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Question 1
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A 30-year-old man visited his doctor to determine his cardiac risk. He had a significant family history of ischaemic heart disease, and his fasting plasma low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol level was 9.9 mmol/l. He was prescribed simvastatin 40 mg to be taken at night. What is the mode of action of simvastatin?
Your Answer: Decreases de novo cholesterol synthesis
Explanation:Modes of Action of Cholesterol-Lowering Agents
Cholesterol-lowering agents work through various mechanisms to reduce the levels of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol, also known as bad cholesterol, in the blood. Here are some of the modes of action of these agents:
1. HMG CoA reductase inhibitors: These agents, also known as statins, inhibit the enzyme that is responsible for the rate-limiting step in the synthesis of cholesterol. By reducing de novo cholesterol synthesis, statins decrease LDL cholesterol levels.
2. Bile acid sequestrants: These agents bind bile acids in the intestine, preventing their reabsorption and promoting excretion in the faeces. As a result, the liver synthesises more bile acids, which requires cholesterol oxidation. By indirectly decreasing LDL cholesterol levels through increased bile acid synthesis, bile acid sequestrants are effective in treating hyperlipidaemia.
3. HDL cholesterol increasers: Fibrates and niacin are agents that increase the levels of high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol, also known as good cholesterol. Fibrates activate PPAR-α, intracellular receptors that affect the transcription of genes involved in lipid metabolism. This results in an increase in HDL cholesterol, with a reduction in LDL cholesterol and triglycerides.
4. Pancreatic lipase inhibitors: Orlistat is a drug that inhibits the action of pancreatic lipase, an enzyme that breaks down and absorbs fat from the diet. By decreasing the absorption of fat, orlistat can help with weight loss.
Each of these modes of action has its own set of side-effects, which should be carefully considered before starting treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 2
Correct
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An 82-year-old man is admitted to the emergency department with symptoms of confusion, lethargy and repeated vomiting. He has a medical history of heart failure, hypertension and atrial fibrillation, which is managed with digoxin. During a recent medication review with his general practitioner, he was prescribed a new medication. Upon examination, his heart rate is 34/min, respiratory rate 15/min, blood pressure 90/65 mmHg and temperature 35.9 ºC. An electrocardiogram reveals downsloping ST depression and inverted T waves. Which medication is most likely responsible for exacerbating his symptoms?
Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide
Explanation:Thiazide diuretics, such as bendroflumethiazide, can lead to digoxin toxicity by causing hypokalemia. This is evident in a patient presenting with symptoms such as confusion, lethargy, vomiting, and bradycardia, as well as an electrocardiogram showing downsloping ST depression and flattened or inverted T waves. Amlodipine, bisoprolol, and flecainide are not associated with hypokalemia or digoxin toxicity, but may cause other side effects such as flushing, bronchospasm, and arrhythmias.
Understanding Digoxin and Its Toxicity
Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure patients. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, it has a narrow therapeutic index and requires monitoring for toxicity.
Toxicity may occur even when the digoxin concentration is within the therapeutic range. Symptoms of toxicity include lethargy, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, confusion, yellow-green vision, arrhythmias, and gynaecomastia. Hypokalaemia is a classic precipitating factor, as it allows digoxin to more easily bind to the ATPase pump and increase its inhibitory effects. Other factors that may contribute to toxicity include increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, electrolyte imbalances, hypoalbuminaemia, hypothermia, hypothyroidism, and certain medications such as amiodarone, quinidine, and verapamil.
Management of digoxin toxicity involves the use of Digibind, correction of arrhythmias, and monitoring of potassium levels. It is important to recognize the potential for toxicity and monitor patients accordingly to prevent adverse outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 72-year-old male patient arrives in hospital with a hip fracture. His wife mentions that he drinks around two bottles of wine per day. He is prescribed chlordiazepoxide, a benzodiazepine, for alcohol withdrawal.
What is the reason for using this medication in this situation?Your Answer: Alcohol withdrawal leads to gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) deficiency; benzodiazepines facilitate GABA-A binding to its receptor
Explanation:A 79-year-old man is brought to see his general practitioner by his daughter who has noticed that he is becoming increasingly forgetful and unsteady on his feet. Unfortunately his daughter does not know anything about his previous medical history or whether he takes any medications. Routine investigations reveal:
Investigation Result Normal Value
Haemoglobin 105 g/l 135–175 g/l
Mean corpuscular value 101 fl 76–98 fl
White cell count 7.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 80 × 109/l 150–400 x 109/
Sodium 132 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium 4.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Urea 1.3 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Creatine 78 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Random blood sugar 6.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
Given these results, which is the most likely cause of his symptoms? -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 70-year-old woman comes to your clinic complaining of ankle swelling. She has started taking a new medication for her blood pressure. She believes that this medication is responsible for her ankle oedema and wants you to investigate. What is the medication most likely to have caused her ankle swelling?
Your Answer: Nifedipine
Explanation:Nifedipine is more likely to cause ankle swelling than verapamil or other antihypertensive medications. This is because nifedipine is a dihydropyridine calcium-channel blocker (CCB), which can cause vasodilation and increased leakage of small blood vessels, leading to fluid accumulation in the interstitial space and resulting in ankle edema. Diltiazem, an alternative CCB, is less likely to cause ankle edema but may increase the risk of heart failure. Doxazosin, an alpha-blocker, can also cause edema but is less commonly used than nifedipine. Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, is more likely to cause angioedema than peripheral edema.
Understanding Calcium Channel Blockers
Calcium channel blockers are medications primarily used to manage cardiovascular diseases. These blockers target voltage-gated calcium channels present in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle cells. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these three areas, making it crucial to differentiate their uses and actions.
Verapamil is an example of a calcium channel blocker used to manage angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. However, it is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Verapamil may also cause side effects such as heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.
Diltiazem is another calcium channel blocker used to manage angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Diltiazem may cause side effects such as hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.
On the other hand, dihydropyridines such as nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are calcium channel blockers used to manage hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. These blockers affect the peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, resulting in no worsening of heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter-acting dihydropyridines such as nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia and side effects such as flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.
In summary, understanding the different types of calcium channel blockers and their effects on the body is crucial in managing cardiovascular diseases. It is also important to note the potential side effects and cautions when prescribing these medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 72-year-old man with atrial fibrillation and heart failure is initiated on digoxin. What is the mode of action of digoxin?
Your Answer: Inhibits the Na+/K+ ATPase pump
Explanation:Understanding Digoxin and Its Toxicity
Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure patients. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, it has a narrow therapeutic index and requires monitoring for toxicity.
Toxicity may occur even when the digoxin concentration is within the therapeutic range. Symptoms of toxicity include lethargy, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, confusion, yellow-green vision, arrhythmias, and gynaecomastia. Hypokalaemia is a classic precipitating factor, as it allows digoxin to more easily bind to the ATPase pump and increase its inhibitory effects. Other factors that may contribute to toxicity include increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, electrolyte imbalances, hypoalbuminaemia, hypothermia, hypothyroidism, and certain medications such as amiodarone, quinidine, and verapamil.
Management of digoxin toxicity involves the use of Digibind, correction of arrhythmias, and monitoring of potassium levels. It is important to recognize the potential for toxicity and monitor patients accordingly to prevent adverse outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 16-year-old female arrives at the emergency department with her friend. The friend reports that they had an argument and the patient took 'lots of tablets'. The patient denies this but agrees to further investigations. Her ABG results show:
Normal range
pH: 7.47 (7.35 - 7.45)
pO2: 12 (10 - 14)kPa
pCO2: 3.6 (4.5 - 6.0)kPa
HCO3: 22 (22 - 26)mmol/l
BE: +1 (-2 to +2)mmol/l
After two hours, the patient complains of feeling very unwell and experiencing ringing in her ears. A repeat ABG is performed and shows:
Normal range
pH: 7.16 (7.35 - 7.45)
pO2: 11 (10 - 14)kPa
pCO2: 3.1 (4.5 - 6.0)kPa
HCO3: 8 (22 - 26)mmol/l
BE: -19 (-2 to +2)mmol/l
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Aspirin overdose
Explanation:The typical image of an aspirin overdose is characterized by an initial respiratory alkalosis caused by heightened respiratory effort due to stimulation of the central respiratory center. Subsequently, a metabolic acidosis develops in conjunction with the respiratory alkalosis, which is attributed to the direct impact of the salicylic acid metabolite.
Salicylate overdose can result in a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. The initial effect of salicylates is to stimulate the respiratory center, leading to hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. However, as the overdose progresses, the direct acid effects of salicylates, combined with acute renal failure, can cause metabolic acidosis. In children, metabolic acidosis tends to be more prominent. Other symptoms of salicylate overdose include tinnitus, lethargy, sweating, pyrexia, nausea/vomiting, hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, seizures, and coma.
The treatment for salicylate overdose involves general measures such as airway, breathing, and circulation support, as well as administering activated charcoal. Urinary alkalinization with intravenous sodium bicarbonate can help eliminate aspirin in the urine. In severe cases, hemodialysis may be necessary. Indications for hemodialysis include a serum concentration of salicylates greater than 700 mg/L, metabolic acidosis that is resistant to treatment, acute renal failure, pulmonary edema, seizures, and coma.
It is important to note that salicylates can cause the uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation, which leads to decreased adenosine triphosphate production, increased oxygen consumption, and increased carbon dioxide and heat production. Therefore, prompt and appropriate treatment is crucial in managing salicylate overdose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 7
Correct
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What is the mechanism of action of demeclocycline?
Your Answer: Vasopressin antagonism
Explanation:Treatment Options for SIADH
SIADH is a condition characterized by excessive secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to water retention and hyponatremia. When fluid restriction alone fails to manage the condition, other treatment options are available. Demeclocycline induces free water excretion, which can help manage SIADH by causing nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Spironolactone is an aldosterone receptor antagonist, while mannitol is an osmotic diuretic. Amiloride acts via epithelial sodium channels, and thiazides act on the sodium chloride symporter, leading to sodium and water excretion. Among these options, demeclocycline is an important treatment option for patients with SIADH who do not respond to fluid restriction alone. It is essential to understand the mechanism of action of each treatment option to choose the most appropriate one for each patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding the reporting of medication related adverse events using the Yellow Card scheme is accurate?
Your Answer: An allergic rash that develops in an elderly man secondary to co-amoxiclav should be reported
Correct Answer: Diarrhoea occuring after starting a black triangle medicine should be reported
Explanation:The Yellow Card Scheme for Reporting Adverse Reactions to Medications
The Yellow Card scheme is a widely recognized method for reporting adverse reactions to medications. It is managed by the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA). The scheme is designed to encourage healthcare professionals and patients to report any suspected adverse drug reactions, including those related to new medicines, off-label use of medicines, and herbal remedies.
The MHRA recommends that all suspected adverse drug reactions for new medicines, identified by the black triangle symbol, should be reported. Additionally, all suspected adverse drug reactions occurring in children, even if a medicine has been used off-label, should be reported. Serious suspected adverse drug reactions for established vaccines and medicines, including unlicensed medicines, should also be reported.
Yellow Cards can be found at the back of the British National Formulary (BNF) or completed online through the Yellow Card website. It is important to note that any suspected reactions, not just confirmed ones, should be reported. Patients can also report adverse events through the scheme.
Once Yellow Cards are submitted, the MHRA collates and assesses the information. The agency may consult with the Commission on Human Medicines (CHM), an independent scientific advisory body on medicines safety, to further evaluate the reported adverse reactions. Reactions that are fatal, life-threatening, disabling or incapacitating, result in or prolong hospitalization, or are medically significant are considered serious.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 68-year-old man is brought to the Emergency department after being hit by a cricket ball on his left cheek while watching a game. He remained conscious and is alert and oriented with a GCS of 15/15, but he feels nauseous, disoriented, and experiences significant pain at the site of impact. His vital signs are stable, and there are no abnormalities found during cardiorespiratory or neurological examination.
The patient has a medical history of type 2 diabetes and depression and takes aspirin 75 mg OD, metformin 850 mg TDS, sitagliptin 100 mg OD, ramipril 5 mg OD, and venlafaxine 75 mg BD. A CT scan of the brain reveals a fracture of the left zygomatic arch, and he is referred to maxillofacial surgery. The medical team administers 100 mg IV tramadol for pain relief.
However, two minutes later, the patient experiences a prolonged tonic-clonic seizure, requiring intubation and transfer to ITU. Which of the patient's regular medications should be avoided when using tramadol?Your Answer: Venlafaxine
Explanation:Venlafaxine is an antidepressant that acts on serotonin and noradrenaline receptors, while tramadol is an analgesic that acts on mu opioid receptors and inhibits serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake. Co-prescription of tramadol with venlafaxine or SSRIs can increase the risk of seizures and serotonin syndrome. Sitagliptin, an oral hypoglycaemic drug, has no significant interaction with tramadol. There are no known contraindications to using tramadol with ramipril, metformin, or aspirin, but opioid activation may cause gastric side effects and exacerbate hypotension and renal impairment in susceptible patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman is receiving treatment for a severe exacerbation of ulcerative colitis on a general medical ward. She is currently on IV steroids for the past 4 days. During the morning ward round, her bloods are taken to assess her illness. The results are as follows:
Na+ 136 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 3.5 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Bicarbonate 25 mmol/L (22 - 29)
Urea 6.5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 112 µmol/L (55 - 120)
Magnesium 0.38 mmol/L (0.8 - 1.1)
CRP 32 (<5)
What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's illness?Your Answer: IV magnesium
Explanation:The appropriate treatment for hypomagnesaemia is IV magnesium, especially if the patient’s magnesium level is below 0.4 mmol/L or if they are experiencing tetany, arrhythmias, or seizures. In this case, the patient’s hypomagnesaemia is likely caused by their ulcerative colitis-induced diarrhoea. Therefore, IV magnesium should be administered to correct the deficiency. There is no indication of infection, so IV antibiotics are not necessary at this time. Although the patient’s CRP is elevated due to their severe ulcerative colitis exacerbation, no action is not an appropriate response to the low magnesium level. While oral loperamide may help alleviate diarrhoea in patients without infection, it is not typically used in the management of ulcerative colitis exacerbations and will not address the abnormality in the patient’s blood results.
Understanding Hypomagnesaemia: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Hypomagnesaemia is a condition characterized by low levels of magnesium in the blood. There are several causes of this condition, including the use of certain drugs such as diuretics and proton pump inhibitors, total parenteral nutrition, and chronic or acute diarrhoea. Alcohol consumption, hypokalaemia, hypercalcaemia, and metabolic disorders like Gitelman’s and Bartter’s can also lead to hypomagnesaemia. The symptoms of this condition may be similar to those of hypocalcaemia, including paraesthesia, tetany, seizures, and arrhythmias.
When the magnesium level drops below 0.4 mmol/L or when there are symptoms of tetany, arrhythmias, or seizures, intravenous magnesium replacement is commonly given. An example regime would be 40 mmol of magnesium sulphate over 24 hours. For magnesium levels above 0.4 mmol/L, oral magnesium salts are prescribed in divided doses of 10-20 mmol per day. However, diarrhoea can occur with oral magnesium salts. It is important to note that hypomagnesaemia can exacerbate digoxin toxicity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Drugs X and Y can both bind to receptor Z and activate an intracellular signalling pathway. At their highest concentrations, drug X can fully activate the pathway, while drug Y can only activate it to a moderate extent. This difference in efficacy can be attributed to the varying affinities of the drugs for the receptor or their ability to induce conformational changes in the receptor.
What term would you use to describe the action of drug X?Your Answer: Allosteric modulator
Correct Answer: Full agonist
Explanation:Agonists and Antagonists in Pharmacology
Drugs A and B are both types of agonists, which means they bind to a receptor and cause a biological response by increasing receptor activity. The efficacy of an agonist is determined by its ability to provoke maximal or sub-maximal receptor activity. Drug A is a full agonist, while drug B is a partial agonist. The degree of receptor occupancy is also important, which is determined by the affinity of the drug for the receptor and its concentration. Even low degrees of receptor occupancy can achieve a biological response for agonists.
On the other hand, an antagonist is a ligand that binds to a receptor and inhibits receptor activity, causing no biological response. The degree of receptor occupancy is also important for antagonists, but a relatively high degree is needed for them to work. Affinity to the receptor is also a factor. The efficacy of an antagonist to prompt a biological response is technically zero.
There are two types of antagonists: competitive and non-competitive. A competitive antagonist has a similar structure to an agonist and binds to the same site on the receptor, reducing the binding sites available to the agonist. A non-competitive antagonist has a different structure to the agonist and may bind to a different site on the receptor. When the antagonist binds to the receptor, it may cause an alteration in the receptor structure or the interaction of the receptor with downstream effects in the cell. This prevents the normal consequences of agonist binding and biological actions are prevented.
the differences between agonists and antagonists is important in pharmacology, as it can help in the development of drugs that can either stimulate or inhibit certain biological responses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 21-year-old male student is admitted in the second week of university after a night-out for a basketball club social.
He presents with rigidity, disorientation and a temperature of 39.5ºC. You suspect he may have serotonin syndrome.
Which of the following drugs is most likely to be responsible in this case?Your Answer: Ecstasy
Explanation:Overdosing on ecstasy can lead to serotonin syndrome, which is typically linked to SSRI and MAOI antidepressants. Symptoms can appear within a few hours and include sweating and fever. Physical signs may include increased reflexes, muscle spasms, and enlarged pupils.
Understanding Serotonin Syndrome
Serotonin syndrome is a potentially life-threatening condition caused by an excess of serotonin in the body. It can be triggered by a variety of medications and substances, including monoamine oxidase inhibitors, SSRIs, St John’s Wort, tramadol, ecstasy, and amphetamines. The condition is characterized by neuromuscular excitation, hyperreflexia, myoclonus, rigidity, autonomic nervous system excitation, hyperthermia, sweating, and altered mental state, including confusion.
Management of serotonin syndrome is primarily supportive, with IV fluids and benzodiazepines used to manage symptoms. In more severe cases, serotonin antagonists such as cyproheptadine and chlorpromazine may be used. It is important to note that serotonin syndrome can be easily confused with neuroleptic malignant syndrome, which has similar symptoms but is caused by a different mechanism. Both conditions can cause a raised creatine kinase (CK), but it tends to be more associated with NMS. Understanding the causes, features, and management of serotonin syndrome is crucial for healthcare professionals to ensure prompt and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 67-year-old male patient arrives at the Emergency Department with a rash. He has been experiencing fever and fatigue for three days, but within the last 12 hours, a rash has developed. He is extremely anxious and in severe pain. The rash is primarily on his face and torso, consisting of a combination of target lesions and blisters. His tongue and lips show significant mucosal desquamation. You identify this as a severe and uncommon side effect of one of his medications.
What medication is the most probable cause?Your Answer: Amoxicillin
Explanation:Adverse Reactions of Common Medications
Stevens-Johnson Syndrome and Common Drug Triggers
Stevens-Johnson Syndrome (SJS) is a rare but severe condition that affects 1-2 million people each year. It is more common in patients with HIV and can be triggered by antibiotics, antifungals, antivirals, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, anticonvulsants, and allopurinol. Symptoms include a painful rash on the trunk, face, and limbs, with lesions that can be macules, targets, or blisters. Mucosal involvement is severe, affecting the eyes, lips, mouth, oesophagus, and genital area. Mortality rates range from 10-50%, making it crucial to stop the causative drug immediately and provide supportive treatment.Candesartan, Diltiazem, Fluoxetine, and Prednisolone: Common Side Effects
Candesartan can rarely cause a rash, but more common side effects include hypotension, hyperkalaemia, and angioedema. Diltiazem can cause bradycardia, palpitations, and dizziness, and may rarely cause rashes such as erythema multiforme and exfoliative dermatitis. Fluoxetine can rarely cause toxic epidermal necrolysis, but more common side effects are gastrointestinal and hypersensitivity reactions, including rash, urticarial, and angioedema. High doses of prednisolone can cause Cushing syndrome, with moon face, striae, and acne, as well as skin effects such as urticaria, hyperhidrosis, skin atrophy, bruising, and telangiectasia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with complaints of painful, red patches on her shins. She has no history of hospitalization and has not traveled outside the country recently. During her last visit to the same practice, she was prescribed a new medication. Which of the listed medications is most likely responsible for this particular rash?
Your Answer: Oral contraceptive pill
Explanation:Understanding Erythema Nodosum and its Causes
Erythema nodosum is a painful rash that typically appears on the shins. It is a type of panniculitis and is characterized by raised nodules. While it can be caused by various factors, including infections and autoimmune diseases, certain medications are also known to trigger it. These include the oral contraceptive pill, penicillins, and sulfonamides. To rule out serious underlying conditions like tuberculosis and sarcoidosis, a chest radiograph is often performed at diagnosis. It is important to note that SSRIs and beta blockers do not cause erythema nodosum, and neither does fexofenadine or minocycline.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 70-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with anorexia, fatigue, nausea and generalised pain. He has a medical history notable for palliate prostate cancer for which he has refused treatment, and remains independent. Routine blood results confirm your suspicions:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 89 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 8.5 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 200 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 138 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.0 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 130 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Corrected Ca2+ 3.1 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
You commence treatment with intravenous fluid and the recommended intravenous drug infusion.
In which principal way will this medication correct the biochemical abnormality?Your Answer: Inhibit the release of calcium from bones
Explanation:Treating Hypercalcaemia with Bisphosphonates
Hypercalcaemia is a condition characterized by high levels of serum calcium concentration, with the majority of cases being secondary to cancer and bone metastases or primary hyperparathyroidism. Treatment varies depending on the severity of the condition, with moderate hypercalcaemia requiring intervention. In this scenario, a patient with palliative prostatic cancer presents with moderate hypercalcaemia and requires treatment.
The first step in treatment is intravenous fluid resuscitation for volume repletion, followed by an intravenous bisphosphonate infusion, such as pamidronate. Bisphosphonates work by inhibiting bone resorption, which reduces the amount of calcium released into the circulation. This is achieved through a dual action, where bisphosphonates bind to calcium phosphate crystals in bone and inhibit their breakdown, as well as inhibiting the action of osteoclasts, the cells primarily involved in bone breakdown. The action of bisphosphonates may take a few days to be evident, depending on the agent used.
It is important to note that treatment regimes may vary between hospitals, and it is essential to follow local guidelines when treating hypercalcaemia. Other causes of hypercalcaemia, such as calcium supplementation, Addison’s disease, acromegaly, Paget’s disease, and sarcoidosis, present more rarely. Mild hypercalcaemia is defined as a serum calcium concentration of 2.65-3.00 mmol/l, moderate hypercalcaemia as 3.01-3.40 mmol/l, and severe hypercalcaemia as >3.40 mmol/l.
In conclusion, bisphosphonates are an effective treatment for hypercalcaemia, inhibiting the release of calcium from bones and reducing serum calcium concentration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 32-year-old man with a history of depression presents to the Emergency Department after taking an overdose of diazepam and dosulepin. Upon examination, his blood pressure is 118/80 and his pulse is 142 bpm. He has a respiratory rate of 9 per minute and oxygen saturations of 96% on room air. What should be the next step in managing this patient?
Your Answer: Obtain an ECG
Explanation:To address the patient’s significant tachycardia, the initial course of action would be to conduct an ECG. If the results reveal QRS widening, administering intravenous bicarbonate is recommended. While some suggest an ‘ABC’ approach with flumazenil to counteract respiratory depression, caution must be exercised due to the risk of inducing seizures in the presence of tricyclic overdose.
Tricyclic overdose is a common occurrence in emergency departments, with particular danger associated with amitriptyline and dosulepin. Early symptoms include dry mouth, dilated pupils, agitation, sinus tachycardia, and blurred vision. Severe poisoning can lead to arrhythmias, seizures, metabolic acidosis, and coma. ECG changes may include sinus tachycardia, widening of QRS, and prolongation of QT interval. QRS widening over 100ms is linked to an increased risk of seizures, while QRS over 160 ms is associated with ventricular arrhythmias.
Management of tricyclic overdose involves IV bicarbonate as first-line therapy for hypotension or arrhythmias. Other drugs for arrhythmias, such as class 1a and class Ic antiarrhythmics, are contraindicated as they prolong depolarisation. Class III drugs like amiodarone should also be avoided as they prolong the QT interval. Lignocaine’s response is variable, and it should be noted that correcting acidosis is the first line of management for tricyclic-induced arrhythmias. Intravenous lipid emulsion is increasingly used to bind free drug and reduce toxicity. Dialysis is ineffective in removing tricyclics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 27-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department accompanied by her father. After a heated argument, the patient ingested a packet of her father's depression medication and locked herself in her room. When the door was forced open, she was found lying on the floor in a drowsy state. As part of her evaluation, an electrocardiogram was performed, revealing a sinus rhythm with a heart rate of 98 beats per minute, PR interval of 100ms, QRS of 150ms, and QTc interval of 420ms. What is the most appropriate course of action based on these findings?
Your Answer: IV sodium bicarbonate
Explanation:In tricyclic overdose, the QRS complex widens and can lead to ventricular tachycardia. IV sodium bicarbonate can be given to achieve cardiac stability. SSRIs do not widen the QRS but prolong the QT. DC cardioversion is not appropriate in this case. IV dextrose is not useful in reversing toxicity. IV lorazepam is used for seizures but not needed currently. Flecainide is contraindicated in tricyclic overdose.
Tricyclic overdose is a common occurrence in emergency departments, with particular danger associated with amitriptyline and dosulepin. Early symptoms include dry mouth, dilated pupils, agitation, sinus tachycardia, and blurred vision. Severe poisoning can lead to arrhythmias, seizures, metabolic acidosis, and coma. ECG changes may include sinus tachycardia, widening of QRS, and prolongation of QT interval. QRS widening over 100ms is linked to an increased risk of seizures, while QRS over 160 ms is associated with ventricular arrhythmias.
Management of tricyclic overdose involves IV bicarbonate as first-line therapy for hypotension or arrhythmias. Other drugs for arrhythmias, such as class 1a and class Ic antiarrhythmics, are contraindicated as they prolong depolarisation. Class III drugs like amiodarone should also be avoided as they prolong the QT interval. Lignocaine’s response is variable, and it should be noted that correcting acidosis is the first line of management for tricyclic-induced arrhythmias. Intravenous lipid emulsion is increasingly used to bind free drug and reduce toxicity. Dialysis is ineffective in removing tricyclics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 68 year old woman has been admitted to the cardiology ward with worsening symptoms of congestive cardiac failure. She is breathless at rest and has pitting oedema bilaterally to the level of the shins. The cardiology consultant asks you to prescribe a furosemide infusion.
Which of the following mechanisms best describes the way that furosemide acts as a diuretic?Your Answer: Na+/ K+/2Cl– co-transporter inhibition
Explanation:Types of Diuretics and Their Mechanisms of Action
Diuretics are medications that increase urine output and are commonly used to treat conditions such as hypertension and edema. There are several types of diuretics, each with a unique mechanism of action.
Loop Diuretics
Furosemide is a loop diuretic that inhibits the co-transport of Na+/K+/2 Cl– in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. This leads to a significant increase in sodium and chloride concentrations in the filtrate, resulting in massive diuresis.NaCl Transport Inhibitors
Thiazide diuretics, such as bendroflumethiazide, inhibit NaCl transport in the distal convoluted tubule, leading to a moderate increase in sodium excretion and moderate diuresis.Aldosterone Antagonist
Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that acts as an aldosterone antagonist, causing an increase in Na+ excretion and a decrease in K+ and H+ excretion in the collecting tubules.Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitor
Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that increases bicarbonate excretion in the proximal convoluted tubule. It is not commonly used as a diuretic but is used to treat glaucoma, altitude sickness, and idiopathic intracranial hypertension.ACE Inhibitor
ACE inhibitors, such as lisinopril, are primarily used as antihypertensive medications. By inhibiting ACE, they decrease the production of angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor.In conclusion, understanding the different types of diuretics and their mechanisms of action is crucial in selecting the appropriate medication for a patient’s specific condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Drug X activates a receptor Y to produce a cellular response. Drug Z, when administered, binds to a distinct site on Y and halts the cellular response, even in the presence of drug X. What term could be used to describe drug Z?
Your Answer: Competitive antagonist
Correct Answer: Non-competitive antagonist
Explanation:Agonists and Antagonists in Drug Action
Agonists and antagonists are two types of drugs that interact with receptors in the body. An agonist is a drug that binds to a receptor and causes an increase in receptor activity, resulting in a biological response. On the other hand, an antagonist is a ligand that binds to a receptor and inhibits receptor activity, causing no biological response.
There are two types of antagonists: competitive and non-competitive. A competitive antagonist has a similar structure to an agonist and binds to the same site on the receptor. This reduces the number of binding sites available to the agonist, resulting in a decrease in receptor activity. In contrast, a non-competitive antagonist has a different structure to the agonist and binds to a different site on the receptor. When the non-competitive antagonist binds to the receptor, it causes an alteration in the receptor structure or its interaction with downstream effects in the cell. As a result, an agonist molecule is unable to bind to the receptor and biological actions are prevented.
In summary, agonists and antagonists are important in drug action as they interact with receptors in the body to produce or inhibit biological responses. the differences between competitive and non-competitive antagonists is crucial in drug development and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 72-year-old woman is visited by her general practitioner and found to be suffering from constipation. This began after she was started on a new medication. She suffers from ischaemic heart disease, osteoarthritis, atrial fibrillation and moderate depression.
Which drug is most likely to have resulted in this woman’s symptoms?Your Answer: Codeine phosphate
Explanation:Codeine phosphate and dihydrocodeine are drugs that activate the μ opioid receptor and are commonly used to alleviate moderate pain. Codeine can also be used as a cough suppressant, but it should be avoided in cases of acute infective diarrhea and ulcerative colitis. Long-term use in the elderly is not recommended due to its constipating effects and potential contribution to delirium. Co-prescribing with a laxative is advisable for those at risk. Digoxin, on the other hand, does not cause constipation but may lead to arrhythmias, blurred vision, conduction disturbances, diarrhea, dizziness, eosinophilia, nausea, rash, vomiting, and yellow vision. Carvedilol and atenolol are beta blockers that are not commonly associated with constipation. While atenolol may cause gastrointestinal disturbances, its side-effects are not well documented. Paroxetine, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor, is used to treat anxiety and major depression. It may cause constipation and abdominal pain, but its side-effects are dose-dependent, and in this case, codeine is more likely to be the cause of constipation than paroxetine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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