20 mg. Further investigations have revealed that he has a hiatus hernia. The decision is made to continue his omeprazole treatment and he is advised to lose weight as his BMI is 32.

      Despite losing 5 kg over the past six months, he has visited the clinic twice for antibiotics due to lower respiratory tract infections. He has also been experiencing a nocturnal cough and possible asthma symptoms. What is the best course of action for managing his condition?

      Your Answer: Increase his omeprazole to 40 mg

      Explanation:

      Indications for Surgical Repair of Hiatus Hernia

      Indications for surgical repair of hiatus hernia include recurrent respiratory tract infection due to reflux. It is also considered in patients who have a para-oesophageal hernia because of the risk of strangulation.

      Given this patient’s young age and the fact that he has attended twice in six months with symptoms of respiratory tract infection, surgical referral for laparoscopic fundoplication is advised. This procedure can help alleviate symptoms of reflux and prevent further respiratory tract infections. It is important to consider surgical intervention in cases where conservative management has failed or when there is a risk of complications such as strangulation. Proper evaluation and management of hiatus hernia can improve the quality of life for patients and prevent potential complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 2 - A 28-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with complaints of dysphagia. He believes...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with complaints of dysphagia. He believes it has been present for around 18 months, but it is getting worse. He also reports experiencing chest discomfort, coughing at night, and waking up with undigested food on his pillow in the morning.
      During the examination, his throat, neck, chest, and abdomen appear normal.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Motor neurone disease (MND)

      Correct Answer: Achalasia

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest a diagnosis of achalasia, which is characterized by the failure of the lower oesophageal sphincter to relax, leading to a functional stricture. This can cause substernal cramps, regurgitation, and pulmonary aspiration due to the retention of food and saliva in the oesophagus, resulting in a nocturnal cough. Diagnosis is made using a barium swallow, and treatment involves endoscopic balloon dilation or cardiomyotomy. Barrett’s oesophagus, motor neurone disease, oesophageal carcinoma, and pharyngeal pouch are less likely diagnoses based on the patient’s age, symptoms, and medical history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 3 - A 32-year-old woman has been experiencing abdominal pain and intermittent bloody diarrhoea for...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman has been experiencing abdominal pain and intermittent bloody diarrhoea for the past 4 months. She has a history of perianal abscess. Her blood test shows hypochromic, microcytic anaemia and mild hypokalaemia. Although her liver function tests are normal, her albumin is reduced. Barium imaging reveals a small bowel stricture with evidence of mucosal ulceration extending into the colon, interspersed with normal looking mucosa ‘skipping’. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ulcerative colitis

      Correct Answer: Crohn's disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Crohn’s Disease: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Differential Diagnosis

      Crohn’s disease is a chronic inflammatory condition that can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract. The most commonly affected sites are the ileocecal region and the colon. Patients with Crohn’s disease experience relapses and remissions, with symptoms including low-grade fever, prolonged diarrhea, right lower quadrant or periumbilical pain, weight loss, and fatigue. Perianal disease may also occur, with symptoms such as perirectal pain, malodorous discharge, and fistula formation. Extra-intestinal manifestations may include arthritis, erythema nodosum, and primary sclerosing cholangitis.

      To establish a diagnosis of Crohn’s disease, ileocolonoscopy and biopsies from affected areas are first-line procedures. A cobblestone-like appearance is often seen, representing areas of ulceration separated by narrow areas of healthy tissue. Barium follow-through examination is useful for looking for inflammation and narrowing of the small bowel.

      Differential diagnosis for Crohn’s disease include coeliac disease, small bowel lymphoma, tropical sprue, and ulcerative colitis. Coeliac disease presents as a malabsorption syndrome with weight loss and steatorrhoea, while small bowel lymphoma is rare and presents with nonspecific symptoms such as abdominal pain and weight loss. Tropical sprue is a post-infectious malabsorption syndrome that occurs in tropical areas, and ulcerative colitis may be clinically indistinguishable from colonic Crohn’s disease but lacks the small bowel involvement and skip lesions seen in Crohn’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 4 - A 42-year-old woman visits her GP with concerns about her bowel habits and...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman visits her GP with concerns about her bowel habits and a family history of colorectal cancer. She has a known diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) and has previously been investigated for changeable bowel symptoms. Her father, who recently underwent surgery for colon cancer, suggested she get her carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) levels checked. After undergoing tests, she is diagnosed with bowel cancer. What is the most appropriate use of monitoring CEA levels in managing her condition?

      Your Answer: The detection of an early state

      Correct Answer: For postoperative follow-up

      Explanation:

      The Role of Carcinoembryonic Antigen (CEA) in Cancer Management

      Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is a glycoprotein that is primarily produced by cells in the gastrointestinal tract during embryonic development. While its levels are low in adults, CEA is a useful tumour marker for colorectal cancers. In this article, we explore the different ways in which CEA is used in cancer management.

      Postoperative Follow-up
      CEA levels are expected to fall to normal following successful removal of colorectal cancer. A rising CEA level thereafter may indicate possible progression or recurrence of the cancer. However, temporary rises can occur during chemotherapy and radiotherapy, so changes during treatment may not necessarily indicate cancer progression.

      Staging
      CEA levels are not used in staging as there are many variables that can affect the levels. More reliable investigations are used for staging.

      Indicator for Operability
      While a CEA level at diagnosis higher than 100 ng/ml usually indicates metastatic disease, other investigations are used in the initial assessment of a newly diagnosed cancer to determine suitability for operative management.

      Screening Method
      CEA is not sensitive or specific enough to use for diagnosis or screening. Cancers of the pancreas, stomach, breast, lung, medullary carcinoma of the thyroid, and ovarian cancer may also elevate CEA. Some non-malignant conditions such as cirrhosis, pancreatitis, and inflammatory bowel disease also cause blood levels to rise.

      Detection of Early Stage
      CEA is not used for the diagnosis of colorectal cancers as it is not sufficiently sensitive or specific. Early tumours may not cause significant blood elevations, nor may some advanced tumours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 5 - A patient with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) and a tendency towards loose stools...

    Correct

    • A patient with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) and a tendency towards loose stools has not responded well to loperamide and antispasmodics. According to NICE, what is the recommended second-line medication class for this condition?

      Your Answer: Tricyclic antidepressant

      Explanation:

      The initial medication prescribed for individuals with irritable bowel syndrome typically includes antispasmodics, as well as loperamide for diarrhea or laxatives for constipation. If these treatments prove ineffective, low-dose tricyclic antidepressants such as amitriptyline (5-10 mg at night) may be considered as a secondary option to alleviate abdominal pain and discomfort, according to NICE guidelines. Linaclotide may also be an option for those experiencing constipation. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors may be used as a tertiary treatment.

      Managing irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) can be challenging and varies from patient to patient. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines in 2015 to provide recommendations for the management of IBS. The first-line pharmacological treatment depends on the predominant symptom, with antispasmodic agents recommended for pain, laxatives (excluding lactulose) for constipation, and loperamide for diarrhea. If conventional laxatives are not effective for constipation, linaclotide may be considered. Low-dose tricyclic antidepressants are the second-line pharmacological treatment of choice. For patients who do not respond to pharmacological treatments, psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioral therapy, hypnotherapy, or psychological therapy may be considered. Complementary and alternative medicines such as acupuncture or reflexology are not recommended. General dietary advice includes having regular meals, drinking at least 8 cups of fluid per day, limiting tea and coffee to 3 cups per day, reducing alcohol and fizzy drink intake, limiting high-fiber and resistant starch foods, and increasing intake of oats and linseeds for wind and bloating.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 6 - A 70-year-old woman visits the General Practitioner after being discharged from the hospital...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman visits the General Practitioner after being discharged from the hospital three days ago. She underwent a cholecystectomy but had to stay longer due to a chest infection that required treatment. She is now experiencing watery diarrhoea, abdominal cramping pain, and mild lower abdominal tenderness.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Campylobacter infection

      Correct Answer: Clostridioides difficile-associated colitis

      Explanation:

      Clostridioides difficile-Associated Colitis: Symptoms, Risk Factors, and Treatment Options

      Clostridioides difficile-associated colitis is a condition that should be suspected in patients with diarrhoea who have received antibiotics within the previous three months, have recently been in hospital, and/or have an occurrence of diarrhoea 48 hours or more after discharge from the hospital. Although cases can also occur in the community without a history of hospitalisation, the primary risk factor is a disturbance of the normal bacterial flora of the colon by exposure to antibiotics. The release of toxins causes mucosal inflammation and damage, leading to diarrhoea. While most patients develop diarrhoea during or shortly after starting antibiotics, some may not become symptomatic for up to ten weeks after antibiotics.

      Therapy for non-severe infection consists of oral vancomycin or fidaxomcyin as a second-line option. Ceasing the causative antibiotic (if possible) will result in resolution in approximately three days in about 20% of patients. However, more severe diseases will require hospitalisation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 7 - A 55-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner concerned that he may be...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner concerned that he may be at an increased risk of developing colon cancer. His father died at the age of 56 from a sigmoid colon adenocarcinoma. His brother, aged 61, has just undergone a colectomy for a caecal carcinoma.
      What is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Advise him that he has no increased risk

      Correct Answer: Refer for one-off colonoscopy aged 55

      Explanation:

      Screening Recommendations for Patients with Family History of Colorectal Cancer

      Patients with a family history of colorectal cancer may be at an increased risk of developing the disease. The British Society of Gastroenterology and the Association of Coloproctology for Great Britain and Ireland have produced screening guidelines for patients with family history profiles that place them in a moderate-risk category.

      Colonoscopy is recommended for patients with a family history of two first-degree relatives with a mean age of less than 60 years with colorectal cancer, starting at the age of 55. Abdominal ultrasound examination doesn’t have a role in screening for or diagnosing colorectal cancer.

      Patients with an increased risk should not be advised that they have no increased risk. Instead, they should be screened appropriately. Faecal immunochemical tests (FIT) are used to detect blood in the stool and are used in the national bowel cancer screening programme. However, patients with a higher risk, given their family history, should be offered earlier screening with colonoscopy rather than waiting until they are eligible for the national screening programme. False positives and negatives are possible with FIT, making colonoscopy a more reliable screening option for high-risk patients.

      Therefore, it is important for patients with a family history of colorectal cancer to be aware of the screening recommendations and to discuss their individual risk and screening options with their healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 8 - At what age is ulcerative colitis commonly diagnosed? ...

    Incorrect

    • At what age is ulcerative colitis commonly diagnosed?

      Your Answer: 10-20 years

      Correct Answer: Bimodal: 15-25 years + 55-65 years

      Explanation:

      Understanding Ulcerative Colitis

      Ulcerative colitis is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that causes inflammation in the rectum and spreads continuously without going beyond the ileocaecal valve. It is most commonly seen in people aged 15-25 years and 55-65 years. The symptoms of ulcerative colitis are insidious and intermittent, including bloody diarrhea, urgency, tenesmus, abdominal pain, and extra-intestinal features. Diagnosis is done through colonoscopy and biopsy, but in severe cases, a flexible sigmoidoscopy is preferred to avoid the risk of perforation. The typical findings include red, raw mucosa that bleeds easily, widespread ulceration with preservation of adjacent mucosa, and inflammatory cell infiltrate in lamina propria. Extra-intestinal features of inflammatory bowel disease include arthritis, erythema nodosum, episcleritis, osteoporosis, uveitis, pyoderma gangrenosum, clubbing, and primary sclerosing cholangitis. Ulcerative colitis is linked with sacroiliitis, and a barium enema can show the whole colon affected by an irregular mucosa with loss of normal haustral markings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 9 - Samantha, 74, visits her doctor complaining of jaundice. She has a history of...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha, 74, visits her doctor complaining of jaundice. She has a history of heavy alcohol consumption, drinking around 35-40 units per week. Samantha denies experiencing any abdominal pain, and her abdominal examination doesn't reveal any pain, but a palpable gallbladder is detected. Blood tests are conducted, and the results are as follows:

      - Albumin: 30 g/L
      - Alk Phos: 342 U/L
      - ALT: 95 U/L
      - Bilirubin: 102 mol/L
      - INR: 1.4
      - GGT: 123 U/L

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Primary biliary cirrhosis

      Correct Answer: Pancreatic cancer

      Explanation:

      Pancreatic cancer is the most likely cause based on Courvoisier’s sign, which indicates that a painless, enlarged gallbladder and mild jaundice are unlikely to be caused by gallstones and more likely to be caused by a malignancy of the pancreas or biliary tree. Alcoholic hepatitis and primary biliary cirrhosis are possible differentials, but the absence of pain and an enlarged gallbladder makes them less likely. Paracetamol overdose is not a probable cause as it doesn’t typically result in a painless, palpable gallbladder and jaundice.

      Pancreatic cancer is a type of cancer that is often diagnosed late due to its nonspecific symptoms. The majority of pancreatic tumors are adenocarcinomas and are typically found in the head of the pancreas. Risk factors for pancreatic cancer include increasing age, smoking, diabetes, chronic pancreatitis, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma, and mutations in the BRCA2 and KRAS genes.

      Symptoms of pancreatic cancer can include painless jaundice, pale stools, dark urine, and pruritus. Courvoisier’s law states that a palpable gallbladder is unlikely to be due to gallstones in the presence of painless obstructive jaundice. However, patients often present with nonspecific symptoms such as anorexia, weight loss, and epigastric pain. Loss of exocrine and endocrine function can also occur, leading to steatorrhea and diabetes mellitus. Atypical back pain and migratory thrombophlebitis (Trousseau sign) are also common.

      Ultrasound has a sensitivity of around 60-90% for detecting pancreatic cancer, but high-resolution CT scanning is the preferred diagnostic tool. The ‘double duct’ sign, which is the simultaneous dilatation of the common bile and pancreatic ducts, may be seen on imaging.

      Less than 20% of patients with pancreatic cancer are suitable for surgery at the time of diagnosis. A Whipple’s resection (pancreaticoduodenectomy) may be performed for resectable lesions in the head of the pancreas, but side-effects such as dumping syndrome and peptic ulcer disease can occur. Adjuvant chemotherapy is typically given following surgery, and ERCP with stenting may be used for palliation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 10 - A 76-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner for a routine check-up and...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner for a routine check-up and medication review. His history includes congestive cardiac failure, hypertension, rheumatoid arthritis and dementia. He is allergic to penicillin. He was admitted to the hospital one month ago suffering from acute exacerbation of congestive cardiac failure. During his admission, his medications were adjusted.
      Two weeks following discharge, he attended an out-of-hours clinic and was treated for a sore throat. He says he has been well overall since then other than having pains in his knees, which he has been treating with over-the-counter painkillers. The treating doctor decides to take some routine bloods.
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Bilirubin 54 µmol/l < 21 µmol/l
      Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 43 IU/l < 40 IU/l
      Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 323 IU/l 40–129 IU/l
      Gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT) 299 IU/l 7–33 IU/l
      Albumin 32 g/l 35–55 g/l
      Which of the following medications is most likely to have caused the abnormalities in this patient’s liver function tests?

      Your Answer: Paracetamol

      Correct Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of Abnormal Liver Function Tests

      Abnormal liver function tests can be caused by a variety of factors, including medication use. In this case, the patient displays a cholestatic picture with a rise in alkaline phosphatase and gamma-glutamyl transferase levels exceeding the rise in alanine aminotransferase levels. Here is a differential diagnosis of potential causes:

      Erythromycin: This medication can cause cholestatic hepatotoxicity, which may have been used to treat the patient’s sore throat.

      Digoxin: While digoxin is a potentially toxic drug, it doesn’t typically cause hepatotoxicity. Symptoms of digoxin toxicity may include arrhythmias, gastrointestinal disturbance, confusion, or yellow vision.

      Methotrexate: Hepatotoxicity is a well-known side effect of methotrexate use, but it would be expected to see higher ALT levels in this case.

      Paracetamol: Overdosing on paracetamol can cause hepatotoxicity, but it would typically present as hepatocellular damage with a predominant rise in transaminases.

      Rosuvastatin: Statins may cause abnormalities in liver function tests, but cholestatic hepatotoxicity is rare and would not typically present with a disproportionate rise in transaminases.

      In conclusion, the patient’s abnormal liver function tests may be attributed to erythromycin use, but further investigation is necessary to confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 11 - A 50-year-old man presents with long-standing bowel symptoms that go back several years....

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man presents with long-standing bowel symptoms that go back several years. He recently joined the practice and reports experiencing bouts of abdominal pain and diarrhea that can last up to a few weeks at a time. His previous GP diagnosed him with irritable bowel syndrome. He also has a history of ankylosing spondylitis, which was diagnosed in his early 20s, and recurrent mouth ulcers. He takes ibuprofen as needed to manage spinal pain from his ankylosing spondylitis.

      He is now presenting because he has had abdominal pain and profuse diarrhea for the past two weeks. He is having bowel movements 3-4 times a day, which is similar to previous attacks, but he is more concerned this time because he has noticed fresh blood mixed in with his stools. He has not traveled abroad and has had no contact with sick individuals. He denies any weight loss. He saw the Out of Hours GP service a few days ago, and they submitted a stool sample for testing, which showed no evidence of an infectious cause.

      On examination, he is hydrated and afebrile. His blood pressure is 138/90 mmHg, his pulse rate is 88 bpm, and he is not systemically unwell. His abdomen is tender around the umbilicus and across the lower abdomen. He has no guarding or acute surgical findings, and there are no masses or organomegaly. Due to the rectal blood loss, you perform a rectal examination, which reveals several perianal skin tags but nothing focal in the rectum.

      What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: In view of the ongoing loose stools and rectal bleeding refer him urgently to a lower gastrointestinal specialist as a suspected cancer

      Explanation:

      Possible Crohn’s Disease Diagnosis

      This patient’s symptoms suggest a possible diagnosis of Crohn’s disease, which has been previously misdiagnosed as irritable bowel syndrome. The recent discovery of blood in his stools is not consistent with IBS and indicates an alternative cause. Additionally, the presence of ankylosing spondylitis, mouth ulcers, and skin tags are all associated with Crohn’s disease.

      To confirm the diagnosis, the patient should undergo faecal calprotectin and blood tests, including FBC, U&Es, albumin, CRP, and ESR. These tests can be performed in primary care. However, the patient should also be referred to a lower GI specialist for further evaluation and confirmation of the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 12 - A 56-year-old Polish waitress has come to see you for review. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old Polish waitress has come to see you for review. She has visited the surgery on several occasions over the preceding 12 months complaining of abdominal pain. She was initially treated with PPI, but on her most recent review one of your colleagues felt that she had IBS and gave her an antispasmodic.

      Unfortunately, her pain persists and is continuous. Her appetite is poor since starting the antispasmodic and she is complaining that she is putting on weight because she is having difficulty doing up her skirt. On further questioning, she has been slightly constipated in recent months and passing urine more frequently.

      Her mother and sister died of breast cancer aged 52 and 43 respectively and many family members have had renal calculi.

      On examination, she appears anxious but there is no clinical evidence of anaemia or jaundice. She weighs 66 kg but there are no previous recordings for comparison. Her abdomen is soft and there are no masses. There is tenderness in the left iliac fossa and suprapubic area. Rectal examination is normal.

      How would you manage this patient?

      Your Answer: Refer urgently for upper GI endoscopy

      Correct Answer: Dipstick her urine and refer for renal ultrasound if positive for blood

      Explanation:

      Detecting Ovarian Cancer: A Challenging Diagnosis

      Detecting ovarian cancer can be a challenging diagnosis as the symptoms are often vague, especially in the early stages of the disease. However, there are certain risk factors and cardinal symptoms that can help in identifying the disease. Women with a family history of breast cancer, carriers of the BRCA1 and BRCA2 gene, and Polish women are at an increased risk of ovarian cancer. Patients presenting with persistent bloating, abdominal or pelvic pain, and difficulty in eating or fullness after eating small quantities of food should be evaluated for ovarian cancer.

      NICE recommends that women over the age of 50 who have one or more symptoms associated with ovarian cancer occurring more than 12 times a month or for more than a month should be offered CA125 testing. If the CA125 is 35 IU/mL or greater, an urgent ultrasound scan of the pelvis should be arranged. Therefore, performing a pelvic examination and arranging testing for CA125 is the most appropriate way forward for patients with symptoms suggestive of ovarian cancer. Early detection and prompt treatment can improve the prognosis of ovarian cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 13 - You are monitoring a 40-year-old male patient who has recently finished a two-week...

    Incorrect

    • You are monitoring a 40-year-old male patient who has recently finished a two-week Helicobacter pylori treatment for dyspepsia. If he has ceased his eradication therapy today and is not on any other medication, what is the earliest time frame for conducting a urea breath test to confirm eradication?

      Your Answer: In 2 weeks time

      Correct Answer: In 4 weeks time

      Explanation:

      To undergo a urea breath test, one must not have taken antibiotics within the last four weeks and must not have taken any antisecretory drugs, such as PPI, within the last two weeks.

      Tests for Helicobacter pylori

      There are several tests available to diagnose Helicobacter pylori infection. One of the most common tests is the urea breath test, where patients consume a drink containing carbon isotope 13 enriched urea. The urea is broken down by H. pylori urease, and after 30 minutes, the patient exhales into a glass tube. Mass spectrometry analysis calculates the amount of 13C CO2, which determines the presence of H. pylori. However, this test should not be performed within four weeks of treatment with an antibacterial or within two weeks of an antisecretory drug.

      Another test is the rapid urease test, also known as the CLO test. This test involves mixing a biopsy sample with urea and pH indicator, and a color change indicates H. pylori urease activity. Serum antibody tests remain positive even after eradication, and the sensitivity and specificity are 85% and 80%, respectively. Culture of gastric biopsy provides information on antibiotic sensitivity, with a sensitivity of 70% and specificity of 100%. Gastric biopsy with histological evaluation alone has a sensitivity and specificity of 95-99%. Lastly, the stool antigen test has a sensitivity of 90% and specificity of 95%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 14 - An 80-year-old man comes to his general practice clinic with a 3-month history...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man comes to his general practice clinic with a 3-month history of alternating constipation and diarrhea, along with gradual weight loss. During the examination, he looks cachectic and has nodular hepatomegaly. He doesn't have jaundice, and his liver function tests are normal. What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC)

      Correct Answer: Liver metastases

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of nodular hepatomegaly

      Nodular hepatomegaly, or an enlarged liver with palpable nodules, can have various causes. Among them, liver metastases and cirrhosis are common, while hepatocellular carcinoma, lymphoma, and myelofibrosis are less frequent but still possible differential diagnoses.

      Liver metastases often originate from the bowel or breast and may not affect liver function until they involve over half of the liver or obstruct the biliary tract. Cirrhosis, on the other hand, results from chronic liver disease and typically raises the serum alanine aminotransferase level, but this patient’s liver function tests are normal.

      Hepatocellular carcinoma, a type of liver cancer, shares some features with liver metastases but is less common and may be associated with hepatitis B or C. Lymphoma, a cancer of the lymphatic system, is even rarer than hepatocellular carcinoma as a cause of nodular hepatomegaly, but it may involve other sites besides the liver.

      Myelofibrosis is a bone marrow disorder that can lead to fibrosis in the liver and spleen, among other organs. It may not cause symptoms in the early stages but can manifest as leukoerythroblastic anaemia, malaise, weight loss, and night sweats later on. While myelofibrosis is not a common cause of nodular hepatomegaly, it should be considered in the differential diagnosis, especially if other features suggest a myeloproliferative neoplasm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 15 - An 80-year-old woman presents to your clinic with complaints of constipation. She reports...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old woman presents to your clinic with complaints of constipation. She reports a four week history of reduced stool frequency with firmer stool consistency. She currently has a bowel movement every other day, whereas prior to the last four weeks she had a bowel movement once a day. She denies any rectal bleeding or diarrhea and has no anal symptoms or incontinence. On examination, her abdomen is soft and non-tender without masses. Rectal examination is also normal. She has been taking codeine phosphate 30 mg qds for her arthritic knee, which was prescribed by a colleague one month ago. Recent blood tests show normal full blood count, ESR, thyroid function, and calcium. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Provide advice regarding the constipation and reassure

      Explanation:

      Managing Constipation in a Patient on Analgesia

      The patient’s constipation is not a mystery as it coincides with the prescription of codeine phosphate, which slows down bowel transit. There are no other concerning symptoms in the patient’s history or examination that would warrant an urgent referral to a lower gastrointestinal specialist for suspected cancer.

      To manage the patient’s constipation, the healthcare provider should provide advice on diet and lifestyle, review the patient’s medication to identify any contributing factors, and counsel the patient on red flags. The patient has already undergone blood tests to investigate secondary causes of constipation, such as hypothyroidism or hypercalcaemia. The healthcare provider can also discuss the use of laxatives with the patient.

      Overall, managing constipation in a patient on analgesia involves identifying contributing factors, providing lifestyle advice, and discussing treatment options with the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 16 - A 72-year-old woman with a previous history of surgery for a ruptured ovarian...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman with a previous history of surgery for a ruptured ovarian cyst as a teenager presents with colicky central abdominal pain of 24 hours’ duration. She has now started to vomit and on further questioning admits to constipation for the last 12 hours. There is nothing else significant in her medical history.
      Select the single most correct option.

      Your Answer: The symptoms suggest an acute mesenteric embolus

      Correct Answer: She should be thoroughly examined for a strangulated hernia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Bowel Obstruction and Ischaemic Bowel

      Bowel obstruction can occur as a result of adhesions, which are commonly caused by previous abdominal surgery. Symptoms such as abdominal pain, bloating, and vomiting may indicate a small bowel obstruction. It is important to rule out a strangulated hernia, especially a small femoral hernia.

      Ischaemic bowel, on the other hand, is typically seen in patients with pre-existing cardiovascular disease and risk factors. This condition often presents acutely and is caused by an arterial occlusion. Symptoms include severe abdominal pain, fever, nausea, and diarrhoea, which may be bloody. It is important to suspect ischaemic bowel in patients with acute abdominal pain that is out of proportion to clinical findings.

      In summary, understanding the differences between bowel obstruction and ischaemic bowel can help healthcare professionals make accurate diagnoses and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 17 - A 25-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner in her 28th week of...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner in her 28th week of pregnancy. After an uneventful first and second trimester to date, she has developed widespread itching over the last three weeks and she now has mild jaundice. Her bilirubin is 80 μmol/l (normal <21 μmol/l), alanine aminotransferase (ALT) at 82 IU/l (normal <40 IU/l), and the alkaline phosphatase is markedly raised.
      Which of the following is the diagnosis that fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer: Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Liver Disorders in Pregnancy: Differential Diagnosis

      During pregnancy, various liver disorders can occur, leading to abnormal liver function tests. Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy is the most common pregnancy-related liver disorder, affecting 0.1-1.5% of pregnancies. It typically presents in the late second or early third trimester with generalized itching, starting on the palms and soles. An elevated alanine aminotransferase (ALT) is a more sensitive marker than aspartate aminotransferase (AST), and a fasting serum bile acid concentration of greater than 10 mmol/l is the key diagnostic test. Primary biliary cholangitis and acute fatty liver of pregnancy are less likely diagnoses, while cholelithiasis and hyperemesis gravidarum have different clinical presentations. Early diagnosis and management of liver disorders in pregnancy are crucial to prevent adverse outcomes such as prematurity and stillbirth.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 18 - A 62-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with complaints of epigastric pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with complaints of epigastric pain and waterbrash that have lasted for four months. It is not worsening, but neither is it resolving. She has been taking alendronic acid tablets for osteoporosis over a similar timeframe. There is no history of dysphagia or weight loss and an examination of her abdomen is normal. Full blood count, inflammatory markers, urea and electrolytes, and liver function tests are all normal.
      Which of the following is the single most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Oesophageal carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Oesophagitis

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Epigastric Pain: A Case Study

      Epigastric pain is a common complaint among adults, with up to 60% experiencing heartburn and using over-the-counter products to relieve indigestion. However, it can also be a symptom of more serious conditions such as oesophagitis, gastric carcinoma, pancreatic carcinoma, peptic ulcer disease, and oesophageal carcinoma.

      In a case study, a patient presented with stable epigastric pain for four months, accompanied by waterbrash and a history of alendronate use. While gastric and pancreatic carcinomas were deemed unlikely due to the absence of red flag symptoms and deterioration in clinical condition, oesophagitis was considered the most likely diagnosis. Contributing factors such as alcohol, NSAIDs, bisphosphonates, and smoking were identified, and treatment involved eliminating these factors and using proton pump inhibitors like omeprazole.

      Overall, it is important to consider various possible causes of epigastric pain and conduct a thorough evaluation to determine the appropriate diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 19 - A 42-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes comes in for her diabetic annual...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes comes in for her diabetic annual review. She reports feeling constantly fatigued for the past few months. Her blood work shows normal thyroid, liver, and renal function. However, her full blood count indicates a mild anemia with a hemoglobin level of 105 g/L and MCV of 80 fL. Her HbA1c is 52 mmol/mol, and her urine dipstick test is negative for ketones. Upon examination, there are no notable findings. The patient denies any gastrointestinal symptoms, has regular bowel movements, and has not experienced any rectal bleeding or mucous. Her weight is stable, and she doesn't experience abdominal pain or bloating. There is no known family history of gastrointestinal pathology or malignancy. Further blood tests confirm iron deficiency anemia. The patient follows a regular gluten-containing diet. What is the most appropriate initial serological test to perform for coeliac disease in this patient?

      Your Answer: Human leucocyte antigen (HLA) DQ2/DQ8 testing

      Correct Answer: IgA endomysial antibody (EMA) testing

      Explanation:

      Serological testing for coeliac disease is used to determine if further investigation is necessary. The preferred first choice test is IgA transglutaminase, with IgA endomysial antibodies used if the result is equivocal. False negative results can occur in those with IgA deficiency, so this should be ruled out. HLA testing may be considered in specific situations but is not necessary for initial testing. If there is significant clinical suspicion of coeliac disease despite negative serological testing, referral to a specialist should still be offered. Accuracy of testing depends on following a gluten-containing diet for at least six weeks prior to testing. A clinical response to a gluten-free diet is not diagnostic of coeliac disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 20 - A 42-year-old man undergoes occupational health screening blood tests. His anti-Hepatitis C virus...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man undergoes occupational health screening blood tests. His anti-Hepatitis C virus (anti-HCV) test returns positive. On examination, he is feeling well with no signs of liver disease. He has no other comorbidities.
      What is the most important next test to perform for this patient?

      Your Answer: Hepatitis C (HCV) ribonucleic acid (RNA)

      Explanation:

      Common Tests for Hepatitis C and Co-Infections

      Hepatitis C (HCV) is a viral infection that affects the liver. There are several tests available to diagnose and monitor HCV, as well as to screen for co-infections with other viruses. Here are some of the most common tests used:

      1. HCV RNA: This test detects the presence of HCV ribonucleic acid in the blood, which is the most sensitive way to diagnose HCV infection. It can detect the virus within 1-2 weeks after infection and can confirm ongoing infection if antibodies are positive.

      2. HBV DNA: This test measures the amount of hepatitis B virus deoxyribonucleic acid in the blood, which can help monitor the viral load of hepatitis B. Since HBV and HCV can coexist, it’s important to screen for both viruses.

      3. Anti-HIV antibodies: HIV and HCV share many of the same risk factors, so patients with HCV should be screened for HIV. However, it’s important to first confirm the diagnosis of HCV before testing for HIV.

      4. AST and ALT: These enzymes are released into the bloodstream when the liver is damaged, which can indicate HCV infection. However, they are nonspecific and cannot confirm a diagnosis on their own.

      5. IgM anti-HAV: This test detects recent infection with hepatitis A, which can coexist with HCV. However, confirming the diagnosis of HCV is the first priority.

      Overall, these tests can help diagnose and monitor HCV, as well as screen for co-infections with other viruses. It’s important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the best testing strategy for each individual case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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