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  • Question 1 - An 80-year-old man has been taking warfarin for atrial fibrillation for the past...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man has been taking warfarin for atrial fibrillation for the past 3 months but is having difficulty controlling his INR levels. He wonders if his diet could be a contributing factor.
      What is the one food that is most likely to affect his INR levels?

      Your Answer: Pineapple

      Correct Answer: Spinach

      Explanation:

      Foods and Factors that Affect Warfarin and Vitamin K Levels

      Warfarin is a medication used to prevent blood clots, but its effectiveness can be reduced by consuming foods high in vitamin K. These foods include liver, broccoli, cabbage, Brussels sprouts, green leafy vegetables (such as spinach, kale, and lettuce), peas, celery, and asparagus. It is important for patients to maintain a consistent intake of these foods to avoid fluctuations in vitamin K levels.

      Contrary to popular belief, tomatoes have relatively low levels of vitamin K, although concentrated tomato paste contains higher levels. Alcohol consumption can also affect vitamin K levels, so patients should avoid heavy or binge drinking while taking warfarin.

      Antibiotics can also impact warfarin effectiveness by killing off gut bacteria responsible for synthesizing vitamin K. Additionally, cranberry juice may inhibit warfarin metabolism, leading to an increase in INR levels.

      Overall, patients taking warfarin should be mindful of their diet and avoid excessive consumption of vitamin K-rich foods, alcohol, and cranberry juice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      35.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A family brings their 3-year-old child to the clinic, worried that he may...

    Correct

    • A family brings their 3-year-old child to the clinic, worried that he may have autism as they notice he is not progressing or engaging as much as their other children and his peers.

      Which of the following characteristics is indicative of an autism diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gaze avoidance

      Explanation:

      Understanding Autism

      Children with autism often exhibit certain behaviors that set them apart from their peers. They tend to avoid eye contact and struggle to form attachments with others outside of their immediate family. As toddlers, they may not point or respond normally to painful stimuli. Instead, they may show a strong attachment to certain objects or have an intense fear of everyday household tasks. For example, vacuuming may cause them to scream uncontrollably. These behaviors are all hallmarks of autism and can make it difficult for children to navigate the world around them. By understanding these behaviors, we can better support and care for children with autism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
      47.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 5-year-old boy is brought by his mother to the Out-of-hours (OOH) walk-in...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy is brought by his mother to the Out-of-hours (OOH) walk-in centre. She reports that he is thought to have an allergy to peanuts and is waiting for an Allergy Clinic outpatient appointment. He has eaten a piece of birthday cake at a party about 30 minutes ago and has quickly developed facial flushing, with swelling of the lips and face. He has become wheezy and is now unable to talk in complete sentences.
      What is the most appropriate management option?

      Your Answer: Administer 500 µg 1: 1000 adrenaline IM

      Correct Answer: Administer 300 µg 1: 1000 adrenaline IM

      Explanation:

      Correct and Incorrect Management Options for Anaphylaxis

      Anaphylaxis is a potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that requires immediate management. The correct management options include administering adrenaline 1:1000 intramuscularly (IM) at appropriate doses based on the patient’s age and weight. However, there are also incorrect management options that can be harmful to the patient.

      One incorrect option is administering chlorphenamine IM. While it is a sedating antihistamine, it should not be used as a first-line intervention for airway, breathing, or circulation problems during initial emergency treatment. Non-sedating oral antihistamines may be given following initial stabilisation.

      Another incorrect option is advising the patient to go to the nearest Emergency Department instead of administering immediate drug management. Out-of-hours centres should have access to emergency drugs, including adrenaline, and GPs working in these settings should be capable of administering doses in emergencies.

      It is also important to administer the correct dose of adrenaline based on the patient’s age and weight. Administering a dose that is too high, such as 1000 µg for a 7-year-old child, can be harmful.

      In summary, the correct management options for anaphylaxis include administering adrenaline at appropriate doses and avoiding incorrect options such as administering chlorphenamine IM or advising the patient to go to the nearest Emergency Department without administering immediate drug management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      82.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 27-year-old man presents for his yearly asthma check-up. He uses inhaled beclomethasone...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old man presents for his yearly asthma check-up. He uses inhaled beclomethasone propionate at a dosage of 100 micrograms, 2 puffs twice daily, and has a salbutamol inhaler for symptom relief. His Asthma Control Test (ACT) score is 25 out of 25. What is the most suitable approach to managing his inhalers?

      Your Answer: Reduce beclomethasone dipropionate dose by 25-50%

      Explanation:

      Adding an inhaled long-acting beta-2 agonist (LABA) would not be the appropriate course of action at this time. It should only be considered as an add-on therapy if the patient’s asthma remains uncontrolled despite regular use of inhaled corticosteroids.

      Similarly, adding a leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) would not be recommended at this stage. It should only be considered if the patient’s asthma remains uncontrolled despite using a combination of LABA and ICS, or if low-dose ICS is insufficient.

      Doubling the dose of beclomethasone dipropionate would also not be the correct approach. This would result in a medium dose of ICS, which is only recommended if the patient remains symptomatic despite a combination of low-dose ICS and LABA. Alternatively, an LTRA may be added.

      Stopping beclomethasone dipropionate and relying solely on salbutamol as needed would not be advisable. Any reduction in ICS should be done gradually to minimize the risk of worsening symptoms.

      Stepping Down Asthma Treatment: BTS Guidelines

      The British Thoracic Society (BTS) recommends that asthma treatment should be reviewed every three months to consider stepping down treatment. However, the guidelines do not suggest a strict move from one step to another but rather advise taking into account the duration of treatment, side-effects, and patient preference. When reducing the dose of inhaled steroids, the BTS suggests doing so by 25-50% at a time.

      Patients with stable asthma may only require a formal review once a year. However, if a patient has recently had an escalation of asthma treatment, they are likely to be reviewed more frequently. It is important to follow the BTS guidelines to ensure that patients receive the appropriate level of treatment for their asthma and to avoid unnecessary side-effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      60.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 38-year-old man presents with a pigmented skin lesion. His partner urged him...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old man presents with a pigmented skin lesion. His partner urged him to come and see you as she noticed that the lesion has recently changed and grown in size. There is no history of inflammation, oozing or change in sensation.

      On examination, there is a 9 mm diameter pigmented skin lesion on his back. The lesion is asymmetrical with an irregular notched border, it is evenly pigmented.

      Using the 7-point weighted checklist recommended by NICE for evaluating pigmented skin lesions, what is the score of this patient's skin lesion based on the above clinical description?

      Your Answer: 7

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidance on Referral for Suspected Cancer

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends using the ‘7-point weighted checklist’ to evaluate pigmented skin lesions for potential cancer. The checklist includes major features such as changes in size, irregular shape, and irregular color, which score 2 points each, and minor features such as largest diameter of 7 mm or more, inflammation, oozing, and change in sensation, which score 1 point each. Lesions scoring 3 or more points are considered suspicious and should be referred for further evaluation. However, clinicians should always refer lesions they strongly suspect to be cancerous, even if the score is less than 3. For example, a lesion with a score of 5 due to change in size, irregular shape, and a diameter of 9 mm would warrant referral for further evaluation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      116.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 55-year-old man with a history of asthma complains of worsening hay fever...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man with a history of asthma complains of worsening hay fever symptoms. He reports a persistent sensation of nasal congestion, particularly in his right nostril, and a decreased ability to smell.

      During the examination, you observe a nasal polyp on the right side.

      What is the most suitable course of action to take next?

      Your Answer: Specialist referral (urgent)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Chronic Rhinosinusitis

      Chronic rhinosinusitis is a common condition that affects approximately 10% of the population. It is characterized by inflammation of the nasal passages and paranasal sinuses that lasts for 12 weeks or more. There are several factors that can predispose individuals to this condition, including atopy, nasal obstruction, recent infections, swimming/diving, and smoking.

      Symptoms of chronic rhinosinusitis include facial pain, nasal discharge, nasal obstruction, and post-nasal drip. Treatment options include avoiding allergens, using intranasal corticosteroids, and nasal irrigation with saline solution. However, it is important to be aware of red flag symptoms such as unilateral symptoms, persistent symptoms despite treatment, and epistaxis, which may require further evaluation and management.

      In summary, chronic rhinosinusitis is a common inflammatory disorder that can cause significant discomfort and impact quality of life. Understanding the predisposing factors and symptoms, as well as appropriate management strategies, can help individuals effectively manage this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      75.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 79-year-old male patient of yours scores 7/10 on the abbreviated mental test...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old male patient of yours scores 7/10 on the abbreviated mental test score.
      He says he is a bit worried about his memory. He is a retired lawyer. The three questions he got wrong related to short-term memory loss.
      What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Undertake a full assessment

      Correct Answer: Diagnose dementia

      Explanation:

      Management of Memory Loss in the Elderly

      MRCGP candidates are expected to have an understanding of the management of conditions commonly associated with old age, including memory loss. However, the correct course of management for memory loss would be to undertake a full assessment in the first instance. The abbreviated mental test is only a screening test and should not be used alone to form a diagnosis. If a significant problem is found, it is usual to refer to memory assessment services, which may be provided by a memory assessment clinic or community mental health teams. This should be the single point of referral for all people with a possible diagnosis of dementia. GPs would not normally initiate prescribing in this manner, although they may be involved in a shared care arrangement with specialist initiation and supervision of medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
      138.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A study compares the effectiveness of two treatments for hypertension. The first treatment...

    Correct

    • A study compares the effectiveness of two treatments for hypertension. The first treatment has a success rate of 75% whilst the second treatment has a success rate of 82%. What type of significance test should be used for comparing the two results?

      Your Answer: Chi-squared test

      Explanation:

      The chi-squared test is appropriate for comparing percentages.

      Types of Significance Tests

      Significance tests are used to determine whether the results of a study are statistically significant or simply due to chance. The type of significance test used depends on the type of data being analyzed. Parametric tests are used for data that can be measured and are usually normally distributed, while non-parametric tests are used for data that cannot be measured in this way.

      Parametric tests include the Student’s t-test, which can be paired or unpaired, and Pearson’s product-moment coefficient, which is used for correlation analysis. Non-parametric tests include the Mann-Whitney U test, which compares ordinal, interval, or ratio scales of unpaired data, and the Wilcoxon signed-rank test, which compares two sets of observations on a single sample. The chi-squared test is used to compare proportions or percentages, while Spearman and Kendall rank are used for correlation analysis.

      It is important to choose the appropriate significance test for the type of data being analyzed in order to obtain accurate and reliable results. By understanding the different types of significance tests available, researchers can make informed decisions about which test to use for their particular study.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      23.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 51-year-old woman presents with a two-week history of difficulty swallowing solid foods,...

    Correct

    • A 51-year-old woman presents with a two-week history of difficulty swallowing solid foods, particularly meat. She experiences discomfort at the lower end of the sternum and has trouble shifting it almost immediately after swallowing. The patient has a longstanding history of GORD and has intermittently taken omeprazole 20 mg/day for the past decade. She has not experienced any weight loss or vomiting. What is the best course of action for managing this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Refer urgently for direct access upper GI endoscopy

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral Needed for New Onset Dysphagia

      The sudden onset of dysphagia, even in patients with a long history of GORD and dyspepsia, requires an urgent referral for upper GI endoscopy within two weeks. Delaying the referral can lead to serious complications and worsen the patient’s condition. Therefore, all other options apart from an urgent referral should be avoided. It is crucial to prioritize the patient’s health and well-being by promptly addressing any new symptoms that arise. Proper diagnosis and treatment can prevent further complications and improve the patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      43.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 60-year-old man comes to your clinic complaining of fatigue and swelling in...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man comes to your clinic complaining of fatigue and swelling in his legs. Upon conducting some blood tests, the following results are obtained:

      - Sodium (Na+): 138 mmol/l
      - Potassium (K+): 5.6 mmol/l
      - Urea: 19.3 mmol/l
      - Creatinine: 299 µmol/l

      It is noted that his renal function was normal six months ago. Which of his regular medications should be stopped immediately?

      Your Answer: Ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      Patients with acute kidney injury or chronic kidney disease should avoid NSAIDs like ibuprofen as they can exacerbate renal impairment.

      Prescribing for Patients with Renal Failure

      Prescribing medication for patients with renal failure can be challenging. It is important to know which drugs to avoid and which ones require dose adjustment. Antibiotics such as tetracycline and nitrofurantoin, as well as NSAIDs, lithium, and metformin should be avoided in patients with renal failure. These drugs can cause further damage to the kidneys or accumulate in the body, leading to toxicity.

      On the other hand, some drugs require dose adjustment in patients with chronic kidney disease. Antibiotics such as penicillins, cephalosporins, vancomycin, gentamicin, and streptomycin, as well as digoxin, atenolol, methotrexate, sulphonylureas, and furosemide, are among the drugs that require dose adjustment. Opioids should also be used with caution in patients with renal failure.

      There are also drugs that are relatively safe to use in patients with renal failure. Antibiotics such as erythromycin and rifampicin, as well as diazepam and warfarin, can sometimes be used at normal doses depending on the degree of chronic kidney disease.

      In summary, prescribing medication for patients with renal failure requires careful consideration of the drugs’ potential effects on the kidneys and the need for dose adjustment. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to ensure safe and effective medication management for these patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      82.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 67-year-old woman presents with a general feeling of unwellness. She reports low...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman presents with a general feeling of unwellness. She reports low mood and energy, along with body aches. She is experiencing increased nausea, constipation, and reflux, which has led to a decrease in her appetite. However, she is staying well hydrated. Her medical history includes well-controlled type 2 diabetes, GORD, and recently diagnosed hypertension. Recent blood tests revealed Hb of 135 g/L (115 - 160), urea of 5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0), and creatinine of 60 µmol/L (55 - 120). What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Secondary hypothyroidism

      Correct Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms of depression, nausea, constipation, and bone pain suggest a diagnosis of primary hyperparathyroidism. This condition is characterized by hypercalcaemia, which can cause the ‘moans, groans, and bones’ of hyperparathyroidism. Other common symptoms include polydipsia, polyuria, hypertension, renal stones, and pancreatitis.

      It is important to distinguish primary hyperparathyroidism from secondary hyperparathyroidism, which is usually caused by renal disease. In this case, the patient’s recent blood tests showed normal renal function, making secondary hyperparathyroidism less likely. Primary hypoparathyroidism, a congenital condition, is also unlikely as it would cause low calcium and high phosphate levels, resulting in different symptoms than those presented by the patient.

      Secondary hypoparathyroidism, which can result in depression due to chronic hypocalcaemia, is also unlikely as it is usually caused by damage to the parathyroid glands from neck surgery or radiation therapy, which the patient has not undergone.

      Therefore, primary hyperparathyroidism remains the most likely diagnosis for this patient’s symptoms.

      Primary Hyperparathyroidism: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Primary hyperparathyroidism is a condition that is commonly seen in elderly females and is characterized by an unquenchable thirst and an inappropriately normal or raised parathyroid hormone level. It is usually caused by a solitary adenoma, hyperplasia, multiple adenoma, or carcinoma. While around 80% of patients are asymptomatic, the symptomatic features of primary hyperparathyroidism may include polydipsia, polyuria, depression, anorexia, nausea, constipation, peptic ulceration, pancreatitis, bone pain/fracture, renal stones, and hypertension.

      Primary hyperparathyroidism is associated with hypertension and multiple endocrine neoplasia, such as MEN I and II. To diagnose this condition, doctors may perform a technetium-MIBI subtraction scan or look for a characteristic X-ray finding of hyperparathyroidism called the pepperpot skull.

      The definitive management for primary hyperparathyroidism is total parathyroidectomy. However, conservative management may be offered if the calcium level is less than 0.25 mmol/L above the upper limit of normal, the patient is over 50 years old, and there is no evidence of end-organ damage. Patients who are not suitable for surgery may be treated with cinacalcet, a calcimimetic that mimics the action of calcium on tissues by allosteric activation of the calcium-sensing receptor.

      In summary, primary hyperparathyroidism is a condition that can cause various symptoms and is commonly seen in elderly females. It can be diagnosed through various tests and managed through surgery or medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      198.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 30-year-old Caucasian woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a painful,...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old Caucasian woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a painful, swollen, left lower leg. She has recently been started on a combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). She has never smoked. Her mother had a pulmonary embolism in her thirties, while pregnant.
      On examination, her body mass index (BMI) is 23 kg/m2.
      What is the most probable reason for her symptoms? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Protein C deficiency

      Correct Answer: Factor V Leiden mutation

      Explanation:

      Understanding Thrombophilias: Factor V Leiden Mutation and Other Genetic Risk Factors for DVT

      Deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) is a serious medical condition that can be caused by a variety of risk factors, including heritable thrombophilias. These genetic conditions can be identified in up to 50% of venous thromboemboli cases, and the most common heritable thrombophilia in Caucasians is the Factor V Leiden mutation. This autosomal-dominant condition affects around 5% of the population and increases the risk of thrombosis three to eight times, depending on the individual’s genotype. Other genetic risk factors for DVT include protein C and protein S deficiencies, which are less common than Factor V Leiden mutation. It is important to consider these genetic risk factors when evaluating patients with DVT, especially those with a family history of hormone-associated VTE or without other traditional risk factors for thrombosis. Understanding thrombophilias can help clinicians make informed decisions about treatment and prevention strategies for DVT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      37.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A healthy 60-year-old male has a clinic blood pressure of 120/75 mmHg.

    When should...

    Incorrect

    • A healthy 60-year-old male has a clinic blood pressure of 120/75 mmHg.

      When should you offer him another blood pressure test?

      Your Answer: 1 year

      Correct Answer: 6 months

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Hypertension Testing

      The NICE guidelines recommend testing normotensive individuals every five years, with more frequent testing for those with blood pressure approaching 140/90 mmHg. For this particular patient, five years is sufficient. It is important for general practitioners to have a thorough understanding of hypertension management, as it may be tested on in various areas of the MRCGP exam, including the AKT. This question specifically assesses knowledge of NICE guidance on hypertension (NG136).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - The mother of a 27-year-old male who has been diagnosed with a personality...

    Correct

    • The mother of a 27-year-old male who has been diagnosed with a personality disorder seeks your advice. She shares that her son has a history of getting into fights and has been arrested multiple times. During his teenage years, he would lie to obtain money, skip school, and say hurtful things to her without remorse. He has never been able to hold down a job and relies on his parents for financial support.

      The mother is aware of her son's diagnosis but understands that you cannot discuss his case specifically. She asks if you can provide general information about the condition to help her understand better. She has always blamed herself for her son's behavior and hopes to gain some insight into his condition.

      What is the most probable diagnosis for this individual?

      Your Answer: Antisocial personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Patients with this condition often exhibit nonconformity to social norms, lack of remorse, deceitfulness, and irresponsibility. They may engage in unlawful behavior resulting in multiple arrests, get into fights due to aggressiveness, and be deceitful for personal gain. They may also disregard the safety of themselves and others and fail to support themselves financially. Despite their hurtful actions, they are unable to show remorse. Childhood problems such as truancy may be present, and their behavior can negatively impact family life. It is important to maintain confidentiality during the consultation.

      Avoidant personality disorder is characterized by a fear of social contact and relationships due to a fear of criticism, rejection, or embarrassment. Patients view themselves as inferior to others and are hesitant to engage unless they are certain of being liked.

      Borderline personality disorder is characterized by emotional instability, impulsive behavior, and unstable relationships with others. Patients may experience feelings of emptiness, have a poor self-image, and engage in self-harm.

      Narcissistic personality disorder is characterized by an exaggerated sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and a sense of entitlement.

      Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      61.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Mrs. Evans is a 54-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes. She was unable...

    Correct

    • Mrs. Evans is a 54-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes. She was unable to tolerate metformin due to nausea. She has been doing some of her own research into other options and suggests an SGLT-2 inhibitor, empagliflozin, because she has read it might help her lose weight and improve her blood pressure, as well as improve her blood sugar.

      What is the mechanism of action of empagliflozin?

      Your Answer: Increase urinary glucose excretion

      Explanation:

      SGLT-2 inhibitors function by enhancing the urinary excretion of glucose, which is the root cause of their primary side effects such as increased urine output, weight loss, and UTI. Sulphonylureas like gliclazide, on the other hand, work by increasing insulin release from the pancreas. Acarbose, which is not commonly prescribed in the UK, reduces glucose absorption in the gut. DPP4-inhibitors, which reduce the breakdown of incretins, decrease glucagon secretion by reducing glucagon release from the pancreas. Empagliflozin, an SGLT-2 inhibitor, reduces glucose reabsorption in the proximal convoluted tubule, leading to an additional excretion of approximately 70g of glucose per day. This not only improves blood sugar levels but also causes weight loss, unlike other diabetic medications such as sulphonylureas and insulin, which cause weight gain. The slight diuresis caused by increased glucose excretion may also improve blood pressure. However, the increased glucose in the urine can also lead to adverse events such as urinary tract or genital infections. SGLT-2 inhibitors do not slow gastric emptying.

      Understanding SGLT-2 Inhibitors

      SGLT-2 inhibitors are medications that work by blocking the reabsorption of glucose in the kidneys, leading to increased excretion of glucose in the urine. This mechanism of action helps to lower blood sugar levels in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Examples of SGLT-2 inhibitors include canagliflozin, dapagliflozin, and empagliflozin.

      However, it is important to note that SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have adverse effects. Patients taking these medications may be at increased risk for urinary and genital infections due to the increased glucose in the urine. Fournier’s gangrene, a rare but serious bacterial infection of the genital area, has also been reported. Additionally, there is a risk of normoglycemic ketoacidosis, a condition where the body produces high levels of ketones even when blood sugar levels are normal. Finally, patients taking SGLT-2 inhibitors may be at increased risk for lower-limb amputations, so it is important to closely monitor the feet.

      Despite these potential risks, SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have benefits. Patients taking these medications often experience weight loss, which can be beneficial for those with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Overall, it is important for patients to discuss the potential risks and benefits of SGLT-2 inhibitors with their healthcare provider before starting treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      43.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 45-year-old man presents to you after being involved in a car accident...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents to you after being involved in a car accident 3 weeks ago. He reports experiencing flashbacks of the crash while watching car chase scenes on TV and has been avoiding such shows. He also mentions having trouble falling asleep and feeling more irritable than usual. However, his symptoms have not significantly impacted his work or relationships, and he is generally functioning well. What is the recommended next step in primary care management according to current NICE guidelines?

      Your Answer: Arrange an appointment with the practice mental health nurse in order to 'debrief' the car accident

      Correct Answer: Arrange a period of watchful waiting, ensuring a follow-up appointment within 1 month

      Explanation:

      If an individual is experiencing mild to moderate symptoms of PTSD for less than 4 weeks, it may be appropriate to suggest a period of watchful waiting, as per the current NICE guidelines. It is not recommended to use single session interventions that focus on the traumatic event, despite their common practice. Additionally, drug treatments should not be the first-line management for PTSD, whether used by general practitioners or specialist mental health professionals. There is no need for an urgent referral to the adult mental health team in this situation.

      Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)

      Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop in individuals of any age following a traumatic event. This can include natural disasters, physical or sexual assault, or military combat. PTSD is characterized by a range of symptoms, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through flashbacks or nightmares, avoidance of triggers associated with the event, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, depression, and substance abuse.

      Effective management of PTSD involves a range of interventions, including watchful waiting for mild symptoms, trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), and eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy for more severe cases. While drug treatments are not recommended as a first-line treatment for adults, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) such as sertraline may be used. In severe cases, risperidone may be recommended. It is important to note that single-session interventions, also known as debriefing, are not recommended following a traumatic event.

      Understanding PTSD and its symptoms is crucial in providing effective support and treatment for those who have experienced trauma. With the right interventions, individuals with PTSD can learn to manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      48.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - You are requested to assess a 63-year-old man who has castrate-resistant prostate cancer....

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to assess a 63-year-old man who has castrate-resistant prostate cancer. He has widespread bony metastases in multiple lumbar vertebrae, left ilium, and left proximal femur. The patient is experiencing increased hip pain while on his current dose of modified release morphine sulphate tablets (MST Continus). He is currently taking 50 mg twice daily and has taken an additional 40 mg of PRN oramorph for breakthrough pain in the last 24 hours.

      What is the most appropriate approach to manage his pain?

      Your Answer: Add in ibuprofen three times daily with a proton pump inhibitor

      Correct Answer: Increase MST to 70 mg twice daily

      Explanation:

      To determine the correct dosage, one can calculate the total daily amount of morphine needed. For example, if the total daily amount required is 140mg, the appropriate dosage would be 70 mg taken twice daily. However, if this calculation results in a dosage exceeding 50 mg, an alternative approach may be necessary.

      Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects include nausea, drowsiness, and constipation, which are usually transient but may persist. Denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain in addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      93.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - An 80-year-old, frail elderly man on the geriatric ward is experiencing difficulty sleeping...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old, frail elderly man on the geriatric ward is experiencing difficulty sleeping and asks for medication to aid his insomnia. The doctor prescribes a brief course of zopiclone.

      What is one of the potential risks of administering zopiclone to elderly patients?

      Your Answer: Increased risk of falls

      Explanation:

      Elderly patients taking zopiclone are at an increased risk of falling.

      Zopiclone works by binding to GABA-containing receptors, which enhances the effects of GABA and produces both the desired and undesired effects of the drug. Its mechanism of action is similar to that of benzodiazepines.

      Some of the side effects of zopiclone include agitation, dry mouth, constipation, dizziness, decreased muscle tone, and a bitter taste in the mouth. Elderly patients are particularly susceptible to falls when taking zopiclone.

      While diarrhoea is not a known side effect of zopiclone, withdrawal from the drug may cause convulsions, tremors, and hyperventilation.

      Understanding Z Drugs

      Z drugs are a class of medications that have comparable effects to benzodiazepines but differ in their chemical structure. They work by targeting the α2-subunit of the GABA receptor. Z drugs can be categorized into three groups: imidazopyridines, cyclopyrrolones, and pyrazolopyrimidines. Examples of these drugs include zolpidem, zopiclone, and zaleplon, respectively.

      Like benzodiazepines, Z drugs can cause similar adverse effects. Additionally, they can increase the risk of falls in older adults. It is important to understand the potential risks and benefits of these medications before use and to follow the prescribed dosage and instructions carefully.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      42.5
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  • Question 19 - A 72-year-old woman presents with advanced oesophageal cancer.
    She has an inoperable tumour and...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman presents with advanced oesophageal cancer.
      She has an inoperable tumour and is being managed palliatively. From the description of her symptoms you diagnose oesophageal spasm.
      Which of the following would be most helpful in managing her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Nifedipine

      Correct Answer: Pamidronate

      Explanation:

      Treatment options for oesophageal spasm

      This patient is suffering from oesophageal cancer and is experiencing odynophagia and dysphagia. A clinical diagnosis of oesophageal spasm has been made. There are several treatment options available depending on the underlying cause of the symptoms.

      Dexamethasone is useful if the dysphagia is due to tumour enlargement and physical blockage is causing dysphagia. Fluconazole is used to treat oesophagitis caused by candidal infection. Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that can be helpful if symptoms of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease are present. Pamidronate is a bisphosphonate that is administered intravenously to treat bone pain and hypercalcaemia.

      Nifedipine can work well in cases like this due to its action of relaxing smooth muscle and can help treat the painful spasm that is underlying the symptoms. It is important to identify the underlying cause of the oesophageal spasm to determine the most effective treatment option. With proper treatment, the patient can experience relief from their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      123.9
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  • Question 20 - A 28-year-old mother contacts the on-call doctor, concerned about her two daughters (aged...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old mother contacts the on-call doctor, concerned about her two daughters (aged 4 and 6) who attend the same school. She reports that both girls have been complaining of an itchy scalp for the past week, but she has not noticed any visible signs of rash or irritation. After conducting a dry combing of their hair, she has found live lice on her younger daughter.

      What advice would you give as the on-call doctor?

      Your Answer: Arrange to review the patient face-to-face so you can examine the scalp first

      Correct Answer: Treat only the twin with live lice on dry combing with either malathion, wet combing, dimeticone, isopropyl myristate or cyclomethicone

      Explanation:

      According to the updated 2016 NICE CKS guidance, household contacts of patients with head lice do not require treatment unless they are also infested. Treatment should only be given if live head lice are detected, and it may be possible to manage this over the phone without a physical examination. It is crucial to have a discussion with the patient or caregiver about the various treatment options available, weighing the pros and cons, and involving them in the decision-making process.

      Understanding Head Lice: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Head lice, also known as pediculosis capitis or ‘nits’, is a common condition in children caused by a parasitic insect called Pediculus capitis. These small insects live only on humans and feed on our blood. The eggs, which are grey or brown and about the size of a pinhead, are glued to the hair close to the scalp and hatch in 7 to 10 days. Nits, on the other hand, are the empty egg shells and are white and shiny. They are found further along the hair shaft as they grow out.

      Head lice are spread by direct head-to-head contact and tend to be more common in children who play closely together. It is important to note that head lice cannot jump, fly, or swim. When newly infected, cases have no symptoms, but itching and scratching on the scalp occur 2 to 3 weeks after infection. There is no incubation period.

      To diagnose head lice, fine-toothed combing of wet or dry hair is necessary. Treatment is only indicated if living lice are found. A choice of treatments should be offered, including malathion, wet combing, dimeticone, isopropyl myristate, and cyclomethicone. Household contacts of patients with head lice do not need to be treated unless they are also affected. It is important to note that school exclusion is not advised for children with head lice.

      In conclusion, understanding the causes, symptoms, and management of head lice is crucial in preventing its spread. By taking the necessary precautions and seeking appropriate treatment, we can effectively manage this common condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 21 - A 55-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner complaining that he has woken...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner complaining that he has woken up with a ‘wonky’ smile. On examination, the right side of his mouth is drooping; there is right-sided facial weakness and he cannot lift his eyebrow on the right. He has no vesicles in his ears or on his face and is otherwise well, with no other neurological findings.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Idiopathic Bell’s palsy

      Explanation:

      Facial Paralysis: Understanding the Causes and Symptoms

      Facial paralysis can be caused by a variety of factors, including stroke, brain tumours, and viral infections. The most common type of facial paralysis is Bell’s palsy, which is often idiopathic in nature. In Bell’s palsy, the brow is paralyzed due to a lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy. While the underlying cause is often unknown, viruses such as herpes simplex type 1 have been implicated. Other potential causes include mononeuropathy in diabetes or sarcoid, Lyme disease, and posterior fossa tumours.

      Fortunately, the majority of patients with Bell’s palsy recover significantly within six weeks to three months, with around 70% making a full recovery. Treatment typically involves prednisolone and vigilant eye care.

      It’s important to differentiate Bell’s palsy from other potential causes of facial paralysis, such as stroke or brain tumours. In a stroke, the brow would not be paralyzed due to an upper motor neuron lesion. While a posterior fossa tumour can cause facial palsy, it is less common than Bell’s palsy. Paralysis is a nonspecific diagnosis and not the best answer, while Ramsay Hunt syndrome is associated with the varicella-zoster virus and typically presents with concomitant shingles, which is not present in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 22 - A 75-year-old man is experiencing alcohol withdrawal syndrome. What class of drugs would...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man is experiencing alcohol withdrawal syndrome. What class of drugs would be the most suitable for treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Barbiturate

      Explanation:

      Benzodiazepines for Alcohol Withdrawal Syndrome

      Benzodiazepines are the preferred first line treatment for alcohol withdrawal syndrome. The two most commonly used benzodiazepines in primary care are chlordiazepoxide and diazepam. However, chlordiazepoxide is the preferred option due to its longer half-life and lower potential for abuse.

      Both chlordiazepoxide and diazepam are equally effective in treating alcohol withdrawal syndrome. However, it is recommended that patients using diazepam are supervised by someone else during the detoxification period.

      The NHS National Library for Health provides helpful information on alcohol detoxification, including a suggested tapering dose regime.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 23 - A 32-year-old woman contacts the clinic as she has been advised by secondary...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman contacts the clinic as she has been advised by secondary care to seek prophylactic antibiotics. Her brother, with whom she shares a home, has been hospitalized with symptoms of meningococcal meningitis. What is the most suitable antibiotic to prescribe in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Ciprofloxacin or rifampicin are the recommended antibiotics for prophylaxis in close contacts of patients with meningococcal meningitis, particularly those living in the same household. It is important to administer the prophylactic antibiotics as soon as possible, ideally within 24 hours. Amoxicillin is not used for prophylaxis in close contacts, but may be used in combination with cefotaxime or ceftriaxone to treat bacterial meningitis in hospitalized patients over 50 years old. Benzylpenicillin and cefotaxime are not used as prophylactic treatments for close contacts, but are used to treat suspected cases of meningococcal meningitis.

      When suspected bacterial meningitis is being investigated and managed, it is important to prioritize timely antibiotic treatment to avoid negative consequences. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and if meningococcal disease is suspected in a prehospital setting, intramuscular benzylpenicillin may be given. An ABC approach should be taken initially, and senior review is necessary if any warning signs are present. A key decision is when to attempt a lumbar puncture, which should be delayed in certain circumstances. Management of patients without indication for delayed LP includes IV antibiotics, with cefotaxime or ceftriaxone recommended for patients aged 3 months to 50 years. Additional tests that may be helpful include blood gases and throat swab for meningococcal culture. Prophylaxis needs to be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis, and meningococcal vaccination should be offered to close contacts when serotype results are available.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 24 - What is the accurate statement about the heightened risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE)...

    Incorrect

    • What is the accurate statement about the heightened risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE) after air travel for individuals?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Compression stockings have a role in reducing the risk of VTE in moderate or high risk patients

      Explanation:

      For patients at moderate or high risk, compression stockings are the most suitable preventative measure, with low molecular weight heparin potentially necessary for those at very high risk. Aspirin is not recommended by any current UK guidelines. Although it is sensible to maintain good hydration, there is no evidence to suggest that it effectively prevents VTE, as noted by SIGN in their guideline.

      Travel-Related Thrombosis and Guidelines for Prevention

      Long-haul air travel has been associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), commonly known as economy class syndrome. However, there is no universal agreement on how to advise patients regarding VTE prevention during travel. The British Committee for Standards in Haematology, SIGN, and Clinical Knowledge Summaries have all produced guidelines, but they differ in their recommendations.

      The most recent CKS guidelines suggest a risk-based approach. Patients with no major risk factors for VTE do not require special measures. However, those with major risk factors should consider wearing anti-embolism stockings, which can be bought or prescribed. In cases of very high risk, such as a long-haul flight following recent major surgery, delaying the flight or seeking specialist advice regarding the use of low-molecular weight heparin may be necessary.

      It is important to note that all guidelines agree that there is no role for aspirin in VTE prevention for low, medium, or high-risk patients. A 2001 study in the New England Journal of Medicine showed that the risk of pulmonary embolism increases with travel distance, with 4.8 cases per million for travel over 10,000 km. While the Civil Aviation Authority doesn’t provide specific guidance on VTE prevention, healthcare providers can use these guidelines to help patients make informed decisions about their travel plans.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      0
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  • Question 25 - What is the most suitable first-line medication for a 75-year-old woman with depression...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most suitable first-line medication for a 75-year-old woman with depression in primary care, assuming there are no contraindications?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amitriptylline

      Explanation:

      Pharmacological Options for Treating Depression in the Elderly

      There are several pharmacological options available for treating depression in the elderly, including selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), tricyclics, monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs), and serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs). However, all medications carry the risk of side effects, which may be more problematic in older patients who are more likely to be on additional medications and more susceptible to iatrogenic disease.

      A 2006 Cochrane review found that SSRIs and tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) were of equivalent efficacy, but TCAs were associated with a greater withdrawal rate due to side effects. The general view based on available evidence is that SSRIs are better tolerated and generally safer, although there are instances when a TCA may be more appropriate. For example, its sedative properties can be useful when a sleep disorder is part of the clinical problem.

      Of the options, sertraline is the only SSRI and is generally considered the most appropriate first-line treatment option in the absence of contraindications. Amitriptyline is a TCA and would generally not be used ahead of an SSRI. MAOIs should be prescribed by a specialist, and venlafaxine is considered a second-line option due to its greater risk of death from overdose. Haloperidol, an antipsychotic, should not be considered as an initial option in the treatment of depression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
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  • Question 26 - A 25-year-old man presents with a three-month history of weight loss, night sweats,...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents with a three-month history of weight loss, night sweats, and painful lumps in his neck that worsen with alcohol consumption. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hodgkin’s lymphoma

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of Painful Lymphadenopathy

      Painful lymphadenopathy can be a rare but significant symptom in the diagnosis of certain conditions. In Hodgkin’s lymphoma, pain on alcohol ingestion in involved lymph nodes is a strong indication of the disease, although the reasons for the pain are unknown. On the other hand, glandular fever, lymph node metastases from laryngeal cancer, recurrent tonsillitis, and tuberculosis are incorrect differential diagnoses for painful lymphadenopathy.

      Glandular fever, caused by the Epstein-Barr virus, presents with fever, lymphadenopathy, pharyngitis, rash, and periorbital edema. However, lymphadenopathy is always bilateral and symmetrical, and the disease is usually self-limiting. Lymph node metastases from laryngeal cancer may present with a lump in the neck, but chronic hoarseness is the most common early symptom, and systemic symptoms are not present. Recurrent tonsillitis may cause anterior cervical lymph nodes to enlarge and become tender, but it is usually accompanied by a sore throat. Finally, while cervical nodes are commonly affected in tuberculous lymphadenitis, they may present as abscesses with discharging sinuses, and lymph node pain on drinking alcohol doesn’t occur in tuberculosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      0
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  • Question 27 - A 35-year-old male is unconscious on admission following a workplace accident. He was...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male is unconscious on admission following a workplace accident. He was operating heavy machinery and there is suspicion that he may have been under the influence of drugs at the time of the incident. His wife is present and unharmed. The authorities are requesting a blood sample for drug testing, but the patient is unable to provide consent and there is no forensic physician available. As a healthcare professional working in the emergency department, what is the appropriate course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Draw a blood sample for later analysis when the patient is competent to consent

      Explanation:

      Taking Blood Specimens from Incapacitated Drivers

      The BMA has provided clear guidance on the subject of taking blood specimens from incapacitated drivers. According to the 2010 document, the law allows for a blood specimen to be taken for future testing for alcohol or other drugs from a person involved in an accident who is unable to give consent due to medical reasons. A police constable must believe the person to be incapable of giving valid consent before a forensic physician is asked to take the sample. If this is not possible, another doctor may be asked, but not one who has any responsibility for the patient’s clinical care. The doctor to whom the request is made must take the specimen, and the doctor in charge of the patient’s care must be notified before the sample is taken. The specimen cannot be tested until the person regains competence and gives valid consent for it to be tested.

      Under the Police Reform Act, it is no longer necessary to obtain consent from unconscious or incapacitated drivers. However, the sample is not tested until the person regains competence and gives valid consent to it being tested. A competent person who refuses to allow their sample to be tested may be liable to prosecution. It is important to note that the police have no powers to take and test blood specimens that were taken as part of the patient’s care in hospital. The new law recognises the duty to justice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 28 - A 70-year-old man with prostatism has a serum prostate-specific antigen (PSA) concentration of...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man with prostatism has a serum prostate-specific antigen (PSA) concentration of 7.5 ng/ml (normal range 0 - 4 ng/ml).
      What is the most appropriate conclusion to make from this information?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It could be explained by prostatitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding PSA Levels in Prostate Health: What You Need to Know

      PSA levels can be a useful indicator of prostate health, but they are not always straightforward to interpret. Here are some key points to keep in mind:

      – PSA has a low specificity: prostatitis and acute urinary retention can both result in increased serum PSA concentrations. As the patient is known to have prostatism, this could well account for a raised PSA; however, further investigation to exclude a malignancy may be warranted.
      – It is diagnostic of malignancy: Although this level is certainly compatible with malignancy; it is not diagnostic of it. Further investigations, including magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scanning and/or prostatic biopsies, are needed to confirm a diagnosis of prostate cancer.
      – It is invalidated if he underwent a digital rectal examination 8 days before the blood sample was taken: Although DRE is known to increase PSA levels, it is a minor and only transient effect. The NHS Prostate Cancer Risk Management Programme says that the test should be postponed for a week following DRE.
      – It is prognostically highly significant: In general, the higher the PSA, the greater the likelihood of malignancy, but some patients with malignancy have normal levels (often taken as = 4 ng/ml but are actually age dependent). The absolute PSA concentration correlates poorly with prognosis in prostatic cancer. Other factors such as the tumour staging and Gleason score need to be considered.
      – It is unremarkable in a man of this age: Although PSA does increase with age, the British Association of Urological Surgeons gives a maximum level of 7.2 ng/ml in those aged 70–75 years (although it acknowledges that there is no ‘safe “maximum” level’). Therefore, this level can still indicate malignancy, regardless of symptoms.

      In summary, PSA levels can provide important information about prostate health, but they should always be interpreted in the context of other factors and confirmed with further testing if necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 29 - A 28-year-old woman is being seen at the genitourinary medicine clinic for vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman is being seen at the genitourinary medicine clinic for vaginal discharge and dysuria. Upon examination, an endocervical swab revealed a Gram-negative coccus identified as Neisseria gonorrhoea, marking her third episode of gonorrhoea in the last two years. What is the probable outcome of repeated infections?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Infertility

      Explanation:

      Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) resulting in infertility is frequently seen as a complication of gonorrhoea, with Chlamydia being the only cause of PID that is more common. Arthropathy is a rare occurrence in comparison. Chlamydia trachomatis is responsible for causing lymphogranuloma venereum.

      Understanding Gonorrhoea: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the Gram-negative diplococcus Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It can occur on any mucous membrane surface, including the genitourinary tract, rectum, and pharynx. Symptoms in males include urethral discharge and dysuria, while females may experience cervicitis leading to vaginal discharge. However, rectal and pharyngeal infections are usually asymptomatic. Unfortunately, immunisation is not possible, and reinfection is common due to antigen variation of type IV pili and Opa proteins.

      If left untreated, gonorrhoea can lead to local complications such as urethral strictures, epididymitis, and salpingitis, which may result in infertility. Disseminated infection may also occur, with gonococcal infection being the most common cause of septic arthritis in young adults. The pathophysiology of disseminated gonococcal infection is not fully understood but is thought to be due to haematogenous spread from mucosal infection.

      Management of gonorrhoea involves the use of antibiotics. Ciprofloxacin used to be the treatment of choice, but there is now increased resistance to it. Cephalosporins are now more widely used, with a single dose of IM ceftriaxone 1g being the new first-line treatment. If sensitivities are known, a single dose of oral ciprofloxacin 500mg may be given. Disseminated gonococcal infection and gonococcal arthritis may also occur, with symptoms including tenosynovitis, migratory polyarthritis, and dermatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 30 - You work in a small rural practice. You see lots of elderly patients...

    Incorrect

    • You work in a small rural practice. You see lots of elderly patients with dermatologic problems and need to refer some of them to hospital. Unfortunately this is a long way away and many elderly patients find it difficult to travel.

      You think about setting up an audiovisual telemedicine clinic. Which one of the following statements is correct about audiovisual telemedicine clinics?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: There will need to be important organisational changes to the way in which you and your colleagues in secondary care work to make telemedicine work

      Explanation:

      Considerations for Implementing Telemedicine in Secondary Care

      There are several important organizational changes that need to be made in order for telemedicine to work effectively in secondary care. However, it is important to note that telemedicine clinics may not necessarily have economic benefits, as the costs of implementing the necessary technology can be expensive. Additionally, while patients may appreciate the convenience of not having to travel to see a specialist, they may still prefer face-to-face consultations. It is also unclear whether clinical outcomes will improve with the use of telemedicine. Finally, it is important to obtain explicit consent from patients before using any video consultations for teaching purposes. These considerations should be taken into account when considering the implementation of telemedicine in secondary care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular Health (0/2) 0%
Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability (1/1) 100%
Allergy And Immunology (0/1) 0%
Respiratory Health (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (2/2) 100%
Older Adults (0/1) 0%
Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge (1/1) 100%
Kidney And Urology (1/2) 50%
Genomic Medicine (0/1) 0%
Mental Health (2/3) 67%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (0/1) 0%
End Of Life (0/1) 0%
Children And Young People (0/1) 0%
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