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  • Question 1 - A 30-year-old woman presents with similar symptoms as the previous case. She complains...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents with similar symptoms as the previous case. She complains of shortness of breath, pleuritic chest pain, and haemoptysis. Her vital signs are heart rate 110 bpm, blood pressure 110/65 mmHg, oxygen saturation 93% on room air, and respiratory rate 21 breaths per minute. A CT pulmonary angiography is ordered.

      During the procedure, the patient's blood pressure drops to 80/50 mmHg, and she develops swollen lips and hives on her skin. The on-call physician administers IM adrenaline.

      What is the purpose of the medication given?

      Your Answer: Increase intravascular volume

      Correct Answer: Acts on alpha-adrenergic receptors and causes vasoconstriction

      Explanation:

      Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can be treated with a combination of medications, including 1:1000 adrenaline, hydrocortisone, and chlorphenamine. Adrenaline should be administered immediately upon diagnosis as it acts on alpha-adrenergic receptors and causes vasoconstriction, which can help alleviate symptoms.

      While hydrocortisone is also used in anaphylaxis, it takes time to work as it reduces the number of mast cells. Therefore, the administration of adrenaline should not be delayed due to hydrocortisone. Similarly, chlorphenamine is effective in treating anaphylaxis but should not delay the administration of adrenaline.

      It is important to note that fluids are typically used to increase intravascular volume in hypovolemic shock, but in this case, the patient’s symptoms suggest anaphylaxis rather than hypovolemia.

      Lastly, it is worth noting that while the patient is suspected to have a pulmonary embolism, adrenaline was not given as a thrombolytic agent but rather to treat the anaphylaxis.

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It can be caused by various triggers, including food, drugs, and insect venom. The symptoms of anaphylaxis typically develop suddenly and progress rapidly, affecting the airway, breathing, and circulation. Swelling of the throat and tongue, hoarse voice, and stridor are common airway problems, while respiratory wheeze and dyspnea are common breathing problems. Hypotension and tachycardia are common circulation problems. Skin and mucosal changes, such as generalized pruritus and widespread erythematous or urticarial rash, are also present in around 80-90% of patients.

      The most important drug in the management of anaphylaxis is intramuscular adrenaline, which should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary depending on the patient’s age, with the highest dose being 500 micrograms for adults and children over 12 years old. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary. If the patient’s respiratory and/or cardiovascular problems persist despite two doses of IM adrenaline, IV fluids should be given for shock, and expert help should be sought for consideration of an IV adrenaline infusion.

      Following stabilisation, non-sedating oral antihistamines may be given to patients with persisting skin symptoms. Patients with a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis should be referred to a specialist allergy clinic, and an adrenaline injector should be given as an interim measure before the specialist allergy assessment. Patients should be prescribed two adrenaline auto-injectors, and training should be provided on how to use them. A risk-stratified approach to discharge should be taken, as biphasic reactions can occur in up to 20% of patients. The Resus Council UK recommends a fast-track discharge for patients who have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline and have been given an adrenaline auto-injector and trained how to use it. Patients who require two doses of IM adrenaline or have had a previous biphasic reaction should be observed for a minimum of 6 hours after symptom resolution, while those who have had a severe reaction requiring more than two doses of IM adrenaline or have severe asthma should be observed for a minimum of 12 hours after symptom resolution. Patients who present late at night or in areas where access to emergency care may be difficult should also be observed for a minimum of 12

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old male is admitted for elective surgery for a lymph node biopsy...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male is admitted for elective surgery for a lymph node biopsy in the supraclavicular region. Following the surgery, the patient experiences difficulty in shrugging his left shoulder. What could be the probable cause?

      Your Answer: Axillary nerve lesion

      Correct Answer: Accessory nerve lesion

      Explanation:

      The posterior triangle is where the accessory nerve is located, and it is susceptible to injury in this area. In addition to experiencing issues with shoulder shrugging, the individual may also encounter challenges when attempting to raise their arm above their head.

      The posterior triangle of the neck is an area that is bound by the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles, the occipital bone, and the middle third of the clavicle. Within this triangle, there are various nerves, vessels, muscles, and lymph nodes. The nerves present include the accessory nerve, phrenic nerve, and three trunks of the brachial plexus, as well as branches of the cervical plexus such as the supraclavicular nerve, transverse cervical nerve, great auricular nerve, and lesser occipital nerve. The vessels found in this area are the external jugular vein and subclavian artery. Additionally, there are muscles such as the inferior belly of omohyoid and scalene, as well as lymph nodes including the supraclavicular and occipital nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      19.6
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  • Question 3 - A 32-year-old woman is 24 weeks pregnant and comes in for a routine...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman is 24 weeks pregnant and comes in for a routine check-up. She expresses her worries about how her pregnancy might impact her renal function, given her history of autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease. Her baseline eGFR is 100 ml/min/1.73m2. What is the expected eGFR measurement at present?

      Your Answer: 200ml/min/1.73m2

      Correct Answer: 150ml/min/1.73m2

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, a woman’s body undergoes various physiological changes. The cardiovascular system experiences an increase in stroke volume, heart rate, and cardiac output, while systolic blood pressure remains unchanged and diastolic blood pressure decreases in the first and second trimesters before returning to normal levels by term. The enlarged uterus may cause issues with venous return, leading to ankle swelling, supine hypotension, and varicose veins.

      The respiratory system sees an increase in pulmonary ventilation and tidal volume, with oxygen requirements only increasing by 20%. This can lead to a sense of dyspnea due to over-breathing and a fall in pCO2. The basal metabolic rate also increases, potentially due to increased thyroxine and adrenocortical hormones.

      Maternal blood volume increases by 30%, with red blood cells increasing by 20% and plasma increasing by 50%, leading to a decrease in hemoglobin levels. Coagulant activity increases slightly, while fibrinolytic activity decreases. Platelet count falls, and white blood cell count and erythrocyte sedimentation rate rise.

      The urinary system experiences an increase in blood flow and glomerular filtration rate, with elevated sex steroid levels leading to increased salt and water reabsorption and urinary protein losses. Trace glycosuria may also occur.

      Calcium requirements increase during pregnancy, with gut absorption increasing substantially due to increased 1,25 dihydroxy vitamin D. Serum levels of calcium and phosphate may fall, but ionized calcium levels remain stable. The liver experiences an increase in alkaline phosphatase and a decrease in albumin levels.

      The uterus undergoes significant changes, increasing in weight from 100g to 1100g and transitioning from hyperplasia to hypertrophy. Cervical ectropion and discharge may increase, and Braxton-Hicks contractions may occur in late pregnancy. Retroversion may lead to retention in the first trimester but usually self-corrects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
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  • Question 4 - Which of the following is not associated with an increase in ESR? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not associated with an increase in ESR?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polycythaemia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR)

      The Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR) is a test that measures the rate at which red blood cells settle in a tube over a period of time. It is a non-specific marker of inflammation and can be affected by various factors such as the size, shape, and number of red blood cells, as well as the concentration of plasma proteins like fibrinogen, alpha2-globulins, and gamma globulins.

      A high ESR can be caused by various conditions such as temporal arteritis, myeloma, connective tissue disorders like systemic lupus erythematosus, malignancies, infections, and other factors like increasing age, female sex, and anaemia. On the other hand, a low ESR can be caused by conditions like polycythaemia, afibrinogenaemia, or hypofibrinogenaemia.

      It is important to note that while a high ESR can indicate the presence of an underlying condition, it is not a definitive diagnosis and further testing may be required to determine the cause. Therefore, it is essential to consult a healthcare professional for proper evaluation and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 5 - A 28-year-old man with severe asthma is participating in a clinical study. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man with severe asthma is participating in a clinical study. The study is testing a new medication for severe asthma and has demonstrated a reduction in serum leukotriene levels in mouse models.

      The lead physician in the clinical trial explains that the investigational drug blocks the activity of the enzyme responsible for converting arachidonic acid to HPETEs.

      Which enzyme is blocked by the experimental medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lipoxygenase

      Explanation:

      Lipoxygenase converts arachidonic acid into HPETEs.

      Arachidonic Acid Metabolism: The Role of Leukotrienes and Endoperoxides

      Arachidonic acid is a fatty acid that plays a crucial role in the body’s inflammatory response. The metabolism of arachidonic acid involves the production of various compounds, including leukotrienes and endoperoxides. Leukotrienes are produced by leukocytes and can cause constriction of the lungs. LTB4 is produced before leukocytes arrive, while the rest of the leukotrienes (A, C, D, and E) cause lung constriction.

      Endoperoxides, on the other hand, are produced by the cyclooxygenase enzyme and can lead to the formation of thromboxane and prostacyclin. Thromboxane is associated with platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction, which can lead to thrombosis. Prostacyclin, on the other hand, has the opposite effect and can cause vasodilation and inhibit platelet aggregation.

      Understanding the metabolism of arachidonic acid and the role of these compounds can help in the development of treatments for inflammatory conditions and cardiovascular diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 6 - A 5-day-old girl is currently intubated and ventilated in the neonatal unit due...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-day-old girl is currently intubated and ventilated in the neonatal unit due to surfactant deficient lung disease. However, her oxygen saturations have suddenly dropped and she now requires higher ventilation pressures. What is the probable complication that has arisen?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pneumothorax

      Explanation:

      Pneumothorax as a Common Complication of Neonatal Ventilation

      Pneumothorax is a frequent complication of neonatal ventilation, particularly in cases where high pressures are required due to poor lung compliance in surfactant deficient lung disease. This condition occurs when air enters the interstitial space, increasing the risk of barotraumatic pneumothoraces. A sudden change in ventilation requirements is a sign of a physical process rather than a gradual inflammatory change, making it important to monitor neonates closely for this complication.

      Acute pulmonary oedema is another potential complication, but it usually occurs secondary to heart failure in neonates with severe cardiac malformations. Aspiration pneumonitis is unlikely if an endotracheal tube is in place, and hypoglycaemia is more common in neonates but would not present with increased ventilation pressure requirements. Pneumonia, on the other hand, would present more gradually and would not be the most prominent feature in cases of sudden changes in ventilation requirements. Overall, it is crucial to be aware of the risks associated with neonatal ventilation and to monitor patients closely for potential complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 7 - Which of the following blood products can be given to a recipient who...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following blood products can be given to a recipient who is not matched for ABO blood type?

      Rewritten question:

      Which blood products can be administered to a recipient who is not matched for their ABO blood type?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Platelets

      Explanation:

      Platelets in the UK are obtained through either pooling the platelet component from four units of whole donated blood, known as random donor platelets, or by plasmapheresis from a single donor. These platelets are suspended in 200-300 ml of plasma and can be stored for up to 4 days in the transfusion laboratory, where they are kept agitated at 22oC to maintain their function. One adult platelet pool can increase the normal platelet count (150 – 450 platelets x 109/litre) by 510 platelets x 109/litre. While ABO identical or compatible platelets are preferred for adults, rhesus compatibility is necessary for recipients who are children or women of childbearing age to prevent haemolytic disease of the newborn.

      Blood Products and Cell Saver Devices

      Blood products are essential in various medical procedures, especially in cases where patients require transfusions due to anaemia or bleeding. Packed red cells, platelet-rich plasma, platelet concentrate, fresh frozen plasma, and cryoprecipitate are some of the commonly used whole blood fractions. Fresh frozen plasma is usually administered to patients with clotting deficiencies, while cryoprecipitate is a rich source of Factor VIII and fibrinogen. Cross-matching is necessary for all blood products, and cell saver devices are used to collect and re-infuse a patient’s own blood lost during surgery.

      Cell saver devices come in two types, those that wash the blood cells before re-infusion and those that do not. The former is more expensive and complicated to operate but reduces the risk of re-infusing contaminated blood. The latter avoids the use of donor blood and may be acceptable to Jehovah’s witnesses. However, it is contraindicated in malignant diseases due to the risk of facilitating disease dissemination.

      In some surgical patients, the use of warfarin can pose specific problems and may require the use of specialised blood products. Warfarin reversal can be achieved through the administration of vitamin K, fresh frozen plasma, or human prothrombin complex. Fresh frozen plasma is used less commonly now as a first-line warfarin reversal, and human prothrombin complex is preferred due to its rapid action. However, it should be given with vitamin K as factor 6 has a short half-life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 8 - A 55-year-old man comes to his physician complaining of severe morning headaches. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man comes to his physician complaining of severe morning headaches. The doctor conducts a neurological evaluation to detect any neurological impairments. During the assessment, the patient exhibits normal responses for all tests except for the absence of corneal reflex.

      Which cranial nerve is impacted?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trigeminal nerve

      Explanation:

      The loss of corneal reflex is associated with the trigeminal nerve, specifically the ophthalmic branch. This reflex tests the sensation of the eyeball when cotton wool is used to touch it, causing the eye to blink in response. The glossopharyngeal nerve is not associated with the eye but is involved in the gag reflex. The optic nerve is responsible for vision and does not provide physical sensation to the eyeball. The oculomotor nerve is primarily a motor nerve and only provides sensory information in response to bright light. The trochlear nerve is purely motor and has no sensory innervations.

      Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.

      In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 9 - A 72-year-old man visits his GP complaining of hesitancy, frequency, poor flow, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man visits his GP complaining of hesitancy, frequency, poor flow, and incomplete emptying for the past 8 months. During the examination, the GP discovers a hard, craggy, and enlarged prostate on one side. The GP urgently refers the patient to a urologist within 2 weeks and orders a prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test.

      Upon seeing the urologist, the patient is informed that his PSA level is 22ng/ml. The urologist repeats the digital rectal examination and requests a multiparametric MRI to confirm the diagnosis. The urologist prescribes medication to the patient, explaining that it will initially cause a flare of tumor growth before shrinking.

      What type of medication is the urologist describing that will cause this initial flare of tumor growth?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gonadotropin-releasing hormone agonists

      Explanation:

      Prostate cancer management involves inhibiting or down-regulating hormones involved in the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis at different stages to prevent tumour growth. Testosterone, converted to dihydrotestosterone (DHT) in the prostate, causes growth and proliferation of prostate cells.

      Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonists like goserelin suppress both GnRH and LH production, causing downregulation of GnRH and LH after an initial stimulatory effect that can cause a flare in tumour growth. GnRH agonists outmatch the body’s natural production rhythm, leading to reduced LH and GnRH production.

      GnRH antagonists like abarelix suppress LH production by the anterior pituitary, preventing stimulation of testosterone production in the testes and reducing DHT production. This can cause the prostate to shrink instead of growing.

      Anti-androgens like bicalutamide directly block the actions of testosterone and DHT within the cells of the prostate, preventing growth. They are often prescribed alongside GnRH agonists to prevent the flare in tumour growth.

      5-a-reductase inhibitors, also known as DHT-blockers, shrink the prostate by stopping the conversion of testosterone to DHT. This prevents tumour growth and overall shrinkage of the prostate, but does not cause initial tumour growth.

      Prostate cancer management varies depending on the stage of the disease and the patient’s life expectancy and preferences. For localized prostate cancer (T1/T2), treatment options include active monitoring, watchful waiting, radical prostatectomy, and radiotherapy (external beam and brachytherapy). For localized advanced prostate cancer (T3/T4), options include hormonal therapy, radical prostatectomy, and radiotherapy. Patients may develop proctitis and are at increased risk of bladder, colon, and rectal cancer following radiotherapy for prostate cancer.

      In cases of metastatic prostate cancer, reducing androgen levels is a key aim of treatment. A combination of approaches is often used, including anti-androgen therapy, synthetic GnRH agonist or antagonists, bicalutamide, cyproterone acetate, abiraterone, and bilateral orchidectomy. GnRH agonists, such as Goserelin (Zoladex), initially cause a rise in testosterone levels before falling to castration levels. To prevent a rise in testosterone, anti-androgens are often used to cover the initial therapy. GnRH antagonists, such as degarelix, are being evaluated to suppress testosterone while avoiding the flare phenomenon. Chemotherapy with docetaxel is also an option for the treatment of hormone-relapsed metastatic prostate cancer in patients who have no or mild symptoms after androgen deprivation therapy has failed, and before chemotherapy is indicated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
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  • Question 10 - A fetus is diagnosed with a congenital diaphragmatic hernia, with visible protrusion of...

    Incorrect

    • A fetus is diagnosed with a congenital diaphragmatic hernia, with visible protrusion of bowel into the thoracic cavity and hypoplastic lungs. What is the embryological origin of these internal organs?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Endoderm

      Explanation:

      The endoderm is responsible for the development of the epithelium in the digestive system and respiratory system, as well as the pancreas and liver.

      Embryological Layers and Their Derivatives

      Embryonic development involves the formation of three primary germ layers: ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm. Each layer gives rise to specific tissues and organs in the developing embryo. The ectoderm forms the surface ectoderm, which gives rise to the epidermis, mammary glands, and lens of the eye, as well as the neural tube, which gives rise to the central nervous system (CNS) and associated structures such as the posterior pituitary and retina. The neural crest, which arises from the neural tube, gives rise to a variety of structures including autonomic nerves, cranial nerves, facial and skull bones, and adrenal cortex. The mesoderm gives rise to connective tissue, muscle, bones (except facial and skull), and organs such as the kidneys, ureters, gonads, and spleen. The endoderm gives rise to the epithelial lining of the gastrointestinal tract, liver, pancreas, thyroid, parathyroid, and thymus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 11 - Which of the following is more frequently observed in individuals with Crohn's disease...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is more frequently observed in individuals with Crohn's disease compared to those with ulcerative colitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fat wrapping of the terminal ileum

      Explanation:

      Smoking has been found to exacerbate Crohn’s disease, and it also increases the risk of disease recurrence after resection. Patients with ileal disease, which is the most common site of the disease, often exhibit fat wrapping of the terminal ileum. The mesenteric fat in patients with inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is typically dense, hard, and prone to significant bleeding during surgery. During endoscopy, the mucosa in Crohn’s disease patients is described as resembling cobblestones, while ulcerative colitis patients often exhibit mucosal islands (pseudopolyps).

      Understanding Crohn’s Disease

      Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract, from the mouth to the anus. The exact cause of Crohn’s disease is unknown, but there is a strong genetic component. Inflammation occurs in all layers of the affected area, which can lead to complications such as strictures, fistulas, and adhesions.

      Symptoms of Crohn’s disease typically appear in late adolescence or early adulthood and can include non-specific symptoms such as weight loss and lethargy, as well as more specific symptoms like diarrhea, abdominal pain, and perianal disease. Extra-intestinal features, such as arthritis, erythema nodosum, and osteoporosis, are also common in patients with Crohn’s disease.

      To diagnose Crohn’s disease, doctors may look for raised inflammatory markers, increased faecal calprotectin, anemia, and low levels of vitamin B12 and vitamin D. It’s important to note that Crohn’s disease shares some features with ulcerative colitis, another type of inflammatory bowel disease, but there are also important differences between the two conditions. Understanding the symptoms and diagnostic criteria for Crohn’s disease can help patients and healthcare providers manage this chronic condition more effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 12 - A 70-year-old-man arrives at the emergency department with dysphasia, right-sided neglect, and right-sided...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old-man arrives at the emergency department with dysphasia, right-sided neglect, and right-sided weakness. He has a medical history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, type two diabetes mellitus, and a 20-pack-year smoking history. His symptoms began 55 minutes ago.

      Which part of the brain is likely affected by this stroke based on the presented symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Middle and anterior cerebral arteries

      Explanation:

      A total anterior circulation infarct affects the middle and anterior cerebral arteries, which is the correct answer (option 1). Option 2 is only true for a partial anterior circulation infarct, while option 3 is true for a lacunar infarct. Option 4 is true for a posterior circulation infarct, and option 5 would result in quadriplegia and lock-in-syndrome.

      Stroke: A Brief Overview

      Stroke is a significant cause of morbidity and mortality, with over 150,000 strokes occurring annually in the UK alone. It is the fourth leading cause of death in the UK, killing twice as many women as breast cancer each year. However, the prevention and treatment of strokes have undergone significant changes over the past decade. What was once considered an untreatable condition is now viewed as a ‘brain attack’ that requires emergency assessment to determine if patients may benefit from new treatments such as thrombolysis.

      A stroke, also known as a cerebrovascular accident (CVA), is a sudden interruption in the vascular supply of the brain. There are two main types of strokes: ischaemic and haemorrhagic. Ischaemic strokes occur when there is a blockage in the blood vessel that stops blood flow, while haemorrhagic strokes occur when a blood vessel bursts, leading to a reduction in blood flow. Symptoms of a stroke may include motor weakness, speech problems, swallowing problems, visual field defects, and balance problems.

      Patients with suspected stroke need to have emergency neuroimaging to determine if they are suitable for thrombolytic therapy to treat early ischaemic strokes. The two types of neuroimaging used in this setting are CT and MRI. If the stroke is ischaemic, and certain criteria are met, the patient should be offered thrombolysis. Once haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded, patients should be given aspirin 300mg as soon as possible, and antiplatelet therapy should be continued. If imaging confirms a haemorrhagic stroke, neurosurgical consultation should be considered for advice on further management. The vast majority of patients, however, are not suitable for surgical intervention. Management is therefore supportive as per haemorrhagic stroke.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 13 - A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic after attempting suicide. The physician suspects...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic after attempting suicide. The physician suspects an underlying psychiatric condition and conducts a screening for psychiatric symptoms. During the screening, the patient reports experiencing symptoms for the past two years, such as feeling low, fatigue, and loss of interest in her hobbies. Based on this, the doctor diagnoses her with major depressive disorder. What clinical feature would warrant a reevaluation of her diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Persecutory delusions

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia can be indicated by the presence of persecutory delusions, while the symptoms of depression align with the diagnosis. Guilty delusions, specifically, are a symptom commonly seen in cases of psychotic depression.

      Screening and Assessment of Depression

      Depression is a common mental health condition that affects many people worldwide. Screening and assessment are important steps in identifying and managing depression. The screening process involves asking two simple questions to determine if a person is experiencing symptoms of depression. If the answer is yes to either question, a more in-depth assessment is necessary.

      Assessment tools such as the Hospital Anxiety and Depression (HAD) scale and the Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ-9) are commonly used to assess the severity of depression. The HAD scale consists of 14 questions, seven for anxiety and seven for depression. Each item is scored from 0-3, producing a score out of 21 for both anxiety and depression. The PHQ-9 asks patients about nine different problems they may have experienced in the last two weeks, which can then be scored from 0-3. This tool also includes questions about thoughts of self-harm.

      The DSM-IV criteria are used by NICE to grade depression. This criteria includes nine different symptoms, such as depressed mood, diminished interest or pleasure in activities, and feelings of worthlessness or guilt. The severity of depression can range from subthreshold depressive symptoms to severe depression with or without psychotic symptoms.

      In conclusion, screening and assessment are crucial steps in identifying and managing depression. By using tools such as the HAD scale and PHQ-9, healthcare professionals can accurately assess the severity of depression and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 14 - Mary, an 80-year-old female, presents to the emergency department after a low impact...

    Incorrect

    • Mary, an 80-year-old female, presents to the emergency department after a low impact fall. She complains of pain in her right leg.

      Mary is neurovascularly intact upon examination and an X-ray reveals an intracapsular neck of femur fracture on the right leg (hip fracture). As a result, Mary is scheduled for a hemiarthroplasty.

      What is the usual indication observed during the examination of Mary's leg?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Leg is shortened and externally rotated

      Explanation:

      In cases of hip fracture, the affected leg is typically shortened and externally rotated. This is due to the muscles pulling on the fractured femur, causing it to become misaligned and overlap. The short external rotators, such as piriformis, gemellus superior, obturator internus, and psoas muscle, contribute to the external rotation of the leg. It may also be abducted. It’s important to note that internal rotation is more commonly associated with a posterior hip dislocation, not a hip fracture.

      Hip fractures are a common occurrence, particularly in elderly women with osteoporosis. The femoral head’s blood supply runs up the neck, making avascular necrosis a risk in displaced fractures. Symptoms include pain and a shortened and externally rotated leg. Patients with non-displaced or incomplete neck of femur fractures may still be able to bear weight. Hip fractures are classified based on their location, either intracapsular or extracapsular. The Garden system is a commonly used classification system that categorizes fractures into four types based on stability and displacement. Blood supply disruption is most common in Types III and IV.

      Undisplaced intracapsular fractures can be treated with internal fixation or hemiarthroplasty if the patient is unfit. Displaced fractures require replacement arthroplasty, with total hip replacement being preferred over hemiarthroplasty if the patient was able to walk independently outdoors with no more than a stick, is not cognitively impaired, and is medically fit for anesthesia and the procedure. Extracapsular fractures are managed with a dynamic hip screw for stable intertrochanteric fractures and an intramedullary device for reverse oblique, transverse, or subtrochanteric fractures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 15 - A 50-year-old man has a laparotomy and repair of incisional hernia. Which hormone...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man has a laparotomy and repair of incisional hernia. Which hormone is most unlikely to be released in higher amounts after the surgery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Insulin

      Explanation:

      Reduced secretion of insulin and thyroxine is common after surgery, which can make it challenging to manage diabetes in people with insulin resistance due to the additional release of glucocorticoids.

      Surgery triggers a stress response that causes hormonal and metabolic changes in the body. This response is characterized by substrate mobilization, muscle protein loss, sodium and water retention, suppression of anabolic hormone secretion, activation of the sympathetic nervous system, and immunological and haematological changes. The hypothalamic-pituitary axis and the sympathetic nervous systems are activated, and the normal feedback mechanisms of control of hormone secretion fail. The stress response is associated with increased growth hormone, cortisol, renin, adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH), aldosterone, prolactin, antidiuretic hormone, and glucagon, while insulin, testosterone, oestrogen, thyroid stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone, and follicle stimulating hormone are decreased or remain unchanged. The metabolic effects of cortisol are enhanced, including skeletal muscle protein breakdown, stimulation of lipolysis, anti-insulin effect, mineralocorticoid effects, and anti-inflammatory effects. The stress response also affects carbohydrate, protein, lipid, salt and water metabolism, and cytokine release. Modifying the response can be achieved through opioids, spinal anaesthesia, nutrition, growth hormone, anabolic steroids, and normothermia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 16 - A 55-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a high fever and...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a high fever and fatigue. He does not have any history to offer. On examination, he is noted to have splinter haemorrhages and conjunctival pallor. His observations show him to be pyrexial at 39°C. A pansystolic murmur is audible throughout the praecordium, and an echocardiogram reveals vegetations. He is diagnosed with infective endocarditis and initiated on a triple antibiotic therapy of gentamicin, vancomycin and amoxicillin. The following U&E results are noted at admission:

      Na+ 140 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Bicarbonate 25 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      Urea 4.0 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 75 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      However, following three days of inpatient treatment, the patient becomes anuric. A repeat set of U&Es reveal the following:

      Na+ 145 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 5.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Bicarbonate 25 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      Urea 12.0 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 150 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      What is the likely mechanism of gentamicin causing this patient’s kidney injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renal cell apoptosis

      Explanation:

      AKI can be attributed to gentamicin due to its ability to induce apoptosis in renal cells. Therefore, patients who are prescribed gentamicin should undergo frequent monitoring of their renal function and drug concentration levels. While there are other potential causes of acute kidney injury, none of them are linked to aminoglycoside antibiotics.

      Understanding the Difference between Acute Tubular Necrosis and Prerenal Uraemia

      Acute kidney injury can be caused by various factors, including prerenal uraemia and acute tubular necrosis. It is important to differentiate between the two to determine the appropriate treatment. Prerenal uraemia occurs when the kidneys hold on to sodium to preserve volume, leading to decreased blood flow to the kidneys. On the other hand, acute tubular necrosis is caused by damage to the kidney tubules, which can be due to various factors such as toxins, infections, or ischemia.

      To differentiate between the two, several factors can be considered. In prerenal uraemia, the urine sodium level is typically less than 20 mmol/L, while in acute tubular necrosis, it is usually greater than 40 mmol/L. The urine osmolality is also higher in prerenal uraemia, typically above 500 mOsm/kg, while in acute tubular necrosis, it is usually below 350 mOsm/kg. The fractional sodium excretion is less than 1% in prerenal uraemia, while it is greater than 1% in acute tubular necrosis. Additionally, the response to fluid challenge is typically good in prerenal uraemia, while it is poor in acute tubular necrosis.

      Other factors that can help differentiate between the two include the serum urea:creatinine ratio, fractional urea excretion, urine:plasma osmolality, urine:plasma urea, specific gravity, and urine sediment. By considering these factors, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat acute kidney injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
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  • Question 17 - Activation of which receptor is believed to enhance the activity of brown fat,...

    Incorrect

    • Activation of which receptor is believed to enhance the activity of brown fat, resulting in the production of heat/energy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Beta-3 receptor

      Explanation:

      The Role of Beta-3 Adrenoceptors and Brown Fat in Energy Metabolism

      Fat cells were once believed to be inactive, but recent research has shown that they are actually an endocrine organ that produces hormones involved in regulating energy metabolism. One such hormone is produced by brown fat cells, which contain beta-3 adrenoceptors. These receptors are thought to stimulate lipolysis and thermogenesis, leading to increased energy expenditure. However, despite attempts to activate these receptors with agonists, no significant effect on weight or energy expenditure has been observed. Nonetheless, the discovery of the role of brown fat and beta-3 adrenoceptors in energy metabolism has opened up new avenues for research into potential treatments for obesity and related metabolic disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 18 - A 65-year-old patient is scheduled for a right hemicolectomy to treat a caecum...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient is scheduled for a right hemicolectomy to treat a caecum carcinoma. Which of the following vessels will need to be high ligated for optimal oncological control?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ileo-colic artery

      Explanation:

      During a right hemicolectomy, the caecum is supplied by the ileo-colic artery which requires high ligation. It is generally recommended to preserve the middle colic artery when resecting a caecal lesion. It should be noted that the SMA does not directly supply the caecum.

      The Caecum: Location, Relations, and Functions

      The caecum is a part of the colon located in the proximal right colon below the ileocaecal valve. It is an intraperitoneal structure that has posterior relations with the psoas, iliacus, femoral nerve, genitofemoral nerve, and gonadal vessels. Its anterior relations include the greater omentum. The caecum is supplied by the ileocolic artery and its lymphatic drainage is through the mesenteric nodes that accompany the venous drainage.

      The caecum is known for its distensibility, making it the most distensible part of the colon. However, in cases of complete large bowel obstruction with a competent ileocaecal valve, the caecum is the most likely site of eventual perforation. Despite this potential complication, the caecum plays an important role in the digestive system. It is responsible for the absorption of fluids and electrolytes, as well as the fermentation of indigestible carbohydrates. Additionally, the caecum is a site for the growth and proliferation of beneficial bacteria that aid in digestion and immune function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 19 - What is the most accurate description of the histological composition of tendons? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most accurate description of the histological composition of tendons?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dense regularly arranged connective tissue

      Explanation:

      Types of Connective Tissue and Their Locations

      Connective tissue is a type of tissue that provides support and structure to the body. There are different types of connective tissue, each with its own unique characteristics and functions. Dense regular connective tissue is found in ligaments, tendons, and aponeuroses. This type of tissue is composed of tightly packed collagen fibers that are arranged in parallel bundles. It provides strength and stability to the structures it supports.

      Dense irregular connective tissue, on the other hand, is found in the dermis and periosteum. This type of tissue is composed of collagen fibers that are arranged in a random pattern. It provides strength and support to the skin and bones.

      Elastic fibers are another type of connective tissue that is found in elastic ligaments such as ligamenta flava. These fibers are composed of elastin, a protein that allows the tissue to stretch and recoil.

      Finally, large collagenous fibers are seen in cartilage. This type of connective tissue is found in the joints and provides cushioning and support to the bones. Overall, connective tissue plays an important role in maintaining the structure and function of the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 20 - A 45-year-old man presents to the surgical team with abdominal pain, bloating, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents to the surgical team with abdominal pain, bloating, and vomiting. Based on an abdominal x-ray, there is suspicion of a malignancy causing intestinal obstruction. Which of the following antiemetics should be avoided for managing the patient's vomiting?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metoclopramide

      Explanation:

      It is not recommended to use metoclopramide as an antiemetic in cases of bowel obstruction. This is because metoclopramide works by blocking dopamine receptors and stimulating peripheral 5HT3 receptors, which promote gastric emptying. However, in cases of intestinal obstruction, gastric emptying is not possible and this effect can be harmful. The choice of antiemetic should be based on the patient’s individual needs and the underlying cause of their nausea.

      Understanding the Mechanism and Uses of Metoclopramide

      Metoclopramide is a medication primarily used to manage nausea, but it also has other uses such as treating gastro-oesophageal reflux disease and gastroparesis secondary to diabetic neuropathy. It is often combined with analgesics for the treatment of migraines. However, it is important to note that metoclopramide has adverse effects such as extrapyramidal effects, acute dystonia, diarrhoea, hyperprolactinaemia, tardive dyskinesia, and parkinsonism. It should also be avoided in bowel obstruction but may be helpful in paralytic ileus.

      The mechanism of action of metoclopramide is quite complicated. It is primarily a D2 receptor antagonist, but it also has mixed 5-HT3 receptor antagonist/5-HT4 receptor agonist activity. Its antiemetic action is due to its antagonist activity at D2 receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone, and at higher doses, the 5-HT3 receptor antagonist also has an effect. The gastroprokinetic activity is mediated by D2 receptor antagonist activity and 5-HT4 receptor agonist activity.

      In summary, metoclopramide is a medication with multiple uses, but it also has adverse effects that should be considered. Its mechanism of action is complex, involving both D2 receptor antagonist and 5-HT3 receptor antagonist/5-HT4 receptor agonist activity. Understanding the uses and mechanism of action of metoclopramide is important for its safe and effective use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 21 - What metabolic effect occurs due to an increase in insulin secretion? ...

    Incorrect

    • What metabolic effect occurs due to an increase in insulin secretion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduced gluconeogenesis

      Explanation:

      Insulin Anabolic Effects on Glucose Uptake

      Insulin is released in response to high levels of glucose in the bloodstream. Its anabolic effects are aimed at preventing further glucose production and promoting glucose uptake into cells for utilization. Insulin reduces the processes of gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis, which prevents the release of more glucose. Additionally, insulin inhibits the release of fatty acids from adipose tissue because glucose is the preferred energy source. Insulin also increases protein synthesis in anticipation of increased glucose uptake by cells. Furthermore, glycogen synthesis is increased to store glucose for later use. Overall, insulin anabolic effects on glucose uptake help to regulate blood glucose levels and ensure that cells have enough energy to function properly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 22 - A 73-year-old female is seen by an ophthalmologist for a follow-up after being...

    Incorrect

    • A 73-year-old female is seen by an ophthalmologist for a follow-up after being diagnosed with primary open-angle glaucoma. The patient is asymptomatic and has 20/20 vision with glasses. During the examination, it is noted that the patient's intraocular pressure remains significantly elevated despite consistent use of a prostaglandin analogue. The decision is made to initiate treatment with timolol eye drops.

      What is the main mode of action of timolol eye drops?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduces aqueous production

      Explanation:

      Timolol, a beta-blocker, is commonly used as a second-line treatment for primary open-angle glaucoma. It works by reducing the production of aqueous humor, which in turn lowers intraocular pressure. Mitotic agents like pilocarpine can cause pupil constriction and may be used in acute closed-angle glaucoma to increase space for aqueous drainage. However, this mechanism is not routinely used in open-angle glaucoma. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors like acetazolamide can also reduce aqueous production but are taken orally and can cause systemic side effects. Increasing trabecular meshwork drainage is a mechanism used by drugs like pilocarpine, while increasing uveoscleral drainage is achieved by drugs like latanoprost, a prostaglandin analogue.

      Primary open-angle glaucoma is a type of optic neuropathy that is associated with increased intraocular pressure (IOP). It is classified based on whether the peripheral iris is covering the trabecular meshwork, which is important in the drainage of aqueous humour from the anterior chamber of the eye. In open-angle glaucoma, the iris is clear of the meshwork, but the trabecular network offers increased resistance to aqueous outflow, causing increased IOP. This condition affects 0.5% of people over the age of 40 and its prevalence increases with age up to 10% over the age of 80 years. Both males and females are equally affected. The main causes of primary open-angle glaucoma are increasing age and genetics, with first-degree relatives of an open-angle glaucoma patient having a 16% chance of developing the disease.

      Primary open-angle glaucoma is characterised by a slow rise in intraocular pressure, which is symptomless for a long period. It is typically detected following an ocular pressure measurement during a routine examination by an optometrist. Signs of the condition include increased intraocular pressure, visual field defect, and pathological cupping of the optic disc. Case finding and provisional diagnosis are done by an optometrist, and referral to an ophthalmologist is done via the GP. Final diagnosis is made through investigations such as automated perimetry to assess visual field, slit lamp examination with pupil dilatation to assess optic nerve and fundus for a baseline, applanation tonometry to measure IOP, central corneal thickness measurement, and gonioscopy to assess peripheral anterior chamber configuration and depth. The risk of future visual impairment is assessed using risk factors such as IOP, central corneal thickness (CCT), family history, and life expectancy.

      The majority of patients with primary open-angle glaucoma are managed with eye drops that aim to lower intraocular pressure and prevent progressive loss of visual field. According to NICE guidelines, the first line of treatment is a prostaglandin analogue (PGA) eyedrop, followed by a beta-blocker, carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, or sympathomimetic eyedrop as a second line of treatment. Surgery or laser treatment can be tried in more advanced cases. Reassessment is important to exclude progression and visual field loss and needs to be done more frequently if IOP is uncontrolled, the patient is high risk, or there

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 23 - A 25-year-old man admitted to the acute medical ward is administered ceftriaxone for...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man admitted to the acute medical ward is administered ceftriaxone for suspected bacterial meningitis. However, he experiences facial angioedema, a new urticarial rash, and stridor shortly after receiving the medication. His vital signs are as follows: respiratory rate 22/min; heart rate 110/min; temperature 37.3ºC; blood pressure 104/56 mmHg; oxygen saturations 95% on air. Which type of cells produce the antibody responsible for this reaction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Plasma cells

      Explanation:

      Plasma cells are responsible for synthesizing IgE. This is important in the context of anaphylactic reactions, which are a type I hypersensitivity reaction. When an antigen is encountered for the first time, plasma cells produce IgE against it. This IgE then binds to Fc receptors on mast cells. Upon re-exposure to the antigen, the bound IgE triggers mast cell degranulation and an anaphylactic reaction. Eosinophils, granulocytes, and mast cells do not synthesize IgE.

      Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins produced by the immune system to help fight off infections and diseases. There are five types of immunoglobulins found in the body, each with their own unique characteristics.

      IgG is the most abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and plays a crucial role in enhancing phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses. It also fixes complement and can be passed to the fetal circulation.

      IgA is the most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body and is found in the secretions of digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts and systems. It provides localized protection on mucous membranes and is transported across the interior of the cell via transcytosis.

      IgM is the first immunoglobulin to be secreted in response to an infection and fixes complement, but does not pass to the fetal circulation. It is also responsible for producing anti-A, B blood antibodies.

      IgD’s role in the immune system is largely unknown, but it is involved in the activation of B cells.

      IgE is the least abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and is responsible for mediating type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. It provides immunity to parasites such as helminths and binds to Fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells and basophils.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 24 - Which one of the following would cause a rise in the carbon monoxide...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following would cause a rise in the carbon monoxide transfer factor (TLCO)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      When alveolar haemorrhage takes place, the TLCO typically rises as a result of the increased absorption of carbon monoxide by haemoglobin within the alveoli.

      Understanding Transfer Factor in Lung Function Testing

      The transfer factor is a measure of how quickly a gas diffuses from the alveoli into the bloodstream. This is typically tested using carbon monoxide, and the results can be given as either the total gas transfer (TLCO) or the transfer coefficient corrected for lung volume (KCO). A raised TLCO may be caused by conditions such as asthma, pulmonary haemorrhage, left-to-right cardiac shunts, polycythaemia, hyperkinetic states, male gender, or exercise. On the other hand, a lower TLCO may be indicative of pulmonary fibrosis, pneumonia, pulmonary emboli, pulmonary oedema, emphysema, anaemia, or low cardiac output.

      KCO tends to increase with age, and certain conditions may cause an increased KCO with a normal or reduced TLCO. These conditions include pneumonectomy/lobectomy, scoliosis/kyphosis, neuromuscular weakness, and ankylosis of costovertebral joints (such as in ankylosing spondylitis). Understanding transfer factor is important in lung function testing, as it can provide valuable information about a patient’s respiratory health and help guide treatment decisions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 25 - Which organ is in direct contact with the left kidney's anterior surface without...

    Incorrect

    • Which organ is in direct contact with the left kidney's anterior surface without being separated by peritoneum?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pancreas

      Explanation:

      Retroperitoneal Structures in Proximity to the Left Kidney

      The retroperitoneal structures that are in direct contact with the anterior surface of the left kidney include the pancreas, adrenal gland, and colon. While the pancreas is the only structure commonly listed as retroperitoneal, it is important to note that the adrenal gland and colon also share this classification and are located in close proximity to the left kidney.

      According to Gray’s Anatomy of the Human Body, which focuses on the urinary organs, the location and relationship of these structures is important for medical professionals. By knowing the retroperitoneal structures in proximity to the left kidney, doctors can better diagnose and treat conditions that may affect these organs.

      In summary, while the pancreas is commonly listed as the only retroperitoneal structure in contact with the left kidney, it is important to also consider the adrenal gland and colon in this classification. the location and relationship of these structures is crucial for medical professionals in providing effective care for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 26 - A 63-year-old man visits the clinic with complaints of palpitations and constipation that...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man visits the clinic with complaints of palpitations and constipation that has been bothering him for the past 5 days. He reports passing gas but feels uneasy. The patient has a history of hypertension, and you recently prescribed bendroflumethiazide to manage it. To check for signs of hypokalaemia, you conduct an ECG. What is an ECG indication of hypokalaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prolonged PR interval

      Explanation:

      Hypokalaemia can be identified through a prolonged PR interval on an ECG. However, this same ECG sign may also be present in cases of hyperkalaemia. Additional ECG signs of hypokalaemia include small or absent P waves, tall tented T waves, and broad bizarre QRS complexes. On the other hand, hyperkalaemia can be identified through ECG signs such as long PR intervals, a sine wave pattern, and tall tented T waves, as well as broad bizarre QRS complexes.

      Hypokalaemia, a condition characterized by low levels of potassium in the blood, can be detected through ECG features. These include the presence of U waves, small or absent T waves (which may occasionally be inverted), a prolonged PR interval, ST depression, and a long QT interval. The ECG image provided shows typical U waves and a borderline PR interval. To remember these features, one user suggests the following rhyme: In Hypokalaemia, U have no Pot and no T, but a long PR and a long QT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 27 - A patient arrives at the emergency department with complaints of abdominal pain...

    Incorrect

    • A patient arrives at the emergency department with complaints of abdominal pain in the right iliac fossa. Upon palpation, the patient experiences pain in the right iliac fossa when pressure is applied to the left iliac fossa. What is the term used to describe this sign?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rovsing's sign

      Explanation:

      Rovsing’s sign is a diagnostic indicator of appendicitis, characterized by pain in the right lower abdomen when the left lower abdomen is palpated. The Psoas sign is another indicator of appendicitis, where flexing the right hip causes irritation of the psoas muscle. The Obturator sign is also a sign of appendicitis, where discomfort is felt in the obturator internus muscle when both the hip and knees are flexed to 90 degrees. However, McBurney’s sign, which refers to pain in the right lower abdomen 2/3 of the way from the umbilicus to the right anterior superior iliac spine, is not a reliable indicator of appendicitis.

      Acute appendicitis is a common condition that requires surgery and can occur at any age, but is most prevalent in young people aged 10-20 years. The pathogenesis of acute appendicitis involves lymphoid hyperplasia or a faecolith, which leads to obstruction of the appendiceal lumen. This obstruction causes gut organisms to invade the appendix wall, resulting in oedema, ischaemia, and possibly perforation.

      The most common symptom of acute appendicitis is abdominal pain, which is typically peri-umbilical and radiates to the right iliac fossa due to localised peritoneal inflammation. Other symptoms include mild pyrexia, anorexia, and nausea. Examination may reveal generalised or localised peritonism, rebound and percussion tenderness, guarding and rigidity, and classical signs such as Rovsing’s sign and psoas sign.

      Diagnosis of acute appendicitis is typically based on raised inflammatory markers and compatible history and examination findings. Imaging may be used in certain cases, such as ultrasound in females where pelvic organ pathology is suspected. Management of acute appendicitis involves appendicectomy, which can be performed via an open or laparoscopic approach. Patients with perforated appendicitis require copious abdominal lavage, while those without peritonitis who have an appendix mass should receive broad-spectrum antibiotics and consideration given to performing an interval appendicectomy. Intravenous antibiotics alone have been trialled as a treatment for appendicitis, but evidence suggests that this is associated with a longer hospital stay and up to 20% of patients go on to have an appendicectomy within 12 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 28 - A 3-year-old girl visits her pediatrician with a chest infection. She has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old girl visits her pediatrician with a chest infection. She has been experiencing recurrent chest infections for the past year and has been failing to grow, with her weight and height below the fourth percentile. Her mother reports that she has been having frequent bowel movements that appear greasy and have an unpleasant odor. A sweat test is ordered and comes back positive.

      In the probable condition, what is the function of leukotriene B4 (LTB4)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neutrophil chemotaxis

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is neutrophil chemotaxis. This child’s symptoms and positive sweat test indicate a diagnosis of cystic fibrosis, which leads to recurrent infections and activation of LTB4. LTB4 then recruits neutrophils, causing airway inflammation and eventual lung damage. LTC4, LTD4, and LTE4 are known for their role in bronchial smooth muscle contraction, while thromboxane A2 (TXA2) is responsible for platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction.

      Arachidonic Acid Metabolism: The Role of Leukotrienes and Endoperoxides

      Arachidonic acid is a fatty acid that plays a crucial role in the body’s inflammatory response. The metabolism of arachidonic acid involves the production of various compounds, including leukotrienes and endoperoxides. Leukotrienes are produced by leukocytes and can cause constriction of the lungs. LTB4 is produced before leukocytes arrive, while the rest of the leukotrienes (A, C, D, and E) cause lung constriction.

      Endoperoxides, on the other hand, are produced by the cyclooxygenase enzyme and can lead to the formation of thromboxane and prostacyclin. Thromboxane is associated with platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction, which can lead to thrombosis. Prostacyclin, on the other hand, has the opposite effect and can cause vasodilation and inhibit platelet aggregation.

      Understanding the metabolism of arachidonic acid and the role of these compounds can help in the development of treatments for inflammatory conditions and cardiovascular diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 29 - Which nerve is most vulnerable to damage when there is a cut on...

    Incorrect

    • Which nerve is most vulnerable to damage when there is a cut on the upper lateral margin of the popliteal fossa in older adults?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      The lower infero-lateral aspect of the fossa is where the sural nerve exits, and it is at a higher risk during short saphenous vein surgery. On the other hand, the tibial nerve is located more medially and is less susceptible to injury in this area.

      Anatomy of the Popliteal Fossa

      The popliteal fossa is a diamond-shaped space located at the back of the knee joint. It is bound by various muscles and ligaments, including the biceps femoris, semimembranosus, semitendinosus, and gastrocnemius. The floor of the popliteal fossa is formed by the popliteal surface of the femur, posterior ligament of the knee joint, and popliteus muscle, while the roof is made up of superficial and deep fascia.

      The popliteal fossa contains several important structures, including the popliteal artery and vein, small saphenous vein, common peroneal nerve, tibial nerve, posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh, genicular branch of the obturator nerve, and lymph nodes. These structures are crucial for the proper functioning of the lower leg and foot.

      Understanding the anatomy of the popliteal fossa is important for healthcare professionals, as it can help in the diagnosis and treatment of various conditions affecting the knee joint and surrounding structures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 30 - Linda, a 68-year-old female, visits a shoulder clinic for a routine follow-up appointment...

    Incorrect

    • Linda, a 68-year-old female, visits a shoulder clinic for a routine follow-up appointment after undergoing a right shoulder replacement surgery for osteoarthritis. During the consultation, she reports limited movement in bending her elbow and shoulder.

      Upon examining her upper limb, the surgeon observes decreased flexion at the elbow and suspects nerve damage during the operation.

      Which nerve is most likely to have been affected based on the patient's symptoms and signs?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Musculocutaneous nerve

      Explanation:

      When the musculocutaneous nerve is injured, it can result in weakness when flexing the upper arm at the shoulder and elbow. This nerve is responsible for innervating the brachialis, biceps brachii, and coracobrachialis muscles. Other nerves, such as the axillary nerve, median nerve, and radial nerve, also play a role in muscle innervation and movement. The axillary nerve innervates the teres minor and deltoid muscles, while the median nerve innervates the majority of the flexor muscles in the forearm, the thenar muscles, and the two lateral lumbricals. The radial nerve innervates the triceps brachii and the muscles in the posterior compartment of the forearm, which generally cause extension of the wrist and fingers.

      The Musculocutaneous Nerve: Function and Pathway

      The musculocutaneous nerve is a nerve branch that originates from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus. Its pathway involves penetrating the coracobrachialis muscle and passing obliquely between the biceps brachii and the brachialis to the lateral side of the arm. Above the elbow, it pierces the deep fascia lateral to the tendon of the biceps brachii and continues into the forearm as the lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm.

      The musculocutaneous nerve innervates the coracobrachialis, biceps brachii, and brachialis muscles. Injury to this nerve can cause weakness in flexion at the shoulder and elbow. Understanding the function and pathway of the musculocutaneous nerve is important in diagnosing and treating injuries or conditions that affect this nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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