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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man who is admitted with bright red haematemesis, which occurred after a bout of vomiting. He had been out with friends on a stag party and consumed 12 pints of beer. Upper gastrointestinal (GI) endoscopy proves unremarkable and haemoglobin (Hb) is stable at 12.5 g/dl the morning after admission, there is no sign of circulatory compromise. There have been no previous similar episodes. Which of the following stems represents the best course of action for this patient?
Your Answer: Give one-month course of omeprazole
Correct Answer: Send home
Explanation:This is a classic clinical presentation, with alcohol intake and nausea/vomiting that leads to hematemesis, of a Mallory-Weiss tear. In Mallory-Weiss tear, they typically present as a hemodynamically stable patient after a night of binge drinking and excessive resultant vomiting. Given his EGD did not show any other pathology and he is now stable, he can be discharged home.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 52 year old shopkeeper presents with pain in her hands. Examination reveals plaques on the extensor surfaces of her upper limbs and a telescoping deformity of both index fingers. Nails show pitting and horizontal ridging. The patient is most likely suffering from which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arthritis mutilans
Explanation:Arthritis mutilans is a rare (occurs in only 5% of the patients) and extremely severe form psoriatic arthritis characterized by resorption of bones and the consequent collapse of soft tissue. When this affects the hands, it can cause a phenomenon sometimes referred to as ‘telescoping fingers.’ The associated nail changes are also characteristic of arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old alcoholic is admitted with portal hypertension. The wedged hepatic venous pressure is recorded. This pressure is reflective of which part of the hepatic vascular system?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sinusoids
Explanation:The wedged hepatic venous pressure is a reflection of the portal venous pressure in the hepatic sinusoids. This is a fact to remember. Here is a great but concise explanation as to why: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/18695309
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A husband visits the clinic with his wife because he wants to be screened for cystic fibrosis. His brother and wife had a child with cystic fibrosis so he is concerned. His wife is currently 10 weeks pregnant. When screened, he was found to be a carrier of the DF508 mutation for cystic fibrosis but despite this result, the wife declines testing. What are the chances that she will have a child with cystic fibrosis, given that the gene frequency for this mutation in the general population is 1/20?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1/80
Explanation:The chance of two carriers of a recessive gene having a child that is homozygous for that disease (that is both genes are transmitted to the child) is 25%. Therefore, the chances of this couple having a child with CF are 25%(1/4) x 1/20 = 1/80.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 5
Incorrect
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What do T-helper cells of the Th2 subset typically secrete?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IL-4, IL-5, IL-6, IL-10, IL-13
Explanation:Interleukin-4 (IL-4), IL-5 and IL-13, the signature cytokines that are produced during type 2 immune responses, are critical for protective immunity against infections of extracellular parasites and are responsible for asthma and many other allergic inflammatory diseases. Although many immune cell types within the myeloid lineage compartment including basophils, eosinophils and mast cells are capable of producing at least one of these cytokines, the production of these “type 2 immune response-related” cytokines by lymphoid lineages, CD4 T helper 2 (Th2) cells and type 2 innate lymphoid cells (ILC2s) in particular, are the central events during type 2 immune responses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 6
Incorrect
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An 8-week-old baby was found to have bilateral cataracts. Further investigation revealed thrombocytopenia, a patent ductus arteriosus and hepatosplenomegaly. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rubella
Explanation:The clinical presentation is suggestive of congenital rubella syndrome. The classic triad of presenting symptoms includes sensorineural hearing loss, ocular abnormalities (cataract, infantile glaucoma, and pigmentary retinopathy) and congenital heart disease (patent ductus arteriosus and pulmonary artery stenosis). Other findings in congenital rubella syndrome include CNS abnormalities (mental retardation, behavioural disorders, encephalographic abnormalities, hypotonia, meningoencephalitis, and microcephaly), hepatosplenomegaly, and jaundice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 57 year old homeless man presents with fever and a productive cough which has green sputum with streaks of blood. A chest x-ray reveals consolidation in the right upper lobe with evidence of cavitation. He is a known alcoholic. What is the most likely causative agent?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Klebsiella Pneumoniae
Explanation:Infection with Klebsiella organisms occurs in the lungs, where they cause destructive changes. Necrosis, inflammation, and haemorrhage occur within lung tissue, sometimes producing a thick, bloody, mucoid sputum described as currant jelly sputum.
The illness typically affects middle-aged and older men with debilitating diseases such as alcoholism, diabetes, or chronic bronchopulmonary disease. An increased tendency exists toward abscess formation, cavitation, empyema, and pleural adhesions. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 46-year-old plumber develops chronic, severe pain after sustaining a brachial plexus injury as a result of a motorbike accident. He has had no benefit from paracetamol or ibuprofen. In addition, he has had an unsuccessful trial of amitriptyline. Following recent NICE guidelines, which of the following is the most appropriate medication to consider?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pregabalin
Explanation:Neuropathic pain may be defined as pain which arises following damage or disruption of the nervous system. It is often difficult to treat and responds poorly to standard analgesia.
The most recent update to the NICE guidelines for management of neuropathic pain occurred in 2013: first-line treatment* includes amitriptyline. If the first-line drug treatment does not work then move on to one of the other 3 drugs: duloxetine, gabapentin or pregabalin. Tramadol may be used as ‘rescue therapy’ for exacerbations of neuropathic pain. Topical capsaicin may be used for localised neuropathic pain (e.g. post-herpetic neuralgia). Pain management clinics may be useful in patients with resistant problems.*please note that for some specific conditions the guidance may vary. For example carbamazepine is used first-line for trigeminal neuralgia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Which of the following regarding malignant mesothelioma is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: is treated with radiotherapy
Explanation:Malignant mesothelioma is a type of cancer that occurs in the thin layer of tissue that covers the majority of the internal organs (mesothelium).
Malignant Mesothelioma (MM) is a rare but rapidly fatal and aggressive tumour of the pleura and peritoneum. Aetiology of all forms of mesothelioma is strongly associated with industrial pollutants, of which asbestos is the principal carcinogen.Thoracoscopically guided biopsy should be performed if mesothelioma is suggested; the results are diagnostic in 98% of cases. No specific treatment has been found to be of benefit, except radiotherapy, which reduces seeding and invasion through percutaneous biopsy sites.
Median survival for patients with malignant mesothelioma is 11 months. It is almost always fatal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old male with a history of premature cardiovascular disease in the family has come for review of his lab investigations. His fasting cholesterol is 8.4 mmol/l with high-density lipoprotein (HDL) of 1.6 mmol/l. You elect to commence him on atorvastatin 20 mg PO daily. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of the statins?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: They inhibit HMG CoA reductase
Explanation:Statins are a selective, competitive inhibitor of hydroxymethylglutaryl-CoA (HMG-CoA) reductase, which is the enzyme responsible for the conversion of HMG-CoA to mevalonate in the cholesterol synthesis pathway.
Statins are usually well tolerated with myopathy, rhabdomyolysis, hepatotoxicity, and diabetes mellitus being the most common adverse reactions.
This is the rate-limiting step in cholesterol synthesis, that leads to increased hepatic low-density lipoprotein (LDL) receptors and reduced hepatic VLDL synthesis coupled with increased very-low-density lipoprotein (VLDL) clearance. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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An 88-year-old retired firefighter presents with loss of vision in his left eye since this morning. He is otherwise asymptomatic and of note has had no associated eye pain or headaches. His past medical history includes ischaemic heart disease but he is otherwise well. On examination he has no vision in his left eye. The left pupil responds poorly to light but the consensual light reaction is normal. Fundoscopy reveals a red spot over a pale and opaque retina. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Central retinal artery occlusion
Explanation:The most common causes of a sudden painless loss of vision are:
– ischaemic optic neuropathy
– occlusion of central retinal vein or artery
– vitreous haemorrhage
– retinal detachment.
Central retinal artery occlusion is due to thromboembolism (from atherosclerosis) or arteritis (e.g. temporal arteritis). Features include afferent pupillary defects, and a ‘cherry red’ spot on a pale retina. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old female presented to her ophthalmologist with a complaint of weakening eyesight despite continued use of her corrective glasses. She also had a history of mild headaches for a few weeks. On fundoscopy, the disc had blurred margins with mild cupping and a sickle shaped scotoma in both eyes. What is the most appropriate treatment in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pilocarpine eye drops
Explanation:Frequent change of eye glasses, scotoma, and mild cupping are suggestive of primary open angle glaucoma. This means that the anterior angle of the eye is normal but there is a problem in the trabecular meshwork, where the Schlemm’s Canal is not allowing the drainage of the aqueous humor. Pilocarpine should be given to the patient because it is a parasympathomimetic agent. It causes the ciliary muscle of the eye to contract, causing the trabecular meshwork to open up, allowing the aqueous humor to drain again.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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In idiopathic hypercalciuria, what management should be initiated if there is renal stone disease or bone demineralization?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dietary modification and thiazide diuretics
Explanation:Idiopathic hypercalciuria presents with excess calcium in the urine without an apparent cause. Dietary modification is the first step in addressing this condition, however, because hypercalciuria increases the risk of developing renal stones and bone demineralisation, thiazide diuretics should be prescribed to increase calcium reabsorption when these symptoms are also present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman with Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease (type 1) asks how likely it is that any future children will have the disease. What is the most accurate answer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:Because Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease (type 1) is an autosomal dominant condition; therefore, there is a 50% chance that the children of this patient will be affected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A scientist is using denaturation, annealing and elongation to amplify a desired fragment of DNA. Which molecular technique is he using?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)
Explanation:PCR is a simple, yet elegant, enzymatic assay, which allows for the amplification of a specific DNA fragment from a complex pool of DNA. PCR can be performed using source DNA from a variety of tissues and organisms, including peripheral blood, skin, hair, saliva, and microbes. Only trace amounts of DNA are needed for PCR to generate enough copies to be analysed using conventional laboratory methods. For this reason, PCR is a sensitive assay. Each PCR assay requires the presence of template DNA, primers, nucleotides, and DNA polymerase. The DNA polymerase is the key enzyme that links individual nucleotides together to form the PCR product. The above mentioned components are mixed in a test tube or 96-well plate and then placed in a machine that allows repeated cycles of DNA amplification to occur in three basic steps. The machine is essentially a thermal cycler. It has a thermal block with holes, into which the test tubes or plates holding the PCR reaction mixture are inserted. The machine raises and lowers the temperature of the block in discrete, precise and pre-programmed steps. The reaction solution is first heated above the melting point of the two complementary DNA strands of the target DNA, which allows the strands to separate, a process called denaturation. The temperature is then lowered to allow the specific primers to bind to the target DNA segments, a process known as hybridization or annealing. Annealing between primers and the target DNA occurs only if they are complementary in sequence (e.g. A binding to G). The temperature is raised again, at which time the DNA polymerase is able to extend the primers by adding nucleotides to the developing DNA strand. With each repetition of these three steps, the number of copied DNA molecules doubles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 65 yr. old male with a history of smoking and alcohol was admitted with an ST elevation myocardial infarction. He was obese and lives a sedentary lifestyle. What is the non-pharmacological intervention which will be most helpful to reduce future ischaemic events?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stopping smoking
Explanation:Stopping smoking is the single most effective non-pharmacological intervention which will reduce future ischaemic events. But the rest of the responses are also important interventions with regards to reducing future ischaemic events.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman under treatment for manic-depressive psychosis presents in an unconscious state after an episode of seizure on the street. Her husband who accompanied her into the ER reported that they argued about 6-7 hours ago. On examination, she is found to be hypertonic with a GCS of 8, BP: 90/60 mmHg and a pulse of 105 bpm. Blood investigations revealed a lithium level of 3.2 mmol/L. She was intubated and ventilated. Which of the following are the TWO interventions which are most appropriate in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastric lavage should be considered
Explanation:Among the above statements, gastric lavage and normal saline IV infusion are the two appropriate interventions for a patient of acute lithium toxicity.
Activated charcoal is not effective after lithium overdose, although gastric lavage should be considered if patients present within 6–8 h.
Where levels are above 3 mmol/l, the use of normal saline to induce diuresis should be considered, although careful monitoring of fluid balance is necessary.
Where levels of lithium are above 4 mmol/l, dialysis is often required. Haemodialysis is preferred, but in a facility where haemodialysis is not possible, peritoneal dialysis may be considered.
Patients should not be discharged until they are asymptomatic and have a serum lithium level less than 1.5 mEq/L. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the mechanism of action of bivalirudin in acute coronary syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reversible direct thrombin inhibitor
Explanation:Bivalirudin is a competitive, direct thrombin inhibitor. It inhibits both free and clot-bound thrombin and thrombin-induced platelet aggregation. Thrombin enables fibrinogen conversion to fibrin during the coagulation cascade. So inhibition of fibrinogen conversion to fibrin inhibits thrombus development.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 67 year-old attorney presents with a 2 month history of tremors affecting his left arm. He suffers from depressive psychosis for the last 10 years, for which he has been receiving intermittent chlorpromazine and amitriptyline but has not been on any therapy for the last 4 months. He describes that his two brothers also had tremors. Upon examination, he has a resting tremor of his left hand with cogwheel rigidity of that arm and mild generalized bradykinesia. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Idiopathic Parkinson’s disease
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis is idiopathic Parkinson’s disease because of the unilateral presentation. In addition, cogwheel rigidity is a classic presenting symptom. Neuroleptic-induced parkinsonism is usually bilateral and symmetrical. Essential tremors do not cause rest tremors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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The mechanism of action of low molecular weight heparin, has the greatest effect on which of the following components of the coagulation cascade?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Factor Xa
Explanation:Mechanism of action of low molecular weight heparin (LMWH):
It inhibits coagulation by activating antithrombin III. Antithrombin III binds to and inhibits factor Xa. In doing so it prevents activation of the final common path; Xa inactivation means that prothrombin is not activated to thrombin, thereby not converting fibrinogen into fibrin for the formation of a clot.LMHW is a small fragment of a larger mucopolysaccharide, heparin. Heparin works similarly, by binding antithrombin III and activating it. Heparin also has a binding site for thrombin, so thrombin can interact with antithrombin III and heparin, thus inhibiting coagulation.
Heparin has a faster onset of anticoagulant action as it will inhibit not only Xa but also thrombin, while LMWH acts only on Xa inhibition.Compared to heparin, LMWHs have a longer half-life, so dosing is more predictable and can be less frequent, most commonly once per day.
Dosage and uses:
LMWH is administered via subcutaneous injection. This has long-term implications on the choice of anticoagulant for prophylaxis, for example, in orthopaedic patients recovering from joint replacement surgery, or in the treatment of DVT/PE.Adverse effects:
The main risk of LMWH will be bleeding. The specific antidote for heparin-induced bleeding is protamine sulphate.
Less commonly it can cause:
Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)
Osteoporosis and spontaneous fractures
Hypoaldosteronism
Hypersensitivity reactions -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old woman has missed her last two periods and has been lactating. Upon anamnesis, she claims she's lost weight and she's been suffering from vaginal dryness. The endocrinologist suggests that she checks her prolactin levels. Which of the following inhibits prolactin release from the hypophysis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dopamine
Explanation:Dopamine (DA) holds a predominant role in the regulation of prolactin (PRL) secretion. Through a direct effect on anterior pituitary lactotrophs, DA inhibits the basally high-secretory tone of the cell. It accomplishes this by binding to D2 receptors expressed on the cell membrane of the lactotroph, activation of which results in a reduction of PRL exocytosis and gene expression by a variety of intracellular signalling mechanisms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 77-year-old retired engineer presents with a burning sensation around his right eye. On examination, an erythematous blistering rash can be seen in the right trigeminal distribution. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Herpes zoster ophthalmicus
Explanation:Herpes zoster ophthalmicus (HZO) describes the reactivation of the varicella zoster virus in the area supplied by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It accounts for around 10% of case of shingles. Features include a vesicular rash around the eye, which may or may not involve the actual eye itself, and Hutchinson’s sign: a rash on the tip or side of the nose, indicating nasociliary involvement and is a strong risk factor for ocular involvement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male was brought to the ER after the accidental consumption of 300 ml of diethylene glycol. Blood investigations were suggestive of metabolic acidosis and renal failure. What is the appropriate management in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haemodialysis and oral ethanol
Explanation:Among the given options the most appropriate management in this patient would be ethanol and haemodialysis.
Ethanol competes with ethylene glycol for alcohol dehydrogenase and thus, helps manage a patient with ethylene glycol toxicity.
Ethylene glycol is a type of alcohol used as a coolant or antifreeze
Features of toxicity are divided into 3 stages:
Stage 1: (30 min to 12 hours after exposure) Symptoms similar to alcohol intoxication: confusion, slurred speech, dizziness (CNS depression)
Stage 2: (12 – 48 hours after exposure) Metabolic acidosis with a high anion gap and high osmolar gap. Also tachycardia, hypertension
Stage 3: (24 – 72 hours after exposure) Acute renal failureManagement has changed in recent times:
Fomepizole, an inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase, is now used first-line in preference to ethanol.
Ethanol has been used for many years works by competing with ethylene glycol for the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase this limits the formation of toxic metabolites (e.g. glycolaldehyde and glycolic acid) which are responsible for the hemodynamic/metabolic features of poisoning.
Haemodialysis has a role in refractory cases. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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You want to compare a new oral hypoglycaemic drug with an existing treatment, which would also lower HbA1c. Which study design would you choose?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Superiority trial
Explanation:When the aim of the randomized controlled trial (RCT) is to show that one treatment is superior to another, a statistical test is employed and the trial (test) is called a superiority trial (test).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 28 yr. old primigravida in her 24th week of pregnancy presented with a history of palpitations, which are fast and regular. She doesn't complain of any episodes of collapse. On examination she was well, pulse rate was 102 bpm, which was regular and her blood pressure was 110/70 mmHg. Her JVP was not elevated. Heart sounds were normal. ECH showed sinus tachycardia. Which of the following can be expected because of the physiological changes which occur in the boy during pregnancy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tachycardia
Explanation:The cardiovascular alterations which occur during pregnancy are for the optimal growth and development of the foetus and help to protect the mother from the risks of delivery, such as haemorrhage. The changes are characterized by an increased vascular volume, cardiac output, and heart rate, with a marked fall in vascular resistance and reduction in blood pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman with a history of recurrent pulmonary emboli (PE) has been identified as having factor V Leiden. How does this particular inherited thrombophilia increase her risk of venous thromboembolic events?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Activated factor V is inactivated much more slowly by activated protein C
Explanation:In patients with factor V Leiden, inactivation of the active factor V (a clotting factor) by active protein C occurs 10x more slowly than normal. Therefore, this condition is also called activated protein C resistance.
Factor V Leiden is the most commonly inherited thrombophilia, being present in around 5% of the UK’s population. It occurs due to gain-of-function mutation in the Factor V Leiden protein.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old man is reviewed in the gastroenterology clinic. He has had troublesome dyspepsia for the past six months which has not settled with proton pump inhibitor (PPI) therapy. During the review of his systems he also reports passing 6-7 watery stools per day. An OGD 3 weeks ago showed gastric erosions and ulcers. Which one of the following investigations is most likely to be diagnostic?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fasting gastrin
Explanation:This case describes Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. It is characterized by refractory peptic ulcer disease, often multiple ulcers. This is typically caused by secretion of gastrin from a gastrinoma, a neuroendocrine tumour. The most common site of ulceration is the duodenum. A symptom of a pancreatic gastrinoma may be steatorrhea from the hypersecretion of gastrin. Serum gastrin levels > 1000 and a pH < 2 are diagnostic of pancreatic gastrinoma. None of the other answer choices are a better answer than this. CT abdomen may potentially show a tumour, but this is not diagnostic for type.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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In a patient with type-1 diabetes mellitus, which cells when affected, lead to insulin deficiency?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: B cells of the pancreatic islets
Explanation:Insulin is produced by the beta-cells in the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas while Glucagon is secreted from the alpha cells of the pancreatic islets of Langerhans.
Type 1 diabetes mellitus is the culmination of lymphocytic infiltration and destruction of the beta cells of the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas. As beta-cell mass declines, insulin secretion decreases until the available insulin is no longer adequate to maintain normal blood glucose levels. After 80-90% of the beta cells are destroyed, hyperglycaemia develops and diabetes may be diagnosed. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Which one of these features is typical of dermatomyositis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gottron's papules over knuckles of fingers
Explanation:The main symptom of dermatomyositis include skin rash and symmetric proximal muscle weakness (in over 90% of patients) which may be accompanied by pain and tenderness. It occurs more commonly in females. Skin findings include:
Gottron’s sign – an erythematous, scaly eruption occurring in symmetric fashion over the MCP and interphalangeal joints
Heliotrope or lilac rash – a violaceous eruption on the upper eyelids and in rare cases on the lower eyelids as well, often with itching and swelling
Shawl (or V-) sign is a diffuse, flat, erythematous lesion over the back and shoulders or in a V over the posterior neck and back or neck and upper chest, which worsens with UV light.
Erythroderma is a flat, erythematous lesion similar to the shawl sign but located in other areas, such as the malar region and the forehead.
Periungual telangiectasias and erythema occur. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old retired journalist known to have prostatic carcinoma presents to the ED complaining of pain in the spine and the onset of severe lower-leg weakness accompanied by a loss of sensation. On examination, he is found to have percussion tenderness of his spine, loss of sensation up to the umbilicus and a distended bladder. He has markedly reduced power of the lower legs with hyperreflexia. Which of the following should not be part of your management of this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spinal X-rays
Explanation:Acute cord compression is a medical emergency. Typically, signs of segmental damage at the level of compression are usually combined with corticospinal tract dysfunction (e.g., hyperreflexia, Babinski’s sign and weakness) and sensory deficits below the level of compression. Symptoms include spinal pain that precedes the development of weak legs and sensory loss. There may be loss of bladder (and anal) sphincter control, manifesting as hesitancy, frequency and, finally, painless retention.
Spinal X-rays are rarely diagnostic. MRI is usually the investigation of choice and should not be delayed, but if not available consider doing a CT scan and myelography to confirm cord compression and fully define the level and extent of the lesion. If malignancy is the cause, it is important to give dexamethasone (oral or intravenous) while considering therapy more specific to the cause. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 31
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true concerning gastrin?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Release is triggered by GI luminal peptides
Explanation:Gastrin is released by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. It stimulates secretion of gastric acid (HCl) by the parietal cells of the stomach and also aids in gastric motility. It is released in response to the following stimuli: vagal stimulation, antrum distention, hypercalcemia. It is inhibited by the following: presence of acid in stomach, SST, secretion, GIP, VIP, glucagon, calcitonin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 34-year-old HIV positive man is referred to gastroenterology due to jaundiced sclera. Liver function tests are as follows: Albumin 34 g/l ALP 540 iu/l Bilirubin 67 µmol/L, ALT 45 iu/l What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sclerosing cholangitis
Explanation:HIV can cause strictures in the biliary tract (see source for details of the disease). This makes the diagnosis of primary sclerosing cholangitis most likely given the clinical presentation and lab values. Due to its association with HIV this is more likely than all of the other answer choices. Know this association.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old woman is diagnosed as having acute myeloid leukaemia. What is the single most important test in determining her prognosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cytogenetics
Explanation:All of the aforementioned options may be important however cytogenetics, for detecting chromosomal abnormalities, is the single most important test to determine her disease prognosis.
Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) is the acute expansion of the myeloid stem line, which may occur as a primary disease or follow the secondary transformation of a myeloproliferative disorder. It is more common over the age of 45 and is characterized by signs and symptoms largely related to bone marrow failure such as anaemia (pallor, lethargy), frequent infections due to neutropenia (although the total leucocyte count may be very high), thrombocytopaenia (bleeding), ostealgia, and splenomegaly.
The disease has a poor prognosis if:
1. Age of the patient >60 years
2. >20% blasts seen after the first course of chemotherapy
3. Chromosomal aberration with deletion of part of chromosome 5 or 7.Acute promyelocytic leukaemia (APL) is an aggressive form of AML.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old student commences chemotherapy for B-type acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. She suffers from vomiting, but 36 hours later her condition worsens and her bloods reveal a corrected calcium of 2.0 mmol/l and serum potassium of 6.7 mmol/l. Which of the following options is the best way to avoid this problem from occurring?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hydration and allopurinol pre-chemotherapy
Explanation:This case is most likely tumour lysis syndrome, often occurring immediately after starting chemotherapy because the tumour cells are killed and their contents are released into the bloodstream. After treating lymphomas or leukaemia, there is a sudden hypocalcaemia, hyperphosphatemia, and hyperkalaemia
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 42 year old female presents with a funny bone sensation in her right elbow that is accompanied by numbness and tingling in the 4th and 5th digits. The symptoms are aggravated when the elbow is bent for a prolonged period. Which of the following explains the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cubital tunnel syndrome
Explanation:Cubital Tunnel Syndrome is a condition that involves pressure or stretching of the ulnar nerve (also known as the “funny bone” nerve), which can cause numbness or tingling in the 4th and 5th digit, pain in the forearm, and/or weakness in the hand. Epicondylitis of the elbow is a condition associated with repetitive forearm and elbow activities. Both lateral epicondylitis (commonly known as tennis elbow) and medial epicondylitis (commonly known as golfer’s elbow) are characterized by elbow pain during or following elbow flexion and extension. Radial tunnel syndrome is a set of symptoms that include fatigue or a dull, aching pain at the top of the forearm with use. Although less common, symptoms can also occur at the back of the hand or wrist.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old male was brought to you in a confused state. Although not your patient, you can make out that the man has a history of schizophrenia, and has recently had his medications altered. Clinically, you find evidence of a lower respiratory tract infection, and blood investigations indicate a neutropenic picture. What is the most likely drug causing the neutropenia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clozapine
Explanation:Clozapine can cause neutropenia or agranulocytosis.
Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic used in the treatment of schizophrenia, and in patients who are intolerant to, or unresponsive to other antipsychotics.
It is a weak D2-receptor and D1-receptor blocking activity, with noradrenolytic, anticholinergic, and antihistaminic properties.
Many antipsychotic drugs can occasionally cause bone marrow depression, but agranulocytosis is particularly associated with clozapine.
Other side effects include:
Hypotension, tachycardia
Fever, sedation, seizures (with high doses)
Appetite increase
Constipation
Heartburn
Weight gain
Extrapyramidal symptoms
Agranulocytosis
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 20 year old male student presents to the clinic with swelling of his face, hands and feet along with diffuse abdominal pain. He has a history of similar recurrent episodes since he was 10 years old, with each episode lasting 2-3 days. Examination reveals swelling on face, hands, feet but no sign of urticaria. Family history is significant for similar episodes in the mother who experienced these since childhood, and a brother who passed away following respiratory distress at age of 8 during one such episode. Which of the following tests would be the most helpful in reaching the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: C1 esterase inhibitor
Explanation:Hereditary C1 inhibitor deficiency leads to recurrent angioedema without urticaria or pruritus. Physical triggers include dental work, surgery or intubation. Medical triggers include angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, tamoxifen, oestrogen-containing medications (e.g., hormone replacement therapy and oral contraceptives). It is diagnosed on the basis of low levels of C1 esterase inhibitor or elevated levels of dysfunctional C1 esterase inhibitor. C4 levels are low between attacks. IgE levels, eosinophils, skin prick tests and RASTs are helpful in other allergic conditions and asthma but not of use in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 38
Incorrect
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Cholecystokinin is secreted from:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: I cells in upper small intestine
Explanation:Cholecystokinin (CCK) was discovered in 1928 in jejunal extracts as a gallbladder contraction factor. It was later shown to be member of a peptide family, which are all ligands for the CCK1 and CCK2 receptors. CCK peptides are known to be synthetized in the small intestinal endocrine I-cells and cerebral neurons.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 29 year-old new mother presented with a headache that was first noticed as she was picking up her 5 week-old baby. On admission, she was unable to tolerate the lights and complained of feeling sick. Fundoscopy showed bilateral papilledema, and she was complaining that she was unable to see on her left side. CT head showed a small right occipital bleed. Which of the following treatments is most appropriate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Heparin
Explanation:This patient has developed a venous sinus thrombosis peri-partum, resulting in her symptoms. Anticoagulation therapy including Heparin improves outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old male who is a known case of sickle cell disease presents to the Accident and Emergency (A&E) department with fever, tachypnoea, and rib pain. On examination, he has a low-grade fever of 37.9°C, oxygen saturation of 95% on air, and bilateral vesicular breath sounds on chest auscultation. CXR shows opacification in the right middle zone. Which of these statements most accurately describes the initial management of this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Incentive spirometry is indicated
Explanation:This is a typical picture of acute chest syndrome (ACS). According to the British Committee for Standards in Haematology (BCSH), ACS is defined as ‘an acute illness characterised by fever and/or respiratory symptoms, accompanied by a new pulmonary infiltrate on chest X-ray’. ACS occurs in sequestration crisis, which is one of the four main types of crises occurring in sickle cell disease.
The fundamentals of initial management are as follows:
1. Oxygen therapy to maintain saturation >95%
2. Intravenous fluids to ensure euvolemia
3. Adequate pain relief
4. Incentive spirometry in all patients presenting with rib or chest pain
5. Antibiotics with cover for atypical organisms
6. Bronchodilators if asthma co-exists with acute chest syndrome, or if there is an evidence of acute bronchospasm on auscultation
7. Early consultation with the critical care team and haematology departmentA senior haematologist then makes a decision as to whether a simple or exchange transfusion is necessary in order to achieve a target Hb of 10.0–11.0g/dL in either instance.
Sickle Cell Crises:
Sickle cell anaemia is characterised by periods of good health with intervening crises:
1. Sequestration crisis: acute chest syndrome (i.e. fever, dyspnoea, chest/rib pain, low pO2, and pulmonary infiltrates)2. Thrombotic (painful or vaso-occlusive) crisis: precipitated by infection, dehydration, and deoxygenation
3. Aplastic crisis: sudden fall in haemoglobin without marked reticulocytosis, usually occurring secondary to parvovirus infection
4. Haemolytic crisis: fall in haemoglobin secondary to haemolysis, rare type of sickle cell crises
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old female patient is being investigated for breathlessness, cough, and severe weight loss. On the medical ward round, her CXR is reviewed showing hilar lymphadenopathy and multiple peripheral lung metastases. Which of the following tumours is least likely to be the underlying cause of this lung appearance?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Brain
Explanation:All of the aforementioned listed tumours, except brain tumours, can metastasise to lungs and produce the typical CXR picture consisting of hilar lymphadenopathy with either diffuse multinodular shadows resembling miliary disease or multiple large well-defined masses (canon balls). Occasionally, cavitation or calcification may also be seen.
Most brain tumours, however, do not metastasise. Some, derived form neural elements, do so but in these cases, intraparenchymal metastases generally precede distant haematogenous spread.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 60 year old male patient with a history of heavy smoking was admitted complaining of acute severe central chest pain for the past one hour. His blood pressure was 150/90 mmHg and pulse rate was 88 bpm. His peripheral oxygen saturation was 93%. ECG showed ST elevation > 2mm in lead II, III and aVF. He was given loading doses of aspirin, clopidogrel and atorvastatin and face mask oxygen was given. Which one of the following investigations should be done and then depending on result, definitive treatment can be initiated?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: None
Explanation:The history and ECG findings are adequate to begin cardiac revascularization of this patient. There is no need for cardiac markers to confirm the diagnosis. Further delay in starting definite treatment is not recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old lady with back pain is found to have loss of sensation of the kneecaps. Choose the dermatome most likely compromised:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: L4
Explanation:L4 dermatome distribution includes the kneecaps.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 80 yr. old male patient with ischaemic heart disease, hypertension and dyslipidaemia presented with productive cough, fever with chills and loss of appetite for 4 days. On examination he was unwell and febrile with a temperature of 38.3. His blood pressure was 130/80mmHg and pulse rate was 140 bpm. Respiratory rate was 18 breaths per minute. On auscultation there were crepitations over the left lower zone of his chest. His abdomen was soft and non-tender. ECG showed an irregular narrow complex tachycardia. Which of the following is the most appropriate acute management to treat his tachycardia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Antibiotics
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis is acute atrial fibrillation (AF) precipitated by acute pneumonia. History of fever, cough and the auscultation findings support it. So the most appropriate management is treating the pneumonia with antibiotics. Treating the underlying cause will reduce the heart rate. Other responses are helpful in the management of chronic AF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 28 year old man was rushed to the hospital after experiencing sudden onset chest pain while playing football. He has never felt such pain in the past. However, one of his uncles had a similar sudden discomfort at a young age and he passed away following a heart problem. The following vitals are recorded on examination: BP: 101/74 mmHg RR: 22 breaths/min PR: 87 beats/min Physical examination reveals abnormally long fingers and on asking the man to hold the opposite wrist, the thumb and little finger overlap each other. He is not taking any medication regularly and past medical/surgical history is not significant. He admits to smoking half pack of cigarettes/day for the last 10 years but denies abusing any illicit drugs. Which of the following explanation most likely explains the disease process in this man?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A defect of the glycoprotein structure which usually wraps around elastin
Explanation:Aortic dissection is defined as separation of the layers within the aortic wall. Tears in the intimal layer result in the propagation of dissection (proximally or distally) secondary to blood entering the intima-media space. This can be caused as a result of both congenital or acquired factors like chronic uncontrolled hypertension. This patient shows no sign of hypertension but his physical examination hints towards Marfan Syndrome. Marfan syndrome (MFS) is an autosomal dominant connective tissue disorder affecting the microfibrils and elastin in connective tissue throughout the body. MFS is associated with pathological manifestations in the cardiovascular system (e.g., mitral valve prolapse, aortic aneurysm, and dissection), the musculoskeletal system (e.g., tall stature with disproportionately long extremities, joint hypermobility), and the eyes (e.g., subluxation of the lens of the eye). Decreased collagen production occurs in ageing, hydroxylation defects are present in vitamin C deficiency, copper deficiency affecting lysyl oxidase enzyme occurs in Menke’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 46
Incorrect
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Three days after being admitted for a myocardial infarction, a male patient complains of sudden change in vision. The medical registrar examines the patient and finds that the patient’s vision in both eyes is significantly reduced although the patient still claims that he can see. The pupils are equal in size, and the pupil responses are normal with normal fundoscopy. Significantly, the patient has now developed atrial fibrillation. A referral is made to the ophthalmologist who confirms bilateral blindness. Despite this, however, the patient fervently believes that he can see and has taken to describing objects that he has never seen previously, in discriminating detail. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bilateral occipital cortex infarction
Explanation:Bilateral occipital cortex infarction will produce varying degrees of cortical blindness, wherein the patient has no vision but fundoscopy findings are normal. When there are extensive lesions, patients my present with denial of their condition, known as Anton’s Syndrome, and begin to describe objects that they have never seen before.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 27 year old woman presents with diarrhoea. She has had a previous ileal resection for Crohn's Disease. Her inflammatory markers are normal. What is the most likely cause of her diarrhoea?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bile Acid Malabsorption
Explanation:The question describes a patient who has had an ileal resection. Bile acids are reabsorbed in the distal ileum. Since this has been resected in this patient, one would expect her to have malabsorption of bile acids, causing her diarrhoea. This is a more likely correct answer than a Crohn’s flare, bacterial overgrowth, gastroenteritis, or tropical sprue, given the details included in the question prompt.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 31 year old female with systemic lupus erythematosus wants to know if she has any predisposing factors for the disease. Which of the following carries the greatest risk of developing SLE?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Monozygotic twin
Explanation:An overall concordance rate in monozygotic twins was documented to be 25% as compared to dizygotic twins with 3%. First degree relatives have a chance of around 3% of developing the disease. Caucasians show an increase frequency of HLA-B8. The Japanese lupus patients had a stronger association with HLA-DR2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old pregnant mother who is known to have hepatitis B gave birth to a male infant. She is now concerned about her child contracting hep B. Which of the following is the most suitable option for the baby in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HepB full vaccine and Ig
Explanation:Hepatitis B full vaccine and Ig should be given to babies born to hepatitis B positive mothers. Hepatitis B vaccine alone or Ig alone is not sufficient to prevent the infection in the new-born baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 61-year-old woman with a history of hypothyroidism and inflammatory arthritis is admitted after slipping on ice and falling over. Some routine blood tests are performed: Na+ 141 mmol/L, K+ 2.9 mmol/L, Chloride 114 mmol/L, Bicarbonate 16 mmol/L, Urea 5.2 mmol/L, Creatinine 75 µmol/L, Which one of the following is most likely to explain these results?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Renal tubular acidosis (type 1)
Explanation:The patient’s underlying arthritis has most likely led to Renal tubular acidosis RTA type 1, which presents with the following symptoms consistent with the presentation of the patient: Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis/acidaemia, hypokalaemia and hyperchloremia. Comparatively, the other conditions are ruled out because Aspirin and diabetic ketoacidosis is associated with a raised anion gap, Conn’s syndrome explains hypokalaemia but not the metabolic acidosis, and RTA type 4 is associated with hyperkalaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 51
Incorrect
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A 60 yr. old male patient with hypertension presented with acute onset retrosternal chest pain for 3 hours. On examination his pulse rate was 68 bpm, BP was 100/60 mmHg and JVP was seen 3mm from the sternal notch. Respiratory examination was normal. His ECG showed narrow QRS complexes, ST segment elevation of 2mm in leads II, III and aVF and a complete heart block. What is the most immediate treatment from the following answers?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chewable aspirin 300 mg
Explanation:The diagnosis is inferior ST elevation myocardial infarction. As the right coronary artery supplies the SA and AV nodes and bundle of His, conduction abnormalities are more common with inferior MIs. The most immediate drug management is high dose Aspirin. Definite treatment is urgent cardiac revascularization.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 52
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old hypertensive man presents with difficulty using his right arm, slow walking and occasional loss of balance. He has a broad-based gait with cogwheel rigidity and intention tremor of his right arm. His blood pressure is 140/80 mmHg sitting and 100/60 mmHg standing. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Multiple system atrophy
Explanation:This patient presents with a combination of akinetic rigid syndrome, cerebellar signs and the suggestion of autonomic features. This is most indicative of a diagnosis of multiple system atrophy.
Multiple system atrophy (MSA) is a rare neurodegenerative disorder characterized by autonomic dysfunction, tremors, slow movement, muscle rigidity, and postural instability (collectively known as parkinsonism) and ataxia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 53
Incorrect
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A 36 year old female who has been suffering from depression for the past 5 years was recently admitted to the psychiatric intensive care unit. She is currently being managed on Sertraline. In clinic she was observed to be sitting in a fixed position for several hours, awake but unable to move. What would be an appropriate treatment for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: ECT
Explanation:Catatonia is a state of apparent unresponsiveness to external stimuli and apparent inability to move normally in a person who is apparently awake. Catatonia can be acute and occur in severely ill patients with underlying psychiatric or other medical disorders.
A history of behavioural responses to others usually includes the presence of the following:
– Mutism (absence of speech)
– Negativism (performing actions contrary to the commands of the examiner)
– Echopraxia (repeating the movements of others)
– Echolalia (repeating the words of others)
– Waxy flexibility (slight, even resistance to positioning by examiner)
– Withdrawal (absence of responses to the environment).In the presence of a catatonic state, both first and second generation antipsychotics (SGA) may contribute to maintaining or worsening the catatonic state and increase the risk of developing NMS (neuroleptic malignant syndrome).
Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is effective in all forms of catatonia, even after pharmacotherapy with benzodiazepines has failed. Response rate ranges from 80% to 100% and results superior to those of any other therapy in psychiatry. ECT should be considered first-line treatment in patients with malignant catatonia, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, delirious mania or severe catatonic excitement, and in general in all catatonic patients that are refractory or partially responsive to benzodiazepines. Early intervention with ECT is encouraged to avoid undue deterioration of the patient’s medical condition.
Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a procedure, done under general anaesthesia, in which small electric currents are passed through the brain, intentionally triggering a brief seizure. ECT seems to cause changes in brain chemistry that can quickly reverse symptoms of certain mental health conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 54
Incorrect
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Which of the following forms of acute viral hepatitis has a much higher mortality in pregnant than non-pregnant females?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatitis E
Explanation:Pregnant patient in a third world country with hepatitis: The answer is most likely Hepatitis E. The mortality for Hepatitis E in pregnant women is very high. It is transmitted faecal-orally. There is no hepatitis G. Hepatitis C, B, A are less likely to be the correct answer than E given it’s classic association with pregnancy and poor living conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 55
Incorrect
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A 14 year old girl with cystic fibrosis (CF) presents with abdominal pain. Which of the following is the pain most likely linked to?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Meconium ileus equivalent syndrome
Explanation:Meconium ileus equivalent (MIE) can be defined as a clinical manifestation in cystic fibrosis (CF) patients caused by acute intestinal obstruction by putty-like faecal material in the cecum or terminal ileum. A broader definition includes a more chronic condition in CF patients with abdominal pain and a coecal mass which may eventually pass spontaneously. The condition occurs only in CF patients with exocrine pancreatic insufficiency (EPI). It has not been seen in other CF patients nor in non-CF patients with EPI. The frequency of these symptoms has been reported as 2.4%-25%.
The treatment should primarily be non-operative. Specific treatment with N-acetylcysteine, administrated orally and/or as an enema is recommended. Enemas with the water soluble contrast medium, meglucamine diatrizoate (Gastrografin), provide an alternative form for treatment and can also serve diagnostic purposes. It is important that the physician is familiar with this disease entity and the appropriate treatment with the above mentioned drugs. Non-operative treatment is often effective, and dangerous complications following surgery can thus be avoided.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 56
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old lawyer presents with a one-day history of a painful, red left eye. She describes how her eye is continually streaming tears. On examination, she exhibits a degree of photophobia in the affected eye and application of fluorescein demonstrates a dendritic pattern of staining. Visual acuity is 6/6 in both eyes. What is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topical acyclovir
Explanation:This patient has a dendritic corneal ulcer. Herpes simplex keratitis most commonly presents with a dendritic corneal ulcer. Topical acyclovir and ophthalmology review is required. Giving a topical steroid in this situation could be disastrous as it may worsen the infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 57
Incorrect
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A 26 year old male admits to you that he was sexually abused in his childhood. Which one of the following features is not a characteristic feature of post-traumatic stress disorder?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Loss of inhibitions
Explanation:Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is an anxiety disorder caused by stressful, frightening or distressing events.
PTSD is a lasting consequence of traumatic ordeals that cause intense fear, helplessness, or horror, such as a sexual or physical assault, the unexpected death of a loved one, an accident, war, or natural disaster. Families of victims can also develop PTSD, as can emergency personnel and rescue workers.
PTSD is diagnosed after a person experiences symptoms for at least one month following a traumatic event. However symptoms may not appear until several months or even years later. The disorder is characterized by three main types of symptoms:
-Re-experiencing the trauma through intrusive distressing recollections of the event, flashbacks, and nightmares.
-Emotional numbness and avoidance of places, people, and activities that are reminders of the trauma.
-Increased arousal such as difficulty sleeping and concentrating, feeling jumpy, and being easily irritated and angered.The goal of PTSD treatment is to reduce the emotional and physical symptoms, to improve daily functioning, and to help the person better cope with the event that triggered the disorder. Treatment for PTSD may involve psychotherapy (a type of counselling), medication, or both.
Certain antidepressant medications are used to treat PTSD and to control the feelings of anxiety and its associated symptoms including selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and tricyclic antidepressants. Mood stabilizers such are sometimes used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 58
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old gentleman presents with visual loss in his right eye, and this is diagnosed as optic neuritis. Which one of the following statements would be seen in an afferent pupillary defect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Accommodation response is unaffected
Explanation:Afferent pupillary defect is simply a delayed pupillary response to light. Accommodation is otherwise unaffected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 59
Incorrect
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A 64-year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer has developed progressive back pain over the last 2 days. She also reports of weakness of her lower limbs and difficulty in walking. On examination, she has reduced power in both legs and increased tone associated with brisk knee and ankle reflexes. There is some sensory loss in the lower limbs and feet but perianal sensation is normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spinal cord compression at T10
Explanation:The upper motor neurone signs in this patient point towards a diagnosis of spinal cord compression above the level of L1 and rules out cauda equina syndrome.
Spinal cord compression is an oncological emergency and affects up to 5% of cancer patients. Extradural compression accounts for the majority of cases, usually due to vertebral body metastases. One of the most common causes of spinal cord compression is osteoarthritis. It is also more commonly seen in patients with lung, breast, or prostate cancer.
Clinical features include:
1. Back pain: the earliest and most common symptom, may worsen on lying down or coughing
2. Lower limb weakness
3. Sensory changes: sensory loss and numbness
4. Neurological signs: depending on the level of the lesion.
Lesions above L1 usually result in upper motor neurone signs in the legs. Lesions below L1 usually cause lower motor neurone signs in the legs and perianal numbness. Tendon reflexes are increased below the level of the lesion and absent at the level of the lesion.Management options are:
1. High-dose oral dexamethasone
2. Urgent MRI for consideration of radiotherapy or surgery -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 60
Incorrect
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A 39-year-old accountant with long-standing gastro-oesophageal reflux disease is reviewed in clinic. He has recently switched from ranitidine to omeprazole. What is the main benefit of omeprazole compared to ranitidine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Irreversible blockade of H+/K+ ATPase
Explanation:Proton pump inhibitors can reduce gastric acid secretion by up to 99%. Acid production resumes following the normal renewal of gastric parietal cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 61
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old male patient presents with haematemesis. Gastroscopy and biopsy reveal a carcinoma. Who is the one to inform the patient of his diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The consultant in-charge of his care
Explanation:One of the questions the therapist poses himself while informing a patient is: whom shall I inform about the diagnosis, treatment and prognosis? If we unconditionally accepted the view that information belongs to the patient from an ethical and legal standpoint, we would automatically exclude the partner and the family. Therefore, the therapist should raise another question: what is the benefit to the patient? To answer the question and the resulting dilemma, we have to leverage the long experience of family therapy and tailor it to the cases we are dealing with. It should be taken into consideration that patient and family are a dynamic system which was balanced before the onset of the disease, but is now disrupted, entering into crisis. Therefore, the denial mechanisms and personality characteristics we have previously elaborated on, and communication among members play a crucial role in determining the information strategy and the way family should be approached. In this particular case, the most appropriate person to inform the patient is the consultant, meaning the one currently responsible for the patient’s care. The patient most probably has already developed some form of close and trustful relationship with his consultant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 62
Incorrect
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A 74-year-old man with longstanding Waldenström's macroglobulinemia presents to the rheumatology clinic with joint pain and generalised weakness. Which of the following would be most indicative of type I cryoglobulinemia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Raynaud's phenomenon
Explanation:Cryoglobulinemia may be caused by paraprotein bands such as those seen in Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia and multiple myeloma (MM). Meltzer’s triad of arthralgia, weakness, and palpable purpura are common to all types of cryoglobulinemia—as are membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis and low C4 levels. Raynaud’s phenomenon, however, occurs only in type 1 cryoglobulinemia, and its presence can be helpful in ascertaining the underlying cause.
Cryoglobulinemia is a condition in which the blood contains large amounts of pathological cold-sensitive antibodies called cryoglobulins—proteins (mostly immunoglobulins themselves) that become insoluble at reduced temperatures. One-third of the cases are idiopathic.
There are three types of cryoglobulinemia:
1. Type I (25%):
Monoclonal—IgG or IgM
Associated with multiple myeloma (MM), Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia2. Type II (25%):
Mixed monoclonal and polyclonal—usually with rheumatoid factor (RF)
Associated with hepatitis C, rheumatoid arthritis (RA), Sjogren’s syndrome3. Type III (50%):
Polyclonal—usually with RF
Associated with rheumatoid arthritis, Sjogren’s syndromeInvestigation results for cryoglobulinemia show low complement (especially C4) and high ESR. Treatment options include immunosuppression and plasmapheresis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 63
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old male with a history of bipolar disorder presents with acute confusion. In-transit to hospital he had a generalized seizure which terminated spontaneously after around 30 seconds. On arrival to the emergency department, his GCS is 14/15 and he is noted to have a coarse tremor. Suspecting a diagnosis of lithium toxicity, intravenous access is obtained, a blood sample was drawn for investigations and a saline infusion is started. The blood investigations revealed: Lithium level: 4.2 mmol/L, Na+: 136 mmol/L, K+: 4.6 mmol/L, Urea: 8.1 mmol/L, Creatinine: 99 µmol/L, Bicarbonate: 18 mmol/L, What is the most appropriate management for the patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange haemodialysis
Explanation:The presentation of the patient is typical of chronic lithium toxicity (due to the presence of mainly neurological manifestations). Additional to the blood investigations mentioned, urine analysis, electrolyte levels, and renal function should also be performed. A low urine Anion gap and a low urine specific gravity are highly suggestive of lithium toxicity.
ECG obtained in this patient is likely to show: nonspecific, diffuse ST segment depression with T wave inversion.
Acute lithium toxicity presents with more GI manifestations while, the clinical features of chronic lithium toxicity are mainly neurological and can include:
Coarse tremors (fine tremors are seen in therapeutic levels), hyperreflexia, acute confusion, seizures, and coma.
The management of lithium toxicity is as follows:
Immediate GI decontamination with gastric lavage (in case of acute intoxication)
Saline Administrations: the goal of saline administration is to restore GFR, normalize urine output and enhance lithium clearance.
Haemodialysis remains the mainstay treatment for lithium toxicity as lithium is readily dialyzed because of water solubility, low volume of distribution, and lack of protein binding.
The Extracorporeal Treatments in Poisoning Workgroup (EXTRIP Workgroup) recommendations for dialysis (extracorporeal treatment) in lithium toxicity include:
• Impaired kidney function and lithium levels > 4.0 mEq/L
• Decreased consciousness, seizures, or life-threatening dysrhythmias, regardless of lithium levels
• Levels are > 5.0 mEq/L, significant confusion is noted, or the expected time to reduce levels to < 1.0 mEq/L is more than 36 hours
As post-dialysis rebound elevations in lithium levels have been documented, continuous veno-venous hemofiltration (CVVH) has been advocated. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 64
Incorrect
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A 18 yr. old male was screened for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HOCM) as his brother had the same condition. What is the echocardiographic finding that is related to the highest risk of sudden cardiac death?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Significant thickening of the interventricular septum
Explanation:There are five prognostic factors which indicate poor prognosis in HOCM:
-family history of HOCM-related sudden cardiac death
-unexplained recent syncope
-large left ventricular wall thickness (MLVWT ≥ 30 mm)
-multiple bursts of nsVT on ambulatory electrocardiography
-hypotensive or attenuated blood pressure response to exercise -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 65
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old woman presents with weakness and is found to have a serum potassium of 2.2 mmol/l and pH 7.1. Which of the following would be LEAST useful in differentiating between renal tubular acidosis Types 1 and 2?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Osteomalacia
Explanation:Osteomalacia is a marked softening of the bones that can present in both type I and type II Renal Tubular Acidosis (RTA) and will thus not differentiate the two types in any case. The other measures will allow differentiation of the two types.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 66
Incorrect
-
A 22 year old man who has recently returned from a trip to Far East presents with sore eyes and symmetrical joint pain in his knees, ankles and feet. Labs reveal an elevated ESR. The synovial fluid aspirate is sterile and has a high neutrophil count. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reactive arthropathy
Explanation:Reactive arthritis, (formerly known as Reiter’s syndrome), is an autoimmune condition that occurs after a bacterial infection of the gastrointestinal or urinary tract. It is categorized as a seronegative spondylarthritis because of its association with HLA-B27. Reactive arthritis primarily affects young men and usually presents with musculoskeletal or extra‑articular symptoms. The characteristic triad consists of arthritis, conjunctivitis, and urethritis. Symmetric lower limb arthropathy and a sterile joint aspirate points towards reactive arthropathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 67
Incorrect
-
A 38-year-old musician presented with a two-day history of sudden-onset occipital headache associated with nausea and vomiting. The next day, his right hand became weak for a few hours. On the same day he had an episode of sensory disturbance in his right upper limb consisting of tingling in his hand that spread up the arm, to his shoulder lasting less than two minutes in total. On the day of admission he had a similar episode of sensory disturbance lasting 30 seconds in total. On examination he had bilateral papilledema, no neck stiffness and an otherwise normal neurological examination. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Venous sinus thrombosis
Explanation:Cerebral venous sinus thrombosis (CVST) is associated with headache (>90% of cases), seizures, focal weakness (40%) and papilledema (40%), all seen in this patient.
Risk factors for CVST include genetic or acquired prothrombotic disorders, pregnancy, the oral contraceptive pill, vasculitis, malignancy, dehydration and infection. However, there are multiple other associated factors.
Diagnosis is normally confirmed with magnetic resonance venography (MRV). Treatment is with anticoagulation, initially with heparin and subsequently with warfarin. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 68
Incorrect
-
A 72-year-old with varicose veins complains of swollen, red, itchy legs. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Varicose eczema
Explanation:Varicose eczema is a common problem, particularly in elderly patients due to stasis or blood pooling from insufficient venous return; the alternative name of varicose eczema comes from a common cause of this being varicose veins. It is often mistaken for cellulitis, but cellulitis is rarely bilateral and is painful rather than itchy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 69
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old male is admitted with vomiting. He has a long history of alcohol abuse, appears slightly jaundiced and is dishevelled and unkempt. He was started on an intravenous glucose infusion and diazepam and he symptomatically improved. One day later he becomes confused, develops vomiting, diplopia and is unable to stand. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin B deficiency
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis is Wernicke’s encephalopathy. This presents in a long time alcoholic from vitamin BI deficiency. Symptoms include confusion and confabulation, oculomotor symptoms/signs, and ataxia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 70
Incorrect
-
Through which foramen does the maxillary nerve pass through?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Foramen rotundum
Explanation:The foramen rotundum is one of the several circular apertures (the foramina) located in the base of the skull, in the anterior and medial part of the sphenoid bone. The maxillary branch (V2) of the trigeminal nerve (CN V) passes through and exits the skull via the pterygopalatine fossa and the foramen rotundum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 71
Incorrect
-
A 22 year old man is being evaluated for chronic lower backache. Which of the following would most strongly point towards the diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduced lateral flexion of the lumbar spine
Explanation:Ankylosing spondylitis (spondylarthritis) is a chronic inflammatory disease of the axial skeleton that leads to partial or even complete fusion and rigidity of the spine. Males are disproportionately affected and upwards of 90% of patients are positive for the HLA-B27 genotype, which predisposes to the disease. The most characteristic early finding is pain and stiffness in the neck and lower back, caused by inflammation of the vertebral column and the sacroiliac joints. The pain typically improves with activity and is especially prominent at night. Other articular findings include tenderness to percussion and displacement of the sacroiliac joints (Mennell’s sign), as well as limited spine mobility, which can progress to restrictive pulmonary disease.
The most common extra-articular manifestation is acute, unilateral anterior uveitis. Diagnosis is primarily based on symptoms and x-ray of the sacroiliac joints, with HLA-B27 testing and MRI reserved for inconclusive cases. There is no curative treatment, but regular physiotherapy can slow progression of the disease. Additionally, NSAIDs and/or tumour necrosis factor-α inhibitors may improve symptoms. In severe cases, surgery may be considered to improve quality of life. The spine adopts a bamboo shape, not lordosis. The pain usually improves as the day progresses. leg raise test causes pain in cases of meningitis etc not in this case. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 72
Incorrect
-
A 17-year-old Jewish girl presents with primary amenorrhoea. On examination, she looks a little hirsute and has evidence of facial acne. She is within her predicted adult height and has normal breast and external genitalia development, however, there is excess hair over her lower abdomen and around her nipple area. Investigations were as follows: Hb 13.1 g/dL, WCC 8.6 x109/L, PLT 201 x109/L, Na+ 139 mmol/L, K+ 4.5 mmol/L, Creatinine 110 µmol/L, 17-OH progesterone 1.4 times the upper limit of normal. Pelvic ultrasound: bilateral ovaries and uterus visualised. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Non-classical congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Explanation:Mild deficiencies of 21-hydroxylase or 3-beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase activity may present in adolescence or adulthood with oligomenorrhea, hirsutism, and/or infertility. This is termed nonclassical adrenal hyperplasia.
Late-onset or nonclassical congenital adrenal hyperplasia (NCAH) due to 21-hydroxylase deficiency is one of the most common autosomal recessive disorders. Reported prevalence ranges from 1 in 30 to 1 in 1000. Affected individuals typically present due to signs and symptoms of androgen excess.
Treatment needs to be directed toward the symptoms. Goals of treatment include normal linear growth velocity, a normal rate of skeletal maturation, ‘on-time’ puberty, regular menstrual cycles, prevention of or limited progression of hirsutism and acne, and fertility. Treatment needs to be individualized and should not be initiated merely to decrease abnormally elevated hormone concentrations.
Normal Ultrasound rules out Turner’s syndrome. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 73
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old woman presents at clinic complaining of worsening hoarseness of voice and dyspnoea over the past month. She has a history of toxic multinodular goitre successfully treated with radioiodine. On examination, she has a firm asymmetrical swelling of the thyroid gland. Laryngoscopy demonstrates a right vocal cord paralysis and apparent external compression of the trachea. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anaplastic thyroid cancer
Explanation:Thyroid malignancies are divided into papillary carcinomas (80%), follicular carcinomas (10%), medullary thyroid carcinomas (5-10%), anaplastic carcinomas (1-2%), primary thyroid lymphomas (rare), and primary thyroid sarcomas (rare).
Hürthle cell carcinoma is a rare thyroid malignancy that is often considered a variant of follicular carcinoma.
– Papillary and Follicular carcinoma are slow-growing tumours
– Sporadic cases of Medullary thyroid carcinoma also typically manifest with painless solitary thyroid nodules in the early stages.
– Anaplastic thyroid carcinoma has the most aggressive biologic behaviour of all thyroid malignancies and has one of the worst survival rates of all malignancies in general. It manifests as a rapidly growing thyroid mass in contrast to a well-differentiated carcinoma, which are comparatively slow-growing. Patients commonly present with associated symptoms due to local invasion. Hoarseness and dyspnoea resulting from the involvement of the recurrent laryngeal nerve and airway occur in as many as 50% of patients.
– Almost all patients with primary thyroid lymphoma have either a clinical history or histological evidence of chronic lymphocytic thyroiditis. The risk of primary thyroid lymphoma increases 70-fold in patients with chronic lymphocytic thyroiditis compared with the general population. Regional and distant lymphadenopathy is common. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 74
Incorrect
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A 53-year-old woman presents with upper GI haemorrhage. She has a history of rheumatoid arthritis for which she is managed with low dose prednisolone, diclofenac and codeine phosphate. On examination in the Emergency ward her BP is 90/60 mmHg, pulse 100/min. You fluid resuscitate her and her BP improves to 115/80 mmHg, with a pulse of 80/min. Investigations; Hb 10.4 g/dL, WCC 6.1 x109/L, PLT 145 x109/L, Na+ 139 mmol/L, K+ 4.9 mmol/L, Creatinine 180 μmol/L, ECG – Lateral ST depression , Upper GI endoscopy reveals a large bleeding ulcer on the posterior aspect of the duodenum. It cannot be easily reached with the endoscope, and you decide to attempt embolization. Which of the following is the artery that should be targeted?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Posterior superior Pancreaticoduodenal artery
Explanation:The most common location for a duodenal ulcer bleed is the posterior duodenum (remember: posterior bleeds, anterior perforates). The perfusion to this area is most specifically from the posterior superior pancreaticoduodenal artery.
The anterior superior pancreaticoduodenal artery supplies the anterior region. The gastroepiploic artery supplies mostly the stomach. The splenic artery goes, obviously, toward the spleen, in the other direction. The gastroduodenal artery is a branch of the celiac artery, and it’s branches are the anterior superior pancreaticoduodenal artery and posterior superior pancreaticoduodenal artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 75
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old male is admitted following a collapse while competiung in an iron man triathlon. His blood results are as follows: Na+: 122 mmol/L, K+: 3.4 mmol/L, Urea: 3.2 mmol/L, Creatinine: 69 umol/l. During assessment he becomes increasingly obtunded and goes on to have multiple tonic clonic seizures. What is the most appropriate treatment from the list below to improve his neurological status?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypertonic saline
Explanation:Over consumption of fluids, prolonged race duration and inadequate training all can predispose to acute hyponatraemia.
Mild symptoms include a decreased ability to think, headaches, nausea, and an increased risk of falls. Severe symptoms include confusion, seizures, and coma. Normal serum sodium levels are 135 – 145 mEq/liter (135 – 145 mmol/L). Hyponatremia is generally defined as a serum sodium level of less than 135 mEq/L and is considered severe when the level is below 120 mEq/L.
The correct treatment to give is hypertonic saline. Decompressive craniotomy would help alleviate raised intracranial pressure due to cerebral oedema however is not an appropriate first line treatment. Demeclocycline is used for SIADH and mannitol is more likely to be used in the context of traumatic brain injury.
Hyponatremia is corrected slowly, to lessen the risk of the development of central pontine myelinolysis (CPM), a severe neurological disease involving a breakdown of the myelin sheaths covering parts of nerve cells. During treatment of hyponatremia, the serum sodium (salt level in the blood) should not rise by more than 8 mmol/L over 24 hours. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 76
Incorrect
-
A 16 year old previously well male presents with a 4 day history of fever, lethargy and a generalized macular rash. There is no significant previous medical history and the patient has not travelled abroad either. Vitals are as follows: Temp: 38.5 BP: 125/75mmHg Pulse: 100/min On auscultation the chest was clear and no heart murmur was heard. Examination also reveals a non blanching widespread macular rash over the chest and abdomen. There is swelling of interphalangeal joints of both hands and feet associated with mild tenderness. Lymph nodes are palpable over the supraclavicular, axillary and inguinal areas. Abdominal examination reveals palpable mass on both right and left hypochondrium. Lab results are given below: Haemoglobin (Hb) 13.5 g/dL, White cell count (WCC) 14.0 × 109/L, Platelets 380 × 109/L, Sodium 145 mmol/L, Potassium 4.8 mmol/L, Creatinine 89 μmol/L, Rheumatoid factor: Negative, Antinuclear antibody: Negative, Anti-dsDNA: Negative, ASO titre: Not detected. Electrocardiogram (ECG): Sinus rhythm. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Systemic Still’s disease
Explanation:People with Systemic Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (also known as Stills disease) can have recurrent fevers, a macular rash, joint pain, joint deformities, an enlarged liver and/or spleen, and can occasionally have polyserositis, lung involvement or pericardial effusions. Rheumatoid factor and antinuclear antibodies are usually negative. Treatment is with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and the prognosis is better than for adult rheumatoid arthritis.
In pauciarticular Still’s disease, antinuclear antibodies are present. Large joints are affected and most patients develop classic features of seronegative spondylarthritis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 77
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old male presents to the emergency department about 4 hours after ingesting 20g of paracetamol. N-acetyl cysteine was started immediately. What is the mechanism of action of N-acetyl cysteine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Replenishes glutathione
Explanation:N-acetylcysteine depletes glutathione reserves by providing cysteine, which is an essential precursor in glutathione production.
Glutathione within the liver can normally detoxify these minuscule quantities of NAPQI and prevent tissue damage.
N-acetylcysteine (NAC) is the mainstay of therapy for acetaminophen toxicity.Paracetamol overdose:
The liver normally conjugates paracetamol with glucuronic acid/sulphate. During an overdose, the conjugation system becomes saturated leading to oxidation by cytochrome P450 (predominately CYP2E1) mixed-function oxidases. This produces a toxic metabolite N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine (NAPQI).Normally glutathione acts as a defence mechanism by conjugating with the toxin forming the non-toxic mercapturic acid. If glutathione stores run-out, the toxin forms covalent bonds with cell proteins, denaturing them and leading to cell death.
Other uses: In COPD, cystic fibrosis, and other lung conditions, nebulized NAC has mucolytic, anti-inflammatory, and antioxidant properties.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 78
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old boy returning from vacation in India presented with a history of fever, myalgia, headache and abdominal pain for 4 days duration. He revealed that he had bathed in a river during his vacation. On examination, he had severe muscle tenderness, hypotension (BP - 80/60mmHg) and tachycardia (140 bpm). What would be the first step in management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IV normal saline
Explanation:The history is suggestive of leptospirosis. This is a zoonotic infection caused by a spirochete. As the patient is in shock, resuscitation with IV fluids is the first step in the management. IV antibiotics should be started (Doxycycline or Penicillin) as soon as possible. Other investigations mentioned are important during the management to rule out other possible diagnoses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 79
Incorrect
-
Which of the following would be the most appropriate treatment (leaving out the current NICE guidelines) for a 29 year old man with erythrodermic psoriasis and arthritis mutilans involving several digits of both hands?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Etanercept
Explanation:TNF-alpha inhibitors are known to ameliorate the symptoms and disease activity of Arthritis mutilans (a rare and severe form of psoriatic arthritis), by disabling the cytokines that are involved in inflammation and joint destruction. From the mentioned choices, this would be the most effective option. Methotrexate is the most commonly used DMARD, followed by sulfasalazine used in mild to moderate forms of psoriatic arthritis but has not shown much efficacy in arthritis mutilans. Phototherapy, narrowband UVB light therapy can be very effective in clearing skin lesions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 80
Incorrect
-
A 52-year-old man presents with numbness and tingling in his left hand. On examination he has weakness of elbow extension, metacarpophalangeal joint flexion and extension and distal interphalangeal joint flexion. All other movements and reflexes are normal. Sensation is normal apart from reduced pin-prick sensation over the medial aspect of the hand. An MRI scan of the cervical spine is performed due to suspicion of a nerve lesion. Which of the following pathologies is most likely to be found on the scan based on the clinical findings?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Disc herniation between C7 and T1
Explanation:The C8 nerve forms part of the radial and ulnar nerves via the brachial plexus, and therefore has motor and sensory function in the upper limb. It originates from the spinal column from below the cervical vertebra 7 (C7).
The C8 nerve receives sensory afferents from the C8 dermatome. This consists of all the skin on the little finger, and continuing up slightly past the wrist on the palmar and dorsal aspects of the hand and forearm.
The other options available correspond to the C6 or C7 roots and these are unaffected as evidenced by normal elbow flexion and thumb sensation (C6) and normal sensation over the middle finger (C7). Elbow extension is weak as it has roots from both C7 and C8 and so cannot be used alone to decide between the two levels clinically.
The C8 nerve contributes to the motor innervation of many of the muscles in the trunk and upper limb. Its primary function is the flexion of the fingers, and this is used as the clinical test for C8 integrity, in conjunction with the finger jerk reflex.Trunk:
– Pectoralis major – Medial and lateral pectoral nerves (C5, C6, C7, C8, T1)
– Pectoralis minor – Medial pectoral nerve (C5, C6, C7,C8, T1)
– Latissimus dorsi – Thoracodorsal nerve (C6, C7, C8)
Upper arm:
– Triceps brachii – Radial nerve (C6, C7,C8)
Forearm
– Flexor carpi ulnaris – Ulnar nerve (C7, C8, T1)
– Palmaris longus – Median nerve (C7,C8)
– Flexor digitorum superficialis – Median nerve (C8, T1)
– Flexor digitorum profundus – Median and Ulnar nerves (C8, T1)
– Flexor pollicis longus – Median nerve (C7,C8)
– Pronator quadratus – Median nerve (C7,C8)
– Extensor carpi radialis brevis – Deep branch of the radial nerve (C7,C8)
– Extensor digitorum – Posterior interosseous nerve (C7,C8)
– Extensor digiti minimi – Posterior interosseous nerve (C7,C8)
– Extensor carpi ulnaris – Posterior interosseous nerve (C7,C8)
– Anconeus – Radial nerve (C6, C7,C8)
– Abductor pollicis longus – Posterior interosseous nerve (C7,C8)
– Extensor pollicis brevis – Posterior interosseous nerve (C7,C8)
– Extensor pollicis longus – Posterior interosseous nerve (C7,C8)
– Extensor indicis – Posterior interosseous nerve (C7,C8)
Hand
– Palmaris brevis – Superficial branch of ulnar nerve (C8, T1)
– Dorsal interossei – Deep branch of ulnar nerve (C8, T1)
– Palmar interossei – Deep branch of ulnar nerve (C8, T1)
– Adductor pollicis – Deep branch of ulnar nerve (C8, T1)
– Lumbricals – Deep branch of ulnar, Digital branches of median nerve
– Opponens pollicis – Recurrent branch of median nerve (C8, T1)
– Abductor pollicis brevis – Recurrent branch of median nerve (C8, T1)
– Flexor pollicis brevis – Recurrent branch of median nerve (C8, T1)
– Opponens digiti minimi – Deep branch of ulnar nerve (C8, T1)
– Abductor digiti minimi – Deep branch of ulnar nerve (C8, T1)
– Flexor digiti minimi brevis – Deep branch of ulnar nerve (C8, T1) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 81
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old woman who is known to have type 1 diabetes mellitus, presents with a three month history of diarrhoea, fatigue and weight loss. She has tried excluding gluten from her diet for the past 4 weeks and feels much better. She requests to be tested so that a diagnosis of coeliac disease can be confirmed. What is the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ask her to reintroduce gluten for the next 6 weeks before further testing
Explanation:The patient likely has celiac’s disease, but if she has been avoiding gluten, a biopsy may be negative. Even though a biopsy is the gold standard for diagnosis, she will need to re-introduce gluten into her diet prior to undergoing the biopsy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 82
Incorrect
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A 26 year old man with a history of 'brittle' asthma is admitted with an asthma attack. High-flow oxygen and nebulised salbutamol have already been administered by the Paramedics. The patient is unable to complete sentences and he has a bilateral expiratory wheeze. He is also unable to perform a peak flow reading. His respiratory rate is 31/minute, sats 93% (on high-flow oxygen) and pulse 119/minute. Intravenous hydrocortisone is immediately administered and nebulised salbutamol given continuously. Intravenous magnesium sulphate is administered after six minutes of no improvement. These are the results from the blood gas sample that was taken after another six minutes: pH 7.32 pCO2 6.8 kPa pO2 8.9 kPa What is the most appropriate therapy in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intubation
Explanation:The normal partial pressure reference values are: oxygen PaO2 more than 80 mmHg (11 kPa), and carbon dioxide PaCO2 lesser than 45 mmHg (6.0 kPa).
This patient has an elevated PaCO2 of 6.8kPa which exceeds the normal value of less than 6.0kPa.
The pH is also lower than 7.35 at 7.32In any patient with asthma, an increasing PaCO2 indicates severe airway obstruction that is leading to respiratory muscle fatigue and patient exhaustion.
According to the British Thoracic Society guidelines:
Indications for admission to intensive care or high-dependency units include
patients requiring ventilatory support and those with acute severe or life-threatening asthma who are failing to respond to therapy, as evidenced by:
• deteriorating PEF
• persisting or worsening hypoxia
• hypercapnia
• arterial blood gas analysis showing fall in pH or rising hydrogen concentration
• exhaustion, feeble respiration
• drowsiness, confusion, altered conscious state
• respiratory arrestTransfer to ICU accompanied by a doctor prepared to intubate if:
• Deteriorating PEF, worsening or persisting hypoxia, or hypercapnia
• Exhaustion, altered consciousness
• Poor respiratory effort or respiratory arrestA single dose of intravenous magnesium sulphate is safe and may improve lung function and reduce intubation rates in patients with acute severe asthma. Intravenous magnesium sulphate may also reduce hospital admissions in adults with acute asthma who have had little or no response to standard treatment.
Consider giving a single dose of intravenous magnesium sulphate to
patients with acute severe asthma (PEF <50% best or predicted) who have not had a good initial response to inhaled bronchodilator therapy.
Magnesium sulphate (1.2–2 g IV infusion over 20 minutes) should only be used following consultation with senior medical staff. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 83
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old male who has been on IV antibiotics for severe pneumonia developed profuse, watery, green coloured diarrhoea on the fifth day of antibiotics. What is the most likely organism responsible for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clostridium difficile
Explanation:The most probable cause for diarrhoea is pseudomembranous colitis which is caused by Clostridium difficile. Pseudomembranous colitis is an inflammatory disease of the colon where the antibiotic-induced change in the balance of normal gut flora allows overgrowth of C difficile. Any antibiotic can cause this but the chances are higher with ampicillin, clindamycin, fluoroquinolones, and cephalosporins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 84
Incorrect
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From the following responses, what is the commonest cardiovascular abnormality associated with Marfan's syndrome of an adult?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aortic root dilatation
Explanation:The main cardiovascular manifestations associated with Marfan’s syndrome are aortic dilatation and mitral valve prolapse.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 85
Incorrect
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A 51 year old smoker was recently diagnosed with non small cell lung carcinoma. Investigations show presence of a 3 x 3 x 2 cm tumour on the left side of the lower lung lobe. the mass has invaded the parietal pleura. Ipsilateral hilar node is also involved but there is no metastatic spread. What is the stage of this cancer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: T2 N1 M0
Explanation:The tumour has only invaded the visceral pleura and measures 3cm in the greatest dimension. Hence it is designated at T2. Ipsilateral peribronchial and/or hilar lymph node involvement would make it N1. There is no distal metastasis so M would be 0.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 86
Incorrect
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Out of the following, which is not associated with polycythaemia vera?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Raised ESR
Explanation:Polycythaemia vera (PV) is associated with a low ESR.
PV, also known as polycythaemia rubra vera, is a myeloproliferative disorder caused by clonal proliferation of marrow stem cells leading to an increase in red cell volume, often accompanied by overproduction of neutrophils and platelets. It has peak incidence in the sixth decade of life, with typical features including hyperviscosity, pruritus, splenomegaly, haemorrhage (secondary to abnormal platelet function), and plethoric appearance. PV is associated with a low ESR.
Some management options of PV include lose-dose aspirin, venesection (first-line treatment), hydroxyurea (slightly increased risk of secondary leukaemia), and radioactive phosphorus (P-32) therapy.
In PV, thrombotic events are a significant cause of morbidity and mortality. 5–15% of the cases progress to myelofibrosis or acute myeloid leukaemia (AML). The risk of having AML is increased with chemotherapy treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 87
Incorrect
-
A 28 year old woman is reviewed after giving birth one week ago. She complains about having difficulty sleeping and feeling anxious and tearful. She is also concerned about her mood because this is her first pregnancy and she is miserable. She is also not breast feeding. She has no history of any mental health disorder. What is the most appropriate approach to manage this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Explanation and reassurance
Explanation:Most new moms experience postpartum baby blues after childbirth, which commonly include mood swings, crying spells, anxiety and difficulty sleeping. Baby blues typically begin within the first two to three days after delivery, and may last for up to two weeks.
Signs and symptoms of baby blues may include:
Mood swings
Anxiety
Sadness
Irritability
Feeling overwhelmed
Crying
Reduced concentration
Appetite problems
Trouble sleepingThe exact cause of the “baby blues” is unknown at this time. It is thought to be related to the hormone changes that occur during pregnancy and again after a baby is born. These hormonal changes may produce chemical changes in the brain that result in depression.
Although the experience of baby blues is unpleasant, the condition usually subsides within two weeks without treatment. All the mom needs is reassurance and help with the baby and household chores. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 88
Incorrect
-
A 60 yr. old male with no past medical history presented to Casualty with acute chest pain. ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) is diagnosed following an ECG on arrival. He was subsequently successfully thrombolysed. Which of the following combinations of drugs is the most suitable combination for him to be taking 4 weeks after his STEMI?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: ACE inhibitor + beta-blocker + statin + aspirin + clopidogrel
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines (2013) all people who have had an acute MI, treatment should be offered with ACE inhibitor, dual antiplatelet therapy (aspirin plus a second antiplatelet agent), beta-blocker and a statin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 89
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman noticed an episode of passing blood instead of urine in the morning. She looks anaemic, but rest of the examination is normal. Her GP has arranged for a urological examination, which has come out to be normal as well. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria
Explanation:The patient has paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH). The classic sign of the disease is red discolouration of the urine due to the presence of haemoglobin and hemosiderin from the breakdown of red blood cells. As the urine is more concentrated in the morning, this is when the colour is most pronounced.
PNH is an acquired clonal disorder of haematopoietic stem cells, characterised by variable combinations of intravascular haemolysis, thrombosis, and bone marrow failure. Diagnosis is made by flow cytometric evaluation of blood, which confirms the CD55 and CD59 deficiencies and deficiency of expression of other GPI-linked proteins. This test is replacing older complement-based assays such as the Ham test and sucrose lysis test.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 90
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is correct regarding lead poisoning?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Causes a peripheral neuropathy due to demyelination
Explanation:Lead can be absorbed through the skin and by inhalation. It is associated with iron deficiency and a microcytic anaemia. The most common gastrointestinal symptoms are abdominal colic and constipation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 91
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman presents to a reproductive endocrinology clinic with a history of not being able to conceive after 2 years of using no contraception. Polycystic ovarian syndrome maybe her diagnosis. Which of the following is most likely to be associated with this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Elevated LH/FSH ratio
Explanation:In patients with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS), FSH levels are within the reference range or low. Luteinizing hormone (LH) levels are elevated for Tanner stage, sex, and age. The LH-to-FSH ratio is usually greater than 3.
Women with PCOS have abnormalities in the metabolism of androgens and oestrogen and in the control of androgen production. PCOS can result from abnormal function of the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian (HPO) axis.
The major features of PCOS include menstrual dysfunction, anovulation, and signs of hyperandrogenism. Other signs and symptoms of PCOS may include the following:
– Hirsutism
– Infertility
– Obesity and metabolic syndrome
– Diabetes
– Obstructive sleep apnoeaAndrogen excess can be tested by measuring total and free testosterone levels or a free androgen index. An elevated free testosterone level is a sensitive indicator of androgen excess. Other androgens, such as dehydroepiandrosterone sulphate (DHEA-S), may be normal or slightly above the normal range in patients with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS). Levels of sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG) are usually low in patients with PCOS.
Some women with PCOS have insulin resistance and an abnormal lipid profile (cholesterol >200 mg/dL; LDL >160 mg/dL). Approximately one-third of women with PCOS who are overweight have impaired glucose tolerance or type 2 diabetes mellitus by 30 years of age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 92
Incorrect
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A literature review of a number of studies was conducted to assess the potential efficacy of a new drug, which may reduce the chance of patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) developing gout. In one study 120 out of 1,200 patients receiving the new drug developed gout. The total number of the patients were 2,000 and the remaining 800 individuals received a placebo. From the patients that had received the placebo, 200 developed gout. What is the absolute risk reduction of developing gout?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 15%
Explanation:Absolute risk reduction (ARR) – also called risk difference (RD) – is the most useful way of presenting research results to help your decision-making. Absolute risk reduction = (Control event rate) – (Experimental event rate) = 0.15 = 15%
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 93
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male presents to the emergency department with fever, sweating, hyperventilation and breathing difficulty. He also complains of a continuous ringing sensation in both his ears for the past couple of days. He admits to consuming a lot of over the counter painkillers for the past few days. Which of the following drugs is the most likely cause of these symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspirin
Explanation:The presence of tinnitus, fever and hyperventilation are clues for aspirin (salicylate) toxicity.
Clinical Presentation of salicylate toxicity can include:
• Pulmonary manifestations include: Hyperventilation, hyperpnea, severe dyspnoea due to noncardiogenic pulmonary oedema, fever and dyspnoea due to aspiration pneumonitis
• Auditory symptoms caused by the ototoxicity of salicylate poisoning include: Hard of hearing and deafness, and tinnitus (commonly encountered when serum salicylate concentrations exceed 30 mg/dL).
• Cardiovascular manifestations include: Tachycardia, hypotension, dysrhythmias – E.g., ventricular tachycardia, ventricular fibrillation, multiple premature ventricular contractions, asystole – with severe intoxication, Electrocardiogram (ECG) abnormalities – E.g., U waves, flattened T waves, QT prolongation may reflect hypokalaemia.
• Neurologic manifestations include: CNS depression, with manifestations ranging from somnolence and lethargy to seizures and coma, tremors, blurring of vision, seizures, cerebral oedema – With severe intoxication, encephalopathy
• GI manifestations include: Nausea and vomiting, which are very common with acute toxicity, epigastric pain, GI haemorrhage – More common with chronic intoxication, intestinal perforation, pancreatitis, hepatitis – Generally in chronic toxicity; rare in acute toxicity, Oesophageal strictures – Reported as a very rare delayed complication
• Genitourinary manifestations include: Acute kidney injury (NSAID induced Nephropathy) is an uncommon complication of salicylate toxicity, renal failure may be secondary to multisystem organ failure.
• Hematologic effects may include prolongation of the prothrombin and bleeding times and decreased platelet adhesiveness. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) may be noted with multisystem organ failure in association with chronic salicylate toxicity.
• Electrolyte imbalances like: Dehydration, hypocalcaemia, acidaemia, Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH), hypokalaemia
Management of these patients should be done in the following manner:
• Secure Airway, Breathing, and Circulation
• Supportive therapy
• GI decontamination
• Urinary excretion and alkalization
• Haemodialysis -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 94
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old surgeon presents with a progressive paraesthesia and numbness in both feet, which have deteriorated over the last six months. He has a 10 year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and had cervical spondylosis, for which he underwent surgery eight years ago. He also confessed to drinking approximately 40 units of alcohol weekly. On examination he had mild bilateral weakness of foot dorsiflexion and both ankle reflexes were absent. There was absent sensation to light touch to mid-shin level with loss of joint position sensation in the toes and absent vibration sensation below the hips. He had a marked sensory ataxia and pseudoathetosis of the upper limbs. He had no evidence of a retinopathy and urinalysis was normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin B 12 deficiency
Explanation:Diabetic peripheral neuropathy usually goes in parallel with retinopathy and nephropathy. It is also slowly progressive and affects mainly the spinothalamic pathway.
Alcohol induced peripheral neuropathy is also slowly progressive and affects mainly the spinothalamic pathway.
Vitamin B 12 deficiency usually causes a more rapidly progressive neuropathy with dorsal column involvement (joint position and vibration involvement with sensory ataxia and pseudoathetosis of upper limbs). -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 95
Incorrect
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How would you advise your patient to apply an emollient and a steroid cream, in order to treat her eczema?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: First use emollient then steroids.
Explanation:If steroid is applied first, applying an emollient after could spread it from where it had been applied. If steroid is applied immediately after the emollient then it cannot be absorbed, this is why there should be a time interval of around thirty minutes between these two treatments in order for them to be effective.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 96
Incorrect
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What is correct statement regarding pulsus alternans?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is found in association with a third heart sound
Explanation:Pulsus alternans is the alternation of one strong and one weak beat without a change in the cycle length. It occurs most commonly in heart failure due to increased resistance to LV ejection, as occurs in hypertension, aortic stenosis, coronary atherosclerosis, and dilated cardiomyopathy. Pulsus alternans is usually associated with an S3 gallop, which is associated with a poor prognosis. It usually disappears with treatment of the heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 97
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old man with a known history of alcoholic liver disease is reviewed following a suspected oesophageal variceal haemorrhage. He has been resuscitated and intravenous terlipressin has been given. His blood pressure is now 104/60 mmHg and his pulse is 84/min. What is the most appropriate intervention?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Endoscopic variceal band ligation
Explanation:The correct course of action after giving terlipressin and resuscitating with IV fluids is to perform an EGD with endoscopic variceal band ligation. According to NICE: ‘Offer endoscopic variceal band ligation for the primary prevention of bleeding for people with cirrhosis who have medium to large oesophageal varices. There are serious complications of a TIPS procedure and it is not the first line treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 98
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old student is brought to A&E having ingested at least 20 tablets of paracetamol 8 hours earlier. She weighs 61kg. What should her immediate management consist of?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intravenous N-acetylcysteine
Explanation:Activated charcoal is useful if given within one hour of the paracetamol overdose. Liver function tests, INR and prothrombin time will be normal, as liver damage may not manifest until 24 hours or more after ingestion.
The antidote of choice is intravenous N-acetylcysteine, which provides complete protection against toxicity if given within 10 hours of the overdose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 99
Incorrect
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According to the Vaughan William's classification of antiarrhythmic agents, lidocaine is a:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Class Ib agent
Explanation:Lidocaine is an example of class IB antiarrhythmics.
The Vaughan-Williams classification of antiarrhythmics
I: Membrane stabilizing agents
IA: Quinidine, Procainamide, Disopyramide
IB: Lidocaine, Mexiletine
IC: Propafenone, Flecainide
II: β blockers – Propranolol, Esmolol
III: Agents widening AP – Amiodarone, Dronedarone, Dofetilide, Ibutilide, Sotalol
IV: Calcium channel blockers – Verapamil, Diltiazem
V: Miscellaneous – Digoxin, adenosine, magnesium -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 100
Incorrect
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Which is the most severe form among the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Class IV: diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis
Explanation:The classes refer to the WHO classification of glomerulonephritis in SLE patients.
class I: normal kidney
class II: mesangial glomerulonephritis
class III: focal (and segmental) proliferative glomerulonephritis
class IV: diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis
class V: diffuse membranous glomerulonephritis
class VI: sclerosing glomerulonephritisClass IV: diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis is the most common and the most severe form, where more than 50% of the glomeruli are involved.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 101
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old woman with polycystic kidney disease and a slowly rising creatinine, which was 320 μmol/L at her last clinic visit 3 weeks ago, is brought into the Emergency Department having been found collapsed at home by her partner. She is now fully conscious but complains of a headache. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Subarachnoid haemorrhage
Explanation:One of the most important complications in patients with PKD is being affected by berry aneurysms that may burst, causing a subarachnoid haemorrhage, which seems to be the case in this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 102
Incorrect
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Choose the most important stimulator of the central chemoreceptors:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Decrease in pH
Explanation:Central chemoreception refers to the detection of changes in CO2/H+ within the brain and the associated effects on breathing. In the conscious animal the response of ventilation to changes in the brain’s interstitial fluid (ISF) pH is very sensitive. Note that a small change in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) pH from 7.30 to 7.25 is associated with a doubling of alveolar ventilation; it is a very sensitive reflex response. Note also that the relationship of alveolar ventilation to ISF pH is essentially the same for both types of stimulation, metabolic acid-base disorders and primary CO2 stimulation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 103
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old lady is referred to hospital from her GP. She has been treated for essential hypertension, with Bendroflumethiazide 2.5 mg once daily and triamterene 150 mg once daily. Routine investigations show: Serum sodium 134 mmol/L (137-144) Serum potassium 5.9 mmol/L (3.5-4.9) Serum urea 7.0 mmol/L (2.5-7.5) Serum creatinine 100 μmol/L (60-110) Her blood pressure is measured at 134/86 mmHg. Her electrocardiogram is normal. The GP has stopped the triamterene today. Which of these is the most appropriate action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Repeat urea and electrolytes in one week
Explanation:Triamterene is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can cause hyperkalaemia, therefore, it was stopped in this patient. With all other lab results returning normal values and a normal ECG, management will simply require repeating the U & E after one week since the Triamterene has already be stopped.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 104
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old male patient with a history of three previous chest infections in the past seven months presents with fever, pleuritic pain and productive cough. Chest x-ray shows lobar consolidation and the diagnosis of a fourth chest infection is established, after sputum culture reveals Haemophilus influenzae. The previous chest infections were due to Streptococcus pneumoniae. After a period of six weeks, a full blood count, urea, CRP, electrolytes and chest x-ray turn out as normal. What is the investigation you would choose next?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serum immunoglobulins
Explanation:Hypogammaglobulinemia occurs due to a variety of underlying primary or secondary immunodeficient states, including HIV which is suspected in this case. The most commonly recognised clinical feature is recurrent infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 105
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female is brought to the OPD by her husband. She has been refusing to go outside for the past 3 months, telling her husband she is afraid of catching avian flu. On exploring this further, she is concerned because of the high number of migrating birds that she can see in her garden. She reports that the presence of her husband's socks on the washing line in the garden alerted her to this. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute paranoid schizophrenia
Explanation:Based on the given clinical scenario, the most probable diagnosis in this patient is acute paranoid schizophrenia.
Schizophrenia is a functional psychotic disorder characterized by the presence of delusional beliefs, hallucinations, and disturbances in thought, perception, and behaviour.
Clinical features:
Schneider’s first-rank symptoms may be divided into auditory hallucinations, thought disorders, passivity phenomena, and delusional perceptions:Auditory hallucinations of a specific type:
Two or more voices discussing the patient in the third person
Thought echo
Voices commenting on the patient’s behaviourThought disorder:
Thought insertion
Thought withdrawal
Thought broadcastingPassivity phenomena:
Bodily sensations being controlled by external influence
Actions/impulses/feelings – experiences which are imposed on the Individual or influenced by othersOther features of schizophrenia include
Impaired insight (a feature of all psychoses)
Incongruity/blunting of affect (inappropriate emotion for circumstances)
Decreased speech
Neologisms: made-up words
Catatonia
Negative symptoms: incongruity/blunting of affect, anhedonia (inability to derive pleasure), alogia (poverty of speech), avolition (poor motivation).Treatment:
For the initial treatment of acute psychosis, it is recommended to commence an oral second-generation antipsychotics such as aripiprazole, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, etc.
Once the acute phase is controlled, switching to a depot preparation like aripiprazole, paliperidone, zuclopenthixol, fluphenazine, haloperidol, pipotiazine, or risperidone is recommended.
Cognitive-behavioural therapy (CBT) and the use of art and drama therapies help counteract the negative symptoms of the disease, improve insight, and assist relapse prevention.
Clozapine is used in case of treatment resistance. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 106
Incorrect
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Which of the following types of reactions are a part of the phase II metabolism of a drug?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Conjugation
Explanation:Drug metabolism can be broadly classified into:
Phase I (functionalization) reactions: also termed non-synthetic reactions, they include oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis, cyclization and de-cyclization. The most common and vital reactions are oxidation reactions. (Of the given enzymes only Alcohol dehydrogenase is involved in phase I drug metabolism. Succinate dehydrogenase, is a vital enzyme involved in the Kreb’s cycle and the mitochondrial electron transport chain). They are mainly catalysed by Cytochrome P-450 enzyme.Phase II (conjugation) reactions: occur following phase I reactions, they include reactions: glucuronidation and sulphate conjugation, etc. They are mostly catalysed by UDP-glucuronosyltransferase enzyme. Other phase II enzymes include: sulfotransferases, N-acetyltransferases, glutathione S-transferases and methyltransferases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 107
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old boy has been brought to the hospital by his mother with pallor, lethargy and abdominal enlargement. His mother said she only noticed these symptoms two weeks ago but further questioning reveals that they have been progressively worsening over a longer period of time. The boy was born naturally following an uncomplicated pregnancy. Past and family histories are not significant and the family hasn't been on any vacations recently. However, the mother mentions a metabolic disorder present in the family history but couldn't remember the exact name. Clinical examination reveals generalised pallor, abdominal enlargement, massive splenomegaly and hepatomegaly. The spleen is firm but not tender and there is no icterus or lymphadenopathy. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gaucher's disease
Explanation:Gaucher’s disease is characterized by hepatosplenomegaly, cytopenia, sometimes severe bone involvement and, in certain forms, neurological impairment. The variability in the clinical presentations of GD may be explained by the continuum of phenotypes. However, three major phenotypic presentations can usually be distinguished. Type-1 GD is usually named non-neuronopathic GD; type-2 and type-3 are termed neuronopathic-GD. Gaucher disease (GD, ORPHA355) is a rare, autosomal recessive genetic disorder. It is caused by a deficiency of the lysosomal enzyme, glucocerebrosidase, which leads to an accumulation of its substrate, glucosylceramide, in macrophages.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 108
Incorrect
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A 60 yr. old man presented with severe central chest pain for the last 2 hours. He was on insulin for diabetes mellitus and he was dependent on haemodialysis because of end stage renal failure. He had undergone haemodialysis 48 hours prior to this presentation. His ECG showed an acute inferior myocardial infarction. Despite thrombolysis and other appropriate treatment, he continued to have chest pain after 6 hours from the initial presentation. His blood pressure was 88/54 mmHg and he had bibasal crepitations. His investigation results are given below. Serum sodium 140 mmol/l (137-144), Serum potassium 6.6 mmol/l (3.5-4.9), Serum urea 50 mmol/l (2.5-7.5), Serum creatinine 940 μmol/l (60-110), Haemoglobin 10.2g/dl (13.0-18.0), Troponin T >24 g/l (<0.04), Left ventricular ejection fraction was 20%. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Coronary angiography and rescue PCI
Explanation:According to the history the patient has cardiogenic shock and pulmonary oedema. On-going ischaemia is indicated by persisting symptoms. So the most appropriate management is coronary angiography and rescue PCI. There are no indications for blood transfusion at this moment and it will aggravate the pulmonary oedema. Haemodialysis, beta blockers and furosemide cannot be given due to low blood pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 109
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female presented with upper abdominal pain. She was diagnosed with an unknown coagulopathy and has a previous history of stroke. She has been on warfarin therapy for the past 4 months. Her international normalised ratio (INR) was stabilised between 2.5 and 3.0. Noticing abnormal coagulation results, her surgeon has requested a medical consult. Her blood investigations revealed: White cell count: 13 × 109/L, Haemoglobin (Hb): 11 g/dL, Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT): Normal Platelets: 140 × 109/L, INR: 6.0 Pancreatic enzymes and liver function tests were normal. Other investigations: An ultrasound of the abdomen was normal. An upper GI endoscopy revealed mild gastritis. What is the most appropriate step to be taken regarding warfarin therapy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop warfarin and observe
Explanation:The most appropriate treatment in this patient would be to stop warfarin therapy and keep the patient under observation.
The drugs that lead to enhanced potency of warfarin include: disulfiram, trimethoprim-sulphamethoxazole, metronidazole, phenylbutazone, aspirin, heparin, and clofibrate.
Liver disease, thrombocytopenia, hyperthyroidism also increase the oral anticoagulant potency.
If the patient has minor bleeding and the international normalized ratio (INR) is >6.0, warfarin should be stopped; the INR should be rechecked daily and in addition to the stoppage of warfarin, vitamin K 2.5 mg oral or 0.5 mg intravenously should also be administered.
In a patient with INR of 2.0 or 3.0, it takes two or three times longer for that individual’s blood to clot than someone who is not taking any anticoagulants. Most patients on warfarin have an INR goal of 2 to 3.If there is major bleeding then prothrombin complex concentrates 50 u/kg or fresh-frozen plasma 15 ml/kg may be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 110
Incorrect
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You want to measure the potential benefit of creating a service dedicated to patients with multiple sclerosis in the local area. Which factor would determine how many resources will be required?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prevalence
Explanation:To describe how often a disease or another health event occurs in a population, different measures of disease frequency can be used. The prevalence reflects the number of existing cases of a disease. In contrast to the prevalence, the incidence reflects the number of new cases of disease and can be reported as a risk or as an incidence rate. Prevalence and incidence are used for different purposes and to answer different research questions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 111
Incorrect
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You are a ST1 doctor working on a medical ward. You are struggling to cope with the workload and often leave the ward late. Who is the most appropriate action to take?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Speak to your consultant
Explanation:Speaking to your consultant is the most appropriate first action to take in this scenario. They are best placed to be able to take action to try and amend the situation. The consultant is also ultimately responsible for patient care and hterefore have a right to know if you are struggling, as this may affect patient care.
Arriving early and taking time off sick do not address the problem. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 112
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man complains of impotence and reduced libido for 4 months. He has been married for 15 years and has two children. He smokes five cigarettes per day and drinks approximately 12 units of alcohol weekly. Examination reveals an obese man who is phenotypically normal with normal secondary sexual characteristics. Investigations are as follows: Hb 13.4 g/dl (13.0-18.0), WCC 6 x 109/l (4-11), Platelets 210 x 109/l (150-400), Electrolytes Normal, Fasting glucose 5.6 mmol/l (3.0-6.0), LFTs Normal, T4 12.7 pmol/l (10-22), TSH 2.1 mU/l (0.4-5), Prolactin 259 mU/l (<450), Testosterone 6.6 nmol/l (9-30), LH 23.7 mU/l (4-8), FSH 18.1 mU/l (4-10). What is the next investigation needed for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ultrasound examination of the testes
Explanation:The patient has primary Hypogonadism.
Since he already had two children, Klinefelter syndrome is excluded and the patient does not need karyotyping.
His lab results are normal indicating normal pituitary gland functions.
So the next step is testicular ultrasound as testicular tumour, infiltration or idiopathic failure is suspected. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 113
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old man is about to be started on chemotherapy for a high-grade lymphoma. He is given intravenous rasburicase to help lower the risk of tumour lysis syndrome (TLS). What is the mechanism of action of this drug?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Converts uric acid to allantoin
Explanation:Rasburicase is a recombinant version of urate oxidase which is an enzyme that metabolizes uric acid to allantoin.
TLS is a potentially fatal condition occurring as a complication during the treatment of high-grade lymphomas and leukaemias. It occurs from the simultaneous breakdown (lysis) of the tumour cells and subsequent release of chemicals into the bloodstream. This leads to hyperkalaemia and hyperphosphatemia in the presence of hyponatraemia. TLS can occur in the absence of chemotherapy, but it is usually triggered by the introduction of combination chemotherapy. Awareness of the condition is critical for its prophylactic management.
Patients at high risk of TLS should be given IV rasburicase or IV allopurinol immediately prior to and during the first few days of chemotherapy. Allantoin is much more water soluble than uric acid and is therefore more easily excreted by the kidneys. Patients in lower-risk groups should be given oral allopurinol during cycles of chemotherapy in an attempt to avoid the condition.
TLS is graded according to the Cairo-Bishop scoring system as:
1. Laboratory tumour lysis syndrome
2. Clinical tumour lysis syndrome -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 114
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man with known ulcerative colitis and diverticular disease comes to clinic complaining of passing faeces per urethra. Cystoscopy confirms a fistula between his bladder and bowel. Which treatment is most likely to be effective?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: surgery
Explanation:The best treatment for a colovesicular fistula is surgery. This is the only definitive treatment. If the patient is a poor surgical candidate, there can be an attempt to manage them non-operatively, but this is absolutely NOT the MOST EFFECTIVE therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 115
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is a contraindication to the use of a triptan in the management of migraine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A history of ischaemic heart disease
Explanation:A history of ischaemic heart disease in a contraindication for prescribing triptans because they act by constricting cerebral and also coronary vessels, increasing the risk of stroke.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 116
Incorrect
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A 72 yr. old male presented to the Emergency Department with a broad complex tachycardia. Which of the following features is more suggestive that this has resulted because of a supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) rather than a ventricular tachycardia (VT)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Absence of QRS concordance in chest leads on ECG
Explanation:To differentiate ventricular tachycardia (VT) from supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) with aberrant conduction the following electrocardiographic features should be looked for:
Evidence of preceding atrial activity for SVT. Oesophageal leads are helpful if P waves are hidden in the QRS complex.
QRS duration more than 140 ms for VT.
QRS morphology: Features of QRS morphology that favour SVT are RBBB or triphasic patterns like rSR in V1 and qRS in V6. Monophasic pattern like R or qR in V1 and rS or QS in V6 or multiple morphology QRS complexes favour VT.
AV dissociation for VT. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 117
Incorrect
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A 25 year old female presented with multiple small genital ulcers, which are painful following a sexual intercourse with an unknown man. Which of the following can be used topically for this presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acyclovir
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis is Herpes Simplex infection. Topical Acyclovir can be used in early stages.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 118
Incorrect
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Which of the following involving the scalp may produce alopecia (hair loss)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Discoid lupus erythematosus
Explanation:Infective causes of hair loss include:
Dissecting cellulitis
Fungal infections (such as tinea capitis)
Folliculitis
Secondary syphilis
Demodex folliculorum
Lupus erythematosus (hair loss may be permanent due to scarring of the hair follicles).
Psoriasis and seborrheic dermatitis commonly involve the scalp but do not produce hair loss. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 119
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman presents to her GP with malaise, anorexia, and weight loss. Screening blood samples reveals urea of 50.1 mmol/l and serum creatinine of 690 μmol/l. Her past history includes frequent headaches, but nothing else of note. She has, however, failed to attend her routine ‘well-woman’ appointments. Ultrasound reveals bilateral hydronephrosis and a suspicion of a central pelvic mass. What diagnosis is most likely to be responsible for this woman’s hydronephrosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cervical carcinoma
Explanation:The patient’s history of recent weight loss and malaise, paired with enlarged kidneys and renal failure, as well as a suspected central pelvic mass on ultrasound, gives a suspicion of cervical carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 120
Incorrect
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A 80 yr. old male with hypertension presented with his second episode of atrial fibrillation. He was warfarinised and discharged. Later he was reviewed and found to be in sinus rhythm. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue lifelong warfarin
Explanation:CHA₂DS₂-VASc score is used for atrial fibrillation stroke risk calculation.
Congestive heart failure – 1 point
Hypertension – 1 point
Age ≥75 years – 2 points
Diabetes mellitus – 1 point
Stroke/Transient Ischemic Attack/Thromboembolic event – 2 points
Vascular disease (prior MI, PAD, or aortic plaque) – 1 point
Age 65 to 74 years – 1 point
Sex category (i.e., female sex) – 1 point
A score of 2 or more is considered as high risk and anticoagulation is indicated. This patient’s score is 3, so he needs life long warfarin to prevent stroke. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 121
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man presents with nocturia, hesitancy and terminal dribbling of urine. Prostate examination reveals a moderately enlarged prostate with no irregular features and a well-defined median sulcus. Blood investigations show a PSA level of 1.3 ng/mL. Among the options provided below what is the most appropriate management for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alpha-1 antagonist
Explanation:Benign Prostatic Enlargement or Hyperplasia (BPE/BPH) is the most probable diagnosis of the patient in question. It is a histological diagnosis characterized by proliferation of the cellular elements of the prostate.
The initial treatment modality of choice is selective alpha 1 antagonists (such as Prazosin, Alfuzosin and Indoramin, and long acting agents like, Terazosin, Doxazosin, etc.) as they provide immediate relief from the bothersome lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS).
Other treatment modalities include:
• Non-selective alpha blockers: no longer used due to severe adverse effects and the availability of selective alpha 1 blockers.
• 5 alpha reductase inhibitors: Finasteride and Dutasteride, they target the underlying disease process and reduce the overall prostate volume. Thus, reduce the urinary retention and the lower urinary tract symptoms. (They do not provide immediate relief from LUTS and thus are not preferred as first line drugs over alpha 1 antagonists)
• PDE-5 Inhibitors: The long-acting tadalafil has proven to be useful.
• Surgical Treatment modalities: TURP, Prostatectomy, etc. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 122
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman presents for her first cervical smear. What is the most important aetiological factor causing cervical cancer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Human papilloma virus 16 & 18
Explanation:It has been determined that HPV infection is the most powerful epidemic factor. This virus is needed, but not sufficient for the development of cervical cancer.
The WHO’s International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC) classified HPV infection as carcinogenic to humans (HPV types 16 and 18), probably carcinogenic (HPV types 31 and 33) and possibly carcinogenic (other HPV types except 6 and 11).
Tobacco smoking, the use of contraceptives, and the number of births are factors that showed no statistically significant deviations in the studied population compared to other countries in the region, as well as European countries. They have an equal statistical significance in all age groups. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 123
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old chef presents to the ED with acute visual changes. He has a past medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. On neurological examination, his upper and lower limbs are normal however he has a homonymous hemianopia with central preservation. Where is the most likely cause of his problems within the central nervous system?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Optic radiation
Explanation:Lesions in the optic radiation can cause a homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing, as a result of collateral circulation offered to macular tracts by the middle cerebral artery.
Lesions in the optic tract also cause a homonymous hemianopia, but without macular sparing.
Lesions in the optic chiasm, optic nerve, and temporal lobe cause bitemporal hemianopia, ipsilateral complete blindness, and superior homonymous quadrantanopia respectively. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 124
Incorrect
-
A 23-year-old male patient with a downward dislocation of the lens in his right eye is experiencing visual problems. The ophthalmologist notes a constellation of symptoms resembling those of Marfan Syndrome. The patient's history reveals learning disabilities and a diagnosis of homocystinuria is suspected. What is the pathophysiology of homocystinuria?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Deficiency of cystathionine beta synthase
Explanation:Inherited metabolic disorders are often characterized by the lack of an essential enzyme and are currently treated by dietary restriction and other strategies to replace the substrates or products of the missing enzyme. Patients with homocystinuria lack the enzyme cystathionine β-synthase (CBS), and many of these individuals do not respond to current treatment protocols.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 125
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following is the most common cause of hypothyroidism in the UK?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hashimoto's thyroiditis
Explanation:Hashimoto thyroiditis is the most common cause of hypothyroidism in developed countries. In contrast, worldwide, the most common cause of hypothyroidism is an inadequate dietary intake of iodine. This disease is also known as chronic autoimmune thyroiditis and chronic lymphocytic thyroiditis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 126
Incorrect
-
A study is developed to compare the calcemia of men and women with Crohn's disease. The objective of the study is to detect any differences between the average calcium levels in men compared to women. Previous studies have shown a normal distribution regarding calcium levels. Which of the the following tests would you most likely apply?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Student's unpaired t-test
Explanation:A t test is a type of statistical test that is used to compare the means of two groups. It is one of the most widely used statistical hypothesis tests in pain studies. There are two types of statistical inferences: parametric and nonparametric methods. Parametric methods refer to a statistical technique in which one defines the probability distribution of probability variables and makes inferences about the parameters of the distribution. In cases in which the probability distribution cannot be defined, nonparametric methods are employed. T tests are a type of parametric method; they can be used when the samples satisfy the conditions of normality, equal variance, and independence. In this case the data is parametric, comparing two independent samples from the same population.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 127
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old woman is evaluated in the endocrinology clinic for increased urine output. She weighs 60 kg and has a 24-hour urine output of 3500 ml. Her basal urine osmolality is 210 mOsm/kg. She undergoes a fluid deprivation test and her urine osmolality after fluid deprivation (loss of weight 3 kg) is 650 mOsm/kg. Subsequent injection of subcutaneous DDAVP (desmopressin acetate) did not result in a further significant rise of urine osmolality after 2 hours (655 mOsm/kg). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Primary polydipsia
Explanation:In central and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus (DI), urinary osmolality will be less than 300 mOsm/kg after water deprivation. After the administration of ADH, the osmolality will rise to more than 750 mOsm/kg in central DI but will not rise at all in nephrogenic DI.
In primary polydipsia, water deprivation results in an increase in urine osmolality, anywhere between 300 – 800 mOsm/Kg (usually up to 600 – 700 mOsm/Kg), without a substantial increase in plasma osmolality, but the increase in urine osmolality is not as substantial as in a normal response.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 128
Incorrect
-
A 29-year-old accountant presents to the emergency department complaining of left eye pain. He has not been able to wear his contact lenses for the past 24 hours due to the pain. He describes the pain as severe and wonders whether he has 'got something stuck in his eye'. On examination, there is diffuse hyperaemia of the left eye. The left cornea appears hazy and pupillary reaction is normal. Visual acuity is reduced on the left side and a degree of photophobia is noted. A hypopyon is also seen. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Keratitis
Explanation:Hypopyon can be seen in anterior uveitis, however the combination of a normal pupillary reaction and contact lens use make a diagnosis of keratitis more likely. Keratitis describes inflammation of the cornea, and features include red eye with pain and erythema, photophobia, and foreign body/gritty sensation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 129
Incorrect
-
A 21-year-old man is brought by his girlfriend who says he has 'not been himself' and has been feeling 'out of sorts' for the past 3 weeks. There is no history of past mental health problems. Which of the following symptoms is highly suggestive of depression in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Early morning waking
Explanation:Early morning waking is a highly suggestive feature of depression in this patient.
NICE use the DSM-IV criteria to grade depression:
1. Depressed mood most of the day, nearly every day
2. Markedly diminished interest or pleasure in all, or almost all, activities most of the day, nearly every day
3. Significant weight loss or weight gain when not dieting or decrease or increase in appetite nearly every day
4. Insomnia or hypersomnia nearly every day
5. Psychomotor agitation or retardation nearly every day
6. Fatigue or loss of energy nearly every day
7. Feelings of worthlessness or excessive or inappropriate guilt nearly every day
8. Diminished ability to think or concentrate, or indecisiveness nearly every day
9. Recurrent thoughts of death, recurrent suicidal ideation without a specific plan, or a suicide attempt or a specific plan for committing suicideSubthreshold depressive symptoms: Fewer than 5 symptoms
Mild depression: Few, if any, symptoms over the 5 required to make the diagnosis, and symptoms result in only minor functional impairment
Moderate depression: Symptoms or functional impairment are between ‘mild’ and ‘severe’
Severe depression: Most symptoms and the symptoms markedly interfere with functioning. Can occur with or without psychotic symptoms.Treatment of depression:
Psychotherapy (in the form of cognitive behavioural therapy or interpersonal therapy) alone or in combination with medications such as:
– Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
– Serotonin/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)
– Atypical antidepressants
– Serotonin-Dopamine Activity Modulators (SDAMs)
– Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)There is also empirical support for the ability of CBT to prevent relapse.
Electroconvulsive therapy is a useful treatment option for patients with severe depression refractory to medication or those with psychotic symptoms. The only absolute contraindications is raised intracranial pressure.
Side-effects:
Headache
Nausea
Short term memory impairment
Memory loss of events before ECT
Cardiac arrhythmia
Long-term side-effects: Impaired memory -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 130
Incorrect
-
Hepatitis C is what kind of virus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A variable RNA virus
Explanation:Hepatitis C is a single-stranded positive sense RNA virus. It is variable because of the high rate of error of RNA-dependent RNA polymerase and the pressure from the host immune system has caused HCV to evolve and develop seven genetic lineages.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 131
Incorrect
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A 52 year old female, known case of rheumatoid arthritis presents to the clinic with dyspnoea, cough, and intermittent pleuritic chest pain. She was previously taking second line agents Salazopyrine and gold previously and has now started Methotrexate with folic acid replacement a few months back. Pulmonary function tests reveal restrictive lung pattern and CXR reveals pulmonary infiltrates. Which of the following treatments is most suitable in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop methotrexate
Explanation:Methotrexate lung disease (pneumonitis and fibrosis) is the specific etiological type of drug-induced lung disease. It can occur due to the administration of methotrexate which is an antimetabolite, which is given as disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs) in patients with rheumatoid arthritis. The typical clinical symptoms include progressive shortness of breath and cough, often associated with fever. Hypoxemia and tachypnoea are always present and crackles are frequently audible. Symptoms typically manifest within months of starting therapy. Methotrexate withdrawal is indicated in such cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 132
Incorrect
-
Choose the wrong statement regarding hypocalcaemia:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chvostek's sign is more sensitive and specific than Trousseau's sign
Explanation:Chvostek and Trousseau signs can be elicited in patients with hypocalcaemia. Chvostek sign is the twitching of the upper lip with tapping on the cheek 2 cm anterior to the earlobe, below the zygomatic process overlying the facial nerve. Trousseau sign (a more reliable sign present in 94% of hypokalaemic individuals and only 1% to 4% of healthy people) is the presence of carpopedal spasm observed following application of an inflated blood pressure cuff over systolic pressure for 3 minutes in hypokalaemic patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 133
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old girl presents with short stature, webbed neck, cubitus valgus and primary amenorrhea. Which of the following hormones is most important for long term replacement?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oestrogen
Explanation:This girl most probably has Turner’s syndrome, which is caused by the absence of one set of genes from the short arm of one X chromosome.
Turner syndrome is a lifelong condition and needs lifelong oestrogen replacement therapy. Oestrogen is usually started at age 12-15 years. Treatment can be started with continuous low-dose oestrogens. These can be cycled in a 3-weeks on, 1-week off regimen after 6-18 months; progestin can be added later.In childhood, growth hormone therapy is standard to prevent short stature as an adult.
Fetal ovarian development seems to be normal in Turner syndrome, with degeneration occurring in most cases around the time of birth so pulsatile GnRH and luteinising hormone would be of no use.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 134
Incorrect
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A 43 year old female presented with a 5 day history of a productive cough with rusty coloured sputum. Chest X-ray showed lobar consolidation on her left side. The most likely causative organism would be?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae
Explanation:Streptococcus pneumonia is the chief causative organism for lobar pneumonia in this age group patients. Typically patients present with rusty coloured sputum and a cough. Pneumocystis jiroveci is responsible for causing pneumocystis pneumonia among immunocompromised patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 135
Incorrect
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Which of the following phases determines the length of the cell cycle?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: G1
Explanation:The duration of these cell cycle phases varies considerably in different kinds of cells. For a typical rapidly proliferating human cell with a total cycle time of 24 hours, the G1 phase might last about 11 hours, S phase about 8 hours, G2 about 4 hours, and M about 1 hour. The proliferation of most animal cells is similarly regulated in the G1 phase of the cell cycle. In particular, a decision point in late G1, called the restriction point in animal cells, is the point at which the cell becomes committed to the cell cycle and after which extracellular proliferation stimulants are no longer required.. Although the proliferation of most cells is regulated primarily in G1, some cell cycles are instead controlled principally in G2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 136
Incorrect
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A 46-year-old man presents with a swollen, red, and painful left calf. He does not have a history of any recent surgery or a long-haul flight. He is generally fit and well and takes no regular medication other than propranolol for migraine prophylaxis. There is also no history of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in his family. The patient is referred to the deep vein thrombosis (DVT) clinic where he is diagnosed with a proximal DVT in his left calf. Following the diagnosis, he is started on low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) whilst awaiting review by the warfarin clinic. Other than commencing warfarin, what further action, if any, is required?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Investigate for underlying malignancy + check antiphospholipid antibodies
Explanation:CXR, blood, and urine tests should be carried out initially to exclude an underlying malignancy. If these are normal, a CT scan of abdomen and pelvis should be arranged as the patient’s age is >40 years. Antiphospholipid antibodies should also be checked for the first unprovoked DVT/PE. There is no history, however, to support an inherited thrombophilia.
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) published guidelines in 2012 for the investigation and management of DVT. If a patient is suspected of having DVT, a two-level DVT Wells score should be used:
DVT likely: 2 points or more
DVT unlikely: 1 point or lessThis system of points is based on the following clinical features:
1. Active cancer (treatment ongoing, within six months, or palliative)—1
2. Paralysis, paresis, or recent plaster immobilisation of the lower extremities—1
3. Recently bedridden for three days or more, or major surgery within 12 weeks requiring general or regional anaesthesia—1
4. Localised tenderness along the distribution of the deep venous system—1
5. Entire leg swollen—1
6. Calf swelling at least three cms larger than the asymptomatic side—1
7. Pitting oedema confined to the symptomatic leg—1
8. Collateral superficial veins (non-varicose)—1
9. Previously documented DVT—1
10. An alternative diagnosis is at least as likely as DVT—2If two points or more—DVT is ‘likely’
If one point or less—DVT is ‘unlikely’Management
1. LMWH or fondaparinux should be given initially after a DVT is diagnosed.
2. A vitamin K antagonist such as warfarin should be given within 24 hours of the diagnosis.
3. LMWH or fondaparinux should be continued for at least five days or until the international normalised ratio (INR) is 2.0 or above for at least 24 hours. LMWH or fondaparinux is given at the same time as warfarin until the INR is in the therapeutic range.
4. Warfarin should be continued for at least three months. At three months, clinicians should assess the risks and benefits of extending the treatment.
5. Consider extending warfarin beyond three months for patients with unprovoked proximal DVT if their risk of VTE recurrence is high and there is no additional risk of major bleeding. This essentially means that if there is no obvious cause or provoking factor (surgery, trauma, significant immobility, etc.), it may be implied that the patient has a tendency to thrombose and should be given treatment longer than the normal of three months. In practice, most clinicians give six months of warfarin for patients with an unprovoked DVT/PE.
6. For patients with active cancer, LMWH should be used for six months.As both malignancy and thrombophilia are obvious risk factors for DVT, therefore, all patients with unprovoked DVT/PE who are not already known to have cancer should undergo the following investigations:
1. Physical examination (guided by the patient’s full history)
2. Chest X-ray
3. Blood tests (full blood count, serum calcium, and liver function tests) and urinalysis
4. Testing for antiphospholipid antibodies
5. Testing for hereditary thrombophilia in patients who have had unprovoked DVT/PE and have a first-degree relative who has a history of DVT/PE. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 137
Incorrect
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A 13 yr. old boy presented with difficulty in breathing on exertion. According to his mother who was also present, his exercise tolerance has been gradually worsening for the past weeks. It has reached the point where he is unable to participate in his weekly soccer match. Cardiac catherization was performed and the results are given below: (Anatomical site vs Oxygen saturation (%)vs Pressure (mmHg)) Superior vena cava: 73 ,–. Right atrium: 71, 6. Right ventricle: 72, –. Pulmonary artery: 86, 53/13. PCWP: –, 15. Left ventricle: 97, 111/10. Aorta: 96, 128/61. Which of the following is the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Patent ductus arteriosus
Explanation:The oxygen saturation in the pulmonary artery is higher than that of the right ventricle. The pressure of the pulmonary artery and of the PCWP are also high. So patent ductus arteriosus is highly suggestive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 138
Incorrect
-
A 62 year old man arrives at the clinic with a history of cough and intermittent haemoptysis for the last 3 months. He has a 50 pack year smoking history and is currently waiting for bronchoscopy to assess a left lower lobe collapse. The patient also has a marked muscle weakness and wasting of proximal muscles of his shoulders and pelvic girdle. His wife states that lately he has been unable to eat solids. Which of the following statements would be true regarding this scenario?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He may have a photosensitive facial rash
Explanation:The patient has presented with signs of small cell lung cancer. The associated proximal muscle weakness is most probably due to dermatomyositis which occurs as a paraneoplastic syndrome associated with lung carcinoma. In most cases, the first symptom is a distinctive skin rash on the face, eyelids, chest, nail cuticle areas, knuckles, knees or elbows. The rash is patchy and usually a bluish-purple colour. Corticosteroids are helpful in the management of the cutaneous changes and muscle weakness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 139
Incorrect
-
A number of tests have been ordered for a 49 year old male who has systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). He was referred to the clinic because he has increased shortness of breath. One test in particular is transfer factor of the lung for carbon monoxide (TLCO), which is elevated. Which respiratory complication of SLE is associated with this finding?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alveolar haemorrhage
Explanation:Alveolar haemorrhage (AH) is a rare, but serious manifestation of SLE. It may occur early or late in disease evolution. Extrapulmonary disease may be minimal and may be masked in patients who are already receiving immunosuppressants for other symptoms of SLE.
DLCO or TLCO (diffusing capacity or transfer factor of the lung for carbon monoxide (CO)) is the extent to which oxygen passes from the air sacs of the lungs into the blood.
Factors that can increase the DLCO include polycythaemia, asthma (can also have normal DLCO) and increased pulmonary blood volume as occurs in exercise. Other factors are left to right intracardiac shunting, mild left heart failure (increased blood volume) and alveolar haemorrhage (increased blood available for which CO does not have to cross a barrier to enter). -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 140
Incorrect
-
A 26-year-old technician with no past medical history presents to the neurology clinic complaining of muscle pain. He describes severe bilateral cramping calf pain on minimal exercise. This has been present since his late teens and as such he has avoided exercise. Recently, he has attended the local gym to try and lose weight, but attempts at exercise have been dampened by the pain. He does note that if he perseveres with exercise, the pain settles. He has noticed passing dark urine in the evenings following a prolonged bout of exercise. Which of the following clinical tests would be most useful in aiding the diagnosis in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Muscle biopsy
Explanation:The differential diagnosis of bilateral exercise-induced pain would include metabolic muscle disease, lumbar canal stenosis and intermittent claudication. The patient’s age, history and lack of other risk factors make the latter two options unlikely.
The syndrome described is in fact McArdle’s disease (myophosphorylase deficiency). This is a disorder of carbohydrate metabolism. Clinical features of pain and fatigue are precipitated in early exercise, as carbohydrates cannot be mobilized to provide an energy substrate to the muscle. With prolonged exercise, fatty acid metabolism provides energy, and symptoms lessen. The dark urine described is likely to represent myoglobinuria following rhabdomyolysis. Definitive diagnosis of most metabolic muscle diseases relies on muscle biopsy and enzyme analysis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 141
Incorrect
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A 25 yr. old previously well male presented with chest discomfort and difficulty in breathing while running to the bus. Symptoms disappeared after resting. But the symptoms reappeared whilst he was climbing the stairs. On examination he was not dyspnoeic at rest. BP was 110/70 mmHg and pulse rate was 72 bpm. His heart sounds were normal. There was an additional clicking noise in the fourth left intercostal space which is heard with each heart beat. Which of the following is the most probable cause for his presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spontaneous pneumothorax
Explanation:The given history is more compatible with spontaneous pneumothorax. Left-sided pneumothoraxes may be associated with a clicking noise, which is heard with each heart-beat and can sometimes be heard by the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 142
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old lady with established anorexia nervosa is admitted with a BMI of 16. However, she gives the consent to be fed by a nasogastric tube. Which of the following electrolyte disturbances are you most likely to find?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypophosphataemia
Explanation:Refeeding syndrome can be defined as the potentially fatal shifts in fluids and electrolytes that may occur in malnourished patients receiving artificial refeeding (whether enterally or parenterally). These shifts result from hormonal and metabolic changes and may cause serious clinical complications. The hallmark biochemical feature of refeeding syndrome is hypophosphatemia. However, the syndrome is complex and may also feature abnormal sodium and fluid balance; changes in glucose, protein, and fat metabolism; thiamine deficiency; hypokalaemia; and hypomagnesaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 143
Incorrect
-
An 80 year old female, previously diagnosed with polymyalgia rheumatica 18 months back, presents to the outpatient clinic with bilateral shoulder stiffness and generalized myalgia. The ESR was found to be 60mm/1st hour at the time of presentation. Prednisolone therapy was initiated at a daily dose of 15 mg along with Calcium and Vitamin supplementation. She reported resolution of her symptoms in one week. However the symptoms relapsed when the prednisolone dose was reduced below the current dose of 12.5 mg daily. How should she be ideally managed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue the current dose of prednisolone and start methotrexate
Explanation:Polymyalgia rheumatica, a syndrome characterized by proximal muscle pain and stiffness in older persons, generally is treated with prednisone. Dosages of 15 to 25 mg of prednisone per day can reduce inflammation considerably, although many patients relapse when therapy is tapered. Long-term (18 to 36 months) steroid treatment has been recommended by several studies, but this can result in multiple side effects, including osteoporosis, hypertension, cataracts, and hyperglycaemia. Methotrexate has been used to reduce inflammation in rheumatoid arthritis, systemic vasculitis, and giant cell arteritis, and in some studies has been combined with prednisone to treat polymyalgia rheumatica, decreasing the duration of treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 144
Incorrect
-
A 73-year-old female is being reviewed in the osteoporosis clinic. She had a fracture of her left hip 5 years ago and was started on alendronate. Following the development of persistent musculoskeletal pain, alendronate was replaced with risedronate, which was also stopped for similar reasons. Strontium ranelate was therefore started but was also stopped due to the development of deep vein thrombosis in the right leg. Her current T-score is -4.1. A decision is made to start a trial of denosumab. What is the mechanism of action of denosumab?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhibits RANK ligand, which in turn inhibits the maturation of osteoclasts
Explanation:The principal mechanism by which strontium inhibits osteoclast activity is by enhancing the secretion of osteoprotegerin (OPG) and by reducing the expression of the receptor activator of nuclear factor κB ligand (RANKL) in osteoblasts.
Osteoporosis is defined as low bone mineral density caused by altered bone microstructure ultimately predisposing patients to low-impact, fragility fractures.
Management:
Vitamin D and calcium supplementation should be offered to all women unless the clinician is confident they have adequate calcium intake and are vitamin D replete
Alendronate is the first-line treatment. Around 25% of patients cannot tolerate alendronate, usually due to upper gastrointestinal problems. These patients should be offered risedronate or etidronate.
Strontium ranelate and raloxifene are recommended if patients cannot tolerate bisphosphonates.
Other medications that are useful in the treatment of osteoporosis are denosumab, teriparatide, raloxifene, etc. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 145
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man presents with chronic back and right hip pain which has been increasingly affecting him over the past few months. He finds it very difficult to mobilise in the mornings. Clinical examination is unremarkable, apart from a limitation of right hip flexion due to pain. Investigations show: Haemoglobin 12.1 g/dl (13.5-17.7), White cell count 8.2 x 109/l (4-11), Platelets 200 x 109/l (150-400), C reactive protein 9 nmol/l (<10), ESR 15 mm/hr (<20), Sodium 140 mmol/l (135-146), Potassium 3.9 mmol/l (3.5-5), Creatinine 92 µmol/l (79-118), Alanine aminotransferase 12 U/l (5-40), Alkaline phosphatase 724 U/l (39-117), Calcium 2.55 mmol/l (2.20-2.67). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Paget's disease
Explanation:Paget disease is a localized disorder of bone remodelling that typically begins with excessive bone resorption followed by an increase in bone formation. This osteoclastic over activity followed by compensatory osteoblastic activity leads to a structurally disorganized mosaic of bone (woven bone), which is mechanically weaker, larger, less compact, more vascular, and more susceptible to fracture than normal adult lamellar bone.
Approximately 70-90% of persons with Paget disease are asymptomatic; however, a minority of affected individuals experience various symptoms, including the following:
– Bone pain (the most common symptom)
– Secondary osteoarthritis (when Paget disease occurs around a joint)
– Bony deformity (most commonly bowing of an extremity)
– Excessive warmth (due to hypervascularity)
– Neurologic complications (caused by the compression of neural tissues)
Measurement of serum alkaline phosphatase—in some cases, bone-specific alkaline phosphatase (BSAP)—can be useful in the diagnosis of Paget disease. Elevated levels of urinary markers, including hydroxyproline, deoxypyridinoline, C-telopeptide, and N -telopeptide, may help identify patients with Paget disease.
Serum calcium and phosphate levels should be within the reference range in patients with Paget disease. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 146
Incorrect
-
A 40-year-old man is referred by his general practitioner. He has a family history of premature cardiovascular disease. Cholesterol testing reveals triglyceride levels of 4.2 mmol/l and a high-density lipoprotein (HDL) level of 0.8 mmol/l. You advise him to start fibrate therapy. Which of the following best describes the mode of action for fibrates?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: They are inhibitors of lipoprotein lipase activity and increase HDL synthesis
Explanation:Treatment with fibrates, a widely used class of lipid-modifying agents, results in a substantial decrease in plasma triglycerides and is usually associated with a moderate decrease in LDL cholesterol and an increase in HDL cholesterol concentrations.
Evidence from studies is available to implicate 5 major mechanisms underlying the above-mentioned modulation of lipoprotein phenotypes by fibrates:
1. Induction of lipoprotein lipolysis.
2. Induction of hepatic fatty acid (FA) uptake and reduction of hepatic triglyceride production.
3. Increased removal of LDL particles. Fibrate treatment results in the formation of LDL with a higher affinity for the LDL receptor, which is thus catabolized more rapidly.
4. Reduction in neutral lipid (cholesteryl ester and triglyceride) exchange between VLDL and HDL may result from decreased plasma levels of TRL.
5. Increase in HDL production and stimulation of reverse cholesterol transport. Fibrates increase the production of apoA-I and apoA-II in the liver, which may contribute to the increase of plasma HDL concentrations and a more efficient reverse cholesterol transport. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 147
Incorrect
-
A 70-year-old male presents with chest pain. His past medical history includes hypertension and angina. He continues to smoke about 20 cigarettes per day despite being advised about lifestyle modifications. Blood investigations obtained in the emergency department show: Na+: 133 mmol/L, K+: 3.3 mmol/L, Urea: 4.5 mmol/L, Creatinine: 90 μmol/L, Which among the following is the most likely explanation for the abnormalities seen in the above investigations?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bendroflumethiazide therapy
Explanation:The blood investigations in this patient reveal hyponatremia as well as hypokalaemia. Among the options provided, Bendroflumethiazide therapy can cause the above presentation with the electrolyte disturbances.
Note:
– Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that is associated with hyperkalaemia.
– Enalapril therapy can cause side effects of dizziness, hypotension, cough, and rarely a rash.
– Felodipine therapy can cause side effects of dizziness, headache, cough, and palpitations. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 148
Incorrect
-
Which of the following features of the jugular venous waveform indicates the closure of the tricuspid valve?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: c wave
Explanation:The a wave indicates atrial contraction. The c wave indicates ventricular contraction and resulting bulging of the tricuspid valve into the right atrium during isovolumetric systole. The v wave indicates venous filling. The x descent indicates the atrium relaxation and the movement of tricuspid valve downward. The y descent indicates the filling of the ventricle after the opening of the tricuspid valve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 149
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is the site where B-type natriuretic peptide is mainly secreted?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ventricular myocardium
Explanation:B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) is secreted mainly from the left ventricle and it is secreted as a response to stretching caused by increased ventricular blood volume.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 150
Incorrect
-
Which of the following indicates the opening of tricuspid valve in jugular venous waveform?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: y descent
Explanation:The a wave indicates atrial contraction. The c wave indicates ventricular contraction and the resulting bulging of tricuspid valve into the right atrium during isovolumetric systole. The v wave indicates venous filling. The x descent indicates the atrium relaxation and the movement of the tricuspid valve downward. The y descent indicates the filling of the ventricle after tricuspid opening.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 151
Incorrect
-
A 60 year old male presents with thickened patches of skin over his knuckles and extensor surfaces that are consistent with Gottron's papules. Results reveal an elevated creatine kinase. Diagnosis of dermatomyositis is suspected. Which of the following autoantibody is most specific for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-Mi-2 antibodies
Explanation:Anti–Mi-2 antibodies are highly specific for dermatomyositis, but sensitivity is low; only 25% of patients with dermatomyositis demonstrate these antibodies. A positive antinuclear antibody (ANA) finding is common in patients with dermatomyositis, but is not necessary for diagnosis. Anti-Jo-1 antibodies are mostly associated with polymyositis. Anti Scl-70 antibodies and anti centromere antibodies are most commonly found in systemic scleroderma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 152
Incorrect
-
All of the following statements regarding glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1) are true, except?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased levels are seen in type 2 diabetes mellitus
Explanation:Glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP-1) is a 30-amino acid peptide hormone produced in the intestinal epithelial endocrine L-cells by differential processing of proglucagon. GLP-1 is released in response to meal intake.
The main actions of GLP-1 are to stimulate insulin secretion (i.e., to act as an incretin hormone) and to inhibit glucagon secretion, thereby contributing to limit postprandial glucose excursions. It also inhibits gastrointestinal motility and secretion and thus acts as an enterogastrone and part of the ileal brake mechanism. GLP-1 also appears to be a physiological regulator of appetite and food intake.
Decreased secretion of GLP-1 may contribute to the development of obesity, and exaggerated secretion may be responsible for postprandial reactive hypoglycaemia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 153
Incorrect
-
A 68 year old man is admitted with an infective exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Investigations: blood gas taken whilst breathing 28% oxygen on admission: pH 7.30 p(O2) 7.8 kPa p(CO2) 7.4 kPa Which condition best describes the blood gas picture?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Decompensated type-2 respiratory failure
Explanation:The normal partial pressure reference values are:
– PaO2 more than 80 mmHg (11 kPa)
– PaCO2 less than 45 mmHg (6.0 kPa).
This patient has an elevated PaCO2 (7.4kPa)
Hypoxemia (PaO2 <8kPa) with hypercapnia (PaCO2 >6.0kPa).
The pH is also lower than 7.35 at 7.3Type 2 respiratory failure is caused by inadequate alveolar ventilation; both oxygen and carbon dioxide are affected. Defined as the build-up of carbon dioxide levels (PaCO2) that has been generated by the body but cannot be eliminated. The underlying causes include:
– Increased airways resistance (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, asthma, suffocation)
– Reduced breathing effort (drug effects, brain stem lesion, extreme obesity)
– A decrease in the area of the lung available for gas exchange (such as in chronic bronchitis)
– Neuromuscular problems (Guillain–Barré syndrome, motor neuron disease)
– Deformed (kyphoscoliosis), rigid (ankylosing spondylitis), or flail chest. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 154
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is correct regarding post-menopausal hormone replacement therapy (HRT) according to randomised clinical studies ?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increases plasma triglycerides
Explanation:Oestrogen therapy reduces plasma levels of LDL cholesterol and increases levels of HDL cholesterol. It can improve endothelial vascular function, however, it also has adverse physiological effects, including increasing the plasma levels of triglycerides (small dense LDL particles). Therefore, although HRT may have direct beneficial effects on cardiovascular outcomes, these effects may be reduced or balanced by the adverse physiological effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 155
Incorrect
-
A 22-year-old male has had complex tics since childhood. He repeatedly bends his knees and rubs his nose. He is prone to loud vocalisations, sometimes including swear-words. A diagnosis of Gilles de la Tourette syndrome has been made. Which of the following is the best treatment option?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Risperidone
Explanation:Gilles de la Tourette syndrome is the most severe and rare of the tic syndromes, consisting of multiple tics involving both motor actions and vocalisation. Onset is usually in childhood. Symptoms include utterance of obscenities (coprolalia); echolalia (repetition of another person’s spoken words) and palilalia (involuntary repetition of words, phrases, or sentences).
The underlying cause is unknown, with no particular imaging or standard histopathological abnormalities having been identified. The EEG shows non-specific abnormalities in about half of patients. However, more recent immunocytochemical studies have suggested altered dopamine uptake in the striatal system.
Risperidone is an effective therapeutic option without the effects associated with chlorpromazine and haloperidol. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 156
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is most likely linked to male infertility in cystic fibrosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Failure of development of the vas deferens
Explanation:The vas deferens is a long tube that connects the epididymis to the ejaculatory ducts. It acts as a canal through which mature sperm may pass through the penis during ejaculation.
Most men with CF (97-98 percent) are infertile because of a blockage or absence of the vas deferens, known as congenital bilateral absence of the vas deferens (CBAVD). The sperm never makes it into the semen, making it impossible for them to reach and fertilize an egg through intercourse. The absence of sperm in the semen can also contribute to men with CF having thinner ejaculate and lower semen volume.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 157
Incorrect
-
A 56 year old woman presents to the clinic complaining of shoulder pain that she has been experiencing for the last 4 weeks. She does not remember getting injured previously. The pain worsens on movement especially when she is moving the arm quickly. At night, lying on the affected side is painful. Examination reveals no erythema or swelling. However, pain is felt on passive abduction between 60 to 120 degrees and she is unable to abduct the arm past 70-80 degrees. Flexion and extension are intact. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Supraspinatus tendonitis
Explanation:Supraspinatus tendinopathy is a common and disabling condition that becomes more prevalent after middle age and is a common cause of pain in the shoulder. A predisposing factor is resistive overuse. This patient has the classic painful arc that is a sign of shoulder impingement characteristic of supraspinatus tendonitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 158
Incorrect
-
A 40 year old patient of yours requests to stop treatment using Citalopram after taking it for the past two years for his depression. You have agreed to this because he feels well for the past year. What is the most appropriate method of discontinuing Citalopram?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Withdraw gradually over the next 4 weeks
Explanation:Citalopram is an antidepressant medication that works in the brain. It is approved for the treatment of major depressive disorder (MDD). Stopping citalopram abruptly may result in one or more of the following withdrawal symptoms: irritability, nausea, feeling dizzy, vomiting, nightmares, headache, and/or paraesthesia (prickling, tingling sensation on the skin).
When discontinuing antidepressant treatment that has lasted for >3 weeks, gradually taper the dose (e.g., over 2 to 4 weeks) to minimize withdrawal symptoms and detect re-emerging symptoms. Reasons for a slower titration (e.g., over 4 weeks) include use of a drug with a half-life <24 hours (e.g., paroxetine, venlafaxine), prior history of antidepressant withdrawal symptoms, or high doses of antidepressants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 159
Incorrect
-
A 85 yr. old male with a history of hypertension presented with a couple of pre-syncopal episodes. He describes these episodes as him having felt as if he was going to faint and he has had to sit down. There were no precipitating factors, associated chest pain or palpitations. He doesn't have chest pain, shortness of breath on exertion, orthopnoea or paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea. On examination he looked well. Blood pressure was 140/80 mmHg and pulse rate was 78 bpm which was irregular. His lungs were clear and heart sounds were normal. ECG showed sinus rhythm with occasional ventricular ectopic beats. Which of the following is an indication for permanent pacemaker implantation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Second-degree block associated with symptoms
Explanation:Indications for permanent pacemaker implantation
-Sinus node dysfunction
-Acquired Atrioventricular(AV) block (Complete third-degree AV block with or without symptoms, Symptomatic second degree AV block, Mobitz type I and II, Exercise-induced second or third degree AV block in the absence of myocardial infarction, Mobitz II with widened QRS complex)
-Chronic bifascicular block
-After acute phase of myocardial infarction
-Neurocardiogenic syncope and hypersensitive carotid sinus syndrome
-Post cardiac transplantation
-Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
-Pacing to detect and terminate tachycardia
-Cardiac resynchronization therapy in patients with severe systolic heart failure
-Patients with congenital heart disease -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 160
Incorrect
-
Of the following disorders, which one causes acute tubular damage?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Myoglobinuria
Explanation:Myoglobinuria is the condition when there is degeneration of necrosed muscle that it is excreted in the urine. This condition would then cause acute tubular damage leading to renal failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 161
Incorrect
-
A 40-year-old man presents with a history of carpal tunnel syndrome and osteoarthritis of his weight-bearing joints. He has recently begun to suffer from symptoms of sleep apnoea. On examination, he has a prominent jawline and macroglossia. His BP is elevated at 155/95 mmHg and there is peripheral visual field loss. Which of the following is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pegvisomant can be used where IGF-1 is not normalised post surgery
Explanation:The patient has Acromegaly.
Acromegaly is a chronic disorder characterised by growth hormone (GH) hypersecretion, predominantly caused by a pituitary adenoma.Random GH level testing is not recommended for diagnosis given the pulsatile nature of secretion. Stress, physical exercise, acute critical illness and fasting state can cause a physiological higher peak in GH secretion.
Pegvisomant is a US Food and Drug Administration-approved treatment for use after surgery. In a global non-interventional safety surveillance study, pegvisomant normalised IGF-1 in 67.5% of patients after 5 years (most likely due to lack of dose-up titration), and also improved clinical symptoms. Pegvisomant improves insulin sensitivity, and long-term follow-up showed significantly decreased fasting glucose over time, while the first-generation SRL only have a marginal clinical impact on glucose homeostasis in acromegaly. Pegvisomant does not have any direct anti-proliferative effects on pituitary tumour cells, but tumour growth is rare overall.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 162
Incorrect
-
A 74-year-old woman referred by her GP because of increasing weight loss, early satiety and increasing anorexia. She admits to 2 or 3 episodes of vomiting blood. The GP feels an epigastric mass. There is both a microcytic anaemia and abnormal liver enzymes. Her past history, which may be of importance, includes excess consumption of sherry and spirits, and a 30 pack-year smoking history. Which diagnosis fits best with this clinical picture?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastric carcinoma
Explanation:With a clinical history of weight loss, smoking, drinking alcohol, and hematemesis, the most likely answer is gastric carcinoma (also a mass). Based on symptomatology alone this is more likely than gastric lymphoma, as she has many risk factors for adenocarcinoma and/or squamous cell carcinoma. Helicobacter gastritis would not likely present with the severity of symptoms, neither would benign gastric ulcers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 163
Incorrect
-
Choose the correct statement regarding the standard error of the mean:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gets smaller as the sample size increases
Explanation:When statistically comparing data sets, researchers estimate the population of each sample and examine them to see whether they are identical. The standard error of the mean (SEM) – not the standard deviation (SD), which represents the variation in the sample – is used to estimate the population mean. Via this process, researchers conclude that the sample used in their studies appropriately represents the population within the error range specified by the pre-set significance level.
The SEM is smaller than the SD, as the SEM is estimated usually with the SD divided by the square root of the sample size. For this reason, researchers are tempted to use the SEM when describing their samples. It is acceptable to use either the SEM or SD to compare two different groups if the sample sizes of the two groups are equal; however, the sample size must be stated in order to deliver accurate information. For example, when a population has a large amount of variation, the SD of an extracted sample from this population must be large. However, the SEM will be small if the sample size is deliberately increased. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 164
Incorrect
-
A 69-year-old retired veterinarian with type 2 diabetes mellitus presents as she has started to bump into things since this morning. Over the previous two days, she had noticed some 'floating spots in her eyes'. Examination reveals she has no vision in her right eye. The red reflex on the right side is difficult to elicit and you are unable to visualise the retina on the right side during fundoscopy. Examination of the left fundus reveals changes consistent with pre-proliferative diabetic retinopathy. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitreous haemorrhage
Explanation:The history of diabetes, complete loss of vision in the affected eye and inability to visualise the retina, suggest a diagnosis of vitreous haemorrhage (VH). 3 conditions cause 59 to 88.5% of VH cases: proliferative diabetic retinopathy, posterior vitreous detachment (PVD), and ocular trauma
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 165
Incorrect
-
A patient who has recently been diagnosed with SLE undergoes serum testing. A rise in which of the following antibodies would indicate severe systemic involvement?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti double-stranded DNA antibodies
Explanation:Anti ds-DNA antibodies are very specific for SLE and their presence most often indicates systemic spread of the disease. These antibodies are present in about 30 percent of the total cases of SLE.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 166
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is MOST suggestive of a lesion of the sciatic nerve?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Foot drop
Explanation:The sciatic neve originates in the sacral plexus, mainly from spinal segments L5-S2. It supplies muscles that cause extension of the thigh and flexion of the leg. It divides into two main branches, the tibial nerve and common peroneal nerve, which are responsible for all foot movements. Anterior thigh and medial leg sensory loss is typical of a femoral nerve lesion. The femoral nerve also mediates flexion of the hip.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 167
Incorrect
-
A 43 year old man with hemochromatosis presents with a painful and swollen right knee. X-ray shows extensive chondrocalcinosis but no fracture. Given the most likely diagnosis, which of the following would be present in the joint fluid aspirate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals
Explanation:Pseudogout is a paroxysmal joint inflammation due to calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition (calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate). Arthrocentesis should be performed, especially in acute cases.
Polarized light microscopy: detection of rhomboid-shaped, positively birefringent CPPD crystals.
Synovial fluid findings: 10,000-50,000 WBCs/μL with > 90% neutrophils.
X-ray findings: cartilage calcification of the affected joint (chondrocalcinosis).
Fibrocartilage (meniscus, annulus fibrosus of intervertebral disc) and hyaline cartilage (joint cartilage) may be affected. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 168
Incorrect
-
A 78-year-old male with long-standing Alzheimer's disease is being reviewed in your clinic. Which among the following is true regarding memantine, a drug which has been approved for the management of dementia in the UK?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is an NMDA-receptor agonist
Explanation:Memantine is an antagonist of the NMDA (N-Methyl-D-Aspartate)-receptor subtype of glutamate receptor. It is used to slow the neurotoxicity thought to be involved in Alzheimer’s disease and other neurodegenerative diseases.
Drug interactions:
When given concomitantly with other NMDA-receptor antagonists (e.g., ketamine, amantadine) increase the risk of psychosis.
Dopamine agonists, L-dopa, and anticholinergics enhance effects of memantine.
Antispasmodics (e.g., baclofen) enhance effects, as memantine has some antispasmodic effects.
Drugs excreted by cationic transporters in the kidney (e.g. quinine, cimetidine, ranitidine) reduce excretion.Common adverse effects include dizziness, headache, confusion, diarrhoea, and constipation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 169
Incorrect
-
What are the most common types of transformation seen in patients with polycythaemia vera?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Myelofibrosis + acute myeloid leukaemia
Explanation:5–15% of the cases of polycythaemia vera progress to myelofibrosis or acute myeloid leukaemia (AML).
Polycythaemia vera (PV), also known as polycythaemia rubra vera, is a myeloproliferative disorder caused by clonal proliferation of marrow stem cells leading to an increase in red cell volume, often accompanied by overproduction of neutrophils and platelets. It has peak incidence in the sixth decade of life, with typical features including hyperviscosity, pruritus, splenomegaly, haemorrhage (secondary to abnormal platelet function), and plethoric appearance.
Some management options of PV include lose-dose aspirin, venesection (first-line treatment), hydroxyurea (slightly increased risk of secondary leukaemia), and radioactive phosphorus (P-32) therapy.
In PV, thrombotic events are a significant cause of morbidity and mortality. 5–15% of the cases progress to myelofibrosis or AML. The risk of having AML is increased with chemotherapy treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 170
Incorrect
-
A 63 year old man presents with painless jaundice and weight loss over the last few months. He is a heavy smoker and has a past medical history of COPD. On examination his abdomen is soft and non tender and he is clearly icteric. His bloods reveal deranged LFTs with an alkaline phosphates of 240 and a bilirubin of 92, ALT and AST are both around 200. An ultrasound of his abdomen is performed and shows both intra and extrahepatic bowel duct dilatation within the liver. What`s the first line investigation of his case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: MRCP
Explanation:When you hear painless jaundice and weight loss in the same sentence, the first thing you should think is cancer. Likely cholangiocarcinoma here or some other biliary tract obstructing cancer. The first line imaging for this would be MRCP because you’re looking for obstruction– the dilatation of the intra and extrahepatic ducts suggests this. This is less invasive than an ERCP or a liver biopsy. CT C/A/P will likely be needed for staging later but it is asking for the initial test.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 171
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old gentleman gives a two week history of progressive lethargy and weakness. Eight weeks previously, he was treated for hypertensive heart failure with 120 mg furosemide and 5 mg enalapril daily. His haemoglobin at the time was 12.0, urea 14.2 mmol/l and creatinine 298 μmol/l. His blood pressure in clinic was 148/85 mmHg. His blood results are shown below: Hb 10.2g/dL, MCV 89.2 fl WCC 4.9 x 109/L, Plats 175 x 109/L, Na+ 135 K+ 5.2 mmol/L, Urea 25.2 mmol/L, Creat 600 μmol/L, Assuming that he is not volume overloaded, what would be the most appropriate action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: stop the enalapril and furosemide
Explanation:The patient presents with worsened renal condition from the last consultation when he was started on enalapril (an ACE inhibitor) so this medication should be stopped. Because there is also no fluid overload; furosemide, a diuretic, should also be stopped.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 172
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following is most associated with the development of acute pancreatitis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyperchylomicronaemia
Explanation:Hyperchylomicronaemia is an increase (markedly) in chylomicrons, and this can cause acute pancreatitis, as well as xanthomas. It can be seen in familial lipoprotein lipase (LPL) deficiency, primary type V hyperlipoproteinemia, idiopathic hyperchylomicronaemia, and familial apolipoprotein CII deficiency. Treatment is dietary fat restriction in order to avoid pancreatitis attacks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 173
Incorrect
-
A 68-year-old male patient presents with central chest pain and associated flushing. He claims the pain is crushing in character. ECG reveals T wave inversion in II, III and AVF. Blood exams are as follows: Troponin T = 0.9 ng/ml. Which substance does troponin bind to?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tropomyosin
Explanation:Troponin T is a 37 ku protein that binds to tropomyosin, thereby attaching the troponin complex to the thin filament.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 174
Incorrect
-
A 15-year-old girl is admitted to hospital following a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. She comes from a family of Jehovah's Witnesses. Her haemoglobin on admission is 6.7 g/dl. She consents to a blood transfusion but her mother refuses. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Give the blood transfusion
Explanation:People aged 16 or over are entitled to consent to their own treatment. This can only be overruled in exceptional circumstances. Children under the age of 16 can consent to their own treatment if they’re believed to have enough intelligence, competence and understanding to fully appreciate what’s involved in their treatment. This is known as being Gillick competent.
Otherwise, someone with parental responsibility can consent for them.
This could be:
the child’s mother or father
the child’s legally appointed guardian
a person with a residence order concerning the child
a local authority designated to care for the child
a local authority or person with an emergency protection order for the child.
Giving the blood transfusion is therefore both clinically and ethically the right course of action.
Jehovah’s Witnesses frequently carry a signed and witnessed Advance Decision Document listing the blood products and autologous procedures that are, or are not, acceptable to them It is appropriate to have a frank, confidential discussion with the patient about the potential risks of their decision and the possible alternatives to transfusion, but the freely expressed wish of a competent adult must always be respected. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 175
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old female was brought to the ER in a confused state. The patient works in a photograph development laboratory. On admission, she was hypoxic and hypotensive. A provisional diagnosis of cyanide poisoning was made. What is the definitive treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hydroxocobalamin
Explanation:Cyanide poisoning:
Aetiology:
Smoke inhalation, suicidal ingestion, and industrial exposure (specific industrial processes involving cyanide include metal cleaning, reclaiming, or hardening; fumigation; electroplating; and photo processing) are the most frequent sources of cyanide poisoning. Treatment with sodium nitroprusside or long-term consumption of cyanide-containing foods is a possible source.
Cyanide exposure most often occurs via inhalation or ingestion, but liquid cyanide can be absorbed through the skin or eyes. Once absorbed, cyanide enters the blood stream and is distributed rapidly to all organs and tissues in the body.Pathophysiology:
Inside cells, cyanide attaches itself to ubiquitous metalloenzymes, rendering them inactive. Its principal toxicity results from inactivation of cytochrome oxidase (at cytochrome a3), thus uncoupling mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation and inhibiting cellular respiration, even in the presence of adequate oxygen stores.Presentation:
• ‘Classical’ features: brick-red skin, smell of bitter almonds
• Acute: hypoxia, hypotension, headache, confusion
• Chronic: ataxia, peripheral neuropathy, dermatitisManagement:
• Supportive measures: 100% oxygen, ventilatory assistance in the form of intubation if required.
• Definitive: Hydroxocobalamin (iv) is considered the drug of choice and is approved by the FDA for treating known or suspected cyanide poisoning.
• Coadministration of sodium thiosulfate (through a separate line or sequentially) has been suggested to have a synergistic effect on detoxification.
Mechanism of action of hydroxocobalamin:
• Hydroxocobalamin combines with cyanide to form cyanocobalamin (vitamin B-12), which is renally cleared.
• Alternatively, cyanocobalamin may dissociate from cyanide at a slow enough rate to allow for cyanide detoxification by the mitochondrial enzyme rhodanese. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 176
Incorrect
-
A 57-year-old architect presents with weakness of the right hand. You note global wasting of the small hand muscles. There is also sensory loss over the medial border of the forearm around the elbow. Which of the following nerve roots is damaged?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: T1
Explanation:This patient has Klumpke’s paralysis due to damage to the T1 nerve root. This root eventually supplies the median and ulnar nerves. The ulnar nerve supplies all of the intrinsic hand muscles except for those of the thenar eminence and the first and second lumbricals, which are innervated by the median nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 177
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old male patient is found to have an elevated serum paraprotein level of 35g/L. Bone marrow aspirate reveals 32% monoclonal plasma cell infiltrate. He has no evidence of anaemia, renal impairment, hypercalcaemia, or lytic lesions. What should be the next step in management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Observe and monitor
Explanation:The patient is asymptomatic but matches the diagnostic criteria for multiple myeloma (MM). Therefore, the underlying diagnosis of this condition is smouldering multiple myeloma (SMM). SMM is an early precursor to MM. Its treatment is typically to watch and wait.
MM is a neoplasm of the bone marrow plasma cells. Peak incidence is in patients aged 60–70 years.
Clinical features of MM include:
1. Ostealgia, osteoporosis, pathological fractures (typically vertebral), and osteolytic lesions
2. Lethargy
3. Infections
4. Hypercalcaemia
5. Renal failure
6. Other features: amyloidosis e.g. macroglossia, carpal tunnel syndrome; neuropathy; hyperviscosityDiagnosis of MM is based on the confirmation of (a) one major criterion and one minor criterion or (b) three minor criteria in an individual who has signs or symptoms of multiple myeloma.
Major criteria:
1. >30% plasma cells on bone marrow biopsy
2. Monoclonal band of paraprotein on electrophoresis: >35g/L for IgG, 20g/L for IgA, or >1g of light chains excreted in the urine per dayMinor criteria:
1. 10–30% plasma cells on bone marrow biopsy
2. Abnormal monoclonal band but levels less than listed above
3. Lytic bone lesions observed radiographically
4. Immunosuppression -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 178
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following statements regarding hepatocellular carcinoma is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diabetes mellitus is a risk factor
Explanation:Diabetes is a risk factor for hepatocellular carcinoma. Screening has been shown to be effective. Bevacizumab is not used for advanced cases. The incidence is higher in men. Alcohol is not the most common underlying cause worldwide; this is from cirrhosis from diseases like hepatitis B and C.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 179
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old man known to have renal cell carcinoma, is currently undergoing treatment. He presents to the acute medical ward with one month history of worsening central lower back pain, which becomes worse at night and cannot be managed with an analgesia at home. He has no other new symptoms. Out of the following, which investigation should be performed next?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: MRI whole spine
Explanation:An MRI whole spine should be performed in a patient suspected of spinal metastasis which can occur before developing metastatic spinal cord compression. This patient has renal cell carcinoma, which readily metastasises to the bones and also has progressive back pain. He, therefore, needs urgent imaging of his spine before any neurological compromise develops. MRI whole spine is preferable because patients with spinal metastasis often have metastases at multiple levels within the spine. Plain radiographs and CT scans should not be performed as they have a lower sensitivity for revealing lesions and cannot exclude cord compression.
In general, imaging should be performed within one week if symptoms suspicious of spinal metastasis without neurological symptoms are present. If there are symptoms suggestive of malignant spinal cord compression, then imaging should be done within 24 hours.
The signs and symptoms of spinal metastases include:
1. Unrelenting lumbar back pain
2. Thoracic or cervical back pain
3. Pain associated with tenderness and worsens with sneezing, coughing, or straining
4. Nocturnal pain -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 180
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old female is admitted with a headache, photophobia, fever and confusion. She is managed with antibiotics. What is the mechanism of action of the most commonly used first line antibiotic class?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
Explanation:In adults, the most common symptom of meningitis is a severe headache, occurring in almost 90% of cases of bacterial meningitis, followed by nuchal rigidity (the inability to flex the neck forward passively due to increased neck muscle tone and stiffness). Other signs commonly associated with meningitis include photophobia (intolerance to bright light) and phonophobia (intolerance to loud noises).
In the United Kingdom empirical treatment consists of a third-generation cefalosporin such as cefotaxime or ceftriaxone. In the USA, where resistance to cefalosporins is increasingly found in streptococci, addition of vancomycin to the initial treatment is recommended. Penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems and monobactams all act via inhibition of cell wall synthesis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 181
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old man was hit on the lateral aspect of his head by a high velocity cricket ball and lost consciousness immediately. Paramedics found him to have a Glasgow coma score of 15 but take him to the A&E for further investigation. His Glasgow coma score on examination in the A&E is 13 (M5, V4, E4) and he has anterograde and retrograde amnesia to recent events. The doctors arrange an urgent CT scan. Which clinical sign would be most concerning if present?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bradycardia
Explanation:Intracranial pressure (ICP) is a complex brain modality that determines cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP), which is the difference between arterial blood pressure (ABP), and ICP. Raised ICP reduces CPP and blood delivery to the brain. This jeopardizes cerebral function and organismal survival in many species. A massive rise in ICP is also known to produce an increase in ABP, bradycardia and respiratory irregularities termed Cushing response. This mechanism is generally considered to be an agonal and terminal event occurring in extreme condition of brainstem ischaemia leading to a sympatho-adrenal response.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 182
Incorrect
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Which of the following allows for a diagnose of diabetes mellitus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Symptomatic patient with random glucose 12.0 mmol/L on one occasion
Explanation:Criteria for the diagnosis of diabetes
1. A1C ≥6.5%. The test should be performed in a laboratory using a method that is certified and standardized.*
OR
2. Fasting glucose ≥126 mg/dl (7.0 mmol/l). Fasting is defined as no caloric intake for at least 8 h.*
OR
3. 2-h plasma glucose ≥200 mg/dl (11.1 mmol/l) during an OGTT. The test should be performed as described by the World Health Organization, using a glucose load containing the equivalent of 75 g anhydrous glucose dissolved in water.*
OR
4. In a patient with classic symptoms of hyperglycaemia or hyperglycaemic crisis, a random plasma glucose ≥200 mg/dl (11.1 mmol/l).
*In the absence of unequivocal hyperglycaemia, criteria 1–3 should be confirmed by repeat testing. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 183
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following is least associated with photosensitivity?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute intermittent porphyria
Explanation:Sunlight, especially its ultraviolet radiation component, can cause increased or additional types of damage in predisposed individuals, such as those taking certain phototoxic drugs, or those with certain conditions associated with photosensitivity, including:
– Psoriasis
– Atopic eczema
– Erythema multiforme
– Seborrheic dermatitis
– Autoimmune bullous diseases (immunobullous diseases)
– Mycosis fungoides
– Smith–Lemli–Opitz syndrome
– Porphyria cutanea tarda
Also, many conditions are aggravated by strong light, including:
– Systemic lupus erythematosus
– Sjögren’s syndrome
– Sinear Usher syndrome
– Rosacea
– Dermatomyositis
– Darier’s disease
– Kindler-Weary syndrome
Acute intermittent porphyria (AIP) belongs to the group inborn errors of metabolism and most patients with AIP are not light sensitive. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 184
Incorrect
-
A 42 year old female with a history of SLE presents with an exacerbation of wrist pain. Which of the following markers would be the most suitable for monitoring disease activity?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-dsDNA titres
Explanation:A high level of anti-dsDNA in the blood is strongly associated with lupus and is often significantly increased during or just prior to a flare-up. When the anti-dsDNA is positive and the person tested has other clinical signs and symptoms associated with lupus, it means that the person tested likely has lupus. This is especially true if an anti-Sm test is also positive.
In the evaluation of someone with lupus nephritis, a high level (titre) of anti-dsDNA is generally associated with ongoing inflammation and damage to the kidneys.
A very low level of anti-dsDNA is considered negative but does not exclude a diagnosis of lupus. Only about 65-85% of those with lupus will have anti-dsDNA.
Low to moderate levels of the autoantibody may be seen with other autoimmune disorders, such as Sjögren syndrome and mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 185
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old pregnant female suddenly developed a rash on her torso. It started as macules and then became vesicles. After 3 days she died. During her post-mortem, positive findings suggestive of pneumonitis were found. Which one of the following is the most common cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Varicella zoster virus (VZV)
Explanation:Varicella zoster virus (VZV) presents in this way and the rash transforms from macules to vesicles. Pneumonitis is a common complication of VZV infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 186
Incorrect
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An 18 year old girl presents with short history of marked, right hip pain and an associated limp. She has a history of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia for which she completed treatment for last six months.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Avascular necrosis of the femoral head
Explanation:Avascular necrosis (AVN) of the femoral head is a pathological process that results from disruption of the blood supply to the bone and occurs most commonly in the femoral epiphysis. Patients usually present with pain and limited joint motion. The mechanism involves impaired circulation to a specific area that ultimately becomes necrotic. AVN is most frequently associated with high doses of oral and intravenous corticosteroids and prolonged duration of therapy. Cancer patients receiving chemotherapy are usually also treated with corticosteroids.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 187
Incorrect
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A 34-year-old man who is HIV positive has started treatment for Burkitt lymphoma. His chemotherapy regime includes cyclophosphamide, vincristine, methotrexate, and prednisolone. After one day of starting chemotherapy, he becomes confused and complains of muscle cramps in his legs. Which one of the following is most likely to have occurred?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tumour lysis syndrome
Explanation:Tumour lysis syndrome (TLS), triggered by the introduction of chemotherapy, has resulted in the aforementioned symptoms in this patient.
TLS is a potentially fatal condition occurring as a complication during the treatment of high-grade lymphomas and leukaemias. It occurs from the simultaneous breakdown (lysis) of the tumour cells and subsequent release of chemicals into the bloodstream. This leads to hyperkalaemia and hyperphosphatemia in the presence of hyponatraemia. TLS can occur in the absence of chemotherapy, but it is usually triggered by the introduction of combination chemotherapy. Awareness of the condition is critical for its prophylactic management.
Rasburicase should be given prior to chemotherapy in order to reduce the risk of tumour lysis syndrome (TLS). Rasburicase is a recombinant version of urate oxidase which is an enzyme that metabolizes uric acid to allantoin. Allantoin is 5–10 times more soluble than uric acid, hence, renal excretion is more effective.
Burkitt lymphoma is a high-grade B-cell neoplasm. There are two major forms:
1. Endemic (African) form: typically involves maxilla or mandible.
2. Sporadic form: abdominal (e.g. ileocaecal) tumours are the most common form. More common in patients with HIV.Burkitt lymphoma is associated with the c-myc gene translocation, usually t(8;14). The Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is strongly implicated in development of the African form of Burkitt lymphoma and to a lesser extent, the sporadic form.
Management of the lymphoma is with chemotherapy. This tends to produce a rapid response which may cause TLS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 188
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old hypertensive male on phenytoin and clobazam for partial seizures is also taking lisinopril, cimetidine, sucralfate, and allopurinol. The last few drugs were added recently. He now presents with ataxia, slurred speech, and blurred vision. Which recently added drug is most likely to be the cause of his latest symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cimetidine
Explanation:The symptoms of ataxia, slurred speech and blurred vision are all suggestive of phenytoin toxicity. Cimetidine increases the efficacy of phenytoin by reducing its hepatic metabolism.
Phenytoin has a narrow therapeutic index (10-20 mg/L) and its levels are monitored by measuring the total phenytoin concentration.
Cimetidine is an H2 receptor antagonist used in the treatment of peptic ulcers. It acts by decreasing gastric acid secretion.
Cimetidine also has an inhibitory effect on several isoforms of the cytochrome enzyme system including the CYP450 enzymatic pathway. Phenytoin is metabolized by the same cytochrome P450 enzyme system in the liver.
Thus, the simultaneous administration of both these medications leads to an inhibition of phenytoin metabolism and thus increases its circulating levels leading to phenytoin toxicity. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 189
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old woman presents with 18 month history of gait ataxia, dysarthria, and dysphagia. On examination there is down beating nystagmus and slurred speech. There is past pointing in both upper limbs and a wide-based ataxic gait. Reflexes and sensation are normal. There is no wasting or fasciculations. Plantar response is flexor bilaterally. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arnold-Chiari malformation
Explanation:Downbeat nystagmus (DBN) suggests a lesion in the lower part of the medulla. Arnold-Chiari malformation usually presents with symptoms due to brainstem and lower cranial nerve dysfunction such as DBN.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 190
Incorrect
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A 39 year old man was admitted with an exacerbation of asthma. He responded to treatment but the medical intern was concerned that Aspergillus fumigatus was cultured from his sputum. Subsequently arranged serum total, IgE level was elevated at 437 ng/ml (normal 40-180 ng/ml), RAST to Aspergillus fumigatus was class III, Aspergillus fumigatus precipitins were negative. What would be the most appropriate management step in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No change in medication
Explanation:Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA) is a form of lung disease that occurs in some people who are allergic to Aspergillus. With ABPA, this allergic reaction causes the immune system to overreact to Aspergillus leading to lung inflammation. ABPA causes bronchospasm (tightening of airway muscles) and mucus build-up resulting in coughing, breathing difficulty and airway obstruction.
Blood tests are used to look for signs of an allergic reaction. This includes evaluating your immunoglobulin E (IgE) level. This level is increased with any type of allergy. Many people with asthma have higher than normal IgE levels. In ABPA however, the IgE level is extremely high (more than 1000 ng/ml or 417 IU/ml). In addition to total IgE, all patients with ABPA have high levels of IgE that is specific to Aspergillus. A blood test can be done to measure specific IgE to Aspergillus. A blood or skin test for IgE antibodies to Aspergillus can be done to see if a person is sensitized (allergic) to this fungus. If these skin tests are negative (i.e. does not show a skin reaction) to Aspergillus fumigatus, the person usually does not have ABPA.
Therefore, there should be no change in medication since this patient does not have ABPA. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 191
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old female is admitted to the hospital with shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain. She also complains of loss of appetite for the past four months. Her admission CXR shows right-sided pleural effusion. An underlying malignancy is suspected and a series of tumour markers are requested, the results of which are: CA 19-9: 36 IU/mL (<40), CA 125: 654 IU/ml (<30), CA 15-3: 9 IU/ml (<40). What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ovarian fibroma
Explanation:The patient has Meigs syndrome. Meigs syndrome is defined as a triad of benign ovarian tumour with ascites and pleural effusion that resolves after resection of the tumour. Ovarian fibromas constitute the majority of the benign tumours seen in Meigs syndrome.
Tumour markers can be divided into:
1. Monoclonal antibodies
CA 125: Ovarian cancer, primary peritoneal cancer
CA 19-9: Pancreatic cancer
CA 15-3: Breast cancer2. Tumour specific antigens
Prostate specific antigen (PSA): Prostatic carcinoma
Alpha-feto protein (AFP): Hepatocellular carcinoma, teratoma
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA): Colorectal cancer
S-100: Melanoma, schwannomas
Bombesin: Small cell lung carcinoma, gastric cancer3. Enzymes
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
Neuron specific enolase (NSE)4. Hormones
Calcitonin
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 192
Incorrect
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A 66 year old man visits the clinic because he has been experiencing increasing breathlessness for the past five months while doing daily tasks. His exercise tolerance is now limited to 75 metres while on a flat surface and walking up the stairs makes him breathless. He sleeps on four pillows and has swollen ankles in the morning. He occasionally coughs up phlegm. Past Medical history of importance: 36 pack year smoking history Hypertension Ischaemic heart disease Coronary artery stenting done 10 months ago Pulmonary function testing revealed: FEV1 0.90 L (1.80 – 3.02 predicted) FVC 1.87 L (2.16 – 3.58 predicted) Diffusion capacity 3.0 mmol/min/kPa (5.91 – 9.65 predicted) Total lung capacity 4.50 L (4.25 – 6.22 predicted) Residual volume 2.70 L (1.46 – 2.48 predicted) Which condition does he have?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Explanation:Whilst asthma and COPD are different diseases they cause similar symptoms, which can present a challenge in identifying which of the two diseases a patient is suffering from. COPD causes chronic symptoms and narrowed airways which do not respond to treatment to open them up. In the case of asthma the constriction of the airways through inflammation tends to come and go and treatment to reduce inflammation and to open up the airways usually works well.
COPD is more likely than asthma to cause a chronic cough with phlegm and is rare before the age of 35 whilst asthma is common in under-35s. Disturbed sleep caused by breathlessness and wheeze is more likely in cases of asthma, as is a history of allergies, eczema and hay fever. Differentiating between COPD and asthma requires a history of both symptoms and spirometry. The spirometry history should include post bronchodilator measurements, the degree of reversibility and, ideally, home monitoring which gives a history of diurnal variation.
Airflow Obstruction: Both asthma and COPD are characterised by airflow obstruction. Airflow obstruction is defined as a reduced FEV1 and a reduced FEV1/FVC ratio, such that FEV1 is less than 80% of that predicted, and FEV1/FVC is less than 0.7.
These episodes are usually associated with widespread, but variable, airflow obstruction within the lung that is often reversible either spontaneously or with treatment.
COPD: COPD is a chronic, slowly progressive disorder characterised by airflow obstruction (reduced FEV1 and FEV1/VC ratio) that does not change markedly over several months. The airflow obstruction is not fully reversible.
Spirometry COPD Asthma
VC Reduced Nearly normal
FEV1 Reduced Reduced in attack
FVC (or FEV6) Reduced Nearly normal
FEV1 Ratio
(of VC/FVC/FEV6) Reduced in attackThis man has a low FEV1 and FVC. His diffusions capacity is also low despite having a normal total lung capacity. These values confirm a diagnosis of COPD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 193
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old talented violinist is brought by her parents as they are concerned that she had a stroke as she is reporting weakness on her right side. Neurological examination is inconsistent with the provided history, suspecting a non-organic cause for her symptoms her GP provides reassurance. Despite it, the girl remains unable to move her right arm. What is the most probable diagnosis of this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Conversion disorder
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis in this patient is conversion disorder.
There may be underlying tension regarding her musical career which could be manifesting as apparent limb weakness.
Conversion disorder typically involves loss of motor or sensory function. The patient doesn’t consciously feign the symptoms (factitious disorder) or seek material gain (malingering). Patients may be indifferent to their apparent disorder – la belle indifference – although this has not been backed up by studies.
Other options:
Unexplained symptoms
There are a wide variety of psychiatric terms for patients who have symptoms for which no organic cause can be found:Somatization disorder
Multiple physical symptoms present for at least 2 years
the patient refuses to accept reassurance or negative test resultsHypochondriacal disorder
The persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, e.g. cancer.
The patient again refuses to accept reassurance or negative test resultsDissociative disorder
Dissociation is a process of ‘separating off’ certain memories from normal consciousness
Unlike conversion disorder, it involves psychiatric symptoms e.g. amnesia, fugue, stupor
Dissociative identity disorder (DID) is the new term for multiple personality disorder as is the most severe form of dissociative disorderMunchausen’s syndrome
Also known as factitious disorder
The intentional production of physical or psychological symptomsMalingering
Fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms with the intention of financial or another gain. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 194
Incorrect
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A 18-year-old female is brought to the emergency department by her boyfriend. He is concerned that she may have taken an overdose of her mom's morphine sulphate pills after being depressed about her mother, who is dying of carcinoma of the breast. Which of the following may point towards his suspicion?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sweating
Explanation:Excessive sweating points towards a morphine overdose.
Morphine is considered the classic opioid analgesic with which other painkillers are compared. Like other medications in this class, morphine has an affinity for delta, kappa, and mu-opioid receptors.
Most commonly used in pain management, morphine provides major relief to patients afflicted with pain.Among the more common adverse effects of morphine use is constipation. Other side effects include nausea, vomiting, drowsiness, and confusion. Psychological and physical dependence may occur.
Other side effects include bronchospasm, angioedema, urinary retention, ureteric or biliary spasm, dry mouth, sweating, rash, facial flushing, vertigo, tachycardia, bradycardia, palpitations, orthostatic hypotension, hypothermia, restlessness, mood change, hallucinations, seizures (adults and children) and miosis, headache and allergic reactions (including anaphylaxis) and decreased libido or potency.
Raised intracranial pressure occurs in some patients. Muscle rigidity may occur with high doses. Elevated liver enzymes may occur due to biliary sphincter constriction. Large doses can lead to respiratory depression, circulatory failure, and coma.
Treatment of opioid overdose:
Initial treatment of overdose begins with supportive care.
Naloxone is a pure competitive antagonist of opiate receptors and has no agonistic activity. The drug is relatively safe and can be administered intravenous, intramuscular, subcutaneous or via the endotracheal tube.
Alternatively, nalmefene and naltrexone maybe considered. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 195
Incorrect
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A 35 year old male who has smoked 20 cigarettes per day was referred to the National Chest Hospital because he has had a nine month history of shortness of breath which is getting worse. Tests revealed that he had moderate emphysema. His family history showed that his father died from COPD at the age of 52. Genetic testing found the PiSZ genotype following the diagnosis of alpha-1 antitrypsin (A1AT) deficiency. What levels of alpha-1 antitrypsin would be expected if they were to be measured?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 40% of normal
Explanation:Alpha1-antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency, first described in 1963, is one of the most common inherited disorders amongst white Caucasians. Its primary manifestation is early-onset of pan acinar emphysema. In adults, alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency leads to chronic liver disease in the fifth decade. As a cause of emphysema, it is seen in non-smokers in the fifth decade of life and during the fourth decade of life in smokers.
Symptoms of alpha1-antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency emphysema are limited to the respiratory system. Dyspnoea is the symptom that eventually dominates alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency. Similar to other forms of emphysema, the dyspnoea of alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency is initially evident only with strenuous exertion. Over several years, it eventually limits even mild activities.
The serum levels of some of the common genotypes are:
•PiMM: 100% (normal)
•PiMS: 80% of normal serum level of A1AT
•PiSS: 60% of normal serum level of A1AT
•PiMZ: 60% of normal serum level of A1AT, mild deficiency
•PiSZ: 40% of normal serum level of A1AT, moderate deficiency
•PiZZ: 10–15% (severe alpha 1-antitrypsin deficiency) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 196
Incorrect
-
A 46-year-old nurse presents with a short history of epistaxis and bleeding gums. Her complete blood count, coagulation profile, and blood film are requested. The results are as follows: Hb: 8.6 g/dL, WCC: 2.3 x 10^9/L, Plts: 18 x 10^9/L, Coagulation profile: deranged, Blood film: bilobed large mononuclear cells. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute myeloid leukaemia
Explanation:This is a picture of bone marrow failure secondary to acute myeloid leukaemia (AML). AML is the acute expansion of the myeloid stem line, which may occur as a primary disease or follow the secondary transformation of a myeloproliferative disorder. It is more common over the age of 45 and is characterized by signs and symptoms largely related to bone marrow failure such as anaemia (pallor, lethargy), frequent infections due to neutropenia (although the total leucocyte count may be very high), thrombocytopaenia (bleeding), ostealgia, and splenomegaly.
The disease has poor prognosis if:
1. Age of the patient >60 years
2. >20% blasts seen after the first course of chemotherapy
3. Chromosomal aberration with deletion of part of chromosome 5 or 7.Acute promyelocytic leukaemia (APL) is an aggressive form of AML.
Other listed options are ruled out because:
1. Von Willebrand disease: may present with epistaxis and bleeding gums in severe cases but rarely with abnormalities on blood results.2. Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia: mostly seen in children.
3. Lymphoma: usually presents with rubbery enlargement of lymph nodes.
4. Warfarin overdose: no bilobed large mononuclear cells seen on blood film.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 197
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following is the most common type of Hodgkin lymphoma?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nodular sclerosing
Explanation:The most common type of Hodgkin’s lymphoma (HL) is nodular sclerosing.
HL is a malignant proliferation of lymphocytes characterised by the presence of distinctive giant cells known as Reed-Sternberg cells. It has a bimodal age distribution being most common in the third and seventh decades of life.
According to the histological classification, there are four types of HL:
1. Nodular sclerosing: most common (around 70%), more common in women, associated with lacunar cells, good prognosis
2. Mixed cellularity: Around 20%, associated with a large number of Reed-Sternberg cells, good prognosis
3. Lymphocyte-predominant: Around 5%, Reed-Sternberg cells with nuclei surrounded by a clear space found, best prognosis
4. Lymphocyte-depleted: rare, worst prognosis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 198
Incorrect
-
A 48-year-old hairdresser presents to the GP with loss of sensation over the lateral three and a half fingers of her right hand, tenderness over her right forearm, and inability to make a tight fist. She complains of pain in her right arm when twisting door handles anticlockwise. Phalen’s and Tinel’s tests are negative. She is otherwise neurologically intact. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pronator teres syndrome
Explanation:Entrapment of the median nerve by pronator teres causes a median nerve neuropathy, which is worse during pronation of the forearm. Examination should involve excluding carpal tunnel syndrome and pronation of the affected forearm against resistance, which brings on the pain. Unlike carpal tunnel syndrome, the median nerve proximal to the wrist may be tender to palpation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 199
Incorrect
-
Out of the following, which malignant tumour has the highest predilection for dissemination to the bones?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prostate
Explanation:Prostate cancer is the most common primary tumour that metastasises to the bone.
Most common tumours causing bone metastasis (in descending order):
1. Prostate (32%)
2. Breast (22%)
3. Kidneys (16%)
4. Lungs
5. ThyroidMost common sites of bone metastasis (in descending order):
1. Spine
2. Pelvis
3. Ribs
4. Skull
5. Long bones -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 200
Incorrect
-
A 78 year old woman presents to the clinic complaining of left sided temporal headaches and jaw claudication that has been going on for a month. A left temporal artery biopsy is negative. Results show: Hb: 130g/l Platelets: 359*109/L, WBC: 10*109/L, CRP: 89mg/l Which of the following options would be the next best step in the management of this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Commence prednisolone
Explanation:Temporal arteritis is a chronic large- and medium-sized vessel vasculitis that typically involves the temporal arteries. Classical symptoms include temporal headaches, jaw claudication, amaurosis fugax. Physical exam shows scalp tenderness, palpation of the temporal area may demonstrate an absent pulse, knot-like swelling and vision loss. Lab results reveal an increased erythematous sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein. Temporal artery biopsy confirms the diagnosis. Management approach: high-dose systemic corticosteroids should be promptly administered even before the diagnosis is established. Temporal artery biopsy confirms the diagnosis. Inability to manage this or administer glucocorticoids might lead to development of blindness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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