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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man visits his General Practitioner after undergoing primary coronary angioplasty for a non-ST elevation myocardial infarction. He has been informed that he has a drug-eluting stent and is worried about potential negative consequences.
What is accurate regarding these stents?Your Answer: They have superseded bare metal stents
Correct Answer: The risk of re-stenosis is reduced
Explanation:Understanding Drug-Eluting Stents and Antiplatelet Therapy for Coronary Stents
Drug-eluting stents (DESs) are metal stents coated with a growth-inhibiting agent that reduces the frequency of restenosis by about 50%. However, the reformation of endothelium is slowed, which prolongs the risk of thrombosis. DESs are recommended if the artery to be treated has a calibre < 3 mm or the lesion is longer than 15 mm, and the price difference between DESs and bare metal stents (BMSs) is no more than £300. Antiplatelet therapy with aspirin and clopidogrel is required for patients with coronary stents to reduce stent thrombosis. Aspirin is continued indefinitely, while clopidogrel should be used for at least one month with a BMS (ideally, up to one year), and for at least 12 months with a DES. It is important for cardiologists to explain this information to patients, but General Practitioners should also have some knowledge of these procedures. Understanding Drug-Eluting Stents and Antiplatelet Therapy for Coronary Stents
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old asthmatic woman comes to you with a three-day history of bilateral, itchy, red eyes that are not affecting her vision. She was recently diagnosed with primary open-angle glaucoma and started using latanoprost eye drops (Xalatan). She has also been using ocular lubricants for many years due to dry eyes. What is the best course of action for her?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop the latanoprost eye drops and give her some oral antihistamine
Explanation:Allergic Eye Reaction to Topical Ocular Medication
Bilateral, itchy, and red eyes after starting a new topical ocular medication may indicate an allergic eye reaction. In such cases, the most appropriate action would be to discontinue the medication immediately and administer oral antihistamine. It is also important to inform the ophthalmologist of the patient about this adverse effect and request an earlier appointment to switch to a new anti-glaucoma medication.
Taking prompt action can prevent further discomfort and complications. Therefore, clinicians should be vigilant in monitoring patients who have recently started using topical ocular medications and be aware of the possibility of allergic reactions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 3
Incorrect
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You are seeing a teenage patient who has been diagnosed with PTSD.
He has previously been treated with sertraline but wants to stop because of a rash.
He has a review appointment with a psychiatrist in 3 months. Assuming any appropriate cross tapering and initiation, what alternative treatment could you prescribe instead?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Buspirone
Explanation:NICE Guidance on Drug Treatments for PTSD in Adults
The NICE guidance on the management of PTSD was updated in 2018, and there were a few changes from earlier guidance. One of the changes was regarding drug treatments for adults with PTSD. According to the latest NICE guidance NG116, benzodiazepines should not be offered as a drug treatment to prevent PTSD in adults. However, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), such as sertraline, can be considered for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if they have a preference for drug treatment. It is important to review this treatment regularly.
In addition, antipsychotics such as risperidone can be considered, along with psychological therapies, to manage symptoms for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if they have disabling symptoms and behaviors, such as severe hyperarousal or psychotic symptoms, and their symptoms have not responded to other drug or psychological treatments. It is important that antipsychotic treatment is started and reviewed regularly by a specialist.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 4
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic after slipping on ice and falling backwards, hitting his head on the curb and landing on his right arm. He has a medical history of atrial fibrillation and takes bisoprolol and warfarin, with a recent INR of 2.2. There are no visible injuries to his arm or scalp. What is the best course of action for his head injury?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer the patient to hospital for a CT head scan to be performed within 8 hours
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for Investigating Head Injuries in Adults
Head injuries can be serious and require prompt medical attention. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided clear guidelines for investigating head injuries in adults. These guidelines help healthcare professionals determine which patients need further CT head imaging and which patients can be safely discharged.
The guidelines divide patients into two groups: those who require an immediate CT head scan and those who require a CT head scan within 8 hours of the injury. Patients who require an immediate CT head scan include those with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of less than 13 on initial assessment, a suspected open or depressed skull fracture, or any sign of basal skull fracture. Other indications for an immediate CT head scan include post-traumatic seizure, focal neurological deficit, and more than one episode of vomiting.
Patients who require a CT head scan within 8 hours of the injury include those who are 65 years or older, have a history of bleeding or clotting disorders, or have experienced a dangerous mechanism of injury. Patients with more than 30 minutes of retrograde amnesia of events immediately before the head injury also require a CT head scan within 8 hours.
It is important to note that patients on warfarin who have sustained a head injury with no other indications for a CT head scan should also receive a CT head scan within 8 hours of the injury. These guidelines help healthcare professionals determine the appropriate course of action for investigating head injuries in adults, ensuring that patients receive the necessary care and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Mrs. Waller, a patient with type 2 diabetes, comes to discuss her latest HbA1c result. It has gone up to 66 mmol/mol since the last check. She is already taking metformin and gliclazide. You advise adding in a third blood glucose lowering drug, and agree on trying canagliflozin, an SGLT2 inhibitor. You counsel her that it will cause a slight increase in urine volume and risk of urinary and genital infections, including rare reports of Fournier's gangrene, but that it can have beneficial side effects of weight loss and possibly improves cardiovascular outcomes. You also mention that the MHRA have issued an alert about an uncommon but important possible hazard of treatment with SGLT2 inhibitors.
What specific aspect of routine diabetes care is crucial in preventing or detecting this potential side effect?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Foot check
Explanation:Patients taking canagliflozin should have their legs and feet closely monitored for ulcers or infection due to the possible increased risk of amputation. It is important for these patients to attend regular foot checks and practice good foot care. Eye screening, influenza vaccination, and shingles vaccination are not affected by SGLT2 inhibitors and should be attended as normal.
Understanding SGLT-2 Inhibitors
SGLT-2 inhibitors are medications that work by blocking the reabsorption of glucose in the kidneys, leading to increased excretion of glucose in the urine. This mechanism of action helps to lower blood sugar levels in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Examples of SGLT-2 inhibitors include canagliflozin, dapagliflozin, and empagliflozin.
However, it is important to note that SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have adverse effects. Patients taking these medications may be at increased risk for urinary and genital infections due to the increased glucose in the urine. Fournier’s gangrene, a rare but serious bacterial infection of the genital area, has also been reported. Additionally, there is a risk of normoglycemic ketoacidosis, a condition where the body produces high levels of ketones even when blood sugar levels are normal. Finally, patients taking SGLT-2 inhibitors may be at increased risk for lower-limb amputations, so it is important to closely monitor the feet.
Despite these potential risks, SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have benefits. Patients taking these medications often experience weight loss, which can be beneficial for those with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Overall, it is important for patients to discuss the potential risks and benefits of SGLT-2 inhibitors with their healthcare provider before starting treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 3-month-old baby girl has been brought into the GP by her father. They visited three weeks ago because the baby was experiencing vomiting and regurgitation after feeds. They were given alginate suspension at the time but this has not helped. Today, the baby is still experiencing troublesome symptoms and is now refusing feeds.
What would be the next appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 4-week trial of omeprazole suspension
Explanation:If an infant with GORD is experiencing troublesome symptoms even after a 1-2 week trial of alginate therapy, the recommended course of action is to prescribe a 4-week trial of a proton pump inhibitor. This is in line with NICE guidelines.
Opting for a 2-week trial of omeprazole is not advisable as it may not be sufficient to alleviate the symptoms.
Continuing with alginate suspension alone is not appropriate as the symptoms have worsened since starting the treatment.
Ranitidine is no longer recommended due to the presence of small amounts of the carcinogen N-nitrosodimethylamine (NMDA) in formulations from multiple manufacturers. Nitrosamines, which are carcinogens commonly found in smoked fish, are linked to high rates of oesophageal and gastric cancer in East Asian countries.
If metoclopramide, a prokinetic agent, is used, it should be done so with caution and under the supervision of a specialist.
Gastro-oesophageal reflux is a common cause of vomiting in infants, with around 40% of babies experiencing some degree of regurgitation. However, certain risk factors such as preterm delivery and neurological disorders can increase the likelihood of developing this condition. Symptoms typically appear before 8 weeks of age and include vomiting or regurgitation, milky vomits after feeds, and excessive crying during feeding. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical observation.
Management of gastro-oesophageal reflux in infants involves advising parents on proper feeding positions, ensuring the infant is not overfed, and considering a trial of thickened formula or alginate therapy. However, proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are not recommended as a first-line treatment for isolated symptoms of regurgitation. PPIs may be considered if the infant experiences unexplained feeding difficulties, distressed behavior, or faltering growth. Metoclopramide, a prokinetic agent, should only be used with specialist advice.
Complications of gastro-oesophageal reflux can include distress, failure to thrive, aspiration, frequent otitis media, and dental erosion in older children. If medical treatment is ineffective and severe complications arise, fundoplication may be considered. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the risk factors, symptoms, and management options for gastro-oesophageal reflux in infants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 7
Incorrect
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What is the target blood pressure for a 55-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus and no end-organ damage, based on a clinic blood pressure reading?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus should aim for the same blood pressure targets as those without diabetes, as long as they are under 80 years old. This means keeping clinic readings below 140/90 and ABPM/HBPM readings below 135/85. It is important to note that these targets apply regardless of whether the patient has any end-organ damage.
NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.
Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.
Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old female presents with a 3-week history of low mood. On further questioning, she reveals that she witnessed a violent altercation outside her apartment complex when returning from work 4 weeks ago. She now has nightmares related to the incident and is avoiding leaving her apartment, which is causing her to miss work. She has no past medical history and is not on any medications. What would be your first-line management recommendation for this patient, given the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trauma focussed cognitive-behavioural therapy (CBT)
Explanation:Acute Stress Disorder (ASD): Symptoms appear within 3 days to 4 weeks after the traumatic event. The condition lasts for a minimum of 3 days and a maximum of 4 weeks. If symptoms persist beyond 4 weeks, the diagnosis may be revised to PTSD.
For this patient with acute stress disorder, trauma-focused cognitive-behavioural therapy (CBT) is the recommended first-line management. This therapy involves a combination of exposure therapy and trauma-focused cognitive therapy, tailored to the patient’s age and development, and may involve parents or carers for children.
While eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) can be used as a management option for PTSD, it is not required in this case as the patient doesn’t have PTSD.
Risperidone, an antipsychotic, may be used in PTSD under mental health team supervision, but is not necessary for this patient with acute stress disorder.
If the patient prefers drug treatment, has significant comorbid depression, or cannot engage in psychological treatments, sertraline or venlafaxine, both antidepressants, may be started in primary care for PTSD. They can also be used as an adjunct to psychological treatments or when there has been a poor response to psychological treatments.
Acute stress disorder is a type of acute stress reaction that occurs within the first four weeks after a person has experienced a traumatic event, such as a life-threatening situation or sexual assault. This is different from post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), which is diagnosed after four weeks. Symptoms of acute stress disorder include intrusive thoughts, dissociation, negative mood, avoidance, and arousal. Intrusive thoughts may include flashbacks or nightmares, while dissociation may involve feeling like one is in a daze or experiencing time slowing down. Negative mood may manifest as feelings of sadness or hopelessness, while avoidance may involve avoiding places or people that remind one of the traumatic event. Arousal symptoms may include hypervigilance and sleep disturbance.
The management of acute stress disorder typically involves trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) as a first-line treatment. Benzodiazepines may also be used to manage acute symptoms such as agitation or sleep disturbance, but caution should be exercised due to their addictive potential and concerns that they may be detrimental to adaptation. Overall, early intervention and treatment can help individuals with acute stress disorder recover and prevent the development of PTSD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with concerns about her eyelids drooping. She reports that her family has commented on this for several months and she has also been experiencing double vision and fatigue. Upon further questioning, she mentions difficulty lifting her arms above her head. On examination, there is slight ptosis but no ophthalmoplegia. Power in her arms is slightly reduced for extension, but tone, coordination, and reflexes are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Myasthenia gravis
Explanation:Myasthenia gravis is a condition caused by autoantibodies attacking acetylcholine receptors, resulting in symptoms such as double vision, drooping eyelids, and muscle weakness. It is important to review medication use as certain drugs can worsen symptoms. Testing for anti-acetylcholine receptor antibodies is the first step in diagnosis. Thymoma should be ruled out in newly diagnosed patients. Treatment typically involves oral pyridostigmine and, if necessary, surgery for thymoma. Immunomodulatory agents may be used as the disease progresses.
Motor neurone disease, specifically amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, is characterized by the degeneration of upper and lower motor neurones, leading to progressive muscle weakness without sensory symptoms.
Multiple sclerosis often presents with a variety of neurological symptoms and signs, including motor, sensory, and autonomic issues. Diagnosis requires objective evidence of dissemination in time and space of typical lesions and the exclusion of other possible explanations.
Myalgic encephalomyelitis, also known as chronic fatigue syndrome, causes long-term fatigue and other symptoms such as cognitive difficulties, sleep disturbance, and muscle and joint pains.
Polymyalgia rheumatica is an inflammatory condition with an unknown cause that presents with severe pain and stiffness in the shoulder, neck, and pelvic girdle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Sophie is a 12-year-old who has been under your care for the last 3 months with worsening classical symptoms of migraine. Despite trying simple analgesia (paracetamol and ibuprofen), she has not experienced any relief. She has attempted to eliminate potential triggers and is currently maintaining a headache diary. She is interested in exploring additional medical treatments. What is the most suitable medication to prescribe for Sophie?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sumatriptan 10 mg nasal spray
Explanation:Children can use nasal triptans, but oral triptans are not approved for use and should not be the first choice. It is also important to avoid aspirin as it can increase the risk of Reye’s syndrome.
Headache in Children: Migraine and Tension-Type Headache
Headaches are a common complaint in children, with up to 50% of 7-year-olds and 80% of 15-year-olds experiencing at least one headache. Migraine without aura is the most common cause of primary headache in children, with a strong female preponderance after puberty. The International Headache Society has produced criteria for diagnosing paediatric migraine without aura, which includes headache lasting 4-72 hours, with at least two of four specific features and accompanied by nausea/vomiting and/or photophobia/phonophobia. Acute management of paediatric migraine involves ibuprofen, which is more effective than paracetamol, and triptans, which may be used in children over 12 years old but require follow-up. Prophylaxis for migraine is limited, with pizotifen and propranolol recommended as first-line preventatives, followed by valproate, topiramate, and amitriptyline as second-line options.
Tension-type headache is the second most common cause of headache in children. The IHS diagnostic criteria for TTH in children include headache lasting from 30 minutes to 7 days, with at least two of three specific pain characteristics and no nausea/vomiting but with photophobia/phonophobia present. Treatment for TTH involves identifying and addressing triggers, as well as using non-pharmacological interventions such as relaxation techniques and cognitive-behavioural therapy. Overall, headache in children requires careful diagnosis and management to improve quality of life and prevent long-term complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man comes to the clinic for advice after suffering a transient ischaemic attack (TIA) in which he experiences a left hemiparesis. He is found to have a right carotid bruit, and carotid stenosis is suspected.
What is the most appropriate advice you can provide this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Surgery reduces the risk of stroke if he has severe carotid stenosis
Explanation:Carotid Endarterectomy and Stenting for Severe Carotid Stenosis
Carotid endarterectomy is a surgical procedure recommended by NICE for patients with moderate or severe carotid stenosis. It is most beneficial for those with severe stenosis, reducing the risk of stroke by up to 30% over three years. However, the presence of a carotid bruit alone is not enough to confirm or exclude significant stenosis or its severity.
Carotid endarterectomy is indicated for patients with recent stroke or transient ischaemic attack, but surgery should be carried out within seven days of symptom onset for maximum benefit. While stenting with an emboli protection device may be as effective as endarterectomy, there may be a higher risk of stroke initially post-procedure.
In addition to surgical intervention, the best medical management includes lowering blood pressure, treatment with statins, and antiplatelet therapy. It is important to start treatment as soon as possible to maximize the benefits of surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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You see a 35-year-old lady who reports episodes of paresthesia in her right thumb, index and middle finger. This often happens at night time. Examination is unremarkable but the patient can recreate the symptoms by keeping her wrists at the extreme of flexion for about 30 seconds.
What is the next most appropriate management step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Wrist splint
Explanation:Management of Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
Carpal tunnel syndrome can be managed through lifestyle modifications and wrist splinting in the neutral position. Lifestyle modifications involve avoiding repetitive tasks that may trigger symptoms. Wrist splints can be purchased over-the-counter and are the first line of management. Nerve conduction studies are not typically necessary unless there is uncertainty in the diagnosis. Referral is advised in cases of severe symptoms, unclear diagnosis, recurrence after surgery, failure of conservative management, or if the patient requests a referral. For a full list of referral criteria, please refer to the link below.
Overall, the management of carpal tunnel syndrome involves simple lifestyle changes and the use of wrist splints. Referral is only necessary in certain cases, as outlined by NICE guidelines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old woman presents with complaints of generalised lethargy and weakness. She has a significant medical history of childhood asthma and vitiligo, and currently only uses a salbutamol inhaler as needed. She reports feeling constantly worn out, weak, and experiencing body aches. She also feels dizzy when standing up quickly. On examination, she appears well and has no fever, shortness of breath, or pain. Her blood pressure is 106/60, but drops to 94/56 when standing, causing brief lightheadedness. Cardiovascular, respiratory, and abdominal examinations are normal. There is no joint swelling and she walks with a normal gait. Blood tests reveal a slightly low sodium of 130 mmol/L and a slightly raised potassium of 5.5 mmol/L. Which investigation is most likely to aid in establishing a diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serum cortisol level obtained at 9 am
Explanation:Understanding Addison’s Disease
Addison’s disease is a rare condition caused by adrenal insufficiency, with the most common cause being autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands. It affects a small percentage of the population, making it difficult to diagnose due to its vague symptoms. Patients may experience chronic fatigue, weight loss, and muscle weakness, among other symptoms. Differential diagnoses should be considered, including type 1 diabetes, eating disorders, and chronic fatigue syndrome.
Clinical examination and blood tests can provide clues to the presence of Addison’s disease. Postural hypotension, hyponatremia, and hyperkalemia are common features. A serum cortisol level done at 8-9 am can also be helpful in diagnosing the condition. Levels below 100 nanomol/L require hospital admission, while levels between 100 and 500 nanomol/L merit endocrinology referral for further investigation.
It is important to have a high degree of suspicion when considering a diagnosis of Addison’s disease, as early detection and treatment can prevent acute crises and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl comes to you with acne. Upon examination, you observe several whiteheads and blackheads, but no facial scarring. The patient expresses interest in treatment. What is the initial course of action in this scenario?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topical retinoid
Explanation:For the treatment of mild acne, the NICE guidance recommends starting with a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide. This is particularly appropriate for boys. However, if the patient is female, a combined oral contraceptive may be prescribed instead of a retinoid due to the teratogenic effects of retinoids. Mild acne is characterized by the presence of blackheads, whiteheads, papules, and pustules. While scarring is unlikely, the condition can have a significant psychosocial impact. If topical retinoids and benzoyl peroxide are poorly tolerated, azelaic acid may be prescribed. Combined treatment is rarely necessary. Follow-up should be arranged after 6-8 weeks to assess the effectiveness and tolerability of treatment and the patient’s compliance.
Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents to her GP complaining of increasing fatigue and nausea over the past two weeks. During the examination, the GP notices a yellowish tint to the whites of her eyes. The patient resides in a remote fishing village and consumes a diet high in seafood. She doesn't smoke or drink alcohol and reports no weight loss or other constitutional symptoms. The following are her liver function test results:
- Bilirubin: 20 µmol/l
- ALP: 160 u/l
- ALT: 550 u/l
- γGT: 30 u/l
- Albumin: 35 g/l
All other routine blood results are normal. What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatitis E
Explanation:Understanding Hepatitis E
Hepatitis E is a type of RNA hepevirus that is transmitted through the faecal-oral route. Its incubation period ranges from 3 to 8 weeks. This disease is common in Central and South-East Asia, North and West Africa, and in Mexico. It causes a similar illness to hepatitis A, but with a higher mortality rate of about 20% during pregnancy. Unlike other types of hepatitis, Hepatitis E doesn’t cause chronic disease or an increased risk of hepatocellular cancer. Although a vaccine is currently in development, it is not yet widely available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old nurse is undergoing communicable disease immunity screening before starting work. The test results are as follows:
- Negative for HBsAg
- Positive for anti-HBs
- Positive for anti-HBc (IgG)
What is the nurse's hepatitis B status based on these findings?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Resolved infection - natural immunity
Explanation:The patient has evidence of a past hepatitis B infection that has been resolved. This is indicated by the absence of hepatitis B surface antigen and the presence of positive anti-HBs and IgG anti-HBc. It is important to note that natural immunity is demonstrated by the presence of both anti-HBs and anti-HBc, while artificial immunity is only indicated by positive anti-HBs. The patient is not currently infected and is not a carrier.
Understanding Hepatitis B Serology
Interpreting hepatitis B serology can be a challenging task, but it is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment. Here are some key points to keep in mind:
The surface antigen (HBsAg) is the first marker to appear and triggers the production of anti-HBs. If HBsAg is present for more than six months, it indicates chronic disease, while its absence suggests acute disease.
Anti-HBs indicates immunity, either from exposure or vaccination. It is negative in chronic disease.
Anti-HBc suggests previous or current infection. IgM anti-HBc appears during acute or recent hepatitis B infection and lasts for about six months, while IgG anti-HBc persists.
HbeAg is a marker of infectivity and HBV replication. It results from the breakdown of core antigen from infected liver cells.
For example, if someone has previously been immunized against hepatitis B, their anti-HBs will be positive, while all other markers will be negative. If they had hepatitis B in the past but are not carriers, their anti-HBc will be positive, and HBsAg will be negative. However, if they are now carriers, both anti-HBc and HBsAg will be positive.
In summary, understanding hepatitis B serology requires careful interpretation of various markers and their combinations. By doing so, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and manage this potentially serious condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 17
Incorrect
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What is the accurate statement about the connection between IUDs and PID?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased risk in first 20 days then returns to normal
Explanation:New intrauterine contraceptive devices include the Jaydess® IUS and Kyleena® IUS. The Jaydess® IUS is licensed for 3 years and has a smaller frame, narrower inserter tube, and less levonorgestrel than the Mirena® coil. The Kyleena® IUS has 19.5mg LNG, is smaller than the Mirena®, and is licensed for 5 years. Both result in lower serum levels of LNG, but the rate of amenorrhoea is less with Kyleena® compared to Mirena®.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman with oestrogen receptor positive breast cancer presents for follow-up, four months after initiating tamoxifen therapy. What is the most probable adverse effect that may arise in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hot flashes
Explanation:Hot flashes are a common side-effect of tamoxifen, as stated in the BNF. Although alopecia and cataracts are also listed as possible side-effects, they are not as frequently observed as hot flashes, particularly in women who have not yet reached menopause.
Tamoxifen and its Adverse Effects
Tamoxifen is a medication used in the treatment of breast cancer that is positive for oestrogen receptors. It is classified as a Selective oEstrogen Receptor Modulator (SERM) and works by acting as an antagonist and partial agonist of the oestrogen receptor. However, the use of tamoxifen can lead to several adverse effects. These include menstrual disturbances such as vaginal bleeding and amenorrhoea, as well as hot flashes which can cause 3% of patients to stop taking the medication due to climacteric side-effects. Additionally, tamoxifen increases the risk of venous thromboembolism and endometrial cancer.
To manage breast cancer, tamoxifen is typically prescribed for a period of 5 years following the removal of the tumour. However, due to the risk of endometrial cancer associated with tamoxifen, an alternative medication called raloxifene may be used. Raloxifene is a pure oestrogen receptor antagonist and carries a lower risk of endometrial cancer. It is important for patients to discuss the potential risks and benefits of tamoxifen and other medications with their healthcare provider before starting treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old HIV positive man comes to your travel clinic seeking advice on vaccinations for his upcoming trip. He is currently on antiretroviral therapy and his most recent CD4 count is 180 cells/mm³. He has no other medical conditions and is feeling well.
Which vaccines should this man avoid due to his medical history?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tuberculosis (BCG)
Explanation:BCG and other live attenuated vaccines should not be administered to HIV positive patients. Similarly, immunocompromised individuals should avoid receiving live attenuated vaccines such as Yellow fever, Oral polio, Intranasal influenza, Varicella, and Measles, mumps and rubella (MMR). This information is sourced from uptodate.
Vaccinations: Types and Precautions
Vaccinations are an important aspect of preventive healthcare. However, it is crucial to be aware of the different types of vaccines and their potential risks, especially for immunocompromised individuals. Live-attenuated vaccines, such as BCG, MMR, and oral polio, may pose a risk to these patients. In contrast, inactivated preparations, such as rabies and hepatitis A, and toxoid vaccines, such as tetanus and diphtheria, are safer options. Subunit and conjugate vaccines, which use only part of the pathogen or link bacterial polysaccharide outer coats to proteins, respectively, are also available for diseases like pneumococcus, haemophilus, meningococcus, hepatitis B, and human papillomavirus.
It is important to note that different types of influenza vaccines are available, including whole inactivated virus, split virion, and sub-unit. Additionally, the cholera vaccine contains inactivated strains of Vibrio cholerae and the recombinant B-subunit of the cholera toxin. The hepatitis B vaccine is prepared from yeast cells using recombinant DNA technology and contains HBsAg adsorbed onto an aluminum hydroxide adjuvant.
In summary, vaccinations are an essential tool in preventing the spread of infectious diseases. However, it is crucial to understand the different types of vaccines and their potential risks to make informed decisions about vaccination.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old woman with known breast cancer is undergoing chemotherapy at the local hospital. She has been feeling tired and emotional throughout her course of chemotherapy so far, but presents to the Duty Clinic as today, she is feeling more tired than usual, with no appetite and she has been feeling hot and cold at home and struggling to get comfortable.
On examination, you find she has a temperature of 38.5 oC, but no focal symptoms, and her respiratory and pulse rates and blood pressure are all within normal limits.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Emergency transfer to a local hospital for medical review
Explanation:Emergency Management of Neutropenic Sepsis in a Chemotherapy Patient
Neutropenic sepsis is a potentially life-threatening complication of neutropenia, commonly seen in patients undergoing chemotherapy. In a patient with fever and neutropenia, neutropenic sepsis should be suspected, and emergency transfer to a local hospital for medical review is necessary. Prescribing broad-spectrum antibiotics or offering emotional support is not the appropriate management in this situation. The patient requires inpatient monitoring and treatment, as per the ‘sepsis six’ bundle of care, to avoid the risk of sudden deterioration. It is crucial to recognize the urgency of this situation and act promptly to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman presents with urgency and frequency. Three weeks ago she consulted with a colleague as she felt 'dry' during intercourse. She has been treated for urinary tract infections on multiple occasions in the past but urine culture is always negative. Her only medication is continuous hormone replacement therapy which she has taken since her periods stopped three years ago. A vaginal examination is performed which shows no evidence of vaginal atrophy and no masses are felt. An ultrasound is requested:
Both kidneys, spleen and liver are normal size. Outline of the bladder normal. 3 cm simple ovarian cyst noted on left ovary. Right ovary and uterus normal
What is the most appropriate next step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent referral to gynaecology
Explanation:Investigation is necessary for any ovarian mass found in a woman who has undergone menopause.
When a patient presents with suspected ovarian cysts or tumors, the first imaging modality used is typically ultrasound. The ultrasound report will indicate whether the cyst is simple or complex. Simple cysts are unilocular and more likely to be benign, while complex cysts are multilocular and more likely to be malignant. Management of ovarian enlargement depends on the patient’s age and whether they are experiencing symptoms. It is important to note that ovarian cancer diagnosis is often delayed due to a vague presentation.
For premenopausal women, a conservative approach may be taken, especially if they are younger than 35 years old, as malignancy is less common. If the cyst is small (less than 5 cm) and reported as simple, it is highly likely to be benign. A repeat ultrasound should be scheduled for 8-12 weeks, and referral should be considered if the cyst persists.
Postmenopausal women, on the other hand, are unlikely to have physiological cysts. Any postmenopausal woman with an ovarian cyst, regardless of its nature or size, should be referred to gynecology for assessment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents to his doctor with a six-month history of increasing shortness of breath and multiple instances of coughing up blood in the past four weeks. He has a 40-year history of smoking 30 cigarettes per day and has worked as a painter and builder. Based on the probable diagnosis, which of the following risk factors is the most probable contributing factor? Choose only ONE option.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tobacco
Explanation:Identifying Risk Factors for Lung Cancer: A Case Study
A patient presents with symptoms of lung cancer, including breathlessness and haemoptysis, as well as chest pain, cough, fatigue, and weight loss. Given that smoking is responsible for 72% of lung cancer cases in the UK and 86% of lung cancer deaths, it is the most likely risk factor in this case.
While alcohol consumption is linked to an increased risk of certain cancers, it is not strongly associated with lung cancer. Exposure to arsenic is associated with certain occupations, but only accounts for 0.003% of lung cancers in the UK. Asbestos exposure, which is linked to construction and shipyard work, is responsible for 6-8% of lung cancer deaths, but tobacco is still a more significant risk factor.
Exposure to silica, which is associated with certain industries such as glass manufacture and mining, increases lung cancer risk by 68%. However, it only accounts for 0.02% of lung cancers in the UK. While silica exposure may have contributed to this patient’s lung cancer, smoking remains the most likely cause. Overall, identifying and addressing risk factors for lung cancer is crucial for prevention and early detection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man with no previous medical history of note attends for a new patient check. His blood pressure is noted to be 152/100 mmHg so you arrange blood tests. The results include an eGFR of 55.
Select the single correct diagnosis that can be made in this case.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: None of the above
Explanation:Diagnosis of CKD and Hypertension: NICE Guidelines
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the diagnosis of chronic kidney disease (CKD) and hypertension. To diagnose CKD, more than one estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) reading below 60 is required over a period of three months. Similarly, hypertension should not be diagnosed based on a single blood pressure reading, but rather through ambulatory or home blood pressure monitoring. Acute kidney injury is characterized by a significant increase in serum creatinine or oliguria, and eGFR is not a reliable indicator for its diagnosis. NICE also recommends using eGFRcystatinC to confirm or rule out CKD in individuals with an eGFR of 45-59 ml/min/1.73 m2, sustained for at least 90 days, and no proteinuria or other markers of kidney disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old backpacker came to the clinic with a painful blister on an inflamed base on the back of his right hand. He had recently taken some antibiotics while traveling in France for a sore throat, but could not recall the specific medication. Interestingly, he had experienced a similar issue at the same location a few years prior. The patient was in good health and did not have any mucosal lesions.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fixed drug eruption
Explanation:Differentiating Bullous Skin Conditions Caused by Drugs
When a patient presents with a solitary bulla after taking a drug, fixed drug eruption is the most likely diagnosis. The lesion is well-defined, round or oval, and may be accompanied by redness and swelling, sometimes with a blister. The affected area may turn purplish or brown. The rash usually appears within 30 minutes to 8 hours of taking the drug and recurs in the same site/s each time the drug is taken. Antibiotics like tetracyclines or sulphonamides are common culprits.
Toxic epidermal necrolysis is a necrolytic bullous reaction to certain drugs, where less than 10% of the epidermis sloughs off in Stevens-Johnson syndrome, as compared to >30% in toxic epidermal necrolysis.
Bullous erythema multiforme usually presents with multiple lesions, and mucosal involvement is expected in the other three conditions. Erythema multiforme is an acute eruption of dull red macules or urticarial plaques with a small papule, vesicle, or bulla in the middle. Lesions may enlarge and/or form classical target lesions. The rash starts at the periphery and may extend centrally. Infections, most commonly herpes simplex virus, are the main cause, and drugs are rarely the cause.
Drug-induced pemphigus is an autoimmune bullous disease characterized by blisters and erosions of the skin and mucous membranes. The most common form associated with drug exposure is pemphigus foliaceous, where mucous membranes are not involved, and eroded crusted lesions are the norm.
Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe, potentially fatal reaction to certain drugs, where less than 10% of the epidermis sloughs off, and there is mucosal involvement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of a burning sensation on the anterolateral aspect of her right thigh. She has diabetes and has not attended the diabetic follow-up clinic for a year. Eight months ago she had a mild stroke that affected her right side. She was also found to have atrial fibrillation, for which she is taking warfarin.
On examination, she is obese. She has normal muscle power. Her tone is slightly increased on the right, with right-sided reflexes are slightly brisker than those on the left. Pinprick is reduced over the anterolateral aspect of her right thigh.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Compression of the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh
Explanation:Possible Causes of Anterolateral Thigh Pain in a Stroke Patient with Increased Reflexes and Tone
The patient’s symptoms suggest meralgia paraesthetica, which is caused by compression of the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh. This condition typically causes pain and sensory abnormalities in the anterolateral thigh and is more common in obese individuals. The patient’s increased reflexes and tone on the right side are likely due to the stroke she suffered seven months ago.
Other possible causes of anterolateral thigh pain and weakness include diabetic femoral nerve amyotrophy, femoral hernia, and iliopsoas haematoma from warfarin use. However, these conditions are less likely based on the patient’s presentation.
Thalamic pain from a previous stroke is another potential cause, although it is not typically as well-localized as the patient’s symptoms suggest. It is important to consider the patient’s diabetes as a factor that may increase the susceptibility of any peripheral nerve damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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You are consulted for a 50-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes who presents with a 24-hour history of polyuria, polydipsia, and vomiting. The patient is currently taking metformin, gliclazide, and empagliflozin. On examination, the patient has a temperature of 37.4°C, blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg, pulse of 100, blood glucose of 13 mmol/L, and blood ketones of 3.3 mmol/L. Urinalysis shows +++ ketones, but is otherwise normal.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diabetic ketoacidosis
Explanation:Patients with type 2 diabetes can experience diabetic ketoacidosis, as seen in this case where the patient has a blood glucose level of ≥11mmol/L and blood ketones of ≥3mmol/L. Immediate hospital admission is necessary for treatment with intravenous fluids and insulin. It is important to note that individuals taking SGLT2 inhibitors, such as empagliflozin, are at risk of DKA even with moderate blood glucose levels. DKA is more prevalent in Afro-Caribbean patients with type 2 diabetes. Hyperosmolar non-ketotic state (HONK) is characterized by elevated blood glucose levels but less than 2+ ketones in urine or 3mmol/L blood ketones.
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of type 1 diabetes mellitus, accounting for around 6% of cases. It can also occur in rare cases of extreme stress in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis, resulting in an excess of free fatty acids that are converted to ketone bodies. The most common precipitating factors of DKA are infection, missed insulin doses, and myocardial infarction. Symptoms include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and breath that smells like acetone. Diagnostic criteria include glucose levels above 11 mmol/l or known diabetes mellitus, pH below 7.3, bicarbonate below 15 mmol/l, and ketones above 3 mmol/l or urine ketones ++ on dipstick.
Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, insulin, and correction of electrolyte disturbance. Fluid replacement is necessary as most patients with DKA are deplete around 5-8 litres. Isotonic saline is used initially, even if the patient is severely acidotic. Insulin is administered through an intravenous infusion, and correction of electrolyte disturbance is necessary. Long-acting insulin should be continued, while short-acting insulin should be stopped. Complications may occur from DKA itself or the treatment, such as gastric stasis, thromboembolism, arrhythmias, acute respiratory distress syndrome, acute kidney injury, and cerebral edema. Children and young adults are particularly vulnerable to cerebral edema following fluid resuscitation in DKA and often need 1:1 nursing to monitor neuro-observations, headache, irritability, visual disturbance, focal neurology, etc.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old man presents with angina, episodes of feeling dizzy and faint, and breathlessness. He has noticed progressively worsening symptoms over the last 1-2 years.
On examination he has a slow rising carotid pulse on palpation.
Which of the following is most likely to be heard on auscultation of his heart?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ejection systolic murmur that radiates to the carotids
Explanation:Valvular Heart Disorders and Their Classic Symptoms
Aortic stenosis is a common valvular heart disorder that mainly affects older people. It is characterized by scarring and calcium build-up that narrows the valve over time. Classic symptoms include angina, dizziness/syncope, and cardiac failure. Without intervention, the condition usually deteriorates progressively.
On examination, a slow rising pulse is a characteristic finding, and the classic murmur is that of an ejection systolic murmur radiating to the carotids. Tricuspid stenosis is characterized by an early diastolic murmur heard at the left sternal edge in inspiration. Aortic regurgitation is marked by a high-pitched early diastolic murmur heard best in expiration with the patient sitting forward. Mitral regurgitation is indicated by a pansystolic murmur at the apex radiating to the axilla. Finally, mitral stenosis is characterized by a rumbling mid-diastolic murmur heard best in expiration with the patient lying on their left side.
In summary, understanding the classic symptoms and examination findings of valvular heart disorders is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman has suffered a Colles' fracture and a fractured neck of her left femur during the past 18 months. Results of thyroid function testing, serum protein electrophoresis and serum parathyroid hormone estimation are all normal. Bone densitometry of the lumbar spine and femoral neck on the non-replaced side reveals a bone density within the osteoporotic range.
What is the most crucial step in managing her osteoporosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Initiate bisphosphonate therapy
Explanation:Treatment Options for Idiopathic Osteoporosis
Idiopathic osteoporosis is a condition characterized by low bone density and an increased risk of fractures, without an identifiable underlying cause. In patients with this condition, bisphosphonate therapy is the best choice for treatment. This therapy inhibits osteoclast activity and has been shown to improve bone density and reduce fracture risk. Calcium and vitamin D supplements may also be given in addition to bisphosphonates, but only if the patient has inadequate calcium intake and vitamin D deficiency/lack of sun exposure. Hormone replacement therapy may be appropriate for female patients in their sixties, but an individual discussion of the risks and benefits is needed. Observing and repeating the densitometry in 12 months is not recommended as treatment should be commenced once osteoporosis is confirmed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 29
Incorrect
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You are seeing a 4-year-old child who has been brought back to the clinic one afternoon having been seen by a colleague in the morning.
You review the notes from this morning's consultation which show that the child presented with a fever and malaise and that a suspected viral infection was diagnosed and advice given accordingly. The mother reports that the child has become increasingly drowsy and hasn't really drunk anything since being seen earlier. Despite regular paracetamol a fever has persisted.
You examine the child who is clearly lethargic. Tympanic temperature is 38.1°C. The child is undressed and you find several non-blanching spots on the lower legs.
The clinical record states that the child is allergic to penicillin; you ask the mother who says that when he was given it in the past for a sore throat he came out in a rash on his trunk which resolved when the antibiotics were stopped.
What is the most appropriate initial treatment to institute acutely in the community?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gentamicin
Explanation:Management of Suspected Meningococcal Septicaemia in Children
When a child presents with suspected meningococcal septicaemia, it is crucial to note the presence of a non-blanching rash. Immediate administration of parenteral antibiotics is necessary, and it will not delay hospital transfer. In such cases, calling a 999 ambulance and administering antibiotics in the interim is recommended.
Benzylpenicillin can be given intramuscularly or intravenously, except in children with a clear history of anaphylaxis after a previous dose. A history of rash following penicillin use is not a contraindication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents with a tremor. This mainly affects her hands but she has also noticed that her head has a tendency to nod, especially when she is under stress or embarrassed. The hand tremor is worse when she is carrying things such as a cup and saucer. She has noticed that the symptoms are improved when she drinks alcohol. Her mother had a similar tremor. Examination reveals a 4-6-Hz tremor, most marked when her arms are outstretched, and nodding movements of the head. She has difficulty in neatly copying a spiral diagram. Other neurological examination is normal. Thyroid function is normal.
Select the single most appropriate first-line therapy.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Propranolol
Explanation:Treatment Options for Essential Tremor: A Comprehensive Guide
Essential tremor is a common neurological disorder that causes involuntary shaking of the hands, head, and voice. While there is no cure for essential tremor, there are several treatment options available to manage the symptoms.
Before starting any treatment, it is important to rule out any underlying peripheral or central nervous system disease and exclude possible causes of physiological tremor such as hyperthyroidism, drug-related tremor, or alcohol withdrawal.
The most appropriate first-line therapy for essential tremor is β blockade. If this is not tolerated, primidone is an alternative. Other medications that have shown effectiveness include alprazolam, atenolol, topiramate, and clonazepam. However, gabapentin has only been found to be effective when used as monotherapy and not as adjunct therapy.
For head tremors, botulinum toxin A can be used. In rare cases, surgery may be considered, such as deep brain stimulation or thalamotomy.
It is important to note that mild tremors may not require any treatment or only intermittent treatment for difficult social situations.
In conclusion, essential tremor can be managed with various treatment options. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of action for each individual case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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