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Question 1
Correct
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A 28-year-old man presents with a 5-day history of increasing pain, blurry vision and lacrimation in the left eye. He also feels a foreign body sensation in the affected eye. He has recently been swimming in an indoor swimming pool with his friends with his contact lenses on.
On examination, his visual acuity is 6/24 in the left and 6/6 in the right. The conjunctiva in the left is red. There is a white dot on the cornea, and with fluorescein, it shows an uptake in the centre of the cornea.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Microbial keratitis
Explanation:Differentiating Microbial Keratitis from Other Eye Infections
Microbial keratitis, specifically Acanthamoeba keratitis (AK), should be considered in patients who have been swimming with contact lenses. Symptoms include ocular pain, redness, blurred vision, light sensitivity, foreign body sensation, and excessive tearing. Ring-like stromal infiltrate and lid edema may also be present. AK is often confused with Herpes simplex keratitis in its early stages and with fungal keratitis or corneal ulcer in its advanced stages. Other potential eye infections, such as viral keratitis, corneal abrasion, corneal foreign body, and fungal keratitis, can be ruled out based on the patient’s history and risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician due to concerns about her posture. During the examination, the pediatrician observes a kyphotic spine and blue-grey sclera. The child has not experienced any bone fractures. To investigate further, the pediatrician orders a bone profile blood test to confirm the suspicion of osteogenesis imperfecta.
What specific results from the bone profile blood test would be indicative of this condition?Your Answer: Low calcium, high PTH and PO4
Correct Answer: Normal calcium, PTH and PO4
Explanation:In osteogenesis imperfecta, the levels of adjusted calcium, PTH, ALP, and PO4 are typically within the normal range. This rare genetic disorder is characterized by frequent bone fractures, blue-grey sclera, micrognathia, and kyphoscoliosis. Biochemical tests usually show normal levels of calcium, phosphate, and parathyroid hormone. If parathyroid hormone levels are elevated along with high calcium, it may indicate primary hyperparathyroidism caused by parathyroid adenoma, hyperplasia, or parathyroid cancer. On the other hand, elevated parathyroid hormone with low calcium may suggest secondary hyperparathyroidism due to kidney failure or vitamin D deficiency. Hypercalcemia without elevated parathyroid hormone may indicate primary malignancy or sarcoidosis. Hypocalcemia with low parathyroid hormone levels may suggest parathyroid dysfunction, which is commonly seen after thyroid or parathyroid surgery or as part of an autoimmune syndrome.
Osteogenesis imperfecta, also known as brittle bone disease, is a group of disorders that affect collagen metabolism, leading to bone fragility and fractures. The most common type of osteogenesis imperfecta is type 1, which is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner and is caused by a decrease in the synthesis of pro-alpha 1 or pro-alpha 2 collagen polypeptides. This condition typically presents in childhood and is characterized by fractures that occur following minor trauma, as well as blue sclera, dental imperfections, and deafness due to otosclerosis.
When investigating osteogenesis imperfecta, it is important to note that adjusted calcium, phosphate, parathyroid hormone, and ALP results are usually normal. This condition can have a significant impact on a person’s quality of life, as it can lead to frequent fractures and other complications. However, with proper management and support, individuals with osteogenesis imperfecta can lead fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman visits her GP to discuss contraceptive options as she is in a committed relationship. She has been diagnosed with partial epilepsy and takes carbamazepine regularly. Additionally, she has a history of heavy menstrual bleeding. Apart from this, her medical history is unremarkable. What would be the most suitable contraception method for her at present?
Your Answer: Intrauterine device (Copper coil)
Correct Answer: Intrauterine system (Mirena)
Explanation:When choosing a contraceptive method, individual preferences and any cautions or contraindications must be taken into account. In this case, the priority is to find a method that won’t be affected by carbamazepine’s enzyme-inducing effect, such as the intrauterine system. While the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) could help with heavy bleeding, its failure rate would be high due to enzyme induction. Nexplanon may cause heavy bleeding and its low progesterone dose would also be affected by enzyme induction. Depo-Provera is an option, but prolonged use in young individuals could lead to reduced bone density. The Mirena intrauterine system would be effective in reducing heavy bleeding and providing reliable contraception alongside the anti-epileptic medication.
Contraception for Women with Epilepsy
Women with epilepsy need to consider several factors when choosing a contraceptive method. Firstly, they need to consider how the contraceptive may affect the effectiveness of their anti-epileptic medication. Secondly, they need to consider how their anti-epileptic medication may affect the effectiveness of the contraceptive. Lastly, they need to consider the potential teratogenic effects of their anti-epileptic medication if they become pregnant.
To address these concerns, the Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) recommends that women with epilepsy consistently use condoms in addition to other forms of contraception. For women taking certain anti-epileptic medications such as phenytoin, carbamazepine, barbiturates, primidone, topiramate, and oxcarbazepine, the FSRH recommends the use of the COCP and POP as UKMEC 3, the implant as UKMEC 2, and the Depo-Provera, IUD, and IUS as UKMEC 1.
For women taking lamotrigine, the FSRH recommends the use of the COCP as UKMEC 3 and the POP, implant, Depo-Provera, IUD, and IUS as UKMEC 1. If a COCP is chosen, it should contain a minimum of 30 µg of ethinylestradiol. By considering these recommendations, women with epilepsy can make informed decisions about their contraceptive options and ensure the safety and effectiveness of their chosen method.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 5 month old baby boy is brought to the Emergency Department by his parents after they found him unresponsive. The baby was healthy prior to this incident. Despite advanced life support efforts, the baby could not be revived. His temperature upon arrival was 37.2ºC. The child had received all of his vaccinations and was up-to-date. During the post-mortem examination, bilateral retinal hemorrhages were discovered. What is the most probable cause of the baby's death?
Your Answer: Aggressive shaking of the baby
Explanation:Understanding Shaken Baby Syndrome
Shaken baby syndrome is a condition that involves a combination of retinal haemorrhages, subdural haematoma, and encephalopathy. It occurs when a child between the ages of 0-5 years old is intentionally shaken. However, there is controversy among physicians regarding the mechanism of injury, making it difficult for courts to convict suspects of causing shaken baby syndrome to a child. This condition has made headlines due to the ongoing debate among medical professionals.
Shaken baby syndrome is a serious condition that can cause long-term damage to a child’s health. It is important to understand the signs and symptoms of this condition to ensure that children are protected from harm. While the controversy surrounding the diagnosis of shaken baby syndrome continues, it is crucial to prioritize the safety and well-being of children. By raising awareness and educating the public about this condition, we can work towards preventing it from occurring in the future.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 5
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman comes to the doctor complaining of muscle weakness and a rash that has been developing over the past month. Upon examination, the doctor notes symmetrical weakness in the shoulders and hips, as well as red papules on the proximal interphalangeal joints. What skin manifestation is likely being described in this case?
Your Answer: Gottron's papules
Explanation:The correct answer is Gottron’s papules, which are roughened red papules mainly seen over the knuckles in patients with dermatomyositis. In this case, the patient’s symmetrical proximal muscle weakness and skin involvement indicate dermatomyositis. Gottron’s papules are small violaceous papules that can also be seen on the proximal interphalangeal and metacarpophalangeal joints. While Gottron’s sign is also associated with dermatomyositis, it refers to violaceous macules over the knees and elbows and is not being described in this case. The heliotrope rash, a violaceous or dusky red rash surrounding the eye, is another highly characteristic sign of dermatomyositis, but it is not present in this case. Similarly, a malar rash, which is a butterfly-shaped rash over the cheeks and nose commonly seen in patients with SLE, is not relevant to this case.
Dermatomyositis is a condition that causes inflammation and muscle weakness, as well as distinct skin lesions. It can occur on its own or be associated with other connective tissue disorders or underlying cancers, particularly ovarian, breast, and lung cancer. Screening for cancer is often done after a diagnosis of dermatomyositis. Polymyositis is a variant of the disease that does not have prominent skin manifestations.
The skin features of dermatomyositis include a photosensitive macular rash on the back and shoulders, a heliotrope rash around the eyes, roughened red papules on the fingers’ extensor surfaces (known as Gottron’s papules), extremely dry and scaly hands with linear cracks on the fingers’ palmar and lateral aspects (known as mechanic’s hands), and nail fold capillary dilation. Other symptoms may include proximal muscle weakness with tenderness, Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease (such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia), dysphagia, and dysphonia.
Investigations for dermatomyositis typically involve testing for ANA antibodies, which are positive in around 80% of patients. Approximately 30% of patients have antibodies to aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases, including antibodies against histidine-tRNA ligase (also called Jo-1), antibodies to signal recognition particle (SRP), and anti-Mi-2 antibodies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 6
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman with Crohn's disease (CD) visits her primary care physician for a regular follow-up. During the examination, the doctor observes clubbing, hepatomegaly, and episcleritis, which are known signs linked with CD. What other non-intestinal symptom is commonly associated with CD?
Your Answer: Pyoderma gangrenosum
Explanation:Extra-Intestinal Manifestations and Skin Conditions Associated with Inflammatory Bowel Disease
Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD), including Crohn’s disease (CD) and ulcerative colitis (UC), can present with extra-intestinal manifestations, with some features being more prevalent in one than the other. Joint complications are the most common, but other manifestations include eye inflammation, joint pain and stiffness, and liver and biliary tree issues. Additionally, CD can present with skin conditions such as pyoderma gangrenosum, while UC is associated with primary sclerosing cholangitis and cholangiocarcinoma.
Other skin conditions, such as necrobiosis lipoidica and palmar erythema, are not associated with IBD. Erythema multiforme is a drug-related skin rash, while lichen planus is a skin rash of unknown cause that is not associated with IBD. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these extra-intestinal manifestations and skin conditions when evaluating patients with IBD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 70-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of leg pains. He has been suffering from diabetic neuropathy in both legs for the last 6 years and has tried various medications such as amitriptyline, duloxetine, and gabapentin. He inquires if there are any additional measures that can be taken to alleviate his pain in the long run. What would be the most suitable answer?
Your Answer: Refer him to the pain management clinic
Explanation:In cases of resistant diabetic neuropathy, pain management clinics may be considered for the management of pain. If a patient has already tried common medications for neuropathic pain and has almost reached the limit of care, referral to a pain management clinic is the most appropriate step. NICE recommends referral for patients with severe or worsening pain, or those whose pain impairs their daily life. Cannabis sativa extract and morphine are not typically used for neuropathic pain unless recommended by a specialist. Tramadol may be used for breakthrough pain in the acute setting, but is not suitable for long-term management of neuropathic pain. Advising a patient to improve their diabetic control will not necessarily improve their current pain, but may limit further neuropathy from occurring.
Diabetes can cause peripheral neuropathy, which typically results in sensory loss rather than motor loss. This often affects the lower legs first due to the length of the sensory neurons supplying this area, resulting in a glove and stocking distribution. Painful diabetic neuropathy is a common issue that can be managed with drugs such as amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. If these drugs do not work, tramadol may be used as a rescue therapy, and topical capsaicin may be used for localized neuropathic pain. Pain management clinics may also be helpful for patients with resistant problems.
Gastrointestinal autonomic neuropathy can cause gastroparesis, which can lead to erratic blood glucose control, bloating, and vomiting. This can be managed with prokinetic agents such as metoclopramide, domperidone, or erythromycin. Chronic diarrhea, which often occurs at night, is another potential complication of diabetic neuropathy. Gastroesophageal reflux disease can also occur due to decreased lower esophageal sphincter pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman with a known tumour in the superior (first) part of the duodenum complains of right upper quadrant pain and jaundice. A CT scan of the abdomen reveals that the tumour is causing obstruction of the biliary tree by pressing against it. Which segment of the biliary tree is most likely to be impacted?
Your Answer: Common hepatic duct
Correct Answer: Common bile duct
Explanation:Anatomy of the Biliary Tree: Location and Function of the Common Bile Duct, Common Hepatic Duct, Left Hepatic Duct, Cystic Duct, and Right Hepatic Duct
The biliary tree is a network of ducts that transport bile from the liver and gallbladder to the small intestine. Understanding the anatomy of the biliary tree is important for diagnosing and treating conditions that affect the liver, gallbladder, and pancreas. Here is a breakdown of the location and function of the common bile duct, common hepatic duct, left hepatic duct, cystic duct, and right hepatic duct:
Common Bile Duct: The common bile duct is the most likely to be occluded in cases of biliary obstruction. It descends posteriorly to the superior part of the duodenum before meeting the pancreatic duct at the ampulla of Vater in the descending part of the duodenum. The gastroduodenal artery, portal vein, and inferior vena cava are also located in this area.
Common Hepatic Duct: The common hepatic duct is formed by the junction of the left and right main hepatic ducts and is located in the free margin of the lesser omentum. It is found at a further superior location than the duodenum.
Left Hepatic Duct: The left hepatic duct drains the left lobe of the liver and is found above the superior part of the duodenum.
Cystic Duct: The cystic duct extends from the gallbladder to the common hepatic duct, which it joins to form the common bile duct. It lies further superior than the superior part of the duodenum.
Right Hepatic Duct: The right hepatic duct drains the right functional lobe of the liver. It joins the left hepatic duct to form the common hepatic duct. It is found superior to the level of the superior part of the duodenum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 79-year-old man presents to the emergency department referred by his GP due to lower abdominal pain and distension for the past three days. He has been unable to pass stool or flatus. The patient had a laparotomy for a perforated duodenal ulcer 25 years ago. Upon examination, his abdomen is distended and non-tender, and he appears to be in obvious discomfort. The CT scan of his abdomen and pelvis reveals evidence of large bowel obstruction at the splenic flexure. What is the probable cause of his presentation?
Your Answer: Adhesions from previous surgery
Correct Answer: Colon cancer
Explanation:A 45-year-old patient with a history of rheumatoid arthritis is currently taking sulfasalazine, paracetamol, and ibuprofen for their condition. They have been experiencing low mood and have tried non-pharmaceutical interventions with little success. The patient now reports that their depressive symptoms are worsening, prompting the GP to consider starting them on an antidepressant. Which antidepressant would pose the highest risk of causing a GI bleed in this patient, necessitating the use of a protein pump inhibitor as a precaution?
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 10
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with symptoms of restlessness and confusion that have been present for one day. Upon further examination, she is found to have an elevated heart rate and body temperature. The patient has a history of depression and has been taking sertraline for several years without any changes in dosage or overdose incidents. However, her partner reports that she was recently prescribed a new medication by her general practitioner, which may have interacted with her regular medication. What is the most likely medication responsible for this interaction?
Your Answer: Zolmitriptan
Explanation:Patients who are taking a SSRI should not use triptans.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.
The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.
When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 76-year-old man visits his doctor with his wife, who is concerned about his recent memory decline and difficulty concentrating. She also notes that he has become incontinent of urine and is walking with smaller steps. The patient's medical history includes a myocardial infarction one year ago, as well as hypertension and diabetes. There is no family history of similar symptoms. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Lewy body dementia
Correct Answer: Vascular dementia
Explanation:Different Types of Dementia and Their Symptoms
Dementia is a term used to describe a decline in cognitive function that affects daily life. There are several types of dementia, each with its own set of symptoms. Here are some of the most common types of dementia and their characteristic symptoms:
1. Vascular dementia: This type of dementia is often associated with risk factors for vascular disease, such as hypertension and diabetes. Symptoms may include sudden or stepwise deterioration in cognitive function, early gait disturbances, urinary symptoms, changes in concentration, and mood.
2. Alzheimer’s disease: Alzheimer’s disease is the most common cause of dementia. It typically results in progressive memory loss and behavioral changes, rather than sudden deterioration.
3. Frontotemporal dementia: This type of dementia usually presents with personality changes, loss of insight, and stereotyped behaviors. It is a slowly progressive form of dementia, with onset usually before the age of 70 and a strong family history.
4. Huntington’s disease: Huntington’s disease typically presents at a much younger age between 20 and 40 years old with psychosis, choreiform movements, depression, and later on dementia. There is also a strong family history.
5. Lewy body dementia: Lewy body dementia typically presents with parkinsonian symptoms, visual hallucinations, and sleep behavior disorders.
Understanding the different types of dementia and their symptoms can help with early diagnosis and treatment. If you or a loved one is experiencing cognitive decline, it’s important to seek medical attention to determine the underlying cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 12
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents at 12 weeks’ gestation to see the clinician. Her risk of developing Down syndrome was calculated as 1 in 8, and she was offered a diagnostic test. Amniocentesis confirms Down syndrome. Following long discussions with her and her partner, she decides on termination of the pregnancy.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management option for this patient?Your Answer: Oral mifepristone followed by vaginal misoprostol as an inpatient
Explanation:Medical and Surgical Management of Termination of Pregnancy
Medical and surgical management are two options for termination of pregnancy. Medical management involves the use of oral mifepristone followed by vaginal misoprostol. This method is recommended for termination of pregnancy before 13 weeks’ gestation and can be performed in an inpatient setting. The patient is administered the medication in hospital and will stay in the clinic or hospital to pass the pregnancy. Appropriate analgesia and antiemetics are given to take home, as required. The patient should be advised that there is a possibility medical management will fail and surgical management will need to take place.
Mifepristone is a competitive antagonist of progesterone for the progesterone receptor. It promotes degradation of the decidualised endometrium, cervical ripening and dilation, as well as increases the sensitivity of the myometrium to the effect of prostaglandins. Misoprostol, a synthetic prostaglandin E1, in turn, binds avidly to myometrial cells, promoting contraction of the uterus, and therefore expulsion of the products of conception. If this fails to empty the uterus, then a surgical procedure to manually evacuate the uterus is the next appropriate step in the patient’s management.
Surgical termination of pregnancy is first line for women presenting after 14 weeks’ gestation, women who have a preference over medical management and patients where medical termination has failed.
In cases where the patient has decided to proceed with termination of pregnancy, delaying the procedure is unethical and does not benefit the patient in any way. The patient should be fully informed of the risks associated with the procedure and given the necessary support.
Vaginal misoprostol can also be used in conjunction with mifepristone for medical termination of pregnancy or as monotherapy in medical management of miscarriage or induction of labour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 13
Correct
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A 65-year-old man is brought in after a fall from a ladder resulting in head injury. He experienced a brief loss of consciousness for five minutes. The patient has a metallic mitral valve and is currently taking warfarin. On examination, he has a significant swelling over his forehead, but no other injuries are detected. His Glasgow coma scale shows eyes 4, movement 5, verbal 5, and all other vital signs are within normal limits. What is the best course of action to take next?
Your Answer: CT head
Explanation:Head Injury in Warfarin Patients
According to the NICE guidelines on Head injury (CG176), patients who are taking warfarin and have a history of loss of consciousness should undergo a CT head scan. It is important to note that administering Vitamin K may not be necessary if there is no intracranial bleed, as it takes time to work. A skull x-ray may only identify obvious fractures and not intracerebral bleeds in the absence of fractures, which are common in these situations.
If a bleed is confirmed, stopping warfarin and starting intravenous heparin may be appropriate. However, this decision should be made jointly with the neurosurgeons and cardiologists. It is crucial to follow these guidelines to ensure the best possible outcome for patients with head injuries who are taking warfarin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency department by emergency ambulance following a deliberate overdose of an unknown drug.
She is accompanied by her husband who tells you that she has a long history of anxiety and depression and takes fluoxetine 20 mg od and lorazepam 2 mg bd.
On primary assessment, her airway is clear but she only groans when sternal rub is applied. Her chest is clear to auscultation but her respiratory rate is 6 ventilations per minute and oxygen saturations are 93% on air.
Heart sounds are normal with a rate of 80 bpm and blood pressure is 82/44 mmHg. ECG shows sinus rhythm. Capillary blood glucose is 6.3 mmol/L. Her GCS is 8/15 (E1, V2, M5) but her pupils are slowly reactive bilaterally and size 4. All limbs appear to move equally and there is no apparent injury. She smells of alcohol.
What is the first most appropriate step in the immediate management of this patient?Your Answer: Administer intravenous naloxone 400 mcg then further doses of 200 mcg dependent on response
Correct Answer: Insert a nasopharyngeal airway and commence high flow oxygen
Explanation:The ABCDE approach is important for assessing acutely unwell patients. Protecting the airway is paramount in this case, as the patient’s level of consciousness threatens it. Oxygen and a nasopharyngeal airway are the first steps. Flumazenil and naloxone are not indicated, as the drug taken is unknown and opioid overdose is unlikely. Activated charcoal may not be effective if the time of ingestion is unknown. Prophylactic intubation is reasonable but not mandatory. Arterial blood gases can help determine ventilation, but supplemental oxygen and airway adjuncts are reasonable first steps.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 15
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman attends her first antenatal appointment at 10 weeks gestation. She has not visited her GP in a long time and is not currently on any medication. There is no significant medical or family history of neural tube defects. During the examination, her BMI is 32 kg/m² and her blood pressure is 132/86 mmHg. What treatment options should be presented to her?
Your Answer: Folic acid 5 milligrams
Explanation:Pregnant women with a BMI greater than 30 kg/m2 should receive a high dose of 5mg folic acid to prevent neural tube defects. In this case, the patient’s blood pressure is not high enough to require treatment with labetalol. Aspirin 75 milligrams is typically given to pregnant women starting at 12 weeks to lower the risk of pre-eclampsia, but this patient does not have any risk factors for pre-eclampsia and is not currently experiencing hypertension. If the patient had a healthy BMI, they would be prescribed the standard dose of 400 micrograms of folic acid to reduce the risk of neural tube defects.
Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention
Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. It is found in green, leafy vegetables and plays a crucial role in the transfer of 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA. However, certain factors such as phenytoin, methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause a deficiency in folic acid. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.
To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, it is recommended that all women take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if they or their partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with certain medical conditions such as coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, or those taking antiepileptic drugs, or who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also considered higher risk.
In summary, folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in DNA and RNA synthesis. Deficiency in folic acid can lead to serious health consequences, including neural tube defects. However, taking folic acid supplements during pregnancy can prevent these defects and ensure a healthy pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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You are in pre-assessment clinic and request an electrocardiogram (ECG) on a 58-year-old man attending for a radical prostatectomy.
What are the limits of the normal cardiac axis?Your Answer: 30 to -60 degrees
Correct Answer: -30 to 90 degrees
Explanation:Understanding ECG Analysis: The Normal Cardiac Axis
ECG analysis is a fundamental concept that is essential to understand early on. One of the key components of ECG analysis is the normal cardiac axis, which ranges from −30 to 90 degrees. If the axis is greater than 90 degrees, it implies right axis deviation, while an axis less than −30 degrees indicates left axis deviation.
To determine the axis, leads I, II, and III of the ECG are typically examined. A normal axis is characterized by upgoing waves in all three leads. In contrast, right axis deviation is indicated by a downgoing wave in lead I and an upgoing wave in leads II and III. Left axis deviation is indicated by an upgoing wave in lead I and a downgoing wave in leads II and III.
While −30 to −90 degrees is considered left axis deviation and not a normal axis, −30 to 60 degrees is a normal axis, but it does not cover the full spectrum of a normal axis. Therefore, the correct answer is -30 to 90 degrees. Understanding the normal cardiac axis is crucial for accurate ECG interpretation and diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 55-year-old man visits his optometrist for a check-up. He has hyperopia and his current prescription is +3/+3.25 without any astigmatism or myopia. What is the primary eye condition that this patient is susceptible to with his present eye condition?
Your Answer: Acute angle-closure glaucoma
Explanation:Hypermetropia is linked to acute angle-closure glaucoma, while myopia is associated with primary open-angle glaucoma. This is because those with hypermetropia have smaller eyes, shallower anterior chambers, and narrower angles. The connection between myopia and primary open-angle glaucoma is not as clear, but it may be due to the optic nerve head being more vulnerable to damage from increased intraocular pressure. Cataracts are commonly linked to aging and severe short-sightedness, while central retinal artery occlusion is associated with aneurysms, arterial disease, and emboli.
Glaucoma is a condition where the optic nerve is damaged due to increased pressure in the eye. Primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG) is a type of glaucoma where the peripheral iris is clear of the trabecular meshwork, which is important in draining aqueous humour from the eye. POAG is more common in older individuals and those with a family history of the condition. It may present insidiously with symptoms such as peripheral visual field loss, decreased visual acuity, and optic disc cupping. Diagnosis is made through a series of investigations including automated perimetry, slit lamp examination, applanation tonometry, central corneal thickness measurement, and gonioscopy. It is important to assess the risk of future visual impairment based on factors such as IOP, CCT, family history, and life expectancy. Referral to an ophthalmologist is typically done through a GP.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 55-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of pain in his right leg, five days after having a cholecystectomy. Upon examination, the right leg is swollen, tender, and warm, while the left leg appears normal. What is the most suitable test to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Venous Dopplers
Explanation:Diagnosis and Treatment of Deep Vein Thrombosis
This patient is showing typical symptoms of a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). While you may not have access to the necessary investigations in your practice, it is important to have knowledge of secondary care investigations and their appropriate use, as highlighted in the latest MRCGP curriculum statement. Venous Dopplers are the most likely test to confirm the diagnosis, while a venogram is considered the gold standard.
DVTs should be treated with anticoagulation, typically with the use of DOACs due to the potential risk of embolisation. It is important to promptly diagnose and treat DVTs to prevent complications such as pulmonary embolism. As a healthcare professional, it is important to stay up-to-date with the latest guidelines and recommendations for the diagnosis and treatment of DVTs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A mother brings her 3-year-old daughter to surgery. For the past three weeks, she has been complaining of an itchy bottom. She is otherwise well and clinical examination including that of the perianal area is unremarkable. What is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hygiene measures + single dose mebendazole for all the family
Explanation:It is recommended to treat household contacts of patients with threadworms, even if they do not show any symptoms. Referral to the child protection officer is not necessary for an itchy bottom, as it is a common symptom of threadworms.
Threadworm Infestation in Children
Threadworm infestation, caused by Enterobius vermicularis or pinworms, is a common occurrence among children in the UK. The infestation happens when eggs present in the environment are ingested. In most cases, threadworm infestation is asymptomatic, but some possible symptoms include perianal itching, especially at night, and vulval symptoms in girls. Diagnosis can be made by applying Sellotape to the perianal area and sending it to the laboratory for microscopy to see the eggs. However, most patients are treated empirically, and this approach is supported in the CKS guidelines.
The CKS recommends a combination of anthelmintic with hygiene measures for all members of the household. Mebendazole is the first-line treatment for children over six months old, and a single dose is given unless the infestation persists. It is essential to treat all members of the household to prevent re-infection. Proper hygiene measures, such as washing hands regularly, keeping fingernails short, and washing clothes and bedding at high temperatures, can also help prevent the spread of threadworm infestation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man is scheduled for an elective knee replacement surgery the following day. He has type 2 diabetes and is the first patient on the surgery list. His doctor has advised him to continue taking his once-daily dose of metformin and his new anti-diabetic medication on the day of the operation. The patient's physician recently changed his diabetes medication due to hypoglycemic episodes with his previous medication. What is the most probable new antidiabetic medication he is taking?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sitagliptin
Explanation:Patients undergoing surgery who are taking DPP-4 inhibitors (-gliptins) and GLP-1 analogues (-tides) can continue taking these medications as normal throughout the perioperative period. However, SGLT-2 blockers such as empagliflozin and dapagliflozin should be omitted on the day of surgery due to the increased risk of diabetic ketoacidosis during periods of dehydration and acute illness. Sulphonylureas like gliclazide should also be omitted until the patient is able to eat and drink again, as they can cause hypoglycaemia in patients who are in a fasted state. It is important to note that the patient in the case scenario may have been taking sulphonylureas in the past, but they are unlikely to be part of their current treatment regimen as they were discontinued by their GP due to side effects.
Preparation for surgery varies depending on whether the patient is undergoing an elective or emergency procedure. For elective cases, it is important to address any medical issues beforehand through a pre-admission clinic. Blood tests, urine analysis, and other diagnostic tests may be necessary depending on the proposed procedure and patient fitness. Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis should also be assessed, and a plan for thromboprophylaxis formulated. Patients are advised to fast from non-clear liquids and food for at least 6 hours before surgery, and those with diabetes require special management to avoid potential complications. Emergency cases require stabilization and resuscitation as needed, and antibiotics may be necessary. Special preparation may also be required for certain procedures, such as vocal cord checks for thyroid surgery or bowel preparation for colorectal cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old lifeguard presents with a lesion on the ear. The lesion had been present for a number of months and he claims it is slowly growing. On examination, there is 1 cm red, ulcerating exophytic nodule with heaped up margins. Excision of the lesion is performed and histology reveals a completely excised lesion containing irregular masses of anaplastic epidermal cells proliferating down to the dermis with keratin pearls.
Which of the following is true regarding this lesion?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It may arise from actinic keratosis
Explanation:Understanding Squamous Cell Carcinoma of the Skin
Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) of the skin is a common type of skin cancer that typically affects older men with a history of sun exposure. It may also arise from chronic inflammation or pre-existing actinic keratosis. SCC is slow-growing and locally invasive, but spread to locoregional lymph nodes is uncommon. The typical appearance is small, red, ulcerating, exophytic nodules with varying degrees of scaling on sun-exposed areas. Biopsy features include keratin pearls. Treatment may involve topical creams or excision. SCC is the second commonest skin cancer after basal cell carcinoma. It is commonly found on the lower lip or ears, and spread to regional lymph nodes is uncommon. There is no link to preceding dermatophyte infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old construction worker arrives at the emergency department with severe left-sided renal colic pain that extends to his groin. He is experiencing persistent vomiting and is receiving IV fluids. What is the most suitable analgesic for him?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intramuscular diclofenac
Explanation:Treatment for Renal Colic
Renal colic is a condition that causes severe pain in the lower back and abdomen due to the presence of kidney stones. The first line of treatment for this condition is non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), which can be administered either intramuscularly or by suppository. These drugs are effective in reducing pain and inflammation caused by kidney stones. If NSAIDs are not effective, strong opiates are considered as appropriate second line therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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What is a typical characteristic seen in the display of myeloma?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypercalcaemia
Explanation:Clinical Features of Multiple Myeloma
Multiple myeloma is a type of cancer that commonly affects older adults, with a median age of 60 years, and is more prevalent in males than females. Patients with multiple myeloma may present with various clinical features, including anaemia, bone pain, and infections. Bone pain is the most common symptom and is often felt in the back or ribs. In some cases, it may lead to a pathologic fracture, especially in the femoral neck, following minimal trauma. Patients with multiple myeloma are also at risk of infections, particularly with encapsulated organisms such as Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae, due to suppression of antibody production and neutropenia.
Hypercalcaemia is another common feature of multiple myeloma, which can cause nausea, fatigue, confusion, polyuria, and constipation. This occurs due to the release of osteoclast activating factors, which stimulate bone resorption and lead to an increase in serum calcium levels. Weight loss is also a common symptom in patients with multiple myeloma. In some cases, patients may develop hyperviscosity, which can cause symptoms such as blurred vision, headache, and dizziness.
In summary, multiple myeloma is a complex disease with various clinical features. Early diagnosis and management are crucial to improve patient outcomes. Healthcare professionals should be aware of these clinical features and consider multiple myeloma in the differential diagnosis of patients presenting with bone pain, anaemia, infections, hypercalcaemia, and weight loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old factory worker has contacted his GP, reporting that he has been feeling unwell for the past ten days. He has been experiencing back pain, which he believes is due to bending over at work. The patient visited the Emergency Department five days ago due to the pain and is worried about his ability to go back to work.
What is the most suitable course of action for managing this patient's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Certify the patient as maybe being fit for work if his employer can amend his duties
Explanation:Clarifying Misconceptions About Fit Notes
Fit notes are an important tool for doctors to help patients return to work after an illness or injury. However, there are some common misconceptions about fit notes that can cause confusion for both patients and doctors. Here are some clarifications on some of these misconceptions:
Clarifying Misconceptions About Fit Notes
1. Certify the patient as maybe being fit for work if his employer can amend his duties
Encouraging a patient to return to work with amended duties or workplace adaptations is a viable option for doctors. It is important to consider this option before certifying a patient as unfit for work.2. Certify the patient as being unfit for work
While certifying a patient as unfit for work is an option, it should only be used when necessary. Encouraging a patient to return to work with amended duties or workplace adaptations should be considered first.3. Inform the patient that he can certify his own inability to work for the first two weeks
Patients can only self-certify for up to seven days. After that, they will need a fit note from a doctor.4. Inform the patient that you cannot certify him as being unfit because you did not treat him initially
Any doctor who is responsible for the care of the patient can provide a statement of fitness. It does not matter if the doctor did not treat the patient initially.5. Inform the patient that you are unable to issue a fit note until he comes in for an examination
Doctors do not need to physically examine a patient to issue a fit note. They can provide a statement of fitness based on medical notes or speaking to the patient. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ethics And Legal
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman is brought into the Emergency Department (ED) by the Helicopter Emergency Medical Service (HEMS) in severe hypovolaemic shock. She was involved in a multiple vehicle accident and has sustained injuries all over her body, including her head, chest, abdomen, and long bones. She is intubated with C-spine control and a large bore subclavian line is inserted for resuscitation. In the ambulance, she received 2 units of packed red cells (PRC) and 2 units of fresh frozen plasma (FFP), but she still has a very weak pulse.
Her initial blood gas shows a pH of 6.9 and resuscitation efforts continue as she is given another 3 units of PRC and 3 units of FFP on the way to the operating theatre. Platelets and cryoprecipitate are also requested. Despite these interventions, her pulse remains weak and the anaesthetist is struggling to place an arterial line for blood pressure monitoring and continued blood sampling. During this time, you observe a change in her electrocardiogram (ECG): it was previously narrow and fast, but is now broad and slowing down.
What is the most likely explanation for this change in the ECG?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyperkalaemia
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of ECG changes in a patient receiving massive transfusion
Differential diagnosis of ECG changes in a patient receiving massive transfusion
In a patient receiving massive transfusion, several factors can affect the electrolyte balance and lead to electrocardiogram (ECG) changes. One of the most critical complications is hyperkalaemia, which can cause tented T waves, widening of the PR and QRS intervals, and ventricular arrhythmias such as ventricular fibrillation. Regular blood gas measurements and monitoring of electrolytes such as calcium and potassium are essential to detect and treat hyperkalaemia promptly. Calcium gluconate/chloride and insulin/50% dextrose can be used to control potassium levels.
Hypokalaemia is unlikely to occur in this scenario, as massive transfusion and acidaemia tend to raise potassium levels. Hypokalaemia typically causes ECG changes such as prolonged PR interval, prominent U waves, and ST depression, which can progress to supraventricular and ventricular tachycardias.
Hypocalcaemia can result from chelation by the citrate in stored blood, but it is unlikely to cause the ECG signs described. The most common ECG change associated with hypocalcaemia is prolongation of the QTc interval due to lengthening of the ST segment.
Coronary artery thrombosis is a possible cause of ECG changes, but it would typically manifest as ST elevation or depression, which is not the case here.
A severe transfusion reaction can also occur, but it is unlikely to give rise to the ECG changes described. Signs of a transfusion reaction include pyrexia, shortness of breath, bronchospasm, and loss of consciousness, along with tachycardia and hypo- or hypertension.
In summary, when evaluating ECG changes in a patient receiving massive transfusion, hyperkalaemia should be the primary concern, followed by other electrolyte imbalances and potential complications. Regular monitoring and prompt intervention can prevent life-threatening arrhythmias and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 26
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about atopic eczema?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Usually starts in the first year of life
Explanation:Atopic Eczema
Atopic eczema is a skin condition that is more likely to occur in individuals who have a family history of asthma, hay fever, and eczema. One of the common causes of this condition is cow’s milk, and switching to a milk hydrolysate may help alleviate symptoms. The condition typically affects the face, ears, elbows, and knees.
It is important to note that topical steroids should only be used sparingly if symptoms cannot be controlled. Atopic eczema often develops in the first year of life, making it crucial for parents to be aware of the symptoms and seek medical attention if necessary. By the causes and symptoms of atopic eczema, individuals can take steps to manage the condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 9-month-old baby is brought to the emergency room with a 4 day history of fever and a new onset rash on the arms, legs, and abdomen that started today. Despite the fever, the baby has been behaving normally and does not seem bothered by the rash. Upon closer examination, the rash appears red with small bumps that are merging together. None of the lesions have scabbed over. The rash is mostly on the limbs and there are no signs of scratching. The baby's temperature is now normal at 36.9ºC. Based on the likely diagnosis, what is the probable causative organism?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Human herpes virus 6
Explanation:Human herpes virus 6 is the cause of Roseola infantum, a viral illness that is characterized by a fever lasting for 3 days followed by the appearance of a maculopapular rash on the 4th day. The fever can develop quickly and may lead to febrile convulsions. The rash typically starts on the trunk and limbs, unlike chickenpox which usually presents with a central rash. HHV6 is known to attack the nervous system, which can result in rare complications such as encephalitis and febrile fits after the fever has subsided. Glandular fever is caused by Epstein Barr virus, while genital herpes is caused by Human herpes virus 2. Bacterial meningitis, which is characterized by symptoms of meningism such as photophobia, stiff neck, and headache, along with a non-blanching rash seen in meningococcal septicaemia, is commonly caused by Neisseria meningitidis.
Understanding Roseola Infantum
Roseola infantum, also known as exanthem subitum or sixth disease, is a common illness that affects infants and is caused by the human herpes virus 6 (HHV6). This disease has an incubation period of 5-15 days and is typically seen in children aged 6 months to 2 years. The most common symptoms of roseola infantum include a high fever that lasts for a few days, followed by a maculopapular rash. Other symptoms may include Nagayama spots, which are papular enanthems on the uvula and soft palate, as well as cough and diarrhea.
In some cases, febrile convulsions may occur in around 10-15% of children with roseola infantum. While this can be concerning for parents, it is important to note that this is a common occurrence and typically resolves on its own. Additionally, HHV6 infection can lead to other possible consequences such as aseptic meningitis and hepatitis.
It is important to note that school exclusion is not necessary for children with roseola infantum. While this illness can be uncomfortable for infants, it is typically not serious and resolves on its own within a few days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old boy is presented by his father with a widespread skin rash. The boy has been experiencing itching for the past 3 days and has developed a fever along with the rash. During the examination, it is observed that the rash consists of macules, papules, crusted lesions, and vesicles that have spread across most of his body. The father has been administering ibuprofen to the boy for relief from fever and discomfort.
What is the probable diagnosis, and why is ibuprofen not recommended in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The increased risk of necrotising fasciitis
Explanation:The symptoms exhibited by this patient are consistent with chickenpox, including lesions at various stages of healing, fever, and itching. However, it is important to note that the use of NSAIDs can increase the risk of necrotising fasciitis in chickenpox patients. While ibuprofen is a suitable NSAID for patients of all ages, it is important to avoid aspirin due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome in children with chickenpox. Short-term use of ibuprofen during acute febrile illnesses is unlikely to cause significant gastrointestinal side effects.
Chickenpox: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Chickenpox is a viral infection caused by the varicella zoster virus. It is highly contagious and can be spread through respiratory droplets. The virus can also reactivate later in life, causing shingles. Chickenpox is most infectious four days before the rash appears and until five days after the rash first appears. The incubation period is typically 10-21 days. Symptoms include fever, an itchy rash that starts on the head and trunk before spreading, and mild systemic upset.
Management of chickenpox is supportive and includes keeping cool, trimming nails, and using calamine lotion. School exclusion is recommended during the infectious period. Immunocompromised patients and newborns with peripartum exposure should receive varicella zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG). If chickenpox develops, IV acyclovir may be considered. Secondary bacterial infection of the lesions is a common complication, which may be increased by the use of NSAIDs. In rare cases, invasive group A streptococcal soft tissue infections may occur, resulting in necrotizing fasciitis. Other rare complications include pneumonia, encephalitis, disseminated haemorrhagic chickenpox, arthritis, nephritis, and pancreatitis.
Radiographic Findings in Varicella Pneumonia
Varicella pneumonia is a rare complication of chickenpox that can occur in immunocompromised patients or adults. Radiographic findings of healed varicella pneumonia may include miliary opacities throughout both lungs, which are of uniform size and dense, suggesting calcification. There is typically no focal lung parenchymal mass or cavitating lesion seen. These findings are characteristic of healed varicella pneumonia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man visits his General Practitioner (GP) for an annual mental health review. He was diagnosed with schizophrenia eight years ago. He has been on medication since diagnosis and takes this daily without any side-effects. He has regular contact with the community mental health team. He is working part-time as a shop assistant, which he enjoys. He has a good appetite, sleeps well and exercises regularly.
What is true regarding the treatment of schizophrenia in a 32-year-old man who has been diagnosed with the condition for eight years and is currently on medication without any side-effects, has regular contact with the community mental health team, works part-time, and has good appetite, sleep, and exercise habits?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: People with a first episode of psychosis should be offered oral antipsychotic treatment, along with psychological interventions
Explanation:Mythbusting: Common Misconceptions About Schizophrenia Treatment
1. Oral antipsychotic treatment and psychological interventions should be offered to those with a first episode of psychosis.
2. Patients with schizophrenia should remain under the care of a psychiatrist lifelong, but can be eligible for shared care with a GP after 12 months of stability.
3. An ECG is only necessary before starting antipsychotic medication in certain circumstances.
4. Before starting any oral antipsychotic medication, various health factors need to be checked in all patients.
5. The choice of antipsychotic medication should be made on an individual basis, taking into account potential side-effects.
6. Early intervention in psychosis services should be accessed urgently for anyone presenting with a first episode of psychosis. Antipsychotic medication should not be initiated in primary care without the advice of a psychiatrist. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with a headache that has been bothering him for the past 48 hours. He is experiencing neck stiffness and photophobia, and his temperature is 39 °C. The Brudzinski sign is positive. The patient has a history of intravenous drug use (IVDU) and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection. He admits to not following his highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) medication regimen. A lumbar puncture is performed, and the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis reveals budding yeast cells that stain strongly with India Ink. What antimicrobial medication would you suggest?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amphotericin B
Explanation:Antifungal Treatment for Cryptococcal Meningitis
The patient in question is likely immunosuppressed due to non-compliance with medication, making meningitis a possibility. Microscopy revealed budding yeast cells that stained positive with India Ink, indicating cryptococcal meningitis. Treatment for this organism is antifungal medication, specifically amphotericin B. Clotrimazole is used for candida infections, while azithromycin is effective against intracellular bacteria like chlamydia. Ceftriaxone is given prior to diagnosis, but would not affect the organism present. Co-amoxiclav is not effective against cryptococcal meningitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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