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Question 1
Incorrect
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You are visited by a 35-year-old man who is concerned about the number of moles on his body. He mentions that his cousin was recently diagnosed with melanoma and he is worried about his own risk.
Upon examination, you note that he has around 70 pigmented naevi, each measuring over 2 mm in diameter.
What factor would increase this patient's risk of developing melanoma the most?Your Answer: Unusually high sun exposure
Correct Answer: Having between 51 and 100 common moles greater than 2 mm in size
Explanation:Risk Factors for Melanoma
When assessing a pigmented skin lesion, it is important to consider the risk factors for melanoma. While skin that doesn’t tan easily is a risk factor, having between 51 and 100 common moles greater than 2 mm in size confers the greatest risk. Other established risk factors include a family history of melanoma in a first degree relative, light-colored eyes, and unusually high sun exposure.
It is important to have knowledge of the extent of risk associated with these factors, as this can help identify high-risk patients and provide appropriate advice. Patients who are at moderately increased risk of melanoma should be taught how to self-examine, including those with atypical mole phenotype, previous melanoma, organ transplant recipients, and giant congenital pigmented nevi.
In conclusion, understanding the risk factors for melanoma is crucial in identifying high-risk patients and providing appropriate advice and follow-up care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 2
Correct
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During a routine cranial nerve examination of a different patient, the following results were obtained:
Rinne's test: Air conduction > bone conduction in both ears
Weber's test: Localises to the left side
What do these test results indicate?Your Answer: Left sensorineural deafness
Explanation:If there is a sensorineural issue during Weber’s test, the sound will be perceived on the healthy side (right), suggesting a problem on the opposite side (left).
Rinne’s and Weber’s Test for Differentiating Conductive and Sensorineural Deafness
Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are used to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural deafness. Rinne’s test involves placing a tuning fork over the mastoid process until the sound is no longer heard, then repositioning it just over the external acoustic meatus. A positive test indicates that air conduction (AC) is better than bone conduction (BC), while a negative test indicates that BC is better than AC, suggesting conductive deafness.
Weber’s test involves placing a tuning fork in the middle of the forehead equidistant from the patient’s ears and asking the patient which side is loudest. In unilateral sensorineural deafness, sound is localized to the unaffected side, while in unilateral conductive deafness, sound is localized to the affected side.
The table below summarizes the interpretation of Rinne and Weber tests. A normal result indicates that AC is greater than BC bilaterally and the sound is midline. Conductive hearing loss is indicated by BC being greater than AC in the affected ear and AC being greater than BC in the unaffected ear, with the sound lateralizing to the affected ear. Sensorineural hearing loss is indicated by AC being greater than BC bilaterally, with the sound lateralizing to the unaffected ear.
Overall, Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are useful tools for differentiating between conductive and sensorineural deafness, allowing for appropriate management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old-man presents to his General Practitioner very anxious as he has noticed blood in his urine that morning. For the past three days, he has been experiencing some lower abdominal discomfort, increased urinary frequency and mild dysuria. He is usually fit and well and doesn't take any regular medications. He is afebrile and normotensive. Urine dipstick is positive for blood, leukocytes and nitrites.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management plan?
Your Answer: Await the result of urine culture before starting antibiotics
Correct Answer: Prescribe antibiotics and advise him to return if no improvement in symptoms within 48 hours
Explanation:If a patient presents with symptoms of a urinary tract infection (UTI), it is recommended to prescribe antibiotics and advise them to return if their symptoms do not improve within 48 hours. A routine nephrology referral is not necessary in this case, as the patient’s haematuria can be explained by the UTI. However, if a patient has unexplained visible haematuria, urgent urological investigations should be conducted. It is not advisable to book an urgent blood test for prostate-specific antigen until after the UTI has been treated, unless there is a strong suspicion of prostate cancer. According to NICE guidelines, empirical antibiotics should be started immediately for men with typical UTI symptoms, and urine culture should be sent away for analysis. If visible haematuria persists or recurs after successful treatment of the UTI, an urgent suspected cancer referral should be sent. In men over 45 years old, a 2-week-wait referral should be considered in the absence of UTI symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 29-year-old mother comes to your clinic worried about her painful breasts. She is currently nursing her 7-day-old baby but expresses her concern that her milk is not flowing properly and her baby is having difficulty latching and suckling. Her breasts are not leaking, and she feels fine. Her vital signs are normal. During the examination, both breasts are swollen and enlarged. They seem slightly red, and touching them is painful. Which of the following is the best course of action?
Your Answer: Hand expression of breast milk
Explanation:The patient has breast engorgement and should be advised to feed the infant with no restrictions on frequency and length of feeds. Analgesia with opioids is not recommended, and support measures such as breast massage and cold gel packs are the mainstay of treatment. Mastitis is a differential diagnosis, but hospital admission is not necessary unless there are signs of sepsis or rapidly progressing infection. Other causes of breast pain or discomfort in breastfeeding women include a full breast, a blocked duct, mastitis, or a breast abscess. Deep breast pain may also be caused by ductal infection, spasm of the ducts, persistent reaction to nerve trauma, or prolactin-induced mastalgia.
Breastfeeding Problems and Management
Breastfeeding can come with its own set of challenges, but most of them can be managed with proper care and attention. Some common issues include frequent feeding, nipple pain, blocked ducts, and nipple candidiasis. These problems can be addressed by seeking advice on positioning, breast massage, and using appropriate creams and suspensions.
Mastitis is a more serious condition that affects around 1 in 10 breastfeeding women. It is important to seek treatment if symptoms persist or worsen, including systemic illness, nipple fissures, or infection. The first-line antibiotic is flucloxacillin, and breastfeeding or expressing should continue during treatment. If left untreated, mastitis can lead to a breast abscess, which requires incision and drainage.
Breast engorgement is another common issue that can cause pain and discomfort. It usually occurs in the first few days after birth and can affect both breasts. Hand expression of milk can help relieve the discomfort of engorgement, and complications can be avoided by addressing the issue promptly.
Raynaud’s disease of the nipple is a less common but still significant problem that can cause pain and blanching of the nipple. Treatment options include minimizing exposure to cold, using heat packs, avoiding caffeine and smoking, and considering oral nifedipine.
Concerns about poor infant weight gain can also arise, prompting consideration of the above breastfeeding problems and an expert review of feeding. Monitoring of weight until weight gain is satisfactory is also recommended. With proper management and support, most breastfeeding problems can be overcome, allowing for a successful and rewarding breastfeeding experience.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old man comes to you to discuss blood pressure management.
He has been seen by the nurse three times in the past six months, and each time his BP has been above 160/95 mmHg. He has no significant medical history except for a hernia repair eight years ago. He complains of mild dyspnea on exertion and mild ankle swelling at the end of the day.
During today's examination, his BP is 155/92 mmHg, his pulse is 70 and regular, and his BMI is 27 kg/m2.
Investigations reveal:
- Hb 123 g/L (135 - 180)
- WCC 5.1 ×109/L (4 - 10)
- PLT 190 ×109/L (150 - 400)
- Na 141 mmol/L (134 - 143)
- K 4.5 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
- Cr 145 µmol/L (60 - 120)
What is the best course of action for managing this man's blood pressure?Your Answer: Calcium channel antagonists are recommended as first line treatment
Correct Answer: If BP target is not reached on two or more agents than addition of more drugs is of no value
Explanation:Treating Hypertension in Elderly Patients
Patients of all ages should be treated to target when it comes to hypertension. The NICE guidelines on Hypertension (NG136) recommend a clinic blood pressure (BP) of less than 150/90 mmHg for patients over the age of 80. For patients over 55, calcium channel antagonists are the most appropriate first-line therapies, unless there is evidence of oedema, heart failure, or the patient is at risk of heart failure. In such cases, a thiazide-like diuretic such as chlorthalidone or indapamide should be used instead of conventional thiazides like bendroflumethiazide and hydrochlorothiazide. If a CCB is not tolerated, a thiazide-like diuretic should be offered to treat hypertension. Indapamide is a thiazide-like diuretic that is associated with less hyponatraemia compared to bendroflumethiazide, making it an appropriate choice for first-line therapy in elderly patients. Even if the target BP is not reached on two or more agents, it is important to continue therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 6
Correct
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You encounter a 48-year-old man experiencing his first episode of depression, which appears to have been triggered by losing his job. He reports feeling significantly better after taking an antidepressant for six weeks and inquires about discontinuing it.
What is the suggested duration for continuing antidepressant medication to minimize the likelihood of relapse?Your Answer: 6 months
Explanation:Recommended Duration of Treatment for Depression
According to NICE guidance, individuals who have experienced their first episode of depression should undergo six months of treatment to decrease the likelihood of relapse. However, for those who have recurrent depression, treatment is recommended for a longer period of two years. It is important to note that the duration of treatment may vary depending on the severity of the depression and the individual’s response to treatment. It is crucial for individuals to work closely with their healthcare provider to determine the appropriate length of treatment for their specific needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 7
Correct
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A 65-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a fever, headache and body aches. On questioning, he complains of a recent onset of jaw pain while chewing food. Physical examination reveals normal temporal arteries. Fundal examination shows a pale, swollen optic disc on the right side. Blood tests reveal mild normocytic anaemia and an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 120 mm per hour (normal 0–22 mm per hour).
Which of the following is the most appropriate management option?
Your Answer: Start treatment immediately, urgent referral to rheumatology
Explanation:The Importance of Prompt Diagnosis and Treatment for Giant Cell Arteritis
Giant cell arteritis (GCA) is a serious condition that can lead to irreversible visual loss if left untreated. Symptoms include headache, scalp tenderness, and jaw claudication. While abnormalities in the temporal artery are only found in about 30% of patients on examination, a normal examination doesn’t exclude the condition.
Immediate treatment with high-dose steroids is recommended by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) on suspicion of GCA, and an urgent referral to a specialist, usually a rheumatologist, should be made within 72 hours. Delay in treatment can have serious consequences, so it is important to start treatment promptly.
While a temporal artery biopsy may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis, treatment should not be postponed until this can be arranged. Ultrasound can also be used as a diagnostic tool, which is less invasive. Long-term oral steroids carry risks and side effects, so it is important to confirm the diagnosis with a specialist to ensure that treatment is indicated.
Prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial in cases of suspected GCA to prevent irreversible visual loss and other serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 8
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman is being evaluated one week after being diagnosed with a deep vein thrombosis in her left leg. She has started taking warfarin after receiving low-molecular weight heparin for five days. Her medical history includes depression, osteoporosis, breast cancer, and type 2 diabetes. Which medication she is currently taking is most likely to have contributed to her increased risk of developing a deep vein thrombosis?
Your Answer: Tamoxifen
Explanation:Prior to initiating tamoxifen treatment, women should be informed about the elevated risk of VTE, which is one of the most significant side effects of the medication. Additionally, tamoxifen has been linked to an increased risk of endometrial cancer.
Risk Factors for Venous Thromboembolism
Venous thromboembolism (VTE) is a condition where blood clots form in the veins, which can lead to serious complications such as pulmonary embolism (PE). While some common predisposing factors include malignancy, pregnancy, and the period following an operation, there are many other factors that can increase the risk of VTE. These include underlying conditions such as heart failure, thrombophilia, and nephrotic syndrome, as well as medication use such as the combined oral contraceptive pill and antipsychotics. It is important to note that around 40% of patients diagnosed with a PE have no major risk factors. Therefore, it is crucial to be aware of all potential risk factors and take appropriate measures to prevent VTE.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl presents to your clinic with a blanching rash that started on her abdomen and chest before spreading to her neck, legs, and arms. The rash is rough and has a sandpaper-like texture. She reports feeling feverish with a temperature of 38.5 ºC, a sore throat, and nausea two days before the rash appeared. On examination, you note her tongue has a beefy, red appearance and prominent cervical lymphadenopathy. You suspect scarlet fever. The patient has no significant medical history and no allergies. Hospital admission is not necessary. What is the most appropriate management option in primary care?
Your Answer: Commence 10 days of oral phenoxymethylpenicillin (penicillin V), no need to notify public health england (PHE)
Correct Answer: Notify public health england (PHE) and commence 10 days of oral phenoxymethylpenicillin (penicillin V)
Explanation:Scarlet fever is a condition caused by erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci, usually Streptococcus pyogenes. It is more common in children aged 2-6 years, with the highest incidence at 4 years. The disease is spread through respiratory droplets or direct contact with nose and throat discharges. The incubation period is 2-4 days, and symptoms include fever, malaise, headache, sore throat, ‘strawberry’ tongue, and a rash that appears first on the torso and spares the palms and soles. Scarlet fever is usually a mild illness, but it may be complicated by otitis media, rheumatic fever, acute glomerulonephritis, or rare invasive complications.
To diagnose scarlet fever, a throat swab is usually taken, but antibiotic treatment should be started immediately, rather than waiting for the results. Management involves oral penicillin V for ten days, while patients with a penicillin allergy should be given azithromycin. Children can return to school 24 hours after starting antibiotics, and scarlet fever is a notifiable disease. Desquamation occurs later in the course of the illness, particularly around the fingers and toes. The rash is often described as having a rough ‘sandpaper’ texture, and children often have a flushed appearance with circumoral pallor. Invasive complications such as bacteraemia, meningitis, and necrotizing fasciitis are rare but may present acutely with life-threatening illness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 10
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman with chronic hepatitis B infection presents to her General Practitioner as she has just discovered that she is pregnant with her first child. She was diagnosed with hepatitis B at the age of 19, following a needlestick injury when she was a student doing voluntary health work abroad and has no risk factors for other blood-borne viruses. She is generally in good health with no symptoms from her chronic hepatitis B infection. Her husband is vaccinated against hepatitis B, and she wants to know how her baby can avoid being infected.
What is the most appropriate advice to give her?Your Answer: Her baby will need to be vaccinated against hepatitis B within 24 hours of birth
Explanation:Managing Hepatitis B in Pregnancy: Vaccination and Testing for Newborns
Hepatitis B is a viral infection that can be transmitted from mother to child during childbirth. To prevent transmission, it is important to manage hepatitis B in pregnancy. Here are some important points to keep in mind:
– The baby should receive their first hepatitis B vaccination within 24 hours of birth. This is crucial to prevent transmission, as there is a 90% chance of the infant contracting hepatitis B without immunisation at birth.
– Subsequently, the baby should receive a further vaccination against hepatitis B at 4 weeks of age, followed by routine immunisations which include hepatitis B at 8, 12 and 16 weeks, and then a 6th and final hepatitis B vaccination at one year of age.
– Vaccination can occur at 8, 12 and 16 weeks of age, as per the routine immunisation schedule, but babies born to hepatitis B infected mothers require additional hepatitis B vaccinations.
– The baby should be tested for hepatitis B at 12 months old, at which point they should also have bloods taken to test for hepatitis B infection.
– The mother should not receive the hepatitis B vaccination at 28 weeks’ gestation, as this is not appropriate advice.
– The mother should not take antiviral therapy while pregnant and should not avoid breastfeeding her infant to reduce the risk of vertical transmission, as this is not necessary for hepatitis B.In summary, managing hepatitis B in pregnancy involves vaccinating the newborn and testing for hepatitis B at 12 months old. With proper management, transmission of hepatitis B from mother to child can be prevented.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 32-year-old engineer seeks guidance regarding laser correction of myopia.
What is the one accurate statement about this treatment?Your Answer: Is complicated sometimes by reduced night vision
Explanation:Myths and Facts about Laser Eye Surgery
Laser eye surgery is a popular procedure for correcting refractive errors, but there are many misconceptions about it. Here are some myths and facts about laser eye surgery:
Myth: Laser eye surgery can be performed by optometrists without special training.
Fact: Laser eye surgery should only be performed by ophthalmologists who have received special training and certification.Myth: Laser eye surgery is available on the National Health Service for sight improvement.
Fact: Laser eye surgery is not available on the National Health Service for cosmetic purposes.Myth: Laser eye surgery is suitable for anyone over the age of 16 years.
Fact: Laser eye surgery is not recommended for young people whose eyes are still developing and whose prescription may still change.Myth: Laser eye surgery is suitable for patients with keratoconus.
Fact: Laser eye surgery is not recommended for patients with keratoconus, as it can further thin the cornea.Laser eye surgery can be a safe and effective way to correct refractive errors, but it is important to separate fact from fiction before making a decision. Always consult with a qualified ophthalmologist to determine if laser eye surgery is right for you.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 12
Correct
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A 4-year-old boy presents with recurrent urinary tract infections (UTIs). His parents want to know what is causing these infections.
What is the most common cause of this problem in a child of this age?Your Answer: Vesicoureteric reflux (VUR)
Explanation:Pediatric Urinary Tract Conditions: Causes and Symptoms
Recurrent urinary infections in children can be caused by various conditions that lead to urinary stasis. One of the most common causes is vesicoureteric reflux (VUR), which occurs in 41% of cases. VUR is found in about 1% of normal infants and can resolve over several years, but it is a risk factor for pyelonephritis and renal scarring. Other causes of recurrent urinary infections include renal calculi, obstructive uropathy, poor urine flow, impaired immune or renal function, and sexual abuse.
Posterior urethral valves, a less common condition than VUR, can cause urinary tract infections, diurnal enuresis, voiding pain or dysfunction, and an abnormal urinary stream. Bilateral polycystic kidney disease, which rarely causes major symptoms during childhood, can lead to progressive kidney failure and present with loin pain, haematuria, UTIs, and stones. Neurogenic bladder, caused by spina bifida, spinal trauma, or tumour, can cause urine leakage and retention, and is less common than VUR. Renal calculi, caused by metabolic abnormalities or unknown factors, are less common in childhood than VUR and may present with urinary infections.
In summary, recurrent urinary infections in children can be caused by various conditions, each with its own set of symptoms and risk factors. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and ensure proper kidney function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 13
Correct
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Sophie is a 2-year-old girl who is brought in by her father. She has had a fever overnight, along with a sore throat and cough. Her father is worried that she seems more tired than usual today. During the examination, you note the following:
Temperature 38.5 degrees
Heart rate 160 bpm
Respiratory rate 40 / min
Oxygen saturation 95%
The lungs are clear, but there is inflammation and redness in the throat, and there are swollen lymph nodes in the neck.
According to the NICE traffic light system for assessing fever in children, which of the following is considered 'amber'?Your Answer: Heart rate 155 bpm
Explanation:The NICE Feverish illness in children guidelines were introduced in 2007 and updated in 2013 to provide a ‘traffic light’ system for assessing the risk of febrile illness in children under 5 years old. The guidelines recommend recording the child’s temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and capillary refill time, as well as looking for signs of dehydration. Measuring temperature should be done with an electronic thermometer in the axilla for children under 4 weeks or with an electronic/chemical dot thermometer in the axilla or an infra-red tympanic thermometer. The risk stratification table categorizes children as green (low risk), amber (intermediate risk), or red (high risk) based on their symptoms. Management recommendations vary depending on the risk level, with green children managed at home, amber children provided with a safety net or referred to a specialist, and red children urgently referred to a specialist. The guidelines also advise against prescribing oral antibiotics without an apparent source of fever and note that a chest x-ray is not necessary if a child with suspected pneumonia is not being referred to the hospital.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 14
Incorrect
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You receive a call regarding a patient's potassium level:
K+ 6.3 mmol/l
Which of the following options would not account for this result?Your Answer: Delay in transport to the laboratory
Correct Answer: Conn's syndrome
Explanation:Hyperkalaemia is a condition where there is an excess of potassium in the blood. The levels of potassium in the plasma are regulated by various factors such as aldosterone, insulin levels, and acid-base balance. When there is metabolic acidosis, hyperkalaemia can occur as hydrogen and potassium ions compete with each other for exchange with sodium ions across cell membranes and in the distal tubule. The ECG changes that can be seen in hyperkalaemia include tall-tented T waves, small P waves, widened QRS leading to a sinusoidal pattern, and asystole.
There are several causes of hyperkalaemia, including acute kidney injury, drugs such as potassium sparing diuretics, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin 2 receptor blockers, spironolactone, ciclosporin, and heparin, metabolic acidosis, Addison’s disease, rhabdomyolysis, and massive blood transfusion. Foods that are high in potassium include salt substitutes, bananas, oranges, kiwi fruit, avocado, spinach, and tomatoes.
It is important to note that beta-blockers can interfere with potassium transport into cells and potentially cause hyperkalaemia in renal failure patients. In contrast, beta-agonists such as Salbutamol are sometimes used as emergency treatment. Additionally, both unfractionated and low-molecular weight heparin can cause hyperkalaemia by inhibiting aldosterone secretion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 15
Correct
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A 68-year-old smoker visits her General Practitioner with complaints of fatigue, abdominal pain, nausea and weight loss. She reports having a cough for three months and experiencing night sweats in recent weeks. Blood tests reveal anaemia and a corrected calcium level of 3.06 mmol/l (normal value 2.2–2.6 mmol/l).
What is a recognized cause of hypercalcaemia?Your Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma
Explanation:Causes and Symptoms of Calcium Imbalance
Calcium imbalance can be caused by various factors, including primary hyperparathyroidism, malignancy, milk-alkali syndrome, and sarcoid. Hypercalcaemia, or high calcium levels, can lead to symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, constipation, abdominal pain, depression, psychosis, bone pain, renal stones, fatigue, cardiac dysrhythmias, and renal tubular damage. On the other hand, hypocalcaemia, or low calcium levels, can be caused by prolonged chronic renal failure, hypoparathyroidism, and vitamin D deficiency. Symptoms of the underlying cause may also be present. It is important to identify and address the underlying cause of calcium imbalance to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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You see a 63-year-old lady who suffers with rheumatoid arthritis and takes methotrexate. She has also needed frequent steroid treatment for flares of her disease. Recently a colleague sent her for a DEXA scan which confirms osteoporosis. Her past medical history includes hypertension and hypercholesterolaemia. She takes amlodipine and simvastatin for these problems. You decide she needs a bisphosphonate as well as calcium and vitamin D. You prescribe alendronic acid and calceos for her.
Which of the following medications can reduce absorption of alendronic acid?Your Answer: Calceos
Correct Answer: Prednisolone
Explanation:Counselling Patients on Bisphosphonate Use
When prescribing bisphosphonates, it is crucial to provide patients with proper counselling. Patients should be advised to swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing, and to take them on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or any other oral medication. It is also important to inform patients that they should remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet to avoid oesophageal irritation, which is a common side effect.
Patients should also be warned about the rare adverse effect of osteonecrosis of the jaw and advised to have regular dental check-ups. Additionally, it is important to mention that calcium salts, antacids, and iron salts can reduce the absorption of bisphosphonates. Patients taking aminoglycosides should be informed of the increased risk of hypoglycaemia when taken with bisphosphonates.
In summary, proper counselling on bisphosphonate use is essential to ensure patients take the medication correctly and avoid potential adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 17
Incorrect
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You assess a 32-year-old male with a 15-year history of ulcerative colitis. He reports passing three bloody stools per day for the past week, but denies any abdominal pain and has maintained a good appetite. Upon examination, there are no notable findings in the abdomen. What is the most probable explanation for this current episode?
Your Answer: Severe exacerbation of ulcerative colitis
Correct Answer: Mild exacerbation of ulcerative colitis
Explanation:Ulcerative colitis flares can occur without any identifiable trigger, but there are several factors that are often associated with them. These include stress, certain medications such as NSAIDs and antibiotics, and cessation of smoking. Flares are typically categorized as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools a person has per day, the presence of blood in the stools, and the level of systemic disturbance. Mild flares involve fewer than four stools daily with or without blood and no systemic disturbance. Moderate flares involve four to six stools a day with minimal systemic disturbance. Severe flares involve more than six stools a day with blood and evidence of systemic disturbance such as fever, tachycardia, abdominal tenderness, distension, reduced bowel sounds, anemia, or hypoalbuminemia. Patients with severe disease should be admitted to the hospital.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 48-year-old woman who complains of exertional breathlessness presents to the clinic as she is desperate to stop smoking. She has had a number of unsuccessful attempts to stop smoking over the years and has tried nicotine patches.
Which of the following would be an appropriate choice to assist in her attempts at smoking cessation?Your Answer: Varenicline
Explanation:Varenicline: An Effective Anti-Smoking Agent
Varenicline, also known as Champix, is an oral medication that helps individuals quit smoking. It has a dual action, reducing the craving for cigarettes and making smoking less pleasurable. Clinical trials have shown that Varenicline is more effective than both bupropion and placebo.
The medication is prescribed for 12 weeks initially, and if cravings persist, a further 12-week course may be prescribed. Varenicline has been proven to be an effective tool in helping individuals quit smoking and can be a valuable addition to a comprehensive smoking cessation program.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man who has recently undergone palliative radiotherapy for head and neck cancer visits the clinic complaining of constant diffuse mouth pain. Upon examination, there is widespread erythema with no visible focal lesions, ulceration, or candidiasis.
Apart from administering analgesics, what is the most suitable treatment?Your Answer: Nystatin oral suspension
Correct Answer: Benzydamine hydrochloride mouthwash
Explanation:Topical sprays are not suitable for providing continuous pain relief throughout the day due to their short duration of action. It is recommended to only use topical local anaesthetics for severe pain.
Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects include nausea, drowsiness, and constipation, which are usually transient but may persist. Denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain in addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A couple visit their general practitioner regarding their 38-year-old daughter who has Down's Syndrome. They are concerned that over the past year, their daughter’s social skills have diminished and she has become irritable and un-co-operative. They are especially worried that there may be an underlying medical condition causing these changes.
Which of the following conditions occurs most commonly in adult patients with Down's syndrome?Your Answer: Ischaemic heart disease
Correct Answer: Alzheimer’s dementia
Explanation:Health Conditions Associated with Down Syndrome
Down Syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects approximately 1 in 700 births. Individuals with Down Syndrome are at an increased risk of developing certain health conditions. Here are some of the most common health conditions associated with Down Syndrome:
Alzheimer’s Dementia: Individuals with Down Syndrome have a significantly higher risk of developing Alzheimer’s Dementia. The onset of clinical features is typically around the age of 55, and dementia is thought to contribute to death in around a third of patients.
Ischaemic Heart Disease: The prevalence of Ischaemic Heart Disease is not increased in individuals with Down Syndrome, and for men, it has been reported to be lower than the general population.
Addison’s Disease: While relatively rare in comparison to Alzheimer’s Dementia, Addison’s Disease is still more prevalent in individuals with Down Syndrome than in the general population.
Carcinoma of the Thyroid: While fewer solid and other haematological malignancies are seen in individuals with Down Syndrome compared to the general population, the incidence of childhood leukaemia is increased.
Coeliac Disease: Coeliac Disease is another autoimmune disease that occurs more commonly in people with Down Syndrome, with a prevalence of around 5%. Some recommend screening for this condition.
In conclusion, individuals with Down Syndrome are at an increased risk of developing certain health conditions, and it is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these risks and provide appropriate screening and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 21
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman complains that her right ring finger regularly becomes locked after it has been flexed. It is difficult to straighten out without pulling on it with the other hand and sometimes a click is heard when it straightens.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Trigger finger
Explanation:Understanding Trigger Finger
Trigger finger, also known as stenosing tenosynovitis, is a condition where the tendon to the finger cannot easily slide back into the tendon sheath due to swelling. This causes the finger to remain fixed in flexion unless it is pulled straight. The name trigger finger comes from the sudden release of the finger when it unlocks, similar to releasing a trigger on a gun. A small tender nodule may be felt in the tendon in the palm at the base of the affected finger, impeding the return of the tendon to its sheath. While trauma can cause trigger finger, often there is no obvious cause. Some patients improve spontaneously, while others require corticosteroid injections or tendon release surgery. It is important to differentiate trigger finger from other conditions such as cramp, Dupuytren’s contracture, osteoarthritis of the proximal interphalangeal joint, and tetany.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 22
Correct
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A 38-year-old woman comes to your afternoon clinic. She has been feeling off since losing her job 3 weeks ago. She is tearful during the consultation and reports having trouble sleeping, with early morning waking, a decreased appetite resulting in some weight loss, a decreased libido, and difficulty concentrating. She feels stuck in her current situation and is unsure if there is a way out. She occasionally has thoughts of how it might be better if I wasn't here and thinks about death, but these are fleeting and not associated with any specific thoughts or plans of suicide. When asked directly, she says she couldn't do that to her family. She tells you that her mother once took pills for nerves, but she can't remember anything else.
Choose the most appropriate treatment from the list.Your Answer: Citalopram
Explanation:Treatment Options for Moderate Depressive Episode
A woman is experiencing a moderate depressive episode, as evidenced by her low mood lasting for more than two weeks and the presence of a somatic syndrome. The most appropriate treatment option in this case is citalopram, a selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitor. However, some patients may experience a rise in anxiety and sleep disturbances during the initial titration, which can be managed by adding nocturnal sedation such as zopiclone for a short period.
Other treatment options include risperidone, an antipsychotic with mood-stabilizing properties, and valproate, which can be used as a mood-stabilizer but should be used with caution in women of childbearing age. Tricyclic antidepressants like amitriptyline have more side-effects than SSRIs and are not typically used as first-line treatment. Mirtazapine, another antidepressant, is usually only used when an SSRI has failed.
In conclusion, citalopram is the most appropriate treatment option for a moderate depressive episode, but it is important to monitor for potential side-effects and adjust the treatment plan accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with complaints of pain and tightness in his head, affecting the frontal and occipital regions and radiating to his neck. The symptoms have been present for four months and occur most days, usually soon after he wakes up in the morning. He is able to work despite the headaches, but they tend to resolve with paracetamol, which he tries to avoid taking most days. He works in a high-pressure environment where there have been recent layoffs. On examination, there are no concerning findings, and he denies feeling depressed.
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Referral for assessment by the local mental health team
Correct Answer: Amitriptyline
Explanation:Treatment and Management of Chronic Tension-Type Headaches
Chronic tension-type headaches (TTH) are a common condition that can significantly impact a patient’s quality of life. The following is a guide to the treatment and management of chronic TTH.
Diagnosis and Explanation
Patients with chronic TTH should receive a positive diagnosis and explanation of their condition. It is important to reassure patients that TTH is self-limiting and not a serious condition.Pharmacological Treatment
Amitriptyline is the treatment of choice for prophylaxis of chronic TTH. A starting dose of 10-15 mg at night can be increased to 150 mg, but usually, no more than 20-30 mg is needed. If higher doses are required, this may indicate an alternative diagnosis, such as depression. The dose can be reduced once improvement is maintained for four to six months or held if headaches recur.Non-Pharmacological Approaches
Non-pharmacological approaches to TTH often incorporate relaxation and physical and psychological therapies.Neuroimaging
Neuroimaging should only be considered to rule out a serious underlying cause if there is a history of new, severe headache that is progressive and associated with neurological abnormalities on examination. Atypical aura, visual disturbance, and vomiting may also be seen.Medication Overuse Headache
Codeine should be avoided in patients with chronic TTH as there is a risk of developing medication-overuse headache, given the frequency of headaches seen in this case.Migraine Prophylaxis
Propanolol is used as prophylaxis for recurrent migraine. However, this medication is not suitable for patients with chronic TTH as their headaches do not fit the diagnosis of migraine.Mental Health Referral
Patients with chronic TTH may benefit from stress management techniques, but referral to the local mental health team is not necessary unless the patient exhibits symptoms of depression. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy complaining of acute abdominal pain is brought to see you by his mother. His mother tells you that he has been having bouts of abdominal pain for the last few days that she thought would settle with time. In addition, she tells you that he has also developed a rash on his legs and has been complaining that his knees and ankles are sore. He is opening his bowels normally and passing urine normally. Prior to the last few days he has been entirely well. He has no significant past medical history and is not on any regular medications.
You examine him and he is afebrile and alert. His blood pressure is 118/82 mmHg. There is no significant lymphadenopathy. His abdomen is soft with no masses. He has some mild tenderness on deep palpation around the umbilicus and lower abdomen. There is an obvious purpuric rash over the extensor surfaces of his legs and buttocks. You also notice a few similar lesions on the extensor surfaces of his arms. His trunk is unaffected by the rash.
He has full range of movements in his joints which are not inflamed, however there is discomfort when manipulating his knees and ankles and his ankles appear slightly puffy.
Which of the following tests is most useful in guiding further management of this patient?Your Answer: Blood film
Correct Answer: Urine dipstick
Explanation:Henoch-Schönlein Purpura (HSP) in Children
Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP) is a vasculitic condition that commonly affects children between the ages of 3 and 10. The core clinical features of HSP include a characteristic skin rash, joint pain, periarticular oedema, renal involvement, and abdominal pain. The skin rash, known as ‘palpable’ purpura, typically affects the buttocks and extensor surfaces of the legs and arms. Renal involvement can lead to hypertension, haematuria, and proteinuria, which can result in nephrotic and nephritic syndromes.
Urine dipstick testing is essential in making a clinical diagnosis and guiding management and follow-up. Regular follow-up is necessary during the convalescent period as HSP can lead to chronic renal problems in some patients. Therefore, early detection and management of renal manifestations are crucial in preventing long-term complications. If left untreated, HSP can cause significant morbidity and mortality in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements about children with special educational needs (SEN) is not true?
Your Answer: The first step to help a struggling child is called 'School Action'
Correct Answer: A special educational needs coordinator (SENCO) is a paediatrician who specialises in education
Explanation:A teacher who specializes in coordinating special educational needs is known as a SENCO.
Special educational needs (SEN) refer to children who have a greater difficulty in learning compared to their peers or have a disability that hinders their access to educational facilities. When a child is struggling, a review called ‘School Action’ is conducted by the school and parents to determine what can be done. If outside help is required, such as from an educational psychologist or speech therapist, the review is called ‘School Action Plus’. However, if these actions are not sufficient, a formal statement of educational needs may be necessary.
To assess children who may require help, a special educational needs coordinator (SENCO) is a teacher who specializes in this area. The statement of SEN should be made and reviewed annually to ensure that the child’s needs are being met. The Education Act 1993 aimed to provide early intervention to children with SEN.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 26
Correct
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You suspect a patient you have seen on a home visit who is elderly and was previously treated with antibiotics has now developed Clostridium difficile (C. difficile) infection.
Which of the following is most likely to have caused this infection?Your Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:Antibiotics and C. difficile Infection
Antibiotics are known to increase the risk of patients developing C. difficile infection. However, certain antibiotics are more frequently associated with this infection than others. These include clindamycin, cephalosporins, fluoroquinolones, and broad-spectrum penicillins.
If a patient does develop C. difficile infection, there are treatments available. Metronidazole and vancomycin are commonly used to treat this infection. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of the risks associated with antibiotics and to use them judiciously to prevent the development of C. difficile infection. By doing so, patients can receive the necessary treatment without experiencing unnecessary complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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One option that is typically not acknowledged as a disorder related to cannabis use is:
Your Answer: Psychosis
Correct Answer: Obsessive-compulsive disorder
Explanation:Cannabis-Related Disorders Recognized by DSM-5
The DSM-5 acknowledges various cannabis-related disorders, including anxiety, delirium, psychosis, and sleep disorder. To qualify as a cannabis-induced disorder, there must be a clear temporal connection to cannabis use, and the disturbance cannot be attributed to a non-substance-induced disorder. Interestingly, some research suggests that non-psychoactive cannabis may have therapeutic benefits for individuals with obsessive-compulsive disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Emma is a 28-year-old woman who comes to see you for a follow-up visit. You initially saw her 2 months ago for low mood and referred her for counselling. She states she is still feeling low and her feelings of anxiety are worsening. She is keen to try medication to help.
Emma has a 5-month-old baby and is breastfeeding.
Which of the following is the most appropriate medication for Emma to commence?Your Answer: Venlafaxine
Correct Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Breastfeeding women can safely take SSRIs such as sertraline or paroxetine as the amount of antidepressant passed on to the infant through breast milk is very low and not considered harmful. Therefore, it is recommended that women with postnatal depression continue to breastfeed while receiving antidepressant treatment.
Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems
Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of over 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, and the questionnaire includes a question about self-harm. The sensitivity and specificity of this screening tool are over 90%.
‘Baby-blues’ are seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occur 3-7 days following birth. This condition is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features of postnatal depression are similar to depression seen in other circumstances.
Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth. The features of this condition include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). Reassurance and support are important for all these conditions, but admission to hospital is usually required for puerperal psychosis, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial, and certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. While these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant. However, fluoxetine is best avoided due to its long half-life. There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 29
Correct
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A 45-year-old teacher visits her General Practitioner (GP) for the first time seeking help for her alcohol dependence. She explains that she has been using alcohol to cope with work stress and has gradually increased her daily drinking to 15-20 units. She has no significant medical history other than her alcohol use. She has a normal body mass index and reports a balanced diet. After assessing her, the GP refers her to specialist services. What would be the most appropriate management plan for thiamine use in a community-based assisted alcohol withdrawal programme?
Your Answer: Offer an oral preparation of thiamine to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy
Explanation:Thiamine Replacement for Wernicke’s Encephalopathy in Alcoholics
Thiamine deficiency is common in alcoholics due to poor diet and reduced absorption. Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a neuropsychiatric complication caused by thiamine deficiency and occurs frequently in chronic alcohol dependence. Oral thiamine can be given at a maximum dose of 300 mg/day for healthy, well-nourished individuals. However, parenteral high-potency B complex vitamins should be considered for all other patients undergoing withdrawal despite the risk of anaphylaxis. Thiamine doesn’t prevent delirium tremens, and admission is required for inpatient detoxification if the patient presents acutely with evidence of this. Thiamine replacement is futile for Korsakoff syndrome, which is characterized by severe short-term memory loss and associated functional impairment. An ongoing prescription of lower doses of thiamine is suggested if there is concern about chronic deficiency after initial replacement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman, who recently gave birth, visits her GP for a routine check-up. She expresses her worries about the medications she is taking for her different health conditions and their potential impact on her breastfeeding baby. Which medications are safe for her to continue taking?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lamotrigine
Explanation:Breastfeeding is generally safe with most anti-epileptic drugs, including the commonly prescribed Lamotrigine. This drug is often preferred for women as it doesn’t affect their ability to bear children. However, Carbimazole and Diazepam’s active metabolite can be passed on to the baby through breast milk and should be avoided. Isotretinoin’s effect on breastfed infants is not well studied, but oral retinoids should generally be avoided while breastfeeding.
Pregnancy and breastfeeding can be a concern for women with epilepsy. It is generally recommended that women continue taking their medication during pregnancy, as the risks of uncontrolled seizures outweigh the potential risks to the fetus. However, it is important to aim for monotherapy and to take folic acid before pregnancy to reduce the risk of neural tube defects. The use of antiepileptic medication during pregnancy can increase the risk of congenital defects, with sodium valproate being associated with neural tube defects, carbamazepine being considered the least teratogenic of the older antiepileptics, and phenytoin being associated with cleft palate. Lamotrigine may be a safer option, but the dose may need to be adjusted during pregnancy. Breastfeeding is generally safe for mothers taking antiepileptics, except for barbiturates. Women taking phenytoin should be given vitamin K in the last month of pregnancy to prevent clotting disorders in the newborn. It is important to seek specialist neurological or psychiatric advice before starting or continuing antiepileptic medication during pregnancy or in women of childbearing age. Recent evidence has shown a significant risk of neurodevelopmental delay in children following maternal use of sodium valproate, leading to recommendations that it should not be used during pregnancy or in women of childbearing age unless absolutely necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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