-
Question 1
Correct
-
A 20-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis presents with a 3-day history of abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea, passing around 8 stools per day. He denies any recent travel or exposure to unwell individuals.
During examination, his heart rate is 95 beats per minute, blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, and temperature is 37.8 ºC. His abdomen is soft but mildly tender throughout.
What is the best course of action for managing this patient's symptoms?Your Answer: Admit to hospital
Explanation:Hospitalization and IV corticosteroids are necessary for the treatment of a severe flare of ulcerative colitis, as seen in this patient with over 6 bloody stools per day and systemic symptoms like tachycardia and fever. Mild to moderate cases can be managed with aminosalicylates and oral steroids. Simple analgesia, increased fluid intake, and oral antibiotics are not effective in managing severe flares of ulcerative colitis.
Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools per day, the amount of blood, and the presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Severe cases should be treated in a hospital setting with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin.
To maintain remission, patients with proctitis and proctosigmoiditis may use topical aminosalicylate alone or in combination with an oral aminosalicylate. Those with left-sided and extensive ulcerative colitis may require a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. Patients who have experienced severe relapses or multiple exacerbations may benefit from oral azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended for UC management, but probiotics may help prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.
In summary, the management of ulcerative colitis involves a combination of inducing and maintaining remission. Treatment options vary depending on the severity and location of the condition, with mild-to-moderate cases typically treated with topical aminosalicylate and severe cases requiring hospitalization and intravenous medication. Maintaining remission may involve using a combination of oral and topical medications or a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. While methotrexate is not recommended, probiotics may be helpful in preventing relapse in mild to moderate cases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
Primary sclerosing cholangitis is most commonly associated with which of the following conditions?
Your Answer: Crohn's disease
Correct Answer: Ulcerative colitis
Explanation:Understanding Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis
Primary sclerosing cholangitis is a condition that affects the bile ducts, causing inflammation and fibrosis. The cause of this disease is unknown, but it is often associated with ulcerative colitis, with 4% of UC patients having PSC and 80% of PSC patients having UC. Crohn’s disease and HIV are also less common associations.
Symptoms of PSC include cholestasis, jaundice, pruritus, raised bilirubin and ALP levels, right upper quadrant pain, and fatigue. To diagnose PSC, doctors typically use endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) or magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP), which show multiple biliary strictures giving a ‘beaded’ appearance. A positive p-ANCA test may also be indicative of PSC.
Liver biopsy may show fibrous, obliterative cholangitis, often described as ‘onion skin’, but it has a limited role in diagnosis. Complications of PSC include an increased risk of cholangiocarcinoma (in 10% of cases) and colorectal cancer.
Overall, understanding the symptoms, associations, and diagnostic methods for PSC is crucial for early detection and management of this condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
Which drug is listed as having a severe interaction with Cimetidine, considering that Ranitidine is unavailable due to a manufacturing problem and GP practices in the area are advised to prescribe Cimetidine as a potential cost-effective alternative?
Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide
Explanation:Cimetidine and Nifedipine Interaction
Cimetidine and nifedipine have a severe interaction as cimetidine moderately increases the exposure to nifedipine. The manufacturer advises monitoring and adjusting the dose accordingly. It is important to note that the British National Formulary (BNF) categorizes interactions as severe (red) or moderate (amber). While the list of amber interactions for a drug can be extensive, it is crucial to focus on the most severe (red) ones, especially when it comes to exams or clinical practice.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A 63-year-old man initially reported experiencing itching on his back. Subsequently, he began to experience abdominal discomfort, loss of appetite, weight loss, and fatigue. An x-ray was performed, which showed no abnormalities. What would be the gold standard management option?
Your Answer: Urgent CT scan
Explanation:Urgent CT Scan for Pancreatic Cancer in Elderly Patients with Red Flag Symptoms
An urgent direct access CT scan is recommended within two weeks for patients aged 60 and over who have experienced weight loss and any of the following symptoms: diarrhoea, back pain, abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, constipation, or new-onset diabetes. CT scan is preferred over ultrasound unless CT is not available. Endoscopy is not necessary as the symptoms do not suggest stomach or oesophageal cancer, which would present with more dysphagia and dyspepsia. While a gastroenterology opinion may be required, it should not be requested routinely as the patient’s red flag symptoms warrant a more urgent approach. Although the patient is currently medically stable, an immediate referral to the medical assessment unit is not necessary.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
A 49-year-old man with a history of alcohol abuse and liver cirrhosis presents with worsening abdominal distension and ankle swelling. Upon examination, there is mild tenderness in the suprapubic area, but the abdomen is soft with no masses or rebound tenderness. The abdomen appears slightly distended with shifting dullness, and there is pitting edema up to mid-shin level. The patient is stable hemodynamically and shows no signs of jaundice or encephalopathy.
What medication would be most beneficial for this patient?Your Answer: Spironolactone
Explanation:Spironolactone is the recommended diuretic for managing ascites, which is suggested by the patient’s history of cirrhosis and increasing abdominal distension. While bendroflumethiazide can be used for hypertension and edema, it is not licensed for ascites. Codeine should be avoided as it can cause constipation, which could increase the risk of encephalopathy. Furosemide is not licensed for ascites, but is used for heart failure and resistant hypertension. Ramipril is primarily used for hypertension, heart failure, chronic kidney disease, and post-myocardial infarction, but is not indicated for ascites management.
Spironolactone is a medication that works as an aldosterone antagonist in the cortical collecting duct. It is used to treat various conditions such as ascites, hypertension, heart failure, nephrotic syndrome, and Conn’s syndrome. In patients with cirrhosis, spironolactone is often prescribed in relatively large doses of 100 or 200 mg to counteract secondary hyperaldosteronism. It is also used as a NICE ‘step 4’ treatment for hypertension. In addition, spironolactone has been shown to reduce all-cause mortality in patients with NYHA III + IV heart failure who are already taking an ACE inhibitor, according to the RALES study.
However, spironolactone can cause adverse effects such as hyperkalaemia and gynaecomastia, although the latter is less common with eplerenone. It is important to monitor potassium levels in patients taking spironolactone to prevent hyperkalaemia, which can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Overall, spironolactone is a useful medication for treating various conditions, but its potential adverse effects should be carefully considered and monitored.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
A 58-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner with complaints of diarrhoea without any associated bleeding. She has also experienced weight loss and has abdominal pain with malaise and fever. During the examination, she has oral ulcers, sore red eyes and tender nodules on her shins. There is tenderness in the right iliac fossa and a vague right iliac fossa mass. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Crohn's disease
Explanation:Possible Diagnoses for a Patient with Gastrointestinal Symptoms and Other Complications
Crohn’s Disease, Appendicular Abscess, Ileocaecal Tuberculosis, Ovarian Cyst, and Ulcerative Colitis are possible diagnoses for a patient presenting with gastrointestinal symptoms and other complications. In women over 60 years of age, Crohn’s disease may even be the most likely diagnosis. This condition can cause episcleritis, uveitis, erythema nodosum, pyoderma gangrenosum, vasculitis, gallstones, kidney stones, or abnormal liver function tests. The predominantly right-sided symptoms suggest terminal ileitis, which is more common in Crohn’s disease than ulcerative colitis. Fever can occur in Crohn’s disease due to the inflammatory process, ranging from high fever during acute flare-ups to persistent low-grade fever. Appendicular abscess is a complication of acute appendicitis, causing a palpable mass in the right iliac fossa and fever. Ileocaecal tuberculosis can present with a palpable mass in the right lower quadrant and complications of obstruction, perforation, or malabsorption, especially in the presence of stricture. A large ovarian cyst may be palpable on abdominal examination, but it is unlikely to cause oral ulcers, sore eyes, or erythema nodosum. Ulcerative colitis, which has similar clinical features to Crohn’s disease, is usually diagnosed from the biopsy result following a sigmoidoscopy or colonoscopy. However, rectal bleeding is more common in ulcerative colitis, while fever is more common in Crohn’s disease. A right lower quadrant mass may be seen in Crohn’s disease but not in ulcerative colitis unless complicated by bowel cancer.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
You see a 44-year-old lady whose brother and nephew both died of pancreatic cancer. The lady was diagnosed with diabetes from a range of tests. In addition, she noticed that her skin started to have a yellow tinge and she complained of itching over her body.
Which is the best management option?Your Answer: Arrange an MRI of the pancreas
Explanation:Urgent Referral for Suspected Pancreatic Cancer
With a strong family history of pancreatic cancer, it is important to have a low threshold for investigating any concerning symptoms. In addition, if a patient aged 60 or over presents with weight loss and any of the following symptoms – diarrhoea, back pain, abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, constipation, or new-onset diabetes – a CT scan should be carried out urgently.
In this case, the patient has also been diagnosed with diabetes and jaundice, which further warrants an urgent referral for suspected cancer. It is important to note that an MRI should not be arranged in primary care, and the decision can be left with the specialist. Additionally, an ultrasound is not the preferred investigation in this instance.
A routine referral would be inappropriate due to the red flags highlighted in the patient’s history. With such a strong family history, it is crucial to investigate this patient further and take appropriate action.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
An 80-year-old woman presents to your clinic with complaints of constipation. She reports a four week history of reduced stool frequency with firmer stool consistency. She currently has a bowel movement every other day, whereas prior to the last four weeks she had a bowel movement once a day. She denies any rectal bleeding or diarrhea and has no anal symptoms or incontinence. On examination, her abdomen is soft and non-tender without masses. Rectal examination is also normal. She has been taking codeine phosphate 30 mg qds for her arthritic knee, which was prescribed by a colleague one month ago. Recent blood tests show normal full blood count, ESR, thyroid function, and calcium. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?
Your Answer: Provide advice regarding the constipation and reassure
Explanation:Managing Constipation in a Patient on Analgesia
The patient’s constipation is not a mystery as it coincides with the prescription of codeine phosphate, which slows down bowel transit. There are no other concerning symptoms in the patient’s history or examination that would warrant an urgent referral to a lower gastrointestinal specialist for suspected cancer.
To manage the patient’s constipation, the healthcare provider should provide advice on diet and lifestyle, review the patient’s medication to identify any contributing factors, and counsel the patient on red flags. The patient has already undergone blood tests to investigate secondary causes of constipation, such as hypothyroidism or hypercalcaemia. The healthcare provider can also discuss the use of laxatives with the patient.
Overall, managing constipation in a patient on analgesia involves identifying contributing factors, providing lifestyle advice, and discussing treatment options with the patient.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
A 46-year-old man is a frequent visitor to surgery complaining of pruritus ani.
You have examined him previously and excluded organic causes. He has a love of Indian cuisine. In an attempt to help him cope with the problem, you offer advice.
Which of the following is true?Your Answer: Briefs are preferable to boxer shorts
Explanation:Tips for Managing Pruritus Ani
Pruritus ani, or anal itching, can be a bothersome and embarrassing condition. However, there are several ways to manage it. First, it is recommended to wear cotton underwear and looser clothing to prevent irritation. Topical capsaicin in very dilute form has shown to be beneficial, but more concentrated creams may worsen the situation. Certain foods such as tomatoes, citrus fruit, and spicy foods may also exacerbate the condition. Keeping the area dry is crucial, and using a hair dryer can be an efficient way to do so. It is important to note that medication can cause a more generalized pruritus, but products such as colchicine and evening primrose oil have been linked to pruritus ani. By following these tips, individuals can better manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
A 40-year-old police officer attends his General Practitioner to request screening for hepatitis B. He was exposed to blood from a person possibly infected with hepatitis B virus around three weeks ago. He has never been vaccinated against this and requests blood screening. He feels well and has no comorbidities.
What is the most important test to perform at this stage?
Your Answer: Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg)
Explanation:Hepatitis B Markers: Understanding the Different Types
Hepatitis B is a viral infection that affects the liver. It is important to detect and monitor the different markers associated with the disease to determine the stage of infection and the appropriate treatment. Here are the different types of hepatitis B markers and their significance:
1. Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) – This is the first marker to appear in the serum after infection. It indicates the presence of the viral envelope and can be detected between one to nine weeks after infection. Its persistence indicates chronic hepatitis B.
2. Anti-hepatitis B envelope antigen (anti-HBeAg) – This antibody appears after the clearance of the e antigen, signifying the resolution of the acute phase.
3. Hepatitis B envelope antigen (HBeAg) – This marker develops during the early phases of the acute infection and can persist in chronic infections. It is associated with high levels of viral replication and infectivity.
4. Immunoglobulin G (IgG) anti-hepatitis B core antigen (anti-HBc) – This antibody stays positive for life following infection with hepatitis B, even once cleared.
5. Immunoglobulin M (IgM) anti-hepatitis B core antigen (anti-HBc) – This antibody confirms the diagnosis of acute infection but is detectable later than HBsAg.
Understanding these markers is crucial in the diagnosis and management of hepatitis B. Regular monitoring of these markers can help determine the progression of the disease and the effectiveness of treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 11
Correct
-
A 47-year-old man has been diagnosed with a duodenal ulcer and CLO testing during gastroscopy confirms the presence of Helicobacter pylori. What is the best course of action for eradicating Helicobacter pylori?
Your Answer: Lansoprazole + amoxicillin + clarithromycin
Explanation:Helicobacter pylori: A Bacteria Associated with Gastrointestinal Problems
Helicobacter pylori is a type of Gram-negative bacteria that is commonly associated with various gastrointestinal problems, particularly peptic ulcer disease. This bacterium has two primary mechanisms that allow it to survive in the acidic environment of the stomach. Firstly, it uses its flagella to move away from low pH areas and burrow into the mucous lining to reach the epithelial cells underneath. Secondly, it secretes urease, which converts urea to NH3, leading to an alkalinization of the acidic environment and increased bacterial survival.
The pathogenesis mechanism of Helicobacter pylori involves the release of bacterial cytotoxins, such as the CagA toxin, which can disrupt the gastric mucosa. This bacterium is associated with several gastrointestinal problems, including peptic ulcer disease, gastric cancer, B cell lymphoma of MALT tissue, and atrophic gastritis. However, its role in gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) is unclear, and there is currently no role for the eradication of Helicobacter pylori in GORD.
The management of Helicobacter pylori infection involves a 7-day course of treatment with a proton pump inhibitor, amoxicillin, and either clarithromycin or metronidazole. For patients who are allergic to penicillin, a proton pump inhibitor, metronidazole, and clarithromycin are used instead.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 12
Correct
-
A 62-year-old man presents with a three month history of epigastric pain after eating and intermittent heartburn between meals. He reports weight loss but denies any nausea or vomiting. There is no change in bowel habit and no history of passing blood or melaena stools. He has no significant past medical history, drinks up to 10 units of alcohol a week, and quit smoking five years ago. What is the optimal course of action for managing his symptoms?
Your Answer: Treat with an oral proton pump inhibitor (for example, omeprazole 20 mg daily) and review in two weeks
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for Suspected Oesophageal Cancer
According to NICE guidelines, urgent direct access upper gastrointestinal endoscopy should be offered to assess for oesophageal cancer in individuals with dysphagia or those aged 55 and over with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia. A routine ultrasound scan is unlikely to be helpful, and even if Helicobacter pylori is positive, referral should not be delayed. It is advised to be free from acid suppression therapy for at least two weeks before endoscopy in case treatment masks underlying pathology. Therefore, proton pump inhibitors should not be prescribed when referring urgently for endoscopy. These guidelines aim to improve the recognition and referral of suspected oesophageal cancer for prompt diagnosis and treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 13
Correct
-
Which of the following is not a known complication of coeliac disease in children?
Your Answer: Hypersplenism
Explanation:Coeliac disease is associated with hypo-, rather than hypersplenism.
Understanding Coeliac Disease
Coeliac disease is an autoimmune disorder that affects approximately 1% of the UK population. It is caused by sensitivity to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. Repeated exposure to gluten leads to villous atrophy, which causes malabsorption. Coeliac disease is associated with various conditions, including dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and autoimmune hepatitis. It is strongly linked to HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8.
To diagnose coeliac disease, NICE recommends screening patients who exhibit signs and symptoms such as chronic or intermittent diarrhea, failure to thrive or faltering growth in children, persistent or unexplained gastrointestinal symptoms, prolonged fatigue, recurrent abdominal pain, sudden or unexpected weight loss, unexplained anemia, autoimmune thyroid disease, dermatitis herpetiformis, irritable bowel syndrome, type 1 diabetes, and first-degree relatives with coeliac disease.
Complications of coeliac disease include anemia, hyposplenism, osteoporosis, osteomalacia, lactose intolerance, enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma of the small intestine, subfertility, and unfavorable pregnancy outcomes. In rare cases, it can lead to esophageal cancer and other malignancies.
The diagnosis of coeliac disease is confirmed through a duodenal biopsy, which shows complete atrophy of the villi with flat mucosa and marked crypt hyperplasia, intraepithelial lymphocytosis, and dense mixed inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria. Treatment involves a lifelong gluten-free diet.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 14
Correct
-
A 54-year-old woman is admitted to your intermediate care unit with a significant medical history of chronic alcoholism. She sustained a brain injury six weeks ago after falling down the stairs at home and is currently bedridden. She was transferred for further rehabilitation and is being fed through a percutaneous gastrostomy, which was inserted three days ago after an initial period of nasogastric tube feeding. The nursing staff reports that she has become increasingly unwell over the past 24 hours, with lethargy and confusion. Upon examination, she appears to be short of breath, and there is evidence of peripheral and pulmonary edema. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Aspiration pneumonia
Explanation:Refeeding Syndrome in Malnourished Patients
Refeeding malnourished patients through enteral feeding requires careful monitoring of electrolytes and minerals. This is because refeeding can trigger a significant anabolic response that affects the levels of electrolytes and minerals essential to cellular function. Unfortunately, refeeding syndrome is often under-recognized and under-diagnosed. The metabolic changes that occur during refeeding can lead to marked hypophosphatemia and shifts in potassium, magnesium, glucose, and thiamine levels.
Refeeding syndrome is primarily caused by hypophosphatemia and can result in severe cardiorespiratory failure, edema, confusion, convulsions, coma, and even death. Therefore, it is crucial to closely monitor patients undergoing refeeding to prevent and manage refeeding syndrome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 15
Correct
-
A 57-year-old male presents with generalised fatigue and upper abdominal discomfort with some weight loss over the last six months.
He has otherwise been well but admits to consuming 10 units of alcohol per day.
On examination you note 2 cm hepatomegaly.
Liver function tests show an:
ALT 100 IU/L (5-35)
AST 210 IU/L (1-31)
Alkaline Phosphatase 250 IU/L (45-105)
MCV 110 fL (80-96)
Which of the following is the most likely cause of his presentation?Your Answer: Viral hepatitis
Explanation:Understanding Alcoholic Hepatitis
Alcoholic hepatitis is a condition that occurs due to prolonged and heavy consumption of alcohol, leading to progressive liver inflammation. The symptoms of this condition include a subacute onset of fever, hepatomegaly, leukocytosis, and marked impairment of liver function. The liver exhibits characteristic centrilobular ballooning necrosis of hepatocytes, neutrophilic infiltration, large mitochondria, and Mallory hyaline inclusions. In addition, steatosis (fatty liver) and cirrhosis are common in patients with alcoholic hepatitis.Proper management and cessation of alcohol consumption can help improve the prognosis of patients with alcoholic hepatitis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 16
Correct
-
A 50-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis (UC) is found to have sigmoid adenocarcinoma on surveillance colonoscopy. He was diagnosed with UC at the age of 14, with the disease mostly confined to the sigmoid colon and rectum. Although his symptoms have generally been well controlled on mesalazine, he has had relapses associated with poor compliance every 1–2 years.
Which single factor is this patient’s history most associated with the risk of developing colonic cancer?
Your Answer: Onset of disease in childhood
Explanation:Understanding the Risk Factors for Colonic Adenocarcinoma in Ulcerative Colitis Patients
Colonic adenocarcinoma is a serious complication that can develop in 3-5% of patients with ulcerative colitis (UC). The cancer tends to be multicentric and atypical in appearance, and it can rapidly metastasize. To prevent this, it is important to understand the risk factors associated with the onset of the disease in childhood.
One of the main risk factors for colon cancer in colitis is the early age of onset, which is before the age of 15 years. Other risk factors include extensive disease (pancolitis), duration (more than ten years), and unremitting disease. Colonoscopic surveillance is recommended for all patients, starting about ten years after the onset of symptoms.
It is important to note that annual relapses are not a risk factor for colonic carcinoma since there is remittance in between episodes. Chronic active inflammation and unremitting disease are the main risk factors.
Left-sided colitis is also a risk factor, but extensive disease and pancolitis carry a higher risk of developing colon cancer. Poor compliance with therapy is not a risk factor in itself, but unremitting disease is a risk factor for colon cancer in UC.
Finally, patients with proctitis alone do not need colonoscopy surveillance, as they are not at increased risk of developing colon cancer compared to the general population. Understanding these risk factors can help prevent the onset of colonic adenocarcinoma in UC patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 17
Correct
-
A concerned man visits your clinic as he participated in the routine bowel cancer screening program and received a positive faecal occult blood test (FOBt) result. He inquires if this indicates that he has bowel cancer. What is the estimated percentage of patients with a positive FOBt result who are subsequently diagnosed with bowel cancer during colonoscopy?
Your Answer: 10%
Explanation:Colorectal Cancer Screening with FIT Test
Overview:
Colorectal cancer is often developed from adenomatous polyps. Screening for this cancer has been proven to reduce mortality by 16%. The NHS provides home-based screening for older adults through the Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT). Although a one-off flexible sigmoidoscopy was trialled in England, it was abandoned in 2021 due to the inability to recruit enough clinical endoscopists, which was further exacerbated by the COVID-19 pandemic. However, the trial showed promising early results, and it remains to be seen whether flexible sigmoidoscopy will be used in future bowel screening programmes.Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) Screening:
The NHS offers a national screening programme every two years to all men and women aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland. Patients aged over 74 years may request screening. Eligible patients are sent FIT tests through the post. FIT is a type of faecal occult blood (FOB) test that uses antibodies that specifically recognise human haemoglobin (Hb). It is used to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. FIT has advantages over conventional FOB tests as it only detects human haemoglobin, not animal haemoglobin ingested through diet. Only one faecal sample is needed compared to the 2-3 for conventional FOB tests. Although a numerical value is generated, this is not reported to the patient or GP. Instead, they will be informed if the test is normal or abnormal. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy.Colonoscopy:
Approximately 5 out of 10 patients will have a normal exam, 4 out of 10 patients will be found to have polyps that may be removed due to their premalignant potential, and 1 out of 10 patients will be found to have cancer. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 18
Correct
-
The treatment room nurse requests your assistance in evaluating a 67-year-old male patient who has been experiencing a non-healing skin ulcer in his natal cleft. Despite various attempts, there has been no improvement in the condition. The patient has a medical history of angina, benign prostatic hypertrophy, and asthma. Which medication among his current prescriptions is the most probable cause of this non-healing ulcer?
Your Answer: Nicorandil
Explanation:Nicorandil can lead to anal ulceration. This is because ulceration is a known side effect of nicorandil, which can cause ulcers in the skin, mucosa, and eyes. It can also cause gastrointestinal ulcers that may result in complications such as perforation, haemorrhage, fistula, or abscess. If ulceration occurs, nicorandil treatment should be discontinued, and alternative medication should be considered.
Nicorandil is a medication that is commonly used to treat angina. It works by activating potassium channels, which leads to vasodilation. This process is achieved through the activation of guanylyl cyclase, which results in an increase in cGMP. However, there are some adverse effects associated with the use of nicorandil, including headaches, flushing, and the development of ulcers on the skin, mucous membranes, and eyes. Additionally, gastrointestinal ulcers, including anal ulceration, may also occur. It is important to note that nicorandil should not be used in patients with left ventricular failure.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 19
Correct
-
A 48-year-old intravenous drug user presents to the clinic with abnormal liver function tests (LFTs) detected during routine screening. He is asymptomatic and shows no signs of liver disease upon examination. Further blood tests reveal a positive hepatitis B envelope-antigen (HBeAg) result.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Current active hepatitis B infection
Explanation:Understanding Hepatitis B and Related Tests
Hepatitis B is a viral infection that affects the liver. There are different stages of the disease, and various tests can help diagnose and monitor it.
Active Hepatitis B Infection:
The presence of HBeAg in the blood indicates ongoing viral replication and is associated with large quantities of HBV DNA. Patients who have not developed anti-HBeAb are highly infectious and at greater risk of progressing to chronic liver disease.Chronic Hepatitis B in an Inactive State:
Patients in the inactive carrier state have cleared HBeAg and have low levels of HBV DNA. However, they will still test positive for surface antigen.Cirrhosis of the Liver:
Hepatitis B patients are at risk of developing cirrhosis, which is diagnosed clinically, on ultrasound, and with liver biopsy.Hepatitis E:
Hepatitis E is a different viral infection spread via the faecal-oral route and is tested for with hepatitis E antibodies.Previous Hepatitis B Vaccination:
Patients who have been vaccinated against hepatitis B will show antibodies to the surface antibody (anti-HBsAb) only. This doesn’t account for deranged LFTs.Understanding Hepatitis B and Related Tests
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 20
Correct
-
A 42-year-old male presents with jaundice and pruritus. He has a history of ulcerative colitis and is currently taking sulfasalazine. He reports feeling increasingly tired and has noticed a yellow tint to his eyes. On examination, he has scratch marks on his skin, hepatomegaly, and his blood pressure is 136/88 mmHg with a pulse rate of 74. Blood tests reveal elevated levels of bilirubin, ALT, and ALP. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Gallstones
Explanation:Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis in Patients with Ulcerative Colitis
Patients with elevated ALP levels may be incidentally picked up and require further investigation. However, those who are symptomatic may present with jaundice, pruritus, fatigue, and abdominal pain. Clinically, patients may also have hepatomegaly and be jaundiced.
In the case of a patient with ulcerative colitis, the likelihood of primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is significantly increased. Approximately 3% of UC sufferers have PSC, and 80% of those with PSC have UC. While gallstones in the common bile duct and liver cysts of hydatid disease can present with similar symptoms, the history of UC makes PSC a more likely diagnosis. Haemolytic anaemia and osteomalacia can cause elevated ALP levels, but they would not account for the cholestatic liver function and hepatomegaly seen in PSC.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A 48-year-old woman complains of fatigue and itching. She denies any alcohol abuse and is not on any medications. She has xanthelasmas and her alkaline phosphatase level is elevated.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Carcinoma of the head of the pancreas
Correct Answer: Primary biliary cholangitis (PBC)
Explanation:Possible Diagnoses for a Patient with Pruritus and Xanthelasmas
The patient’s symptoms of pruritus and xanthelasmas suggest a possible diagnosis of primary biliary cholangitis (PBC), a chronic liver disease that primarily affects women between the ages of 30 and 65. Fatigue is often the first symptom, and pruritus is also common. Elevated alkaline phosphatase levels and increased lipid and cholesterol levels are typical of PBC. Xanthelasmas may be present in late-stage disease.
Familial hypercholesterolaemia may also cause xanthelasmas, but pruritus and elevated alkaline phosphatase levels would not be expected. Asteatotic eczema may cause pruritus, but it is more common in elderly patients and would not explain the elevated alkaline phosphatase levels. Carcinoma of the head of the pancreas may cause painless jaundice and pruritus, but it would not explain the xanthelasmas. Paget’s disease of bone may cause elevated alkaline phosphatase levels, but it would not explain the xanthelasmas or pruritus.
Overall, the combination of symptoms suggests PBC as the most likely diagnosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 22
Correct
-
A 28-year-old woman with chronic left iliac fossa pain and alternating bowel habit is diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome. She has been treated with a combination of antispasmodics, laxatives and anti-motility agents for 6 months but there has been no significant improvement in her symptoms. What is the most appropriate next step according to recent NICE guidelines?
Your Answer: Low-dose tricyclic antidepressant
Explanation:NICE suggests that psychological interventions should be taken into account after a period of 12 months. Tricyclic antidepressants are recommended over selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.
Managing irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) can be challenging and varies from patient to patient. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines in 2015 to provide recommendations for the management of IBS. The first-line pharmacological treatment depends on the predominant symptom, with antispasmodic agents recommended for pain, laxatives (excluding lactulose) for constipation, and loperamide for diarrhea. If conventional laxatives are not effective for constipation, linaclotide may be considered. Low-dose tricyclic antidepressants are the second-line pharmacological treatment of choice. For patients who do not respond to pharmacological treatments, psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioral therapy, hypnotherapy, or psychological therapy may be considered. Complementary and alternative medicines such as acupuncture or reflexology are not recommended. General dietary advice includes having regular meals, drinking at least 8 cups of fluid per day, limiting tea and coffee to 3 cups per day, reducing alcohol and fizzy drink intake, limiting high-fiber and resistant starch foods, and increasing intake of oats and linseeds for wind and bloating.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 23
Correct
-
A 65-year-old White woman presents to her General Practitioner with right upper quadrant pain, a liver mass, weight loss and anaemia. She describes no symptoms prior to this episode and is not on any regular medications.
She drinks around ten units of alcohol per week and was previously an intravenous (IV) drug user, although she has not done this for many years. She has no significant family history.
She is diagnosed with hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC).
What is the most likely predisposing factor for this diagnosis in this patient?Your Answer: Hepatitis C
Explanation:Understanding the Possible Causes of Hepatocellular Carcinoma (HCC)
Hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) is a type of liver cancer that can be caused by various factors. In this case, the patient’s history of intravenous (IV) drug use puts her at risk of hepatitis B and C, which are the most common causes of HCC in Europe. Chronic hepatitis B or C infection can increase the risk of developing HCC by 3-5% per year, and having both infections can further increase the risk.
Alcohol abuse is also a risk factor for HCC, but in this patient’s case, her drinking is not excessive. Hereditary hemochromatosis, a condition that causes the body to absorb too much iron, can also increase the risk of HCC, but it is less common than chronic hepatitis. However, this patient’s lack of previous symptoms and family history make it unlikely that hemochromatosis is the underlying cause of her HCC.
Another possible predisposing factor for HCC is primary biliary cholangitis (PBC), an autoimmune disease that affects the liver’s bile ducts. PBC is more common in women and may present with fatigue and pruritus, but this patient’s symptoms do not fit this clinical picture.
In summary, understanding the possible causes of HCC can help in identifying the underlying factors and developing appropriate treatment plans. In this patient’s case, chronic hepatitis B or C infection is the most likely cause of her HCC.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 24
Correct
-
A 65-year-old patient who has been experiencing fatigue has a positive IgA tissue transglutaminase (tTG) result. What is the initial management plan for this patient in regards to the test result?
Your Answer: Refer to gastroenterology
Explanation:As part of a coeliac screen, IgA tissue transglutaminase (tTG) is one of the blood tests conducted along with total IgA and possibly anti-endomysial antibodies. According to the 2015 NICE guidance on Coeliac Disease, patients who test positive for this should be referred to gastroenterology for an intestinal endoscopy and biopsy to confirm the condition. Only after confirmation should the patient start a gluten-free diet under the guidance of a dietician.
Managing Coeliac Disease with a Gluten-Free Diet
Coeliac disease is a condition that requires the management of a gluten-free diet. Gluten-containing cereals such as wheat, barley, rye, and oats must be avoided. However, some patients with coeliac disease can tolerate oats. Gluten-free foods include rice, potatoes, and corn. Compliance with a gluten-free diet can be checked by testing for tissue transglutaminase antibodies.
Patients with coeliac disease often have functional hyposplenism, which is why they are offered the pneumococcal vaccine. Coeliac UK recommends that patients with coeliac disease receive the pneumococcal vaccine and have a booster every five years. influenza vaccine is given on an individual basis according to current guidelines.
Overall, managing coeliac disease requires strict adherence to a gluten-free diet and regular immunisation to prevent infections.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 25
Correct
-
You encounter a 35-year-old male patient with ulcerative colitis. His previous colonoscopies have revealed widespread disease affecting his entire colon. He reports passing approximately 5 bloody stools per day for the past 3 days.
Upon examination, his heart rate is 82 beats per minute, blood pressure is 129/62 mmHg, and temperature is 36.9ºC. His abdomen is soft and non-tender.
What would be the most suitable course of action for this patient?Your Answer: Rectal mesalazine and oral sulfasalazine
Explanation:When a patient experiences a mild-moderate flare of ulcerative colitis that extends beyond the left-sided colon, it is recommended to add oral aminosalicylates to rectal aminosalicylates. This is because enemas can only reach a certain point and the addition of an oral medication ensures proper treatment. In this case, the patient’s colonoscopy showed extensive disease, making the use of an oral aminosalicylate necessary. Therefore, this is the correct option and using rectal mesalazine alone is not sufficient.
Using oral steroids like prednisolone and dexamethasone as a first-line treatment is not recommended.
Metronidazole is used to treat bacterial infections, but there is no indication of such an infection in this case.
Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools per day, the amount of blood, and the presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Severe cases should be treated in a hospital setting with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin.
To maintain remission, patients with proctitis and proctosigmoiditis may use topical aminosalicylate alone or in combination with an oral aminosalicylate. Those with left-sided and extensive ulcerative colitis may require a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. Patients who have experienced severe relapses or multiple exacerbations may benefit from oral azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended for UC management, but probiotics may help prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.
In summary, the management of ulcerative colitis involves a combination of inducing and maintaining remission. Treatment options vary depending on the severity and location of the condition, with mild-to-moderate cases typically treated with topical aminosalicylate and severe cases requiring hospitalization and intravenous medication. Maintaining remission may involve using a combination of oral and topical medications or a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. While methotrexate is not recommended, probiotics may be helpful in preventing relapse in mild to moderate cases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 26
Correct
-
A 70-year-old woman has observed abdominal swelling for a few months, along with some abdominal tenderness. She has normochromic, normocytic anaemia, a decreased serum albumin level, and an elevated creatinine level of 180 μmol/l (normal 60–110 μmol/l). Her cancer antigen-125 level is elevated.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Ovarian carcinoma
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Abdominal Distension and Elevated Creatinine Level
Abdominal distension and elevated creatinine level can be indicative of various medical conditions. In the following vignette, ovarian carcinoma is the most likely diagnosis due to the presence of ascites, abnormal urea and electrolytes, elevated cancer antigen-125, normochromic, normocytic anaemia, and low albumin level. However, other conditions such as cirrhosis of the liver, diverticulitis, subacute intestinal obstruction, and uterine fibroids should also be considered and ruled out through further diagnostic testing and evaluation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 27
Correct
-
A 46-year-old gentleman presents with lower gastrointestinal symptoms. He has a history of irritable bowel syndrome and has suffered with infrequent bouts of abdominal bloating and loose stools on and off for years. These are usually managed with mebeverine and loperamide. The diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome was a clinical one and the only investigation he has had in the past were blood tests.
Over the last four weeks he has noticed that this has changed and that his bowels have been persistently loose and significantly more frequent than usual. He has no family history of bowel problems.
On examination he is systemically well with no fever. His abdomen is soft and non-tender with no palpable masses. Rectal examination reveals nothing focal. His weight is stable.
Which of the following investigations should you offer your patient?Your Answer: Faecal occult blood
Explanation:Investigating Acute Bowel Symptoms in a Patient with Irritable Bowel Syndrome
When a patient with a history of irritable bowel syndrome presents with acute bowel symptoms, it is important to investigate the underlying cause. However, certain investigations may not be appropriate in this context. For example, an abdominal ultrasound scan is not helpful in investigating bowel symptoms. Similarly, CEA tumour marker testing is a specialist investigation and not suitable for primary care. Ca125 is a marker for ovarian cancer and not relevant in this scenario.
According to NICE guidelines, testing for occult blood in faeces should be offered to assess for colorectal cancer in adults aged 50 and over with unexplained abdominal pain or weight loss, or in those under 60 with changes in their bowel habit or iron-deficiency anaemia. Stool mc+s may be requested, but it would not be helpful in risk stratifying the patient for urgent referral for colorectal cancer if an infective aetiology is not suspected. Therefore, it is important to choose appropriate investigations based on the patient’s symptoms and medical history.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 28
Correct
-
You are evaluating a 45-year-old woman with a 20-year history of Crohn's disease. She has been experiencing frequent flares and is currently troubled by loose, bloody stools, abdominal pain, and weight loss. Perianal symptoms are particularly bothersome, with severe pain during bowel movements due to nasty anal fissures. Additionally, she has multiple aphthous ulcers in her mouth, making eating and drinking painful. She is a smoker and has a past medical history of osteoporosis and psoriasis.
What is a correct statement regarding Crohn's disease in this patient?Your Answer: Patients with perianal disease have a worse prognosis
Explanation:Psoriasis is an extraintestinal manifestation that is not associated with the activity of the disease.
Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published guidelines for managing this condition. Patients are advised to quit smoking, as it can worsen Crohn’s disease. While some studies suggest that NSAIDs and the combined oral contraceptive pill may increase the risk of relapse, the evidence is not conclusive.
To induce remission, glucocorticoids are typically used, but budesonide may be an alternative for some patients. Enteral feeding with an elemental diet may also be used, especially in young children or when there are concerns about steroid side effects. Second-line options include 5-ASA drugs, such as mesalazine, and add-on medications like azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Infliximab is useful for refractory disease and fistulating Crohn’s, and metronidazole is often used for isolated peri-anal disease.
Maintaining remission involves stopping smoking and using azathioprine or mercaptopurine as first-line options. Methotrexate is a second-line option. Surgery is eventually required for around 80% of patients with Crohn’s disease, depending on the location and severity of the disease. Complications of Crohn’s disease include small bowel cancer, colorectal cancer, and osteoporosis. Before offering azathioprine or mercaptopurine, it is important to assess thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) activity.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 29
Correct
-
A 68-year-old man presents with a history of epigastric pain typical of dyspepsia which had been present for three months, together with weight loss of 2 stone over the same period.
He had been treated with a proton pump inhibitor but had not benefited from this therapy. More recently he had noticed a difficulty when trying to eat solids and frequently vomited after meals.
On examination he had a palpable mass in the epigastrium and his full blood count revealed a haemoglobin of 85 g/L (130-180).
What is the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Carcinoma of stomach
Explanation:Alarm Symptoms of Foregut Malignancy
The presence of alarm symptoms in patients over 55 years old, such as weight loss, bleeding, dysphagia, vomiting, blood loss, and a mass, are indicative of a malignancy of the foregut. It is crucial to refer these patients for urgent endoscopy, especially if dysphagia is a new onset symptom.
However, it is unfortunate that patients with alarm symptoms are often treated with PPIs instead of being referred for further evaluation. Although PPIs may provide temporary relief, they only delay the diagnosis of the underlying tumor. Therefore, it is important to recognize the significance of alarm symptoms and promptly refer patients for appropriate diagnostic testing.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
-
Question 30
Correct
-
A 28-year-old nurse had a needlestick injury six months ago. She did not present immediately to Occupational Health but eventually came because she began to feel tired and lethargic. She has a raised alanine aminotransferase (ALT) level, anti-hepatitis B surface antibodies and anti-hepatitis C virus (HCV) antibodies. Low levels of HCV ribonucleic acid (RNA) are detected. A liver biopsy reveals early inflammatory changes.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Chronic hepatitis C infection
Explanation:Explanation of Hepatitis C Infection and Differential Diagnosis
Hepatitis C virus (HCV) ribonucleic acid (RNA) is detected in a patient, indicating active hepatitis C infection. The presence of anti-HCV antibodies and an 8-month history since exposure confirms that the infection is now chronic. Liver biopsy may show varying degrees of inflammation, fibrosis, and cirrhosis, with this patient exhibiting early inflammatory changes.
Autoimmune hepatitis, which is associated with antinuclear antibodies (ANA) and/or anti-smooth muscle antibodies (SMA), is not consistent with the presence of anti-HCV antibodies and HCV RNA. Chronic hepatitis B infection is also ruled out, as the patient’s anti-hepatitis B antibodies are likely due to vaccination. Functional symptoms may cause tiredness and lethargy, but the patient’s deranged liver function tests and positive hepatitis C antibodies indicate an underlying diagnosis of hepatitis C.
Understanding Hepatitis C Infection and Differential Diagnosis
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)