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  • Question 1 - A 58-year-old man presents with a six week history of persistent loose stools....

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man presents with a six week history of persistent loose stools. Prior to this he opened his bowels once a day most days and his stools were easily passed and 'soft'. Over the last six weeks he complains of loose 'watery' stools and is opening his bowels four to five times a day. This pattern has been occurring every day for the last six weeks.

      He denies any weight loss, abdominal pain, rectal bleeding or passage of rectal mucous. There is no family history of note. He feels well with no fever or systemic symptoms.

      Abdominal and rectal examinations are normal.

      You refer the patient urgently to a lower GI specialist.

      What additional investigation should be arranged at this stage?

      Your Answer: Arrange faecal occult blood testing

      Correct Answer: Request tumour markers including CEA

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral for Patient with Change in Bowel Habit

      This patient requires urgent referral as he is over 60 years old and has experienced a change in bowel habit. According to NICE guidelines, the only test that may be helpful in this case is a full blood count, which can be performed alongside the referral. This will ensure that the result is available for the specialist in clinic.

      NICE guidelines recommend testing for occult blood in faeces to assess for colorectal cancer in adults without rectal bleeding who are aged 50 and over with unexplained abdominal pain or weight loss, or are aged 60 and over and have anaemia even in the absence of iron deficiency. However, in this case, there has been no history of weight loss or abdominal pain, and the patient is not known to be anaemic. Therefore, other tests or investigations are not recommended as they will only serve to delay the process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 2 - You observe a 35-year-old librarian who has been living with Crohn's disease for...

    Incorrect

    • You observe a 35-year-old librarian who has been living with Crohn's disease for 18 years. She has been in remission for the past six years, but has been experiencing abdominal pain and passing bloody stools for the past week. She is seeking treatment.

      She is generally healthy and takes the combined contraceptive pill and ibuprofen as needed for back pain. She smokes five cigarettes daily but doesn't consume alcohol.

      What is the accurate statement regarding her condition?

      Your Answer: Ibuprofen use is not a risk factor for Crohn's disease

      Correct Answer: Smoking increases the risk of Crohn's disease relapse

      Explanation:

      Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published guidelines for managing this condition. Patients are advised to quit smoking, as it can worsen Crohn’s disease. While some studies suggest that NSAIDs and the combined oral contraceptive pill may increase the risk of relapse, the evidence is not conclusive.

      To induce remission, glucocorticoids are typically used, but budesonide may be an alternative for some patients. Enteral feeding with an elemental diet may also be used, especially in young children or when there are concerns about steroid side effects. Second-line options include 5-ASA drugs, such as mesalazine, and add-on medications like azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Infliximab is useful for refractory disease and fistulating Crohn’s, and metronidazole is often used for isolated peri-anal disease.

      Maintaining remission involves stopping smoking and using azathioprine or mercaptopurine as first-line options. Methotrexate is a second-line option. Surgery is eventually required for around 80% of patients with Crohn’s disease, depending on the location and severity of the disease. Complications of Crohn’s disease include small bowel cancer, colorectal cancer, and osteoporosis. Before offering azathioprine or mercaptopurine, it is important to assess thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) activity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 3 - A 67-year-old woman presents with a change in bowel habit. She has noticed...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old woman presents with a change in bowel habit. She has noticed that over the past four to six weeks she has been opening her bowels two to three times a day with very loose stools. On a few occasions there have been small amounts of fresh blood in the stools. She has attributed this fresh blood to haemorrhoids which she has had in the past. Prior to this recent four to six week period she had typically opened her bowels once a day with well-formed stools.

      There is no reported family history of bowel problems. A stool sample was sent to the laboratory two to three weeks after the looser stools started and stool microscopy was normal, as are her recent blood tests which show she is not anaemic. Clinical examination is unremarkable with normal abdominal and rectal examinations. Her weight is stable.

      She tells you that she is not overly concerned about the symptoms as about a month ago she submitted her bowel screening samples and recently had a letter saying that her screening tests were negative.

      What is the most appropriate next approach in this instance?

      Your Answer: Reassure the patient that in view of the negative bowel screening she doesn't require any further investigation but should continue to participate in screening every two years

      Explanation:

      Importance of Urgent Referral for Patients with Bowel Symptoms

      Screening tests are designed for asymptomatic individuals in at-risk populations. However, it is not uncommon for patients with bowel symptoms to falsely reassure themselves with negative screening results. In the case of a 68-year-old woman with persistent changes in bowel habit and rectal bleeding, urgent referral for further investigation is necessary.

      It is important to note that relying on recent negative screening results can be inadequate and should not delay necessary medical attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 4 - A 70-year-old man visits you a few days after seeing his neurologist. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man visits you a few days after seeing his neurologist. He has a history of idiopathic Parkinson's disease that was diagnosed a few years ago. Apart from that, he has no other medical history. Lately, his symptoms have been getting worse, so his neurologist increased his levodopa dosage.

      He complains of feeling very nauseous and vomiting multiple times a day since starting the higher dose of levodopa. He requests that you prescribe something to help alleviate the vomiting.

      What is the most suitable anti-emetic to prescribe?

      Your Answer: Metoclopramide

      Correct Answer: Domperidone

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Mechanism of Action of Parkinson’s Drugs

      Parkinson’s disease is a complex condition that requires specialized management. The first-line treatment for motor symptoms that affect a patient’s quality of life is levodopa, while dopamine agonists, levodopa, or monoamine oxidase B (MAO-B) inhibitors are recommended for those whose motor symptoms do not affect their quality of life. However, all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause a wide variety of side effects, and it is important to be aware of these when making treatment decisions.

      Levodopa is nearly always combined with a decarboxylase inhibitor to prevent the peripheral metabolism of levodopa to dopamine outside of the brain and reduce side effects. Dopamine receptor agonists, such as bromocriptine, ropinirole, cabergoline, and apomorphine, are more likely than levodopa to cause hallucinations in older patients. MAO-B inhibitors, such as selegiline, inhibit the breakdown of dopamine secreted by the dopaminergic neurons. Amantadine’s mechanism is not fully understood, but it probably increases dopamine release and inhibits its uptake at dopaminergic synapses. COMT inhibitors, such as entacapone and tolcapone, are used in conjunction with levodopa in patients with established PD. Antimuscarinics, such as procyclidine, benzotropine, and trihexyphenidyl (benzhexol), block cholinergic receptors and are now used more to treat drug-induced parkinsonism rather than idiopathic Parkinson’s disease.

      It is important to note that all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause adverse effects, and clinicians must be aware of these when making treatment decisions. Patients should also be warned about the potential for dopamine receptor agonists to cause impulse control disorders and excessive daytime somnolence. Understanding the mechanism of action of Parkinson’s drugs is crucial in managing the condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner complaining of diarrhoea, bloating and flatulence...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner complaining of diarrhoea, bloating and flatulence that have been ongoing for 3 years. She has also noticed a significant weight loss, dropping from 65 kg to 57kg in the past few months. She reports that her symptoms worsen after consuming gluten-containing foods. Upon examination, her BMI is 18.5 kg/m2. An oesopho-gastro-duodenoscopy is performed, and she is diagnosed with coeliac disease through jejunal biopsy. What is the most appropriate procedure to perform at the time of this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Barium enema

      Correct Answer: Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Coeliac Disease Patients: Which Ones are Indicated?

      Coeliac disease is a condition that can increase the risk of osteoporosis due to the malabsorption of calcium. In patients who are at a higher risk of osteoporosis, a Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan should be conducted. This includes patients who have persistent symptoms on a gluten-free diet lasting for at least one year, poor adherence to a gluten-free diet, weight loss of more than 10%, BMI less than 20 kg/m2, or age over 70 years.

      In addition to DEXA scans, other diagnostic tests may be considered based on the patient’s symptoms and risk factors. Flexible colonoscopy is not routinely indicated for coeliac disease patients unless specific bowel symptoms or pathology are suspected. Abdominal ultrasound (US) is not indicated for coeliac disease patients unless there is suspected pathology in solid organs such as the liver, gallbladder, pancreas, or kidney. Barium enema is not frequently used and is not specifically indicated for coeliac disease patients. Chest X-ray (CXR) is not routinely indicated for coeliac disease patients, but may be considered in patients with unexplained weight loss, chronic cough, haemoptysis, or shortness of breath.

      In summary, DEXA scans are indicated for coeliac disease patients at a higher risk of osteoporosis, while other diagnostic tests should be considered based on the patient’s symptoms and risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old male blood donor presents with the following blood results:

    Bilirubin 41 µmol/L
    ALP...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male blood donor presents with the following blood results:

      Bilirubin 41 µmol/L
      ALP 84 U/L
      ALT 23 U/L
      Albumin 41 g/L

      His medical history reveals recent complaints of coryzal symptoms and a non-productive cough. Based on these findings, what is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gilbert's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Gilbert’s syndrome is typically characterized by a rise in bilirubin levels in response to physiological stress. Therefore, it is likely that a 22-year-old male with isolated hyperbilirubinemia has Gilbert’s syndrome. Dubin-Johnson and Rotor syndrome, which both result in conjugated bilirubinemia, can be ruled out based on a normal dipstick urinalysis. Viral infections are often responsible for triggering a bilirubin increase in individuals with Gilbert’s syndrome.

      Gilbert’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the way bilirubin is processed in the body. It is caused by a deficiency of UDP glucuronosyltransferase, which leads to unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia. This means that bilirubin is not properly broken down and eliminated from the body, resulting in jaundice. However, jaundice may only be visible during certain conditions such as fasting, exercise, or illness. The prevalence of Gilbert’s syndrome is around 1-2% in the general population.

      To diagnose Gilbert’s syndrome, doctors may look for a rise in bilirubin levels after prolonged fasting or the administration of IV nicotinic acid. However, treatment is not necessary for this condition. While the exact mode of inheritance is still debated, it is known to be an autosomal recessive disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 7 - A 72-year-old male came to his doctor complaining of loose stool during the...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old male came to his doctor complaining of loose stool during the night for the past 2 months. He has a medical history of uncontrolled diabetes, chronic kidney disease, retinopathy, osteoarthritis, and coeliac disease. He denied experiencing abdominal pain, bloating, weight loss, or vomiting. Upon examination, his abdomen appeared normal, and his vital signs were stable. His blood glucose level was 18.7mmol/L.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autonomic neuropathy

      Explanation:

      Autonomic neuropathy is a possible cause of night time diarrhoea in diabetics with poor control of their condition. Other potential diagnoses, such as irritable bowel syndrome, microscopic colitis, Crohn’s disease, and chronic constipation, should be considered and ruled out before making a definitive diagnosis. However, given the patient’s age and medical history, autonomic neuropathy is a likely explanation for her symptoms.

      Diabetes can cause peripheral neuropathy, which typically results in sensory loss rather than motor loss. This can lead to a glove and stocking distribution of symptoms, with the lower legs being affected first. Painful diabetic neuropathy is a common issue that can be managed with medications such as amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. If these drugs do not work, tramadol may be used as a rescue therapy for exacerbations of neuropathic pain. Topical capsaicin may also be used for localized neuropathic pain. Pain management clinics may be helpful for patients with resistant problems.

      Gastrointestinal autonomic neuropathy is another complication of diabetes that can cause symptoms such as gastroparesis, erratic blood glucose control, bloating, and vomiting. This can be managed with medications such as metoclopramide, domperidone, or erythromycin, which are prokinetic agents. Chronic diarrhea is another common issue that often occurs at night. Gastroesophageal reflux disease is also a complication of diabetes that is caused by decreased lower esophageal sphincter pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 8 - A 62-year-old man has just relocated to the area and asks about a...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man has just relocated to the area and asks about a screening test he thinks he should have. He was last invited to the hospital for this screening test 2 years ago. He has no medical conditions, takes no medications, and has no family history.

      Which screening program is he inquiring about?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Breast cancer - 3 yearly mammogram aged 50-70

      Explanation:

      Breast cancer screening is available to women aged 50-70 years, with a mammogram offered every 3 years. Women over 70 can self-refer. Bowel cancer screening, on the other hand, involves a home test kit every 2 years for individuals aged 60 to 74. It is important to note that breast cancer screening is not recommended for women aged 48-72, and the correct screening interval is every 3 years.

      Breast Cancer Screening and Familial Risk Factors

      Breast cancer screening is offered to women aged 50-70 years through the NHS Breast Screening Programme, with mammograms offered every three years. While the effectiveness of breast screening is debated, it is estimated that the programme saves around 1,400 lives annually. Women over 70 years may still have mammograms but are encouraged to make their own appointments.

      For those with familial risk factors, NICE guidelines recommend referral to a breast clinic for further assessment. Those with one first-degree or second-degree relative diagnosed with breast cancer do not need referral unless certain factors are present in the family history, such as early age of diagnosis, bilateral breast cancer, male breast cancer, ovarian cancer, Jewish ancestry, or complicated patterns of multiple cancers at a young age. Women with an increased risk of breast cancer due to family history may be offered screening from a younger age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 9 - What is the most common association with acute pancreatitis? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most common association with acute pancreatitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Azithromycin

      Explanation:

      Acute Pancreatitis: Causes and Risk Factors

      Acute pancreatitis is a condition that can be caused by various factors. Certain drugs, such as azathioprine, can increase the risk of developing acute pancreatitis. Gallstones are also a common cause, and can be identified by the presence of Cullen’s sign (periumbilical darkening) or Gray-Turner’s sign (flank darkening). Infections like mumps and Coxsackie B can also lead to acute pancreatitis. Smoking and scorpion bites are other risk factors, with smoking having a synergistic effect when combined with high alcohol intake. Despite the various causes, most single acute episodes of pancreatitis result in uncomplicated recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 10 - A 50-year-old man with type 2 diabetes presents for review. He reports feeling...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with type 2 diabetes presents for review. He reports feeling well and having recently undergone foot and optometrist checks. He enjoys drinking alcohol on the weekends, limiting himself to 4-5 standard drinks each Saturday. His HbA1c remains stable at 48 mmol/L while taking metformin. However, his liver function tests reveal the following results:

      Bilirubin: 18 µmol/L (3 - 17)
      ALP: 95 u/L (30 - 100)
      ALT: 157 u/L (3 - 40)
      γGT: 40 u/L (8 - 60)
      AST: 74 u/L (3 - 40)
      Albumin: 37 g/L (35 - 50)

      What is the most likely cause of these findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease

      Explanation:

      Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease is the most common cause of abnormal liver function tests (LFT) in patients with type 2 diabetes. This condition is prevalent in developed countries and should be assessed through a reassessment of the patient’s LFTs and an ultrasound if necessary. The patient’s weekend drinking habits are not significant enough to suggest alcoholic liver disease as the cause of the LFT derangement. Drug-induced liver injuries (DILI) are not predictable and can present with various LFT changes, including cholestatic and mixed patterns. Gallstone disease is more common in overweight fertile females and presents with a cholestatic pattern of LFT derangement. Viral hepatitis is a possible cause but not the most likely answer in this case. A liver screen may be necessary if the LFT derangement persists without explanation from an ultrasound.

      Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease: Causes, Features, and Management

      Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is a prevalent liver disease in developed countries, primarily caused by obesity. It is a spectrum of disease that ranges from simple steatosis (fat in the liver) to steatohepatitis (fat with inflammation) and may progress to fibrosis and liver cirrhosis. NAFLD is believed to be the hepatic manifestation of the metabolic syndrome, with insulin resistance as the key mechanism leading to steatosis. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is a term used to describe liver changes similar to those seen in alcoholic hepatitis but without a history of alcohol abuse.

      NAFLD is usually asymptomatic, but patients may present with hepatomegaly, increased echogenicity on ultrasound, and elevated ALT levels. The enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) blood test is recommended by NICE to check for advanced fibrosis in patients with incidental findings of NAFLD. If the ELF blood test is not available, non-invasive tests such as the FIB4 score or NAFLD fibrosis score may be used in combination with a FibroScan to assess the severity of fibrosis. Patients with advanced fibrosis should be referred to a liver specialist for further evaluation, which may include a liver biopsy to stage the disease more accurately.

      The mainstay of treatment for NAFLD is lifestyle changes, particularly weight loss, and monitoring. There is ongoing research into the role of gastric banding and insulin-sensitizing drugs such as metformin and pioglitazone in the management of NAFLD. While there is no evidence to support screening for NAFLD in adults, it is essential to identify and manage incidental findings of NAFLD to prevent disease progression and complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 11 - What is the most accurate statement regarding gastrointestinal bleeding in patients who are...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most accurate statement regarding gastrointestinal bleeding in patients who are using non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is due to depletion of mucosal prostaglandin E (PGE) levels

      Explanation:

      NSAIDs and Gastrointestinal Bleeds: Risk Factors and Mechanisms

      Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are commonly used for pain relief and inflammation management. However, their use is associated with an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeds, particularly in patients with pre-existing gastric or duodenal ulcers. Even those without a history of ulcers are at risk, with the relative risk varying among different NSAID preparations. NSAIDs directly damage the gastric mucosal barrier by depleting mucosal PGE levels, which decreases the gastroduodenal defence mechanisms and cytoprotective effect of PGE, resulting in mucosal injury, erosions and ulceration.

      Several factors increase the risk of ulceration in the setting of NSAID use, including previous peptic ulcer disease, advanced age, female sex, high doses or combinations of NSAIDs, long-term NSAID use, concomitant use of anticoagulants, and severe comorbid illnesses. Even low-dose aspirin, with increasing use, is a major cause of upper gastrointestinal problems, particularly bleeding. It is important to note that NSAIDs may have adverse effects in all parts of the gastrointestinal tract, not only the stomach or duodenum; the oesophagus, small intestine and colon may also be affected. Endoscopic evidence of peptic ulceration is found in 20% of NSAID users even in the absence of symptoms.

      In conclusion, while NSAIDs are effective in managing pain and inflammation, their use is associated with an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeds. Patients with pre-existing gastric or duodenal ulcers are particularly at risk, but other factors such as advanced age, high doses or combinations of NSAIDs, and concomitant use of anticoagulants also increase the risk. It is important to weigh the benefits and risks of NSAID use and consider alternative pain management strategies in high-risk patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 12 - A 40-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a recent diagnosis of...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a recent diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) and seeks advice on managing her condition. What treatment option is recommended by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tricyclic antidepressants

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS)

      When it comes to treating irritable bowel syndrome (IBS), there are several options available. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends tricyclic antidepressants as a second-line treatment if other medications have not been effective. Treatment should start at a low dose and be reviewed regularly. Acupuncture and aloe vera are not recommended by NICE for the treatment of IBS. It is suggested to limit intake of high-fibre foods and increase intake of fresh fruit, but to limit it to three portions per day. It’s important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best treatment plan for individual needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 13 - You come across a 30-year-old accountant who has been diagnosed with Crohn's disease...

    Incorrect

    • You come across a 30-year-old accountant who has been diagnosed with Crohn's disease after experiencing abdominal pain, loose stools and a microcytic anaemia. The individual is seeking further information on the condition.

      Which of the following statements is accurate regarding Crohn's disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteoporosis occurs in up to 30% of patients with inflammatory bowel disease

      Explanation:

      Upon diagnosis, approximately 66% of individuals with inflammatory bowel disease exhibit anaemia. Crohn’s disease is typically diagnosed at a median age of 30 years. The global incidence and prevalence of Crohn’s disease are on the rise.

      Osteoporosis is a condition that is more prevalent in women and increases with age. However, there are many other risk factors and secondary causes of osteoporosis. Some of the most significant risk factors include a history of glucocorticoid use, rheumatoid arthritis, alcohol excess, parental hip fracture history, low body mass index, and current smoking. Other risk factors include a sedentary lifestyle, premature menopause, certain ethnicities, endocrine disorders, gastrointestinal disorders, chronic kidney disease, and certain genetic disorders. Additionally, certain medications such as SSRIs, antiepileptics, and proton pump inhibitors may worsen osteoporosis.

      If a patient is diagnosed with osteoporosis or has a fragility fracture, further investigations may be necessary to identify the cause of osteoporosis and assess the risk of subsequent fractures. Recommended investigations include a history and physical examination, blood tests such as a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, liver function tests, bone profile, CRP, and thyroid function tests. Other procedures may include bone densitometry, lateral radiographs, protein immunoelectrophoresis, and urinary Bence-Jones proteins. Additionally, markers of bone turnover and urinary calcium excretion may be assessed. By identifying the cause of osteoporosis and contributory factors, healthcare providers can select the most appropriate form of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 14 - A 67-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of chronic, unrelenting, dull...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of chronic, unrelenting, dull epigastric pain radiating to her back. It is relieved when sitting forwards.
      On examination, her body mass index is normal, but she says that she is losing weight; her clothes have become baggy on her. She explains that she doesn't feel like eating with the pain she is suffering.
      Investigations reveal a haemoglobin level of 102 g/l (normal range: 115–165 g/l) while her alkaline phosphatase level is elevated.
      What is the most appropriate initial investigation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange an abdominal computed tomography (CT) scan

      Explanation:

      Initial Management for Suspected Pancreatic Cancer: Abdominal CT Scan

      When a patient over 60 years old presents with weight loss and abdominal pain, an urgent direct-access CT scan should be considered to assess for pancreatic cancer. Other symptoms that may indicate pancreatic cancer include diarrhea, back pain, nausea, vomiting, constipation, and new-onset diabetes. Patients with pancreatic cancer typically report anorexia, malaise, fatigue, mid-epigastric or back pain, and weight loss. The pain may be unrelenting and worse when lying flat.

      The most characteristic sign of pancreatic carcinoma of the head of the pancreas is painless obstructive jaundice. Migratory thrombophlebitis and venous thrombosis also occur with higher frequency in patients with pancreatic cancer and may be the first presentation.

      While the CA 19-9 antigen is elevated in 75-80% of patients with pancreatic carcinoma, it is not recommended for screening. An abdominal ultrasound scan may reveal a pancreatic malignancy, but a CT scan is the preferred imaging that should be carried out urgently.

      Direct-access upper GI endoscopy may be appropriate for patients over 55 years old with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia. However, in this case, an urgent CT scan is the most appropriate initial investigation due to the elevated alkaline phosphatase suggesting biliary obstruction. Checking ferritin levels may not be helpful in ruling in or out pancreatic cancer.

      Initial Management for Suspected Pancreatic Cancer: Abdominal CT Scan

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 15 - You receive a positive faecal immunochemical test (FIT) result following investigation of an...

    Incorrect

    • You receive a positive faecal immunochemical test (FIT) result following investigation of an elderly patient's unexplained abdominal pain.

      What would be the most appropriate next step in your management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer using a suspected lower gastrointestinal cancer pathway

      Explanation:

      Faecal Occult Blood Tests for Colorectal Cancer

      Faecal occult blood tests are recommended by NICE for patients who show symptoms that may suggest colorectal cancer but are unlikely to have the disease. If the test result is positive, patients should be referred through the suspected cancer pathway. However, a positive result may also indicate other conditions such as colorectal polyps or inflammatory bowel disease.

      It is important to note that there is no need to repeat the FIT or order further investigations before referral. This test is a simple and effective way to detect early signs of colorectal cancer and can help healthcare professionals make informed decisions about patient care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 16 - A 25-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner in her 28th week of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner in her 28th week of pregnancy. After an uneventful first and second trimester to date, she has developed widespread itching over the last three weeks and she now has mild jaundice. Her bilirubin is 80 μmol/l (normal <21 μmol/l), alanine aminotransferase (ALT) at 82 IU/l (normal <40 IU/l), and the alkaline phosphatase is markedly raised.
      Which of the following is the diagnosis that fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Liver Disorders in Pregnancy: Differential Diagnosis

      During pregnancy, various liver disorders can occur, leading to abnormal liver function tests. Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy is the most common pregnancy-related liver disorder, affecting 0.1-1.5% of pregnancies. It typically presents in the late second or early third trimester with generalized itching, starting on the palms and soles. An elevated alanine aminotransferase (ALT) is a more sensitive marker than aspartate aminotransferase (AST), and a fasting serum bile acid concentration of greater than 10 mmol/l is the key diagnostic test. Primary biliary cholangitis and acute fatty liver of pregnancy are less likely diagnoses, while cholelithiasis and hyperemesis gravidarum have different clinical presentations. Early diagnosis and management of liver disorders in pregnancy are crucial to prevent adverse outcomes such as prematurity and stillbirth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 17 - A 66-year-old man presents with a change in bowel habit. He has noticed...

    Incorrect

    • A 66-year-old man presents with a change in bowel habit. He has noticed that over the last three to four weeks he is passing looser, more frequent stools on a daily basis. Prior to the last three to four weeks he has not had any persistent problems with his bowels. He denies any rectal bleeding. He has no significant past history of any bowel problems.

      On examination his abdomen feels normal and his rectal examination is normal. You weigh him and his weight is the same as six months ago.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer him urgently to a lower gastrointestinal specialist

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Urgent Referral and Faecal Occult Blood Testing in Patients with Change in Bowel Habit

      In accordance with NICE guidelines, patients aged 60 years and older with a change in bowel habit towards looser and more frequent stools (without rectal bleeding) should be urgently referred. This applies to our 68-year-old male patient. While faecal occult blood testing is not necessary in this case, NICE offers guidance on whom to test for colorectal cancer using this method.

      According to the guidelines, faecal occult blood testing should be offered to adults without rectal bleeding who are aged 50 and over with unexplained abdominal pain or weight loss. Additionally, those aged under 60 with changes in bowel habit or iron-deficiency anaemia should also be tested. For patients aged 60 and over, testing should be offered if they have anaemia even in the absence of iron deficiency.

      It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure timely and appropriate management of patients with potential colorectal cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 18 - A 28-year-old man presented having recently returned from Bangladesh. He reported jaundice and...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presented having recently returned from Bangladesh. He reported jaundice and itching. His viral hepatitis serology shows active hepatitis E infection.
      Select from the list the single true statement concerning hepatitis E.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic hepatitis doesn't occur in immunocompetent patients

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis E and D: A Comparison

      Hepatitis E is a self-limiting illness that follows a similar course to hepatitis A. However, fulminant disease can occur in a small percentage of cases. This type of hepatitis is most commonly found in developing countries and is transmitted through contaminated drinking water. While person-to-person contact transmission is rare, maternal-neonatal transmission can occur, with pregnant women being at the highest risk of developing fulminant hepatitis. Management of hepatitis E is supportive, and there are no chronic cases except in immunocompromised individuals.

      On the other hand, hepatitis D requires co-infection with hepatitis B to cause inflammation. Co-infection with hepatitis D increases the likelihood of hepatitis B progressing to chronic disease and cirrhosis. Hepatitis D is most commonly found in Mediterranean countries, parts of Eastern Europe, the Middle East, Africa, and South America.

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  • Question 19 - A client is administered ondansetron for chemotherapy-induced vomiting. What is the most probable...

    Incorrect

    • A client is administered ondansetron for chemotherapy-induced vomiting. What is the most probable adverse effect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Constipation

      Explanation:

      Understanding 5-HT3 Antagonists

      5-HT3 antagonists are a type of medication used to treat nausea, particularly in patients undergoing chemotherapy. These drugs work by targeting the chemoreceptor trigger zone in the medulla oblongata, which is responsible for triggering nausea and vomiting. Examples of 5-HT3 antagonists include ondansetron and palonosetron, with the latter being a second-generation drug that has the advantage of having a reduced effect on the QT interval.

      While 5-HT3 antagonists are generally well-tolerated, they can have some adverse effects. One of the most significant concerns is the potential for a prolonged QT interval, which can increase the risk of arrhythmias and other cardiac complications. Additionally, constipation is a common side effect of these medications. Overall, 5-HT3 antagonists are an important tool in the management of chemotherapy-induced nausea, but their use should be carefully monitored to minimize the risk of adverse effects.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 20 - A 25-year-old man has a bilirubin concentration of 55 μmol/l (normal value <21...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man has a bilirubin concentration of 55 μmol/l (normal value <21 μmol/l). He has suffered from episodic jaundice in the past but is otherwise fit and well. His diagnosis is Gilbert syndrome.
      Which of the following is associated with Gilbert syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: γ-glutamyltransferase in the normal range

      Explanation:

      Understanding Gilbert Syndrome: Symptoms, Risks, and Diagnosis

      Gilbert syndrome is a common, benign condition that causes mild unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia. It is familial and occurs in 5-10% of adults in Western Europe. While some patients may experience symptoms such as fatigue, nausea, and abdominal pain, many are asymptomatic. Jaundice is usually mild and can worsen with physical exertion, fasting, or dehydration. However, liver function tests, including γ-glutamyltransferase, should be normal.

      Unlike other liver conditions, Gilbert syndrome doesn’t cause abnormal liver histology or conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia. It is also not a risk factor for kernicterus at birth.

      Diagnosis of Gilbert syndrome is based on clinical presentation and elevated unconjugated bilirubin levels. Fasting can actually increase bilirubin levels in this condition. Therefore, it is important to rule out other liver disorders if abnormal liver function tests or histology are present.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms, risks, and diagnosis of Gilbert syndrome can help healthcare providers provide appropriate care and management for patients with this condition.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 21 - Sarah is a 36-year-old woman who has been experiencing dyspepsia symptoms for a...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 36-year-old woman who has been experiencing dyspepsia symptoms for a few months. Her GP prescribed omeprazole 20 mg once daily, which has provided some relief. However, her symptoms return once she stops taking the medication. What would be the most appropriate next step in Sarah's treatment plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Request a stool test for H. pylori

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, patients with dyspepsia should be assessed for red flag symptoms and offered lifestyle advice before trying either a PPI or ‘test and treat’ approach. If one approach fails, the other can be attempted. In this scenario, as the patient has not been tested for H. pylori, a stool test should be performed before considering other options. An endoscopy may be necessary if symptoms persist despite optimal management in primary care. An FBC may be performed if there is concern for malignancy. Changing from omeprazole to lansoprazole is unlikely to be effective as they have the same mechanism of action. Before prescribing 40 mg omeprazole, H. pylori should be excluded.

      Management of Dyspepsia and Referral Criteria for Suspected Cancer

      Dyspepsia is a common condition that can be managed through a stepwise approach. The first step is to review medications that may be causing dyspepsia and provide lifestyle advice. If symptoms persist, a full-dose proton pump inhibitor or a ‘test and treat’ approach for H. pylori can be tried for one month. If symptoms still persist, the alternative approach should be attempted.

      For patients who meet referral criteria for suspected cancer, urgent referral for an endoscopy within two weeks is necessary. This includes patients with dysphagia, an upper abdominal mass consistent with stomach cancer, and patients aged 55 years or older with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia. Non-urgent referral is recommended for patients with haematemesis and patients aged 55 years or older with treatment-resistant dyspepsia, upper abdominal pain with low haemoglobin levels, or raised platelet count with symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, weight loss, reflux, dyspepsia, or upper abdominal pain.

      Testing for H. pylori infection can be done through a carbon-13 urea breath test, stool antigen test, or laboratory-based serology. If symptoms have resolved following a ‘test and treat’ approach, there is no need to check for H. pylori eradication. However, if repeat testing is required, a carbon-13 urea breath test should be used.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 22 - A 70-year-old man presents with complaints of lower abdominal pain. He has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents with complaints of lower abdominal pain. He has been experiencing the pain for the past two months and has come in for an emergency appointment today because he has not had a bowel movement in a week. He cannot recall the last time he passed gas.

      He mentions that his stools have been significantly looser over the past few months and that he has noticed blood in his feces on occasion. Upon examination, it is discovered that he has lost over two stone in weight since his last visit to the practice six months ago. Palpation of the abdomen reveals a soft but distended abdomen with a mass in the left lower quadrant. A rectal examination shows an empty rectum with no abnormalities.

      What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Colonic carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Likely Diagnosis for a 69-Year-Old with Weight Loss and Constipation

      A 69-year-old man with a history of weight loss, blood in his stool, and a palpable abdominal mass is likely suffering from bowel carcinoma. His symptoms have now progressed to absolute constipation due to an obstructing tumor. Other potential diagnoses, such as diverticular abscess, faecal impaction, and inflammatory bowel disease, are less likely based on his history and examination.

      A diverticular abscess typically presents with a tender mass and fever, while faecal impaction may cause a palpable mass but doesn’t typically result in weight loss or blood in the stool. Inflammatory bowel disease is rare in patients of this age and would not typically cause such significant weight loss. Overall, the patient’s symptoms are most consistent with a diagnosis of bowel carcinoma.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 23 - A 75-year-old man admitted to the care of the elderly ward is experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man admitted to the care of the elderly ward is experiencing diarrhoea and has been isolated in a side room with barrier nursing due to the isolation of Clostridium difficile in his stool samples. What medication is most likely causing his diarrhoea?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clindamycin

      Explanation:

      The use of clindamycin as a treatment is strongly associated with an increased risk of developing C. difficile infection. This is because broad spectrum antibiotics, including clindamycin, can disrupt the normal gut flora and allow for the overgrowth of C. difficile. Other antibiotics commonly used to treat C. difficile include vancomycin and metronidazole, which are administered orally to ensure high concentrations in the colon. Additionally, proton pump inhibitors like omeprazole and lansoprazole are also believed to contribute to the development of C. difficile infection.

      Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.

      To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 24 - You are requested to visit a 38-year-old man with motor neurone disease at...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to visit a 38-year-old man with motor neurone disease at his residence. He was hospitalized for urosepsis and has just returned home. During his hospital stay, he underwent percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy to facilitate enteral nutrition at home. What is the most probable complication of enteral feeding that he may experience?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspiration pneumonia

      Explanation:

      Common Problems with Enteral Feeding

      Enteral feeding, or tube feeding, can cause various gastrointestinal problems. Nausea is a common issue that can be caused by administering the feed too quickly or altered gastric emptying. Abdominal bloating and cramps can also occur for similar reasons. Constipation may be a problem, but it is unlikely that the lack of fiber in enteral feeds is the underlying cause. Diarrhea is the most common complication of enteral tube feeding, affecting up to 30% of patients on general medical and surgical wards and 68% of those on ITU. Diarrhea can be unpleasant for the patient and can worsen pressure sores and contribute to fluid and electrolyte imbalances.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 25 - A 55-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner concerned that he may be...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner concerned that he may be at an increased risk of developing colon cancer. His father died at the age of 56 from a sigmoid colon adenocarcinoma. His brother, aged 61, has just undergone a colectomy for a caecal carcinoma.
      What is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer for one-off colonoscopy aged 55

      Explanation:

      Screening Recommendations for Patients with Family History of Colorectal Cancer

      Patients with a family history of colorectal cancer may be at an increased risk of developing the disease. The British Society of Gastroenterology and the Association of Coloproctology for Great Britain and Ireland have produced screening guidelines for patients with family history profiles that place them in a moderate-risk category.

      Colonoscopy is recommended for patients with a family history of two first-degree relatives with a mean age of less than 60 years with colorectal cancer, starting at the age of 55. Abdominal ultrasound examination doesn’t have a role in screening for or diagnosing colorectal cancer.

      Patients with an increased risk should not be advised that they have no increased risk. Instead, they should be screened appropriately. Faecal immunochemical tests (FIT) are used to detect blood in the stool and are used in the national bowel cancer screening programme. However, patients with a higher risk, given their family history, should be offered earlier screening with colonoscopy rather than waiting until they are eligible for the national screening programme. False positives and negatives are possible with FIT, making colonoscopy a more reliable screening option for high-risk patients.

      Therefore, it is important for patients with a family history of colorectal cancer to be aware of the screening recommendations and to discuss their individual risk and screening options with their healthcare provider.

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  • Question 26 - A 32-year-old male presents with central abdominal pain that radiates to the back...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male presents with central abdominal pain that radiates to the back and vomiting. His amylase level is 1,245 u/dl. Which medication is the most probable cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sodium valproate

      Explanation:

      Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is primarily caused by gallstones and alcohol consumption in the UK. However, there are other factors that can contribute to the development of this condition. A popular mnemonic used to remember these factors is GET SMASHED, which stands for gallstones, ethanol, trauma, steroids, mumps, autoimmune diseases, scorpion venom, hypertriglyceridaemia, hyperchylomicronaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypothermia, ERCP, and certain drugs. It is important to note that pancreatitis is seven times more common in patients taking mesalazine than sulfasalazine. CT scans can show diffuse parenchymal enlargement with oedema and indistinct margins in patients with acute pancreatitis.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 27 - A 58-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner with complaints of diarrhoea without...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner with complaints of diarrhoea without any associated bleeding. She has also experienced weight loss and has abdominal pain with malaise and fever. During the examination, she has oral ulcers, sore red eyes and tender nodules on her shins. There is tenderness in the right iliac fossa and a vague right iliac fossa mass. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Crohn's disease

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnoses for a Patient with Gastrointestinal Symptoms and Other Complications

      Crohn’s Disease, Appendicular Abscess, Ileocaecal Tuberculosis, Ovarian Cyst, and Ulcerative Colitis are possible diagnoses for a patient presenting with gastrointestinal symptoms and other complications. In women over 60 years of age, Crohn’s disease may even be the most likely diagnosis. This condition can cause episcleritis, uveitis, erythema nodosum, pyoderma gangrenosum, vasculitis, gallstones, kidney stones, or abnormal liver function tests. The predominantly right-sided symptoms suggest terminal ileitis, which is more common in Crohn’s disease than ulcerative colitis. Fever can occur in Crohn’s disease due to the inflammatory process, ranging from high fever during acute flare-ups to persistent low-grade fever. Appendicular abscess is a complication of acute appendicitis, causing a palpable mass in the right iliac fossa and fever. Ileocaecal tuberculosis can present with a palpable mass in the right lower quadrant and complications of obstruction, perforation, or malabsorption, especially in the presence of stricture. A large ovarian cyst may be palpable on abdominal examination, but it is unlikely to cause oral ulcers, sore eyes, or erythema nodosum. Ulcerative colitis, which has similar clinical features to Crohn’s disease, is usually diagnosed from the biopsy result following a sigmoidoscopy or colonoscopy. However, rectal bleeding is more common in ulcerative colitis, while fever is more common in Crohn’s disease. A right lower quadrant mass may be seen in Crohn’s disease but not in ulcerative colitis unless complicated by bowel cancer.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 28 - A 56-year-old man presents with dyspepsia and is found to have a gastric...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man presents with dyspepsia and is found to have a gastric ulcer and H. pylori infection on endoscopy. He undergoes H. pylori eradication therapy but continues to experience symptoms six weeks later. What is the best test to confirm eradication of H. pylori?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urea breath test

      Explanation:

      The sole recommended test for H. pylori after eradication therapy is the urea breath test. It should be noted that H. pylori serology will still show positive results even after eradication. A stool antigen test, rather than culture, may be a suitable substitute.

      Tests for Helicobacter pylori

      There are several tests available to diagnose Helicobacter pylori infection. One of the most common tests is the urea breath test, where patients consume a drink containing carbon isotope 13 enriched urea. The urea is broken down by H. pylori urease, and after 30 minutes, the patient exhales into a glass tube. Mass spectrometry analysis calculates the amount of 13C CO2, which determines the presence of H. pylori. However, this test should not be performed within four weeks of treatment with an antibacterial or within two weeks of an antisecretory drug.

      Another test is the rapid urease test, also known as the CLO test. This test involves mixing a biopsy sample with urea and pH indicator, and a color change indicates H. pylori urease activity. Serum antibody tests remain positive even after eradication, and the sensitivity and specificity are 85% and 80%, respectively. Culture of gastric biopsy provides information on antibiotic sensitivity, with a sensitivity of 70% and specificity of 100%. Gastric biopsy with histological evaluation alone has a sensitivity and specificity of 95-99%. Lastly, the stool antigen test has a sensitivity of 90% and specificity of 95%.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 29 - You assess a 32-year-old male with a 15-year history of ulcerative colitis. He...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 32-year-old male with a 15-year history of ulcerative colitis. He reports passing three bloody stools per day for the past week, but denies any abdominal pain and has maintained a good appetite. Upon examination, there are no notable findings in the abdomen. What is the most probable explanation for this current episode?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mild exacerbation of ulcerative colitis

      Explanation:

      Ulcerative colitis flares can occur without any identifiable trigger, but there are several factors that are often associated with them. These include stress, certain medications such as NSAIDs and antibiotics, and cessation of smoking. Flares are typically categorized as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools a person has per day, the presence of blood in the stools, and the level of systemic disturbance. Mild flares involve fewer than four stools daily with or without blood and no systemic disturbance. Moderate flares involve four to six stools a day with minimal systemic disturbance. Severe flares involve more than six stools a day with blood and evidence of systemic disturbance such as fever, tachycardia, abdominal tenderness, distension, reduced bowel sounds, anemia, or hypoalbuminemia. Patients with severe disease should be admitted to the hospital.

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      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 30 - A 48-year-old alcoholic patient visits the General Practitioner (GP) for a check-up. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old alcoholic patient visits the General Practitioner (GP) for a check-up. He has recently been released from the hospital after experiencing an upper gastrointestinal bleed caused by oesophageal varices. He informs you that he has quit drinking and inquires about the likelihood of experiencing another bleeding episode.
      What is the accurate statement regarding the risk of future bleeding from oesophageal varices?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The risk of re-bleeding is greater than 60% within a year

      Explanation:

      Understanding Variceal Haemorrhage: Causes, Complications, and Prognosis

      Variceal haemorrhage is a common complication of portal hypertension, with almost 90% of cirrhosis patients developing varices and 30% experiencing bleeding. The mortality rate for the first episode is high, ranging from 30-50%. The severity of liver disease and associated systemic disorders worsen the prognosis, increasing the likelihood of a bleed. Patients who have had one episode of bleeding have a high chance of recurrence within a year, with one-third of further episodes being fatal. While abstaining from alcohol can slow the progression of liver disease, it cannot reverse portal hypertension. Understanding the causes, complications, and prognosis of variceal haemorrhage is crucial for effective management and prevention.

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      • Gastroenterology
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