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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old boy attends his General Practice Surgery for his annual learning disability health check with his father. He reports feeling low in mood for several weeks, along with a poor appetite and sleep. He admits to occasionally self-harming but currently denies any suicidal thoughts, plans or intent.
Which of the following management steps would be most appropriate in primary care?Your Answer: Start citalopram
Correct Answer: Refer to local learning disability team
Explanation:Appropriate Management of Depression in People with Learning Disabilities
When a person with a learning disability is suspected of having a mental health condition, it is recommended that they are assessed by a Mental Health Practitioner (MHP) with expertise in learning disability. This assessment can be arranged through the local learning disability team or, in some cases, the Child and Adolescent Mental Health Service.
If a person with a learning disability is displaying signs of depression, it is important to arrange follow-up in primary care and refer them to an MHP with expertise in managing learning disability. While counselling is not recommended for the treatment of mental health conditions in people with a learning disability, adapted cognitive behavioural therapy, relaxation therapy, graded exposure therapy, or parent training may be effective treatments.
It is not appropriate for GPs to prescribe psychotropic medication for patients with a learning disability, and prescribing such drugs in children is discouraged in primary care. Tricyclic antidepressants, such as imipramine, are not commonly used as first-line treatment for depression, especially in children, due to the potential for a fatal overdose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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Question 2
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus. She tells you she is going to attend a carbohydrate counting course. She asks you what that involves.
Select from this list the single correct statement about carbohydrate counting.Your Answer: It is suitable for those who inject insulin with each meal
Explanation:Carbohydrate Counting for Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus Management
Carbohydrate counting is a recommended method for managing blood glucose levels in adults with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus. It involves counting the grams of carbohydrates in a meal and matching it with an individual’s insulin-to-carbohydrate ratio to determine the necessary insulin dose. This method is particularly useful for those who inject insulin with each meal or use an insulin pump. While foods with a low glycaemic index can help manage glucose levels in Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus, there is less evidence for Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus. Carbohydrate counting doesn’t mean total freedom to eat whatever one wishes, as food excesses are unhealthy for anyone. However, most ready meals indicate the amount of carbohydrate on the food label, making carbohydrate counting easier. It is important for adult patients with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus to receive advice on issues beyond blood glucose control, such as weight control and cardiovascular risk management, and to increase the amount of fiber in their diet.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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You speak with a 27-year-old care assistant who works in the local residential care home. She has a sore throat, fever and rash. She requests antibiotics as she is eager to get back to work for her night shifts in 2 days. Her 4-year-old son recently had a course of antibiotics following a similar presentation.
On examination, she has a fine rough feeling rash on her torso and her tongue appears red and swollen. Her observations are normal.
Given the likely diagnosis, what advice from the options below would be most appropriate to give?Your Answer: Ask her to inform work and the Local Health Protection Agency (HPA) and discuss with them when to return
Correct Answer: Advise her that you need to contact the Local Health Protection Agency (HPA) and she should not go into work. If she doesn't consent, confirm that you will still need to inform the HPA
Explanation:Kindly request that she notifies her workplace and the Local Health Protection Agency (HPA) and arranges a discussion with them regarding her return date.
Sharing patient information is crucial for providing safe and effective care, especially in multi-disciplinary teams. However, it is important to ensure that information is shared in a legal and ethical manner while facilitating access to those who require it. Inappropriate sharing of information can have significant consequences for the clinician-patient relationship and the wider profession. Patients generally expect some information to be shared with those involved in their care, but if they object, the information should not be disclosed unless it is justified for the public interest or the patient lacks capacity. It is important to explain the potential consequences of not sharing personal information and reach a compromise where possible.
When sharing information, it is essential to access it to support the patient’s direct care or be satisfied that it is being shared for that purpose. Patients should be informed about how their personal information will be used, and they have the right to object. It is also crucial to ensure that anyone who receives the information understands that it is given in confidence. When sharing information with friends or relatives, it is necessary to establish the patient’s wishes and gain explicit consent. In cases where the patient lacks capacity, it is essential to consider various factors, such as the patient’s beliefs and values, before disclosing information.
Disclosing information without the patient’s express consent is generally not allowed, except when required by law or justified in the public interest. In exceptional circumstances, such as gunshot wounds and knife injuries, the police should be informed, but personal information should not be disclosed initially. It is crucial to follow the relevant guidelines to avoid inappropriate information sharing and maintain transparency between the doctor and patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 4
Correct
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A 54-year-old ex-smoker comes to the clinic complaining of worsening shortness of breath when exerting himself and lying flat at night. He reports no weight loss or coughing up blood and feels generally healthy. His medical records indicate that he had a normal chest X-ray three months ago and had a heart attack three years ago. During the examination, the doctor detects mild crepitations in both lung bases. What should be the next step in managing this patient's condition?
Your Answer: Check natriuretic peptide levels
Explanation:According to the updated NICE guidelines in 2018, all individuals who are suspected to have chronic heart failure should undergo an NT-proBNP test as the initial diagnostic test, irrespective of their history of myocardial infarction.
Diagnosis of Chronic Heart Failure
Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. In 2018, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the diagnosis and management of chronic heart failure. According to the new guidelines, all patients should undergo an N-terminal pro-B-type natriuretic peptide (NT‑proBNP) blood test as the first-line investigation, regardless of whether they have previously had a myocardial infarction or not.
Interpreting the NT-proBNP test is crucial in determining the severity of the condition. If the levels are high, specialist assessment, including transthoracic echocardiography, should be arranged within two weeks. If the levels are raised, specialist assessment, including echocardiogram, should be arranged within six weeks.
BNP is a hormone produced mainly by the left ventricular myocardium in response to strain. Very high levels of BNP are associated with a poor prognosis. The table above shows the different levels of BNP and NTproBNP and their corresponding interpretations.
It is important to note that certain factors can alter the BNP level. For instance, left ventricular hypertrophy, ischaemia, tachycardia, and right ventricular overload can increase BNP levels, while diuretics, ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, angiotensin 2 receptor blockers, and aldosterone antagonists can decrease BNP levels. Therefore, it is crucial to consider these factors when interpreting the NT-proBNP test.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 5
Correct
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You see a 45-year-old gentleman that presents with a 3-week history of neck pain. He reports occasional shooting pains in his right arm. The symptoms have been improving since they first started. He reports no weight loss, gait disturbance, clumsiness, loss of sexual, bladder or bowel function. On examination, no neurological signs are noted.
According to NICE, what would be the next appropriate step in his management?Your Answer: Reassurance, encourage activity, analgesia
Explanation:Management of Cervical Radiculopathy
Cervical radiculopathy is a condition that affects the nerves in the neck, causing pain, weakness, and numbness in the arms. For patients with this condition that has been present for less than 4-6 weeks and no objective neurological signs present, NICE advises conservative management. This includes reassurance, encouragement of activity, and analgesia. The long-term prognosis for patients with radiculopathy is good, and most cases improve without surgery.
However, clinicians should be aware of red flags that warrant an urgent referral. These include patients who are younger than 20 years or older than 55 years, severe or increasing pain, weakness involving more than one myotome, signs and symptoms suggestive of compression of the spinal cord, signs and symptoms suggestive of cancer, infection or inflammation, and signs and symptoms suggestive of severe trauma or skeletal injury. It is important to identify these red flags to ensure prompt and appropriate management of cervical radiculopathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 5-year old healthy girl is brought to the General Practice Surgery by her parents who are concerned about some darker skin patches they have noticed on her legs, arms and back. They think they have been present since she was a small baby but seem to be more noticeable over the last few months. They have counted six in total.
On examination, you observe several hyperpigmented macules with a sharp border and variable diameter on the limbs, abdomen and lower back. You believe these to be café au lait spots. She also has some freckly pigmentation under both arms.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Childhood lentigines
Correct Answer: Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1)
Explanation:Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1) is a genetic disorder that causes lesions in the skin, nervous system, and skeleton. It is usually diagnosed in children under the age of eight, with 80% of cases being identified by age six. The condition is characterized by the presence of café au lait spots, which are hyperpigmented macules with a sharp border and a diameter of over 0.5 cm in children or 1.5 cm in adults. To be diagnosed with NF1, a patient must have at least two of the following seven presentations: six or more café au lait macules, two or more cutaneous/subcutaneous neurofibromas or one plexiform neurofibroma, axillary or groin freckling, optic pathway glioma, two or more Lisch nodules, bony dysplasia, or a first-degree relative with NF1. Other skin conditions, such as acanthosis nigricans, childhood lentigines, Sturge-Weber syndrome, and tuberous sclerosis, have different symptoms and are not associated with café au lait spots.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 6-month-old baby girl is brought to the General Practice Surgery by her father, who is concerned as she has trouble sleeping. Her weight, length, and head circumference are all below the 5th centile. She has a flat nasal bridge, microcephaly, and retrognathia.
What additional feature would support the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Sensorineural deafness
Correct Answer: Speech and language delay
Explanation:The presence of speech and language delay, along with growth failure and craniofacial abnormalities, is indicative of fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS). FAS is caused by alcohol consumption during pregnancy and can also result in low IQ, hyperactivity, feeding difficulties, and problems with memory, coordination, problem-solving, and judgement. However, not all heavy drinking during pregnancy leads to FAS, as other factors such as the mother’s health, age, stress levels, and nutritional status may also play a role. Recurrent regurgitation after feeding is a common symptom of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GORD), which can cause feeding difficulties and failure to thrive, but is not associated with the physical abnormalities seen in FAS. Preterm delivery and small for gestational age babies with microcephaly are typical of infants born to mothers who use cocaine during pregnancy, but this is less common than FAS. Rocker bottom feet are a distinguishing feature of Edward’s syndrome (Trisomy 18), which also presents with low birth weight, micrognathia, microphthalmia, microstomia, low set ears, cleft palate, a short sternum, and thumb aplasia, but not with a flat philtrum or posteriorly rotated ears. Sensorineural deafness is associated with congenital rubella infection, which is the most common cause of congenital deafness in the developed world. Congenital rubella infection can also cause intrauterine growth restriction, microcephaly, microphthalmia, jaundice, learning disability, congenital heart disease, congenital cataracts, and congenital glaucoma, but is not associated with a flat philtrum, retrognathia, or posterior rotation of the ears.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 8
Correct
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An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of occasional palpitations without any accompanying chest pain, shortness of breath, or lightheadedness. He has no notable medical history and is not taking any medications at present. Physical examination and vital signs are normal except for an irregular heartbeat, which is later diagnosed as atrial fibrillation. What is the suggested preventive therapy for a stroke?
Your Answer: Consider an anticoagulant
Explanation:Anticoagulation must be taken into account for individuals with a CHA2DS2-VASC score of 1 or higher if they are male, and a score of 2 or higher if they are female. In this case, the gentleman’s CHA2DS2-VASC score is 1, indicating that he should be considered for anticoagulation after assessing his HAS-BLED score. It is important to note that if his HAS-BLED score is 3 or higher, alternative options to anticoagulation should be considered. Beta-blockers, aspirin, and clopidogrel are not recommended for primary prevention against cerebrovascular accidents. It is incorrect to assume that no treatment is necessary, as the CHA2DS2-VASC score indicates a need for consideration of anticoagulation.
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management, including the use of anticoagulation therapy. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend assessing the need for anticoagulation in all patients with a history of AF, regardless of whether they are currently experiencing symptoms. The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy, with a score of 2 or more indicating the need for anticoagulation. However, it is important to ensure a transthoracic echocardiogram has been done to exclude valvular heart disease, which is an absolute indication for anticoagulation.
When considering anticoagulation therapy, doctors must also assess the patient’s bleeding risk. NICE recommends using the ORBIT scoring system to formalize this risk assessment, taking into account factors such as haemoglobin levels, age, bleeding history, renal impairment, and treatment with antiplatelet agents. While there are no formal rules on how to act on the ORBIT score, individual patient factors should be considered. The risk of bleeding increases with a higher ORBIT score, with a score of 4-7 indicating a high risk of bleeding.
For many years, warfarin was the anticoagulant of choice for AF. However, the development of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) has changed this. DOACs have the advantage of not requiring regular blood tests to check the INR and are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF. The recommended DOACs for reducing stroke risk in AF are apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban. Warfarin is now used second-line, in patients where a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 9
Incorrect
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You encounter a 70-year-old man who is experiencing an issue with his penis. He has been unable to retract his foreskin for a few years now, and the tip of his penis is quite sore. He also reports a foul odor. Apart from this, he is in good health. He believes that this problem developed gradually over several years.
During the examination, you observe that the man is not circumcised, and there is a tight white ring around the tip of his foreskin. The glans penis is barely visible through the end of the foreskin, and it appears to be inflamed.
What is the specific condition responsible for causing this man's balanitis?Your Answer: Circinate balanitis
Correct Answer: Lichen sclerosis
Explanation:Understanding Lichen Sclerosus
Lichen sclerosus, previously known as lichen sclerosus et atrophicus, is an inflammatory condition that commonly affects the genitalia, particularly in elderly females. It is characterized by the formation of white plaques that lead to atrophy of the epidermis. The condition can cause discomfort, with itch being a prominent symptom. Pain during intercourse or urination may also occur.
Diagnosis of lichen sclerosus is usually based on clinical examination, although a biopsy may be necessary if atypical features are present. Treatment typically involves the use of topical steroids and emollients. However, patients with lichen sclerosus are at an increased risk of developing vulval cancer, so regular follow-up is recommended.
According to the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists, skin biopsy is not necessary for diagnosis unless the woman fails to respond to treatment or there is clinical suspicion of cancer. The British Association of Dermatologists also advises that biopsy is not always essential when the clinical features are typical, but it is advisable if there are atypical features or diagnostic uncertainty. Biopsy is mandatory if there is any suspicion of neoplastic change. Patients under routine follow-up will need a biopsy if there is a suspicion of neoplastic change, if the disease fails to respond to treatment, if there is extragenital LS, if there are pigmented areas, or if second-line therapy is to be used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a flare-up of symptoms, including diarrhoea which is occasionally bloody, up to four times a day. He has diffuse ulcerative colitis and has been in remission; he takes 1.5 g of mesalazine a day.
On examination, his blood pressure is 115/72 mmHg, while his pulse is 75 bpm. Abdominal examination is normal.
What is the most appropriate intervention for this patient?
Your Answer: Mesalazine suppositories
Correct Answer: Prednisolone tablets
Explanation:Treatment Options for Moderate Exacerbation of Ulcerative Colitis
When a patient experiences a moderate exacerbation of ulcerative colitis, there are several treatment options available. The most appropriate choice is a dose of 20-40 mg of oral prednisolone per day, which should be continued until the patient enters remission. If there is an inadequate response after 2-4 weeks, ciclosporin tablets can be added to the regimen to induce remission. However, these should only be prescribed by specialists in secondary care. Anti-motility drugs such as co-phenotrope should not be used as they may precipitate paralytic ileus and megacolon in active ulcerative colitis. Topical mesalazine is only effective for distal disease, so it is not appropriate for patients with diffuse disease. Topical corticosteroids in the form of prednisolone retention enemas can be used to induce remission in patients with proctitis, but for diffuse disease, oral corticosteroids are more effective.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A new elderly patient in the practice has been diagnosed with presbycusis. The patient has no history of hearing loss and no family members with hearing impairments. What is the most likely cause?
Your Answer: A syndrome
Correct Answer: An autosomal-recessive-inherited disorder
Explanation:Understanding the Causes of Congenital Sensorineural Hearing Loss
Congenital sensorineural hearing loss is a type of hearing loss that is present at birth. It can be caused by a variety of factors, including hereditary factors, infections during pregnancy, and complications during birth. In the United Kingdom, hereditary hearing loss accounts for 1-2 per 1000 babies, with around 80% of genetic hearing loss being non-syndromic and not associated with prenatal or perinatal factors.
There are several possible causes of congenital sensorineural hearing loss, including autosomal-recessive-inherited disorders, syndromes, autosomal-dominant-inherited disorders, cytomegalovirus infection, and secretory otitis media.
It is important to understand the different causes of congenital sensorineural hearing loss in order to properly diagnose and treat the condition. In some cases, genetic testing may be necessary to determine the underlying cause of the hearing loss. Additionally, early intervention and treatment can greatly improve outcomes for children with congenital sensorineural hearing loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 12
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman complains that her right ring finger regularly becomes locked after it has been flexed. It is difficult to straighten out without pulling on it with the other hand and sometimes a click is heard when it straightens.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Trigger finger
Explanation:Understanding Trigger Finger
Trigger finger, also known as stenosing tenosynovitis, is a condition where the tendon to the finger cannot easily slide back into the tendon sheath due to swelling. This causes the finger to remain fixed in flexion unless it is pulled straight. The name trigger finger comes from the sudden release of the finger when it unlocks, similar to releasing a trigger on a gun. A small tender nodule may be felt in the tendon in the palm at the base of the affected finger, impeding the return of the tendon to its sheath. While trauma can cause trigger finger, often there is no obvious cause. Some patients improve spontaneously, while others require corticosteroid injections or tendon release surgery. It is important to differentiate trigger finger from other conditions such as cramp, Dupuytren’s contracture, osteoarthritis of the proximal interphalangeal joint, and tetany.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 13
Incorrect
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At what point in the NHS vaccination schedule would you provide routine immunisation for Hepatitis B?
Your Answer: At 8, 12 and 16 weeks
Correct Answer: At 15 months of age
Explanation:The Importance of Understanding Immunisation Schedules
Immunisation schedules are crucial to understand, especially with recent changes to UK guidance in January 2020. One significant change relates to the timing of pneumococcal immunisation. Additionally, hepatitis B vaccination is routinely available as part of the NHS vaccination schedule. It is offered to all babies at 8, 12, and 16 weeks of age, as well as those at increased risk of hepatitis B or its complications.
It is essential to memorise the latest schedule, as it may feature in your exam. We have included a reference to a summary guide below for your convenience. Understanding immunisation schedules is crucial for healthcare professionals to ensure that patients receive the appropriate vaccinations at the correct time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 14
Correct
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A 55-year-old smoker presents with a persistent hoarse voice for the past three to four weeks. He saw a colleague two weeks ago who found nothing focal on examination and advised him to seek review if his hoarseness did not settle after a further week. He has no significant past medical history, is not on any regular medication, and has no known drug allergies. He denies any cough, haemoptysis, swallowing problems, weight loss, or any systemic unwellness. Clinical examination reveals no anaemia, clubbing, lymphadenopathy or neck masses. His chest sounds clear, and an urgent chest x-ray is reported as 'normal'. What is the most appropriate next step in this patient's management?
Your Answer: Refer urgently to an ear, nose and throat specialist
Explanation:Recognizing and Referring Suspected Cancer: The Case of a Persisting Hoarse Voice
The NICE guidelines on recognizing and referring suspected cancer do not provide a specific time period for what constitutes persistent symptoms. However, most references suggest that further action should be taken if hoarseness persists for three or more weeks. This could indicate a laryngeal cancer or a lung tumor that has infiltrated the recurrent laryngeal nerve. In such cases, an urgent chest x-ray may help direct referral.
If the chest x-ray is normal, urgent referral to an ENT (or head and neck) specialist is needed to investigate the persisting hoarse voice. However, if the chest x-ray is abnormal and suggestive of lung malignancy, urgent referral to a lung cancer specialist is warranted.
In summary, recognizing and referring suspected cancer is crucial in cases of persisting hoarseness. While the NICE guidelines do not provide a specific time period for what constitutes persistent symptoms, most references suggest that three or more weeks of hoarseness warrants further action. A normal chest x-ray requires urgent referral to an ENT (or head and neck) specialist, while an abnormal chest x-ray warrants urgent referral to a lung cancer specialist.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 15
Correct
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A colleague in your Practice collects data about the care of all patients at the practice who received palliative care over the past six months, anonymises it, collates it, and compares it to local guidelines.
He presents the findings to the rest of the team and actions to improve care are identified.
This is an example of which of the following processes?Your Answer: Clinical audit
Explanation:Clinical audit aims to enhance patient care and results by conducting a methodical evaluation of care against specific standards and implementing modifications accordingly. This involves comparing practice with guidelines to evaluate the quality of care and pinpointing areas that require improvement. To ensure that care has improved, the audit process should be repeated after implementing any changes.
Understanding Clinical Audit
Clinical audit is a process that aims to improve the quality of patient care and outcomes by systematically reviewing care against specific criteria and implementing changes. It is a quality improvement process that involves the collection and analysis of data to identify areas where improvements can be made. The process involves reviewing current practices, identifying areas for improvement, and implementing changes to improve patient care and outcomes.
Clinical audit is an essential tool for healthcare professionals to ensure that they are providing the best possible care to their patients. It helps to identify areas where improvements can be made and provides a framework for implementing changes. The process involves a team of healthcare professionals working together to review current practices and identify areas for improvement. Once areas for improvement have been identified, changes can be implemented to improve patient care and outcomes.
In summary, clinical audit is a quality improvement process that seeks to improve patient care and outcomes through systematic review of care against explicit criteria and the implementation of change. It is an essential tool for healthcare professionals to ensure that they are providing the best possible care to their patients. By identifying areas for improvement and implementing changes, clinical audit helps to improve patient care and outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 16
Correct
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You encounter a 26-year-old female patient who requests a Chlamydia test. She has no symptoms but has entered into a new relationship. You suggest that she visit the sexual health clinic for a comprehensive screening, but you agree to perform a Chlamydia test today.
What is the preferred diagnostic test for detecting this organism?Your Answer: Nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT)
Explanation:When it comes to diagnosing Chlamydia, nucleic acid amplification tests (NAATs) are the preferred method. Chlamydia is a common sexually transmitted infection that can often go unnoticed, but if left untreated, it can lead to serious complications like infertility and pelvic inflammatory disease. NAATs are also used to diagnose Gonorrhoea. Women can use a self-swab, while men can provide a urine sample. To treat Chlamydia, doctors typically prescribe azithromycin or doxycycline. Charcoal swabs are used to diagnose other infections, such as Candida.
Chlamydia is the most common sexually transmitted infection in the UK caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is often asymptomatic but can cause cervicitis and dysuria in women and urethral discharge and dysuria in men. Complications include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility. Testing is done through nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) on urine or swab samples. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years. Doxycycline is the first-line treatment, but azithromycin may be used if contraindicated. Partners should be notified and treated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old male patient requests a house call because he has been feeling unwell. Upon arrival, he reports experiencing double vision and difficulty with balance.
During the physical examination, you observe nystagmus, significant ataxia, and slurred speech.
The patient mentions that he was recently prescribed a new medication by his hospital specialist, but he is unsure about the correct dosage.
What medication has he been prescribed?Your Answer: Donepezil
Correct Answer: Methotrexate
Explanation:Side-Effects of Phenytoin
Phenytoin is a medication used to treat seizures and epilepsy. However, it can have various undesirable side-effects, both in the long-term and with excessive dosage.
Acute phenytoin overdose can cause nystagmus, diplopia, slurred speech, ataxia, confusion, and hyperglycaemia. On the other hand, common side-effects not related to acute intoxication include tremors, paraesthesia, gingival hypertrophy, rashes, acne, hirsutism, and coarse facies.
In rare cases, serious haematological and neurological side-effects can occur with regular usage. Haematological side-effects include megaloblastic anaemia, aplastic anaemia, thrombocytopaenia, and agranulocytosis. Meanwhile, neurological side-effects include peripheral neuropathy and dyskinaesias.
It is important to monitor the dosage and usage of phenytoin to avoid these side-effects and ensure the patient’s safety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl comes to see you with her father. She is known to have a mild learning disability but he is now more concerned about her behaviour.
She tends to speak very little and when she does it is in a monotonic way. She doesn't seem to understand jokes. She spends a lot of time alone and rarely seeks out the company of others. He says he finds it difficult to engage her in play; she just wants to play alone with her dolls.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Autism
Correct Answer: Down syndrome
Explanation:Understanding Autism Spectrum Disorder
Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) is a condition that is often accompanied by a learning disability. Children with ASD typically experience difficulties with social communication, interaction, and imagination. These challenges can manifest in a variety of ways, such as difficulty making eye contact, trouble understanding social cues, and a lack of interest in imaginative play.
Despite the challenges that come with ASD, there have been significant advances in diagnosis and evaluation in recent years. With early intervention and support, children with ASD can learn to navigate the world around them and lead fulfilling lives. It is important for parents, caregivers, and educators to understand the unique needs of children with ASD and provide them with the resources and support they need to thrive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 19
Correct
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You are visited by a 35-year-old man who is concerned about the number of moles on his body. He mentions that his cousin was recently diagnosed with melanoma and he is worried about his own risk.
Upon examination, you note that he has around 70 pigmented naevi, each measuring over 2 mm in diameter.
What factor would increase this patient's risk of developing melanoma the most?Your Answer: Having between 51 and 100 common moles greater than 2 mm in size
Explanation:Risk Factors for Melanoma
When assessing a pigmented skin lesion, it is important to consider the risk factors for melanoma. While skin that doesn’t tan easily is a risk factor, having between 51 and 100 common moles greater than 2 mm in size confers the greatest risk. Other established risk factors include a family history of melanoma in a first degree relative, light-colored eyes, and unusually high sun exposure.
It is important to have knowledge of the extent of risk associated with these factors, as this can help identify high-risk patients and provide appropriate advice. Patients who are at moderately increased risk of melanoma should be taught how to self-examine, including those with atypical mole phenotype, previous melanoma, organ transplant recipients, and giant congenital pigmented nevi.
In conclusion, understanding the risk factors for melanoma is crucial in identifying high-risk patients and providing appropriate advice and follow-up care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman is diagnosed with locally invasive pancreatic cancer. She has decided she doesn't want any oncological input. She lives with her husband of 50 years. She is clear she would like to be cared for at home as much possible. She comes alone to the appointment. She wants to discuss her care plans; in particular, she would like more information about a Lasting Power of Attorney (LPA) for Health and Welfare.
What is the most appropriate advice you can provide this patient?Your Answer: The appointed attorney must be someone from the donors family
Correct Answer: The appointed attorney cannot always make decision about the donor
Explanation:Understanding Lasting Power of Attorney for Health and Welfare
Lasting Power of Attorney (LPA) for Health and Welfare is a legal document that allows a person to appoint one or more attorneys to make decisions on their behalf when they are unable to do so themselves. This LPA can only be invoked when the donor loses mental capacity, which may occur if they have a living will or have been sectioned.
It is important to note that the LPA for Health and Welfare doesn’t give the attorney the right to make decisions about pensions and benefits. For such decisions, a separate LPA for Property and Financial Affairs must be considered.
Once registered, the appointed attorney can make decisions about the donor’s health and care. It is not necessary for the appointed attorney to be a family member; they can be a friend, relative, or even a professional such as a solicitor.
It is also important to renew the LPA every 12 months. The LPA will endure unless revoked by the donor while they still have mental capacity, revoked by the attorney, the donor loses mental capacity, they divorce or end a civil partnership, or they pass away.
In summary, understanding the LPA for Health and Welfare is crucial for ensuring that a person’s wishes are respected and their best interests are protected when they are unable to make decisions for themselves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 21
Correct
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A 75-year-old woman presents with fatigue over the past two weeks. Upon examination, there are no notable findings. She has a medical history of polymyalgia rheumatica and ischemic heart disease. After conducting screening blood tests, the full blood count results are as follows:
- Hemoglobin (Hb): 129 g/l
- Platelets (Plt): 158 * 109/l
- White blood cells (WBC): 19.0 * 109/l
- Neutrophils (Neuts): 4.2 * 109/l
- Lymphocytes (Lymphs): 14.1 * 109/l
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
Explanation:It is highly probable that chronic lymphocytic leukemia is the cause of lymphocytosis in an elderly patient. Neutrophilia is typically caused by steroids. An elderly person experiencing a significant lymphocytosis due to a viral illness would be uncommon.
Understanding Chronic Lymphocytic Leukaemia: Symptoms and Diagnosis
Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. It is caused by the abnormal growth of B-cells, a type of white blood cell. CLL is the most common form of leukaemia in adults and is often asymptomatic, meaning it may be discovered incidentally during routine blood tests. However, some patients may experience symptoms such as weight loss, anorexia, bleeding, infections, and lymphadenopathy.
To diagnose CLL, doctors typically perform a full blood count to check for lymphocytosis, a condition where there is an abnormally high number of lymphocytes in the blood. Patients may also have anaemia or thrombocytopenia, which can occur due to bone marrow replacement or autoimmune hemolytic anaemia. A blood film may also be taken to look for smudge cells, which are abnormal lymphocytes that appear broken or fragmented.
The key investigation for CLL diagnosis is immunophenotyping, which involves using a panel of antibodies specific for CD5, CD19, CD20, and CD23. This test helps to identify the type of lymphocyte involved in the cancer and can confirm the diagnosis of CLL. With early detection and proper treatment, patients with CLL can manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman presents with sudden onset erythema of the face. Both cheeks are affected as is the bridge of the nose. The erythema began in the paranasal areas and has spread to both cheeks rapidly. The affected area is bright red, firm, swollen and painful. The edge of the erythema is sharply defined and raised. She has been feeling hot and has been shivering. No other symptoms are reported.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
Correct Answer: Erysipelas
Explanation:Understanding Erysipelas
Erysipelas is a condition that is typically diagnosed based on clinical symptoms. It usually comes on suddenly and is accompanied by systemic symptoms such as fever. The condition is commonly found on the lower limbs or the face, with facial involvement often manifesting as a butterfly distribution on the cheeks and nasal bridge. The affected skin is characterized by a sharp, well-defined raised border and is bright red, firm, and swollen. In severe cases, dimpling, blistering, and necrosis can occur. While cellulitis shares some clinical features with erysipelas, it doesn’t demonstrate the same clear swelling. Erysipelas is predominantly caused by Group A beta-hemolytic streptococci.
Other conditions that can cause skin flushing and redness include carcinoid syndrome, mitral stenosis, rosacea, and systemic lupus erythematosus. Carcinoid syndrome is associated with neuroendocrine tumors that produce hormones, while mitral stenosis can cause a malar flush across the cheeks. Rosacea is a skin condition that affects the face and causes redness and blushing, while systemic lupus erythematosus is an autoimmune condition that can have multi-organ involvement and is characterized by a photosensitive malar butterfly rash.
Overall, the sudden onset and associated fever make erysipelas the most likely diagnosis based on the information provided.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl has a history of fever and worsening eczema on her face over the past 2 days. The child appears unwell and has clustered blisters and punched-out erosions covering her chin and left cheek.
Select from the list the single most appropriate initial management.Your Answer: Hydrocortisone cream 1%
Correct Answer: Emergency admission to hospital
Explanation:This young boy is suffering from eczema herpeticum, which is a herpes simplex infection that has developed on top of his atopic eczema. If someone with eczema experiences rapidly worsening, painful eczema, along with possible fever, lethargy, or distress, and clustered blisters that resemble early cold sores, they may have contracted herpes simplex virus. Additionally, punched-out erosions that are uniform in appearance and may coalesce could also be present. If eczema that has become infected fails to respond to antibiotic and corticosteroid treatment, patients should be admitted to the hospital for intravenous aciclovir and same-day dermatological review. For less severely affected individuals, oral aciclovir and frequent review may be an option. This information is based on guidance from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 42-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with complaints of pain and tightness in his head, affecting the frontal and occipital regions and radiating to his neck. The symptoms have been present for four months and occur most days, usually soon after he wakes up in the morning. He is able to work despite the headaches, but they tend to resolve with paracetamol, which he tries to avoid taking most days. He works in a high-pressure environment where there have been recent layoffs. On examination, there are no concerning findings, and he denies feeling depressed.
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Amitriptyline
Explanation:Treatment and Management of Chronic Tension-Type Headaches
Chronic tension-type headaches (TTH) are a common condition that can significantly impact a patient’s quality of life. The following is a guide to the treatment and management of chronic TTH.
Diagnosis and Explanation
Patients with chronic TTH should receive a positive diagnosis and explanation of their condition. It is important to reassure patients that TTH is self-limiting and not a serious condition.Pharmacological Treatment
Amitriptyline is the treatment of choice for prophylaxis of chronic TTH. A starting dose of 10-15 mg at night can be increased to 150 mg, but usually, no more than 20-30 mg is needed. If higher doses are required, this may indicate an alternative diagnosis, such as depression. The dose can be reduced once improvement is maintained for four to six months or held if headaches recur.Non-Pharmacological Approaches
Non-pharmacological approaches to TTH often incorporate relaxation and physical and psychological therapies.Neuroimaging
Neuroimaging should only be considered to rule out a serious underlying cause if there is a history of new, severe headache that is progressive and associated with neurological abnormalities on examination. Atypical aura, visual disturbance, and vomiting may also be seen.Medication Overuse Headache
Codeine should be avoided in patients with chronic TTH as there is a risk of developing medication-overuse headache, given the frequency of headaches seen in this case.Migraine Prophylaxis
Propanolol is used as prophylaxis for recurrent migraine. However, this medication is not suitable for patients with chronic TTH as their headaches do not fit the diagnosis of migraine.Mental Health Referral
Patients with chronic TTH may benefit from stress management techniques, but referral to the local mental health team is not necessary unless the patient exhibits symptoms of depression. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old woman comes to see her GP after a year. Her husband is currently receiving treatment for bladder cancer. She expresses feeling very distressed about his condition and treatment. They live together in a house which they own. Since her husband's illness, they have not had a regular income and she is unable to seek employment as she needs to care for her husband and take him to appointments. They have no children. She is distressed and confides in you that she 'did not know where else to turn'.
What is the most appropriate initial course of action for this patient? Choose ONE option only.Your Answer: Start her on night sedatives
Correct Answer: Offer ongoing GP support and follow-up
Explanation:Appropriate Management for a Patient Dealing with a Major Life Event
When a patient approaches their GP seeking advice and support for a major life event, it is important to provide appropriate management. Starting the patient on night sedatives or an SSRI antidepressant without an assessment for insomnia or depression would not be appropriate at this stage. Referring the patient to a Macmillan Cancer Care Nurse or community mental health services may be required in addition to providing ongoing GP support, but it would not be the initial next step. The initial management should focus on exploring the patient’s needs and offering ongoing GP support and follow-up, upon which later care strategies can be constructed. The GP is uniquely placed to provide medical and supportive care to the patient and possibly their wider family.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 26
Correct
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You are studying the measurement of a new biomarker for cognitive decline in elderly patients, and how it might be applied to geriatric medicine. You assume that the data for this particular biomarker are likely to be normally distributed.
When considering the normal distribution, which of the following is true?Your Answer: The mean, median and mode are the same value
Explanation:Understanding Normal Distribution and Parametric Tests
The normal distribution is a bell-shaped curve that is symmetrical on both sides. Its mean, median, and mode are equal, making it a useful tool for analyzing data. For instance, the probability that a normally distributed random variable x, with mean sigma, and standard deviation µ, lies between (sigma – 1.96 µ) and (sigma + 1.96 µ) is 0.95, while the probability that it lies between (sigma – µ) and (sigma + µ) is 0.68. Additionally, 95% of the distribution of sample means lie within 1.96 standard deviations of the population mean.
Parametric tests are statistical tests that assume the data are normally distributed. However, data that are not normally distributed can still be subject to a parametric test, but they need to be transformed first. Understanding normal distribution and parametric tests is crucial for researchers and analysts who want to make accurate inferences from their data.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 10-week-old boy comes for his routine baby check. His parents are curious about what will be evaluated during the check-up.
What is the most probable abnormality that will be detected as a new finding during this stage (not previously identified at or shortly after birth)? Choose ONE option only.Your Answer: Developmental dysplasia of the hip
Correct Answer: Congenital heart disease
Explanation:The Importance of Routine Six-Week Baby Checks
Routine six-week baby checks are crucial in identifying potential health issues in newborns. While some conditions may be identified before or just after birth, others may not present symptoms until later in childhood. It is important to note that even a normal cardiac examination at six weeks doesn’t completely rule out congenital heart disease, as it may still manifest later on.
Congenital hypothyroidism is typically tested for soon after birth in the heel-prick Guthrie test, along with other conditions such as phenylketonuria and cystic fibrosis. Congenital cataracts are usually diagnosed at newborn examination by the identification of absence of the red reflex, and surgery should ideally be performed before two months of age to prevent irreversible amblyopia.
While a check for developmental dysplasia of the hip is usually carried out at or soon after birth, some late diagnoses still occur. Undescended testicles should also be detected at birth, with surgery indicated if they remain undescended at 12 months.
In summary, routine six-week baby checks are essential in identifying potential health issues in newborns, including congenital heart disease, congenital hypothyroidism, congenital cataracts, developmental dysplasia of the hip, and undescended testicles. It is important for parents and healthcare providers to remain vigilant in monitoring a child’s health and development.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 28
Incorrect
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The likelihood of a 34-year-old mother having a baby with Down's syndrome is roughly:
Your Answer: 1 in 1,000
Correct Answer: 1 in 275
Explanation:The risk of Down’s syndrome is 1 in 1,000 at the age of 30, and this risk decreases by a factor of 3 for every 5 years.
Down’s Syndrome: Epidemiology and Genetics
Down’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21. The risk of having a child with Down’s syndrome increases with maternal age, with a 1 in 1,500 chance at age 20 and a 1 in 50 or greater chance at age 45. This can be remembered by dividing the denominator by 3 for every extra 5 years of age starting at 1/1,000 at age 30.
There are three main types of Down’s syndrome: nondisjunction, Robertsonian translocation, and mosaicism. Nondisjunction accounts for 94% of cases and occurs when the chromosomes fail to separate properly during cell division. Robertsonian translocation, which usually involves chromosome 14, accounts for 5% of cases and occurs when a piece of chromosome 21 attaches to another chromosome. Mosaicism, which accounts for 1% of cases, occurs when there are two genetically different populations of cells in the body.
The risk of recurrence for Down’s syndrome varies depending on the type of genetic abnormality. If the trisomy 21 is a result of nondisjunction, the chance of having another child with Down’s syndrome is approximately 1 in 100 if the mother is less than 35 years old. If the trisomy 21 is a result of Robertsonian translocation, the risk is much higher, with a 10-15% chance if the mother is a carrier and a 2.5% chance if the father is a carrier.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A thirty-two-year-old lady presents for postpartum contraception review. She has a history of using combined hormonal contraceptives and wishes to continue with this method. She is currently 14 days postpartum.
What would be a contraindication to prescribing a combined hormonal contraceptive at this time?Your Answer: Her maternal grandmother suffered a pulmonary embolism aged 58
Correct Answer: She suffered with pre-eclampsia in the antenatal period
Explanation:Contraceptive Options for Postpartum Women
Postnatally, it is important for women to undergo a risk assessment for venous thromboembolism before considering their contraceptive options. Women with risk factors for venous thromboembolism within 6 weeks of childbirth, such as immobility, postpartum haemorrhage, and pre-eclampsia, should not use combined hormonal contraception. This applies to women who are breastfeeding and not breastfeeding, as the risk of venous thromboembolism is the same for both groups. However, the risk reduces quickly over the first three weeks postpartum, and the UKMEC advises that women who breastfeed should wait until six weeks postpartum before using combined hormonal contraception. Studies have shown that early initiation of combined hormonal contraception may have inconsistent effects on breastfeeding performance and conflicting data on infant outcomes, but overall, there is no negative impact on infant outcomes when initiated from six weeks postpartum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old patient comes in for her regular heart failure check-up. Upon reviewing her echocardiogram, it is found that she has a reduced ejection fraction of 40% and no significant valve disease. Her blood pressure is measured at 160/90 mmHg during the visit. There is no indication of fluid overload, and her weight has remained stable. The patient is currently taking bisoprolol and furosemide.
After reviewing her blood work, it is discovered that her potassium levels are slightly elevated at 5.3 mmol/L. What would be the most appropriate course of action for management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Seek specialist advice before starting an ACE inhibitor owing to the raised potassium
Explanation:Before initiating an ACE inhibitor in patients with heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction, it is recommended to seek specialist advice if the potassium level is above 5 mmol/L. The current NICE CKS guidance suggests starting bisoprolol and ramipril for such patients. However, if the potassium level is high, it is advisable to repeat the urea and electrolytes in 2-3 weeks and seek specialist advice before starting an ACE inhibitor. As the patient is asymptomatic, increasing the dose of furosemide would not be beneficial. There is no need for same-day medical assessment as the patient is currently stable. Although bendroflumethiazide may be suitable for hypertension, NICE CKS recommends ACEi for heart failure treatment.
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.
While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.
Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.
The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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