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  • Question 1 - All of the following statements about cerebrospinal fluid are incorrect except: ...

    Correct

    • All of the following statements about cerebrospinal fluid are incorrect except:

      Your Answer: Has a glucose concentration 2/3 that of the plasma glucose

      Explanation:

      The pH of CSF is 7.31 which is lower than plasma.

      Compared to plasma, it has a lower concentration of potassium, calcium, and protein and a higher concentration of sodium, chloride, bicarbonate and magnesium.

      CSF usually has no cells present but if white cells are present, there should be no more than 4/ml.

      The pressure of CSF should be less than 20 cm of water.

      The concentration of glucose is approximately two-thirds of that of plasma, and it has a concentration of approximately 3.3-4 mmol/L.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You draw a patient's blood sample from the median cubital vein in the...

    Correct

    • You draw a patient's blood sample from the median cubital vein in the antecubital fossa. Which of the following veins also connects to the cephalic vein other than the median cubital vein?

      Your Answer: Basilic vein

      Explanation:

      The upper limb venous drainage is divided into superficial and deep. The superficial veins are accessible to draw blood for investigations. The cephalic, basilic, and median cubital veins are superficial veins.

      The median cubital vein connects the cephalic vein and basilic vein. It is located anteriorly in the antecubital fossa and is preferred for venepuncture due to its palpability and ease of access.

      The basilic vein and cephalic vein are the primary veins that drain the upper limb. They begin as the dorsal venous arch. The basilic vein originates from the ulnar side, while the cephalic vein originates from the radial side of the dorsal arch of the upper limb.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      36.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - When there is a relation between two variables due to the existence of...

    Correct

    • When there is a relation between two variables due to the existence of a confounding factor, this association is termed as:

      Your Answer: Indirect

      Explanation:

      When the association among any two classes of object is defined by the presence of a third entity it is termed as indirect association. For an instance, the age of the employee may affect the rate of pay, which would have implications on job satisfaction. So, in this example, an indirect relationship between age and job satisfaction exists due to a third party i.e. rate of pay.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      22.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Out of the following, which artery is NOT a branch of the hepatic...

    Correct

    • Out of the following, which artery is NOT a branch of the hepatic artery?

      Your Answer: Pancreatic artery

      Explanation:

      The common hepatic artery arises from the celiac artery and has the following branches:
      1. hepatic artery proper that branches into –
      a. cystic artery to supply the gallbladder
      b. left and right hepatic arteries to supply the liver
      2. gastroduodenal artery that branches into
      a. right gastroepiploic artery
      b. superior pancreaticoduodenal artery
      3. right gastric artery

      The pancreatic artery is a branch of the splenic artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 48-year-old woman has presented to the emergency with abdominal pain and distension...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old woman has presented to the emergency with abdominal pain and distension complaints. She is a known case of diabetes mellitus type 2 and has a BMI of 28 kg/m². On investigations, the liver function tests (LFTs) show raised alanine transaminase (ALT). Liver ultrasound is performed next to visualize the blood flow into and out of the liver. Which blood vessel supplies approximately one-third of the blood supply to the liver?

      Your Answer: Hepatic artery proper

      Explanation:

      The liver receives blood supply from two sources.
      1. Hepatic artery proper
      It arises from the celiac trunk via the common hepatic artery and brings oxygenated blood to the liver.
      It contributes to approximately 30% of the blood supply of the liver.
      2. Hepatic portal vein – supplies the liver with partially deoxygenated blood, carrying nutrients absorbed from the small intestine. It gets tributaries from the inferior mesenteric vein, splenic vein, and superior mesenteric vein

      The inferior mesenteric artery supplies the hindgut.
      The superior mesenteric artery supplies the pancreas and intestine up to the proximal two-thirds of the transverse colon.
      The inferior phrenic artery supplies the inferior surface of the diaphragm and oesophagus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      28.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What is factually correct regarding correlation and regression? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is factually correct regarding correlation and regression?

      Your Answer: A t-test is a common test of correlation

      Correct Answer: Regression allows one variable to be predicted from another variable

      Explanation:

      Linear regression, using a technique called curve fitting, allows us to make predictions regarding a certain variable.

      Correlation coefficient gives us an idea whether or not the two parameters provide have any relation of some sort or not i.e. does change in one prompt any change in other?

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      44.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following statements is true regarding oxytocin? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding oxytocin?

      Your Answer: Reduces the threshold for depolarisation of the uterine smooth muscle

      Explanation:

      Oxytocin is secreted by the posterior pituitary along with Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH). It increases the contraction of the upper segment (fundus and body) of the uterus whereas the lower segment is relaxed facilitating the expulsion of the foetus.

      Oxytocin acts through G protein-coupled receptor and phosphoinositide-calcium second messenger system to contract uterine smooth muscle.

      It has 0.5 to 1 % ADH activity introducing possibilities of water intoxication when used in high doses.

      The sensitivity of the uterus to oxytocin increases as the pregnancy progresses.

      It is used for induction of labour in post maturity and uterine inertia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      34.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The most sensitive indicator of mild obstructive airway disease is? ...

    Incorrect

    • The most sensitive indicator of mild obstructive airway disease is?

      Your Answer: Peak expiratory flow (PEF)

      Correct Answer: Forced expiratory flow (FEF25-75%)

      Explanation:

      The volume expired in the first second of maximal expiration after a maximal inspiration is known as forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1), and it indicates how quickly full lungs can be emptied. It is the most commonly measured parameter for bronchoconstriction assessment.

      The maximum volume of air exhaled after a maximal inspiration is known as the ‘slow’ vital capacity (VC). VC is normally equal to FVC after a forced vital capacity (FVC) or slow vital capacity (VC) manoeuvre, unless there is an airflow obstruction, in which case VC is usually higher than FVC.

      The FEV1/FVC (Tiffeneau index) is a clinically useful index of airflow restriction that can be used to distinguish between restrictive and obstructive respiratory disorders.

      The average expired flow over the middle half (25-75 percent) of the FVC manoeuvre is the forced expiratory volume (FEF25-75). The airflow from the resistance bronchioles corresponds to this. It’s a more sensitive indicator of mild small airway narrowing than FEV1, but it’s difficult to tell if the VC (or FVC) is decreasing or increasing.

      The maximum expiratory flow rate achieved is called the peak expiratory flow (PEF), which is usually 8-14 L/second.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      22.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A patient is being prepped for major bowel surgery. Alice, a final-year medical...

    Correct

    • A patient is being prepped for major bowel surgery. Alice, a final-year medical student, observes the surgery but is asked to scrub in and assist the anaesthetist during intubation. The anaesthetist inserts the laryngoscope and asks Alex to locate the larynx. What anatomical landmark corresponds to the position of the larynx?

      Your Answer: C3-C6

      Explanation:

      The larynx is an air passage, sphincter, and organ of phonation that extends from the tongue to the trachea. It lies in the anterior part of the neck at the vertebral levels C3 to C6.

      Important anatomical landmarks:
      C1-C2 – Atlas and axis, respectively

      C3-C6 – Larynx

      C5 – Thyroid cartilage

      T5-T7 – Pulmonary hilum

      T12-L1 – Duodenum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following statements is not correct regarding dopamine? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is not correct regarding dopamine?

      Your Answer: Crosses the blood brain barrier

      Explanation:

      Dopamine (DA) is a dopaminergic (D1 and D2) as well as adrenergic α and β1 (but not β2 ) agonist.

      The D1 receptors in renal and mesenteric blood vessels are the most sensitive: i.v. infusion of a low dose of DA dilates these vessels (by raising intracellular cAMP). This increases g.f.r. In addition, DA exerts a natriuretic effect by D1 receptors on proximal tubular cells.

      Moderately high doses produce a positive inotropic (direct β1 and D1 action + that due to NA release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.

      Vasoconstriction (α1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.

      At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular α and β receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier€”no CNS effects.

      Dopamine is used in patients with cardiogenic or septic shock and severe CHF wherein it increases BP and urine outflow.

      It is administered by i.v. infusion (0.2€“1 mg/min) which is regulated by monitoring BP and rate of urine formation

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - An aged patient that has been suffering from diabetes criticised the health minister...

    Correct

    • An aged patient that has been suffering from diabetes criticised the health minister for his comments on incidence and prevalence. The minister had said that they both are two separate entities. It can be therefore inferred that the patient thinks that prevalence and incidence are the same thing. Is he right?

      Your Answer: No. In chronic disease prevalence is greater than incidence.

      Explanation:

      Only on rare occasions has it been found that the prevalence and incidence were same. Incidence can be greater than prevalence in acute cases only. In case of chronic diseases prevalence is far greater than incidence. One needs to have a deeper understanding of both the concepts to understand the health literature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      41.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 56-year old man, presents to emergency department following a cardiac arrest. On...

    Correct

    • A 56-year old man, presents to emergency department following a cardiac arrest. On history and examination, he is found to be suffering from both metabolic and respiratory acidosis as a result of his cardiac arrest. What is the best way to reduce the risk of acidaemia during cardiac arrest

      Your Answer: Chest compressions

      Explanation:

      Chest compressions are an essential part of cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) which helps restore spontaneous circulation (ROSC).

      Sodium bicarbonate is only prescribed in patients with cardiac arrests as a result of an overdose of tricyclic antidepressants or hyperkalaemia. Its use causes the body to produce more CO2 which causes:

      Exacerbation of intracellular acidosis
      Negative inotropy to ischaemic myocardium
      Increased osmotic load of sodium into failing brain and body
      Shift of oxygen dissociation curve to the left.

      THAM is often used to treat metabolic acidosis as a result of cardiac bypass surgery and also cardiac arrest, when other standard methods have failed.

      Carbicarb (Na2CO3 0.33 molar NaHCO3 0.33 molar) has only mild effects on acidosis. It also causes an increase in arterial CO2 pressure and lactate concentration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      40.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - The principal root innervation for the small muscles of the hand is? ...

    Incorrect

    • The principal root innervation for the small muscles of the hand is?

      Your Answer: C6

      Correct Answer: T1

      Explanation:

      The principal innervation of the small muscles of the hand is T1.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      29.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 61-year-old woman, present to her general practitioner. She complains of a severe...

    Correct

    • A 61-year-old woman, present to her general practitioner. She complains of a severe lancinating pain in her forehead that only last a few seconds, possibly triggered by washing her face, occurring over the previous six weeks. On examination, she is normal with no other signs or symptoms. Which nerve is the most likely cause of her pain?

      Your Answer: Sensory branches of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve

      Explanation:

      Her symptoms are suggestive of trigeminal neuralgia which is a short, sudden, severe sharp unilateral pain in the facial region. The pain often follows the sensory distribution of the trigeminal nerve (CN V).

      The trigeminal nerve gives rise to 3 sensory and 1 motor nuclei. Neuralgia can arise from any of the 3 sensory divisions.

      The ophthalmic division gives rise to 3 further sensory branches, which are the frontal, lacrimal and nasociliary.

      The frontal branch of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve is responsible for the innervation of the area in question.

      The superior alveolar dental, zygomatic and sphenopalatine nerves are all branches arising from the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve.

      The mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve provides sensory and motor innervation. The sensory innervation is carried out by the auriculotemporal nerve which supplies the lower third of the face, while the motor fibres are responsible for controlling the muscles of mastication.

      The somatic sensory branches of the vagus nerve are responsible for sensory innervation of the external acoustic meatus and tympanic membrane.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      23.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - With respect to the peripheral nerve stimulators, which one is used to perform...

    Incorrect

    • With respect to the peripheral nerve stimulators, which one is used to perform nerve blocking?

      Your Answer: Prior to injecting the local anaesthetic the ideal current is 1-2 mili amperes at a frequency of 1-2 Hz

      Correct Answer: Using an insulated needle improves the success rate for the block

      Explanation:

      The nerve stimulators deliver a stimulus lasting for 1-2 milliseconds (not second) to perform nerve blockage.

      There are just 2 leads (not 3); one for the skin and other for the needle.

      Prior to the administration of the local anaesthesia, a current of 0.25 – 0.5 mA (not 1-2mA) at the frequency of 1-2 Hz is preferred.

      If the needle tip is close to the nerve, muscular contraction could be possible at the lowest possible current.

      Insulated needles have improved the block success rate, as the current is only conducting through needle tip.

      Stimulus to the femoral nerve which is placed in the mid lingual line causes withdrawer of the quadriceps and knee extension, that’s the dancing patella ( not plantar flexion).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      25.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - What is the mechanism of the pupillary reflex arc? ...

    Correct

    • What is the mechanism of the pupillary reflex arc?

      Your Answer: Oculomotor nerve fibres from the Edinger-Westphal nuclei

      Explanation:

      Pupil size is reduced by the pupillary light reflex and during accommodation for near vision. In the pupillary light reflex, light that strikes the retina is processed by retinal circuits that excite W-type retinal ganglion cells. These cells respond to diffuse illumination. The axons of some of the W-type cells project through the optic nerve and tract to the pretectal area, where they synapse in the olivary pretectal nucleus. This nucleus contains neurons that also respond to diffuse illumination. Activity of neurons of the olivary pretectal nucleus causes pupillary constriction by means of bilateral connections with parasympathetic preganglionic neurons in the Edinger-Westphal nuclei. The reflex results in contraction of the pupillary sphincter muscles in both eyes, even when light is shone into only one eye.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      49.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Regarding aldosterone, one of the following is true. ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding aldosterone, one of the following is true.

      Your Answer: Is produced in the zona reticularis of the adrenal cortex

      Correct Answer: Secretion is increased following haematemesis

      Explanation:

      Aldosterone is produced in the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex and acts to increase sodium reabsorption via intracellular mineralocorticoid receptors in the distal tubules and collecting ducts of the nephron.

      Its release is stimulated by hypovolaemia, blood loss ,and low plasma sodium and is inhibited by hypertension and increased sodium. It is regulated by the renin-angiotensin system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      80.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Dinamap is an automated blood pressure monitoring device. Which of these statements best...

    Incorrect

    • Dinamap is an automated blood pressure monitoring device. Which of these statements best fit its properties?

      Your Answer: Utilises a double cuff oscillotonometric system

      Correct Answer: The cuff should be positioned at the same level as the heart

      Explanation:

      Dinamap continuously measures the systolic, diastolic and mean arterial pressure along with pulse rate, thereby providing a continuous monitoring of the blood pressure using the osscillitonometric principle of measurement.

      The device loses accuracy towards the extremes of BP and is more accurate with systolic compared with diastolic pressure. In arrhythmias such as AF, the devices are also inaccurate due to the major fluctuations associated with the individual pulse pressure variations.

      The manual BP device is still the gold standard for BP measurement and monitoring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      23.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following statements is true regarding Entonox? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding Entonox?

      Your Answer: Exists only in gaseous form in a cylinder (under normal working conditions)

      Explanation:

      Entonox is a gas that consists of 50% oxygen and 50% Nitrous oxide. Nitrous oxide is sometimes used for anaesthetics but in this combination, it works as a short-acting painkiller.

      Under normal working conditions, it exists only in gaseous form in a cylinder. The gauge pressure of a full Entonox cylinder is 137 bar.

      Entonox cylinders should be stored horizontally at a temperature above 100 C

      Pseudocritical temperature and pseudocritical pressure can be defined as the molal average critical temperature and pressure of mixture components. In other words, the pseudo-critical temperature is the temperature at which the two gases separate. The pseudo-critical temperature of Entonox is approximately -5.50 C

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 4-year-old boy with status epilepticus was brought to ER and has already...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old boy with status epilepticus was brought to ER and has already received two doses of intravenous lorazepam but is still continuing to have seizures. Which of the following drug would be best for his treatment?

      Your Answer: Phenytoin 20 mg/kg IV

      Explanation:

      When the convulsion lasts for five or more than five minutes, or if there are recurrent episodes of convulsions in a 5 minute period without returning to the baseline, it is termed as Status Epilepticus.
      The first priority in the patient with seizures is maintaining the airway, breathing, and circulation.

      Guideline for the management of Status Epilepticus in children by Advanced Life Support Group is as follow:

      Step 1 (Five minutes after the start of seizures):

      If intravascular access is available start treatment with lorazepam 0.1 mg/kg IV
      If no intravascular access then give buccal midazolam 0.5 mg/kg or rectal diazepam 0.5 mg/kg.

      Step 2 (Ten minutes after the start of seizure):

      If the convulsions continue then a second dose of benzodiazepine should be given. Senior should be called on-site and phenytoin should be prepared.
      No more than two doses or benzodiazepines should be given (including any doses given before arrival at the hospital)
      If still no IV access then obtain intraosseous access (IO).

      Step 3 (Ten minutes after step 2)

      Senior help along with anaesthetic/ICU help should be sought
      Phenytoin 20 mg/kg IV over 20 minutes
      If the seizure stops before the full dose of phenytoin is given then the infusion should be completed as this provides up to 24 hours of anticonvulsant effect
      In children already receiving phenytoin as treatment for epilepsy then an alternative is phenobarbitone 20 mg/kg IV over five minutes
      Once the phenytoin is started, senior staff may wish to give rectal paraldehyde 0.4 mg/kg although this is no longer included in the routine algorithm recommended by APLS.

      Step 4 (20 minutes after step 3)

      If 20 minutes after starting phenytoin the child remains in status epilepticus then rapid sequence induction of anaesthesia with thiopentone and a short acting paralysing agent is needed and the child transferred to paediatric intensive care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 35-year old male is found to be bradycardic in the emergency room....

    Correct

    • A 35-year old male is found to be bradycardic in the emergency room. His cardiac muscle will most likely stay in a prolonged phase 4 state of the cardiac action potential. During phase 4 of the cardiac action potential, which of these occurs?

      Your Answer: Na+/K+ ATPase acts

      Explanation:

      Cardiac conduction

      Phase 0 – Rapid depolarization. Opening of fast sodium channels with large influx of sodium

      Phase 1 – Rapid partial depolarization. Opening of potassium channels and efflux of potassium ions. Sodium channels close and influx of sodium ions stop

      Phase 2 – Plateau phase with large influx of calcium ions. Offsets action of potassium channels. The absolute refractory period

      Phase 3 – Repolarization due to potassium efflux after calcium channels close. Relative refractory period

      Phase 4 – Repolarization continues as sodium/potassium pump restores the ionic gradient by pumping out 3 sodium ions in exchange for 2 potassium ions coming into the cell. Relative refractory period

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 32-year-old male is admitted to the critical care unit. He has suffered...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male is admitted to the critical care unit. He has suffered a heroin overdose and requires intubation and ventilatory support. What would be his predicted total static compliance (lung and chest wall) measurements.

      Your Answer: 20 ml/cmH2O

      Correct Answer: 100 ml/cmH2O

      Explanation:

      Static lung compliance refers to the change in volume within the lung per given change in unit pressure. It is usually measured when air flow is absent, such as during pauses in inhalation and exhalation.

      It is a combination of:

      Chest wall compliance: normal value is 200 mL/cmH2O
      Lung tissue compliance: normal value is 200 mL/ cmH2O

      It is represented mathematically as:

      1/Crs = 1/Cl + 1/Ccw

      Where,

      Crs = total compliance of the respiratory system
      Cl = compliance of the lung
      Ccw = compliance of the chest wall

      Therefore in this case:

      1/Crs = 1/200 + 1/200

      1/Crs = 0.005 + 0.005 = 0.01

      1/Ct = 0.01

      Rearranging equation gives:

      Ct = 1/0.01 = 100 mL/cmH2O.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      30.8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - When nitrous oxide is stored in cylinders at room temperature, it is a...

    Incorrect

    • When nitrous oxide is stored in cylinders at room temperature, it is a gas. Which of its property is responsible for this?

      Your Answer: Critical pressure

      Correct Answer: Critical temperature

      Explanation:

      The temperature above which a gas cannot be liquefied no matter how much pressure is applied is its critical temperature. The critical temperature of nitrous oxide is 36.5°C

      The minimum pressure that causes liquefaction is the critical pressure of that gas.

      The Poynting effect refers to the phenomenon where mixing of liquid nitrous oxide at low pressure with oxygen at high pressure (in Entonox) leads to formation of gas of nitrous oxide.

      There is no relevance of molecular weight to this question. it does not change with phase of a substance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      34.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following combinations of signs seen in a patient would most...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following combinations of signs seen in a patient would most likely confirm ingestion of substances with anticholinesterase effects?

      Your Answer: Bradycardia and urinary retention

      Correct Answer: Bradycardia and miosis

      Explanation:

      An acetylcholinesterase inhibitor or anticholinesterase is a chemical that inhibits the cholinesterase enzyme from breaking down acetylcholine (ACh) therefore increasing the level and duration of action of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine(ACh).

      ACh stimulates postganglionic receptors to produce the following effects:

      Salivation
      Lacrimation
      Defecation
      Micturition
      Sweating
      Miosis
      Bradycardia, and
      Bronchospasm.

      Since these effects are produced by muscarine, they are referred to as muscarinic effects, and the postganglionic receptors are called muscarine receptors.

      SLUD (Salivation, Lacrimation, Urination, Defecation – and emesis) is usually encountered only in cases of drug overdose or exposure to nerve gases. It is a syndrome of pathological effects indicating massive discharge of the parasympathetic nervous system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      112.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A patient's ECG is abnormal, with an abnormal broad complex QRS complexes. This...

    Correct

    • A patient's ECG is abnormal, with an abnormal broad complex QRS complexes. This means either a ventricular origin problem or aberrant conduction. The normal resting membrane potential of the heart's ventricular contractile fibres is which of the following?

      Your Answer: -90mV

      Explanation:

      The cardiac muscle’s contractile fibres have a much more stable resting potential than its conductive fibres. In the ventricular fibres it is -90mV and in the atrial fibres it is -80mV.

      The cardiac action potential has several phases which have different mechanisms of action as seen below:

      Phase 0: Rapid depolarisation – caused by a rapid sodium influx.
      These channels automatically deactivate after a few ms. (QRS complex)

      Phase 1: caused by early repolarisation and an efflux of potassium.

      Phase 2: Plateau – caused by a slow influx of calcium.

      Phase 3 – Final repolarisation – caused by an efflux of potassium.

      Phase 4 – Restoration of ionic concentrations – The resting potential is restored by Na+/K+ATPase.
      There is slow entry of Na+into the cell which decreases the potential difference until the threshold potential is reached. This then triggers a new action potential

      Of note, cardiac muscle remains contracted 10-15 times longer than skeletal muscle.

      Different sites have different conduction velocities:
      1. Atrial conduction – Spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibres at 1 m/sec

      2. AV node conduction – 0.05 m/sec

      3. Ventricular conduction – Purkinje fibres are of large diameter and achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec, the fastest conduction in the heart. This allows a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - You are given an intravenous induction agent. The following are its characteristics: A racemic...

    Correct

    • You are given an intravenous induction agent. The following are its characteristics: A racemic mixture of cyclohexanone rings with one chiral centre, Local anaesthetic properties. Which of the following statements about its primary mechanism of action is most accurate?

      Your Answer: Non-competitive antagonist affecting Ca2+ channels

      Explanation:

      Ketamine is the substance in question. Its structure and pharmacodynamic effects make it a one-of-a-kind intravenous induction agent. The molecule is made up of two cyclohexanone rings (2-(O-chlorophenyl)-2-methylamino cyclohexanone and 2-(O-chlorophenyl)-2-methylamino cyclohexanone). Ketamine has local anaesthetic properties and acts primarily on the brain and spinal cord.

      It affects Ca2+ channels as a non-competitive antagonist for the N-D-methyl-aspartate (NMDA) receptor. It also acts as a local anaesthetic by interfering with neuronal Na+ channels.

      Ketamine causes profound dissociative anaesthesia (profound amnesia and analgesia) as well as sedation.

      Phenoxybenzamine, an alpha-1 adrenoreceptor antagonist, is an example of an irreversible competitive antagonist. It forms a covalent bond with the calcium influx receptor.

      Benzodiazepines are GABAA receptor agonists that affect chloride influx.

      Flumazenil is an inverse agonist that affects GABAA receptor chloride influx.

      Ketamine is a cyclohexanone derivative that acts as a non-competitive Ca2+ channel antagonist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following correctly explains the mechanism of sevoflurane preconditioning? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following correctly explains the mechanism of sevoflurane preconditioning?

      Your Answer: Closure of sarcolemmal KATP channels

      Explanation:

      Sevoflurane is highly fluorinated methyl isopropyl ether widely used as an inhalational anaesthetic. It is suggested that sevoflurane preconditioning occurs via the opening of mitochondrial Potassium ATP dependent channel similar to that of Ischemic Preconditioning protection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which of the following herbal drug side effects or herb-drug interactions is the...

    Correct

    • Which of the following herbal drug side effects or herb-drug interactions is the most likely?

      Your Answer: St. John's Wort : serotonin syndrome

      Explanation:

      Patients who present for surgery may be on prescription medication or natural/herbal therapies. These have relevance for anaesthesia since they can cause drug interactions.

      Ephedra (Ma Huang) is a drug derived from the plant Ephedra sinica that is used as a CNS stimulant, weight reduction aid, and asthma therapy. It is a combination of alkaloids that includes ephedrine which stimulates noradrenaline release from pre-synaptic neurones by acting directly on alpha and beta adrenoreceptors. The use of sympathomimetic drugs together can cause cardiovascular instability.

      Ginkgo Biloba contains anti-oxidant characteristics and is used to treat Alzheimer’s disease, vascular dementia, and peripheral vascular disease. It lowers platelet adhesiveness and raises the risk of bleeding by decreasing platelet activating factor (PAF), especially in individuals who are also taking anticoagulants and antiplatelet drugs.

      The extract from St. John’s Wort is utilised as an antidepressant because it is a cytochrome P450 isoenzyme inhibitor as well as a serotonin uptake inhibitor. When drugs like fentanyl or tramadol are used during an anaesthetic, there is a risk of serotonin syndrome developing.

      The root of a pepper is used to make kava (Piper methysticum). It is a weak GABAA agonist which has the potential to augment the effects of propofol and benzodiazepines, which are volatile anaesthetics.

      Garlic is made from the allium sativum plant and is used to treat hypertension and hyperlipidaemia. It includes cysteine, which inhibits platelet aggregation irreversibly, amplifying the effects of aspirin and NSAIDs.

      Echinacea is a common herbal medicine that stimulates the immune system by modulating cytokine signalling. In individuals who require organ transplantation, it should be avoided.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - It is safe to perform a central neuraxial block without an increased risk...

    Correct

    • It is safe to perform a central neuraxial block without an increased risk of developing a vertebral canal haematoma in?

      Your Answer: A patient on clopidogrel 7 days after last dose

      Explanation:

      The incidence of vertebral canal haematoma following neuraxial blockade was reported (third National Audit Project (NAP3)) as 0.85 per 100 000 (95% CI 0-1.8 per 100 000). The incidence following neuraxial blockade in coagulopathic patients is likely to be higher hence coagulopathy remains a relative contraindication for conducting a spinal or epidural. When indicate, risk and benefits are weighed, and it is only performed by experienced personnel in this case.

      Acceptable time to perform a block after the last dose of rivaroxaban in a patient with a creatinine clearance of greater than 30mL/minute is 18 hours.

      Acceptable time to perform a block after the last dose of subcutaneous LMWH as prophylaxis is 12 hours.

      Acceptable time to perform a block after the last dose of subcutaneous UFH as prophylaxis is 4 hours.

      Acceptable time to perform a block after the last dose of thrombolytic therapy (streptokinase or alteplase) is 10 days.

      Clopidogrel should be stopped 7 days prior to surgery, particularly if a central neuraxial procedure is considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      34
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 28-year male patient presents to the GP with a 2-day history of...

    Correct

    • A 28-year male patient presents to the GP with a 2-day history of abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea. He reports that he was completely fine until one week ago when headache and general tiredness appeared. After further questioning, he revealed eating at a dodgy takeaway 3 days before the start of his symptoms. Which of the following diagnosis is most likely?

      Your Answer: Campylobacter

      Explanation:

      Giardiasis is known to have a longer incubation time and doesn’t cause bloody diarrhoea.

      Cholera usually doesn’t cause bloody diarrhoea.

      Generally, most of the E.coli strains do not cause bloody diarrhoea.

      Diverticulitis can be a cause of bloody stool but the history here points out to an infectious cause.

      Campylobacter infection is the most probable cause as it is characterized by a prodrome, abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      21.9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Physiology (1/1) 100%
Anatomy (4/5) 80%
Statistical Methods (2/3) 67%
Pharmacology (6/7) 86%
Pathophysiology (5/8) 63%
Anaesthesia Related Apparatus (0/2) 0%
Physiology And Biochemistry (3/3) 100%
Clinical Measurement (0/1) 0%
Passmed