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  • Question 1 - You see a mother with her 3-month-old daughter. She is concerned as she...

    Correct

    • You see a mother with her 3-month-old daughter. She is concerned as she had her weighed and found she had lost 5% of her body weight. She is exclusively breastfeeding. She reports that the health visitor reviewed her breastfeeding and was happy with the technique. She is passing urine and opening her bowels normally. There were no issues during the pregnancy and was delivered at term via vaginal delivery. She was born on the 50th centile. Examination was unremarkable.

      What would be the next most appropriate step in her management?

      Your Answer: Reassure and review in 1 week if his weight has not increased

      Explanation:

      Infant Weight Loss and Monitoring

      It is normal for infants to experience weight loss during the early days of life. However, if an infant loses more than 10% of their birth weight, it is important to assess for dehydration, underlying illness, and feeding problems. Monitoring the infant closely is also recommended, but weighing should not be done more frequently than daily according to NICE guidelines. If there is evidence of illness or failure to respond to feeding support, referral to paediatric services should be considered.

      Supplementation with infant formula may result in the cessation of breastfeeding, so it is advised to support the mother to continue breastfeeding. The RCGP recommends testing for normality and sometimes, monitoring or reassurance may be the answer to questions related to infant weight loss. By closely monitoring and addressing any concerns, infants can return to their birth weight by 3 weeks of age.

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  • Question 2 - A 9-month-old boy has a temperature of 38.5°C. You first saw the child...

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    • A 9-month-old boy has a temperature of 38.5°C. You first saw the child two days ago and the child has been febrile since then. He now has a faint erythematous macular rash that blanches on pressure. The parents are anxious.
      Which option would be MOST IMPORTANT in making the decision to admit the child to hospital?

      Your Answer: The presence of a blanching erythematous rash

      Correct Answer: Increasing family anxiety

      Explanation:

      Identifying Red Flags in Febrile Children

      Febrile illness in children can be a cause of concern for parents and healthcare providers. While most cases are self-limiting and resolve without complications, some may require urgent medical attention. It is important to identify red flags that indicate a potentially serious underlying condition.

      Factors that may increase family anxiety include a history of serious illness or death due to feverish illness, other illnesses affecting the child or family members, and parental instinct. Parents should not ignore their intuition and seek medical advice if they are concerned.

      While there are no set rules about how long a fever should last, parents should seek further advice if their child has been febrile for five days without resolution. In infants aged 0-3 months, a temperature of >38°C is a red flag, while a temperature of >39°C in infants aged 3-6 months is an amber flag. After six months of age, the temperature alone is no longer an indicator of intermediate or high risk.

      Reduced fluid intake, dry mucous membranes, reduced urine output, and reduced skin turgor are amber warning signs that require medical attention. A blanching erythematous rash is likely to indicate a viral infection and is not a cause for concern. However, non-blanching petechiae and patches in a sick child suggest meningococcal disease and require urgent medical attention.

      In conclusion, identifying red flags in febrile children is crucial for timely diagnosis and management of potentially serious conditions. Parents should seek medical advice if they are concerned about their child’s health.

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  • Question 3 - A 7-year-old boy presents with a viral upper respiratory tract infection. On examination,...

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    • A 7-year-old boy presents with a viral upper respiratory tract infection. On examination, you hear a heart murmur that has not been noted previously.
      Which of the following features is most indicative of an innocent murmur?

      Your Answer: The murmur is grade 4/6

      Correct Answer: The murmur is short and systolic in nature

      Explanation:

      Understanding Innocent Murmurs in Children

      Innocent murmurs are common in children and are usually harmless. They are short in duration, soft, systolic, and typically located at the left sternal border. Innocent murmurs may change with the child’s position or respiration, but they do not usually radiate and are without symptoms in the patient.

      It is important to note that a grade 4/6 murmur is loud with a thrill and is usually pathological. Murmurs that are only diastolic in nature or pansystolic in nature are also usually pathological. The presence of abnormal heart sounds is another indication of a pathological murmur.

      If an innocent murmur is suspected, it should disappear when the child has recovered from a febrile illness. If the murmur persists when the child is well, further investigation is warranted.

      Understanding the characteristics of innocent murmurs can help healthcare professionals differentiate between harmless murmurs and those that require further investigation.

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  • Question 4 - Which genetic condition is a result of a trinucleotide repeat expansion? ...

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    • Which genetic condition is a result of a trinucleotide repeat expansion?

      Your Answer: Charcot-Marie-Tooth syndrome

      Correct Answer: Huntington's disease

      Explanation:

      Trinucleotide repeat disorders are genetic conditions that occur due to an abnormal number of repeats of a repetitive sequence of three nucleotides. These expansions are unstable and may enlarge, leading to an earlier age of onset in successive generations, a phenomenon known as anticipation. In most cases, an increase in the severity of symptoms is also observed. It is important to note that these disorders are predominantly neurological in nature. Examples of such disorders include Fragile X, Huntington’s, myotonic dystrophy, Friedreich’s ataxia, spinocerebellar ataxia, spinobulbar muscular atrophy, and dentatorubral pallidoluysian atrophy. It is interesting to note that Friedreich’s ataxia is an exception to the rule and doesn’t demonstrate anticipation.

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  • Question 5 - A mother is worried because her 2-year-old girl was exposed to measles two...

    Incorrect

    • A mother is worried because her 2-year-old girl was exposed to measles two days ago.

      Which one of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer: If she were to become infected then complications would be extremely rare

      Correct Answer: Immunisation with the live attenuated virus is advised within 72 hours to confer protection

      Explanation:

      Measles Treatment and Complications

      If a person has been exposed to measles within the past 72 hours, the measles vaccine is the preferred treatment option. This vaccine can provide lifelong immunity, although it is not 100% effective in preventing the disease. If the vaccine is not an option, immune globulin can be given within six days of exposure.

      Complications from measles are common, with one-third of those infected experiencing issues such as pneumonia, otitis media, and diarrhea. However, the most serious complication is the development of subacute sclerosing pan-encephalitis.

      Measles typically begins with coryzal symptoms, followed by the appearance of a rash several days later.

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  • Question 6 - You visit a 28-year-old lady at home following the delivery of a healthy...

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    • You visit a 28-year-old lady at home following the delivery of a healthy baby a few days earlier. At the end of the consultation, she asks you about immunisations.
      At what age would her child receive an orally administered vaccine as part of the UK immunisation schedule if they were 6 months old?

      Your Answer: 8 weeks and 12 weeks

      Explanation:

      Route and Timing of Immunisations in the UK

      The UK routine immunisation schedule includes various vaccines that are administered through different routes. One of these is the rotavirus vaccine, which is the only vaccine given orally. It is given to infants at 8 and 12 weeks of age. On the other hand, the polio vaccine used to be administered orally in the past, but it is no longer part of the routine UK immunisation schedule. It is important to follow the recommended route and timing of immunisations to ensure their effectiveness in protecting against diseases.

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  • Question 7 - You see a 3-year-old boy who presents with fever, irritability and offensive smelling...

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    • You see a 3-year-old boy who presents with fever, irritability and offensive smelling urine. You suspect a urinary tract infection, but his mother is unable to obtain a clean catch urine sample.

      What is the recommended method of obtaining a urine sample if a clean catch is not possible in a 3-year-old boy with suspected urinary tract infection?

      Your Answer: Urine collection pad

      Correct Answer: Sanitary towels

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing UTI in Children

      UTI can be challenging to diagnose in children, especially in preverbal ones. While offensive smelling urine is a rare symptom, general symptoms such as fever, poor feeding, and vomiting are more common. Therefore, obtaining a urine sample is crucial for accurate diagnosis. NICE recommends obtaining a clean catch urine sample for urine collection. If this is not possible, collection pads are advised. However, it is important to note that cotton wool balls, gauze, and sanitary towels should not be used.

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  • Question 8 - A 16-year-old-girl comes to the clinic with complaints of not having started her...

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    • A 16-year-old-girl comes to the clinic with complaints of not having started her periods yet. During the examination, it is observed that she has a high-arched palate, underdeveloped external genitalia, and no breast development. Her height is 151cm, which is at the 2nd centile for her age and gender.

      What condition is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Turner's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Turner’s syndrome is the likely diagnosis for a patient with short stature and primary amenorrhoea. Hypothyroidism may also cause these symptoms, but the presence of a high-arched palate makes it less likely. While gonadal dysgenesis (46, XX) can cause primary amenorrhoea, it doesn’t typically present with the characteristic dysmorphic features seen in Turner’s syndrome.

      Understanding Turner’s Syndrome

      Turner’s syndrome is a genetic condition that affects approximately 1 in 2,500 females. It is caused by the absence of one sex chromosome (X) or a deletion of the short arm of one of the X chromosomes. This condition is identified as 45,XO or 45,X.

      The features of Turner’s syndrome include short stature, a shield chest with widely spaced nipples, a webbed neck, a bicuspid aortic valve (present in 15% of cases), coarctation of the aorta (present in 5-10% of cases), primary amenorrhea, cystic hygroma (often diagnosed prenatally), a high-arched palate, a short fourth metacarpal, multiple pigmented naevi, lymphoedema in neonates (especially in the feet), and elevated gonadotrophin levels. Hypothyroidism is also more common in individuals with Turner’s syndrome, as well as an increased incidence of autoimmune diseases such as autoimmune thyroiditis and Crohn’s disease.

      In summary, Turner’s syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that affects females and is characterized by various physical features and health conditions. Early diagnosis and management can help individuals with Turner’s syndrome lead healthy and fulfilling lives.

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  • Question 9 - A 7-year-old boy has developed involuntary movements of his arms and face over...

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    • A 7-year-old boy has developed involuntary movements of his arms and face over the last few days. Some of these he converts into apparently purposeful movement by pushing back his hair or scratching his nose. There is reduced tone in the limbs, and he is unsteady. He seems unconcerned and intermittently giggles. His mother tells you that he had a sore throat four weeks previously.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cerebrovascular accident

      Correct Answer: Sydenham’s chorea

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sydenham’s Chorea: A Common Cause of Acute Chorea Worldwide

      Sydenham’s chorea, also known as St Vitus’ dance, is a neurological manifestation of rheumatic fever and remains the most common cause of acute chorea worldwide. While it was commonly seen in the 1930s, it occurs less frequently in the UK today. This condition can occur with or without symptoms of rheumatic fever and is usually self-limiting. Improvement occurs over about two weeks, but total recovery can take up to nine months, and may recur in some patients.

      In this scenario, the short time course of the chorea and the girl’s age are useful diagnostically. It is important to note that psychological changes may precede or accompany the choreiform movements, as demonstrated by the girl’s emotional lability.

      It is important to consider other potential causes of chorea, such as cerebral tumour, cerebrovascular accident, Guillain–Barré syndrome, and Huntington’s chorea. However, in this case, these conditions are unlikely as they do not fit with the girl’s symptoms and age.

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  • Question 10 - A 16-month-old girl presents with her mother to the General Practitioner, as her...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-month-old girl presents with her mother to the General Practitioner, as her mother is concerned about her lack of energy and poor appetite. The girl drinks six 200-ml bottles of doorstep cow’s milk each day but eats very little at mealtimes. She is thriving (weight 97th centile) and examination is normal.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 87 g/l 110–140 g/l
      White blood count (WBC) 11 × 109/l 5–17× 109/l
      Neutrophils 4.1 × 109/l 1–8.5× 109/l
      Lymphocytes 5.9 × 109/l 1.5–9.5× 109/l
      Platelets 357 × 109/l 150–400× 109/l
      Mean corpuscular volume 65 fl 72–84 fl
      What is the likely underlying cause of this patient’s presentation?

      Your Answer: Folic acid deficiency

      Correct Answer: Overconsumption of cow’s milk

      Explanation:

      Possible causes of microcytic anaemia in a 9-month-old child

      Microcytic anaemia is a condition characterized by a low level of haemoglobin (Hb) in red blood cells, along with small cell size. In a 9-month-old child, this can be caused by various factors. One possible cause is overconsumption of cow’s milk, which is low in iron but high in calories. This can lead to a lack of appetite and subsequent deficiencies in vitamins and minerals, especially iron. Another possible cause is folic acid deficiency, which typically results in megaloblastic anaemia rather than microcytic anaemia. Calorie deficit is unlikely in a child with a high weight percentile. Inflammatory bowel disease is rare in infancy and not supported by the given information. Finally, it is worth noting that a normal physiological fall in Hb occurs after birth, but by 6 months of age, the Hb level should be within the range of 110-140 g/l. Treatment for microcytic anaemia may involve dietary education and oral iron supplementation.

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  • Question 11 - You have a 7-year-old Asian child in your clinic. He has slightly bowed...

    Incorrect

    • You have a 7-year-old Asian child in your clinic. He has slightly bowed legs and complains of muscle pains. You suspect a Vitamin D deficiency. What is the most suitable test to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Calcium

      Correct Answer: 25-hydroxyvitamin D

      Explanation:

      Understanding Vitamin D Deficiency

      Vitamin D deficiency is a common health concern that can lead to various health problems. To investigate suspected Vitamin D deficiency, doctors often use the 25-hydroxyvitamin D blood test. However, it’s important to note that a high alkaline phosphatase level may indicate rickets, but it can still be normal despite significant Vitamin D deficiency. Additionally, Vitamin D deficiency can impair the absorption of dietary calcium and phosphorus, but these levels may still appear normal despite the deficiency.

      When the parathyroid calcium sensing receptors detect low levels of calcium, the body produces parathyroid hormone. While this hormone can be used to diagnose Vitamin D deficiency, it’s an expensive test that is not usually necessary. Overall, understanding the signs and symptoms of Vitamin D deficiency and getting regular check-ups can help prevent and treat this common health issue.

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  • Question 12 - Baby Oliver has been brought for numerous appointments since he was born, with...

    Incorrect

    • Baby Oliver has been brought for numerous appointments since he was born, with symptoms of colic. He is now on simethicone drops. His mum, who was previously exclusively breastfeeding, has just introduced a bottle of formula in the evening, and Oliver has now developed a rash. You suspect a possible allergy to the formula and consider prescribing a hypoallergenic infant formula for Oliver, along with some emollient and steroid cream. What other treatments should you consider prescribing for Oliver today?

      Your Answer: Lactase enzyme

      Correct Answer: Calcium and vitamin D for mum

      Explanation:

      It is recommended to consider prescribing calcium supplements and vitamin D for breastfeeding mothers whose babies have or are suspected to have CMPI. This is to prevent deficiency while they exclude dairy from their diet, which puts them at risk of deficiency. Soya milk is not advised for infants due to its phyto-oestrogen content, and lactase enzyme products are not relevant as lactose intolerance is a different condition. Lactulose is also not indicated based on the given history.

      Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects approximately 3-6% of children and typically presents in formula-fed infants within the first 3 months of life. However, it can also occur in exclusively breastfed infants, although this is rare. Both immediate (IgE mediated) and delayed (non-IgE mediated) reactions can occur, with CMPA usually used to describe immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms of CMPI/CMPA include regurgitation and vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms such as irritability and crying, wheezing, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis.

      Diagnosis of CMPI/CMPA is often based on clinical presentation, such as improvement with cow’s milk protein elimination. However, investigations such as skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein may also be performed. If symptoms are severe, such as failure to thrive, referral to a pediatrician is necessary.

      Management of CMPI/CMPA depends on whether the child is formula-fed or breastfed. For formula-fed infants with mild-moderate symptoms, extensive hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk is the first-line replacement formula, while amino acid-based formula (AAF) is used for infants with severe CMPA or if there is no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants with CMPI/CMPA are also intolerant to soy milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should continue breastfeeding while eliminating cow’s milk protein from their diet. Calcium supplements may be prescribed to prevent deficiency while excluding dairy from the diet. When breastfeeding stops, eHF milk should be used until the child is at least 12 months old and for at least 6 months.

      The prognosis for CMPI/CMPA is generally good, with most children eventually becoming milk tolerant. In children with IgE-mediated intolerance, around 55% will be milk tolerant by the age of 5 years, while in children with non-IgE mediated intolerance, most will be milk tolerant by the age of 3 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur.

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  • Question 13 - A young mother with a 4-month-old boy presents to your practice. Her sister...

    Incorrect

    • A young mother with a 4-month-old boy presents to your practice. Her sister has recently lost a baby due to sudden-infant-death syndrome (SIDS). She asks for the current advice on minimising the risk of SIDS in her own family.
      Which of the following pieces of advice is most appropriate?

      Your Answer: Place the baby on their front to sleep

      Correct Answer: The baby should not be exposed to secondhand smoke in the room

      Explanation:

      Common Myths and Facts about Safe Sleeping for Babies

      There are many misconceptions about safe sleeping for babies that can put them at risk of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS). Here are some common myths and facts to help parents ensure their baby is sleeping safely.

      Myth: It’s okay to smoke around the baby.
      Fact: Smoking during and after pregnancy increases the risk of SIDS. Passive smoking also significantly increases the risk of SIDS, and the risk increases further when both parents smoke.

      Myth: The ideal room temperature for a baby is 20-24°C.
      Fact: This temperature might be uncomfortably warm; the ideal room temperature is 16–20 °C.

      Myth: Babies should sleep in the same room as their parents for the first year of life.
      Fact: Infants should share the same room, but not the same bed, as their parents for the first six months to decrease the risk of SIDS.

      Myth: Place the baby on their front to sleep.
      Fact: Babies should be placed on their backs to sleep, with feet touching the end of the cot, so that they cannot slip under the covers. The use of pillows is not recommended.

      Myth: The use of pacifiers is not recommended.
      Fact: The use of pacifiers while settling the baby to sleep reduces the risk of cot death.

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  • Question 14 - Sophie is a 6-year-old girl who comes to see the GP with her...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is a 6-year-old girl who comes to see the GP with her mother. Her mother has observed that the labia seem to be joined together in one spot. She is urinating normally and growing and developing typically in all other aspects. What guidance would you offer?

      Your Answer: Referral to paediatric surgery

      Correct Answer: Reassure as likely to resolve spontaneously

      Explanation:

      Gemma has been diagnosed with labial adhesion, which typically resolves on its own without the need for treatment unless there are issues with urination. If urination problems arise, a topical oestrogen cream may be used. Since Gemma is not experiencing any urination problems, no treatment is necessary, and her symptoms are expected to resolve naturally. There is no need to refer her to social services as labial adhesions do not necessarily indicate safeguarding concerns, and there is no other information in her medical history to suggest such concerns. Additionally, genetic testing or a referral to a paediatric surgeon is not necessary as this condition is common and usually resolves on its own.

      Labial Adhesions: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Labial adhesions refer to the fusion of the labia minora in the middle, which is commonly observed in girls aged between 3 months and 3 years. This condition can be treated conservatively, and spontaneous resolution usually occurs around puberty. It is important to note that labial adhesions are different from an imperforate hymen.

      Symptoms of labial adhesions include problems with urination, such as pooling in the vagina. Upon examination, thin semitranslucent adhesions covering the vaginal opening between the labia minora may be seen, which can sometimes cover the vaginal opening completely.

      Conservative management is usually appropriate for most cases of labial adhesions. However, if there are associated problems such as recurrent urinary tract infections, oestrogen cream may be tried. If this fails, surgical intervention may be necessary.

      In summary, labial adhesions are a common condition in young girls that can cause problems with urination. While conservative management is usually effective, medical intervention may be necessary in some cases.

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  • Question 15 - A 12-year-old boy who is undergoing investigations for nephrotic syndrome with the local...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy who is undergoing investigations for nephrotic syndrome with the local nephrologists is brought to the surgery by his mother.

      He has been complaining of pleuritic chest pain for the past 24 hours and told his mother that he has coughed up some blood. On one occasion he became distressed and vomited. Other past medical history of note includes asthma and some problems with tonsillitis.

      On examination his BP is 90/60 mmHg, his pulse 105 regular. He looks in pain, but there are no focal signs on respiratory examination.

      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute exacerbation of asthma

      Correct Answer: Lower respiratory tract infection

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary Embolism in Nephrotic Syndrome

      Pulmonary embolus is a rare but potentially life-threatening condition that may be missed due to its rarity. However, its presentation in children is similar to that in adults, with symptoms such as hypotension, tachycardia, pleuritic chest pain, and possibly haemoptysis. In children with nephrotic syndrome, the risk of pulmonary embolism is increased due to abnormalities in clotting factors and hypercoagulability. Therefore, it is important for healthcare providers to be aware of this potential complication and consider it in the differential diagnosis of children with nephrotic syndrome presenting with respiratory symptoms. Proper diagnosis and management can prevent serious consequences and improve outcomes for these patients.

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  • Question 16 - A father brings his 2-year-old son to your GP clinic. The child has...

    Correct

    • A father brings his 2-year-old son to your GP clinic. The child has been experiencing symptoms of a cold for the past 2 days. Last night, he developed a barking cough and a slight fever of 37.8º.

      During the examination, you notice mild stridor when the child moves around, but there are no visible recessions. The chest sounds clear, and there is good air entry on both sides. The temperature remains at 37.8º, but all other vital signs are normal.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Give a stat dose of dexamethasone 150 micrograms/kg PO

      Explanation:

      For a child with croup, a single dose of oral dexamethasone (0.15 mg/kg) should be taken immediately regardless of the severity of the illness. Croup typically begins with cold-like symptoms and progresses to a barking cough with a seal-like sound. The severity of croup can be determined by the presence of symptoms such as stridor, recessions, and distress. In this case, the child has mild croup and hospital admission is not necessary. Nebulized adrenaline is only recommended for children with severe symptoms, while a salbutamol inhaler is not effective for croup. Antibiotics are not useful for treating croup as it is a viral illness. Steroids, such as dexamethasone, have been shown to alleviate symptoms and reduce the need for hospitalization.

      Croup is a respiratory infection that affects young children, typically those between 6 months and 3 years old. It is most common in the autumn and is caused by parainfluenza viruses. The main symptom is stridor, which is caused by swelling and secretions in the larynx. Other symptoms include a barking cough, fever, and cold-like symptoms. The severity of croup can be graded based on the child’s symptoms, with mild cases having occasional coughing and no audible stridor at rest, and severe cases having frequent coughing, prominent stridor, and significant distress or lethargy. Children with moderate or severe croup should be admitted to the hospital, especially if they are under 6 months old or have other airway abnormalities. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical symptoms, but a chest x-ray can show subglottic narrowing. Treatment typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, and emergency treatment may include high-flow oxygen or nebulized adrenaline.

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  • Question 17 - A 16-year-old girl comes to see you and requests the contraceptive pill. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl comes to see you and requests the contraceptive pill. She has come to the surgery alone. You attempt to discuss the request in more detail but she seems nervous and fidgety, not making eye contact with you. You ask her if she would like someone else present for the discussion.
      She says she wants to start taking the pill as she is in a relationship and wants to be safe. She appears to be listening but is not asking any questions.
      You explain to her that you need to make a thorough assessment if you are to prescribe, and you need to make sure she understands the implications of using contraception and becoming sexually active. You ask her if she has any questions or concerns, and she asks a few questions but seems hesitant to discuss further.
      What is the most appropriate approach?

      Your Answer: Prescribe the contraceptive pill as there is a risk she will become sexually active and arrange follow-up

      Correct Answer: Arrange to review her or refer her to a specialist young person's clinic

      Explanation:

      Fraser Guidelines and Young People’s Competence to Consent to Contraceptive Advice or Treatment

      The Fraser guidelines provide a framework for assessing young people’s competence to consent to contraceptive advice or treatment. According to these guidelines, a young person is considered competent if they understand the doctor’s advice, cannot be persuaded to inform their parents, are likely to start or continue having sexual intercourse with or without contraceptive treatment, are at risk of physical or mental harm without treatment, and require advice or treatment in their best interests without parental consent.

      However, there can be considerable differences in the maturity of teenagers seeking contraception, and it is important to consider whether the failure of the consultation is due to the doctor’s communication skills or the young person’s anxiety. For instance, a young person who is not sexually active may not understand the importance of contraception and may need education or counselling to help them make informed decisions about their sexual health.

      In such cases, a specialist young people’s service may be able to provide the necessary support, such as counselling, education, or youth work interventions, to help the young person understand the risks and benefits of contraception and make an informed decision about their sexual health. By providing young people with the information and support they need, healthcare professionals can help them make responsible choices about their sexual health and reduce the risk of physical and mental harm.

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  • Question 18 - A 10-year-old girl is brought in for a follow-up appointment regarding her asthma...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl is brought in for a follow-up appointment regarding her asthma treatment. She is currently using salbutamol inhaler as needed and Symbicort 100/6 (budesonide 100 micrograms/formoterol 6 micrograms) two puffs twice a day. She has been using these inhalers for the past six months. Before that, she was using salbutamol as needed and budesonide 200 micrograms twice a day. The Symbicort was added to her regimen to include a long-acting beta2 agonist as she was using her salbutamol once or twice a day. Despite the addition of the long-acting beta2 agonist, she still experiences occasional tightness in her chest and nighttime coughing. She uses her salbutamol inhaler an average of three to four times a week. Her parents confirm that she is compliant with her inhalers and her inhaler technique is good. What is the most appropriate management plan for her current asthma treatment?

      Your Answer: Stop the Symbicort and put her back on budesonide at a dose of 400 micrograms a day and also add in a leukotriene receptor antagonist

      Correct Answer: Add in a leukotriene receptor antagonist to her current treatment

      Explanation:

      Treatment Ladder for Asthma in a 9-Year-Old Child

      Here we have a 9-year-old child with asthma who is currently on a regular inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) + long acting beta2 agonist (LABA) combination inhaler and salbutamol as needed. Despite some improvement with the regular inhaled ICS+LABA, the child is still requiring salbutamol quite frequently.

      To guide treatment titration, the British Thoracic Society treatment ladder is the best recognized guideline in the UK. Based on this, the next step would be to trial a leukotriene receptor antagonist. If the addition of the LABA had not yielded any clinical benefit, then it should be stopped. However, since it has proved to be somewhat helpful, it should be continued.

      In summary, the treatment ladder for asthma in a 9-year-old child involves gradually increasing the level of medication until symptoms are controlled. The addition of a leukotriene receptor antagonist may be the next step in this process.

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  • Question 19 - At what age would a typical child develop a vocabulary of 200 words?...

    Incorrect

    • At what age would a typical child develop a vocabulary of 200 words?

      Your Answer: 4 ½ years

      Correct Answer: 2 ½ years

      Explanation:

      Developmental Milestones in Speech and Hearing

      As children grow and develop, they reach various milestones in their speech and hearing abilities. These milestones are important indicators of a child’s progress and can help parents and caregivers identify any potential issues early on.

      At three months old, a baby will begin to quieten down when they hear their parents’ voices and turn towards sounds. They may also start to make high-pitched squeals. By six months, they will begin to produce double syllables such as adah and erleh.

      At nine months, a baby will typically say mama and dada and understand the word no. By 12 months, they will know and respond to their own name and understand simple commands like give it to mummy.

      Between 12 and 15 months, a baby will know about 2-6 words and understand more complex commands. By two years old, they will be able to combine two words and point to parts of their body. They will also have a vocabulary of around 200 words by 2 1/2 years old.

      At three years old, a child will begin to talk in short sentences and ask what and who questions. They will also be able to identify colors and count to 10. By four years old, they will start asking why, when, and how questions.

      Overall, these milestones provide a helpful guide for parents and caregivers to track a child’s speech and hearing development. If there are any concerns, it is important to seek advice from a healthcare professional.

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  • Question 20 - A 3-year-old girl presents with weight loss at her health check, having dropped...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old girl presents with weight loss at her health check, having dropped from the 75th centile weight at birth to the 9th. She was born abroad; the results of any neonatal screening are unavailable. Since her arrival in this country, she has been prescribed antibiotics for several chest infections. Between attacks, she is well. The mother worries that she might have asthma. There is no family history of note.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hypothyroidism

      Correct Answer: Cystic fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of a child with faltering growth and respiratory symptoms

      Cystic fibrosis, coeliac disease, α1-antitrypsin deficiency, asthma, and hypothyroidism are among the possible conditions that may cause faltering growth and respiratory symptoms in children. In the case of cystic fibrosis, dysfunction of the exocrine glands affects multiple organs, leading to chronic respiratory infection, pancreatic enzyme insufficiency, and related complications. The diagnosis of cystic fibrosis is often made in infancy, but can vary in age and may involve meconium ileus or recurrent chest infections. Coeliac disease, on the other hand, typically develops after weaning onto cereals that contain gluten, and may cause faltering growth but not respiratory symptoms. α1-Antitrypsin deficiency, which can lead to chronic obstructive pulmonary disease later in life, is less likely in a young child. Asthma, a common condition that affects the airways and causes wheeze or recurrent nocturnal cough, usually doesn’t affect growth. Hypothyroidism, a disorder of thyroid hormone deficiency, is screened for in newborns but doesn’t cause respiratory symptoms after birth. Therefore, based on the combination of faltering growth and respiratory symptoms, cystic fibrosis is the most likely diagnosis in this scenario.

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  • Question 21 - A 4-year-old child comes to the clinic and is suspected to have whooping...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old child comes to the clinic and is suspected to have whooping cough infection. Apparently there is an outbreak in the area, and his mother objects to the principle of vaccination.

      Which one of the following signs would increase suspicion of whooping cough infection?

      Your Answer: A neutrophilia on blood testing

      Correct Answer: Very high fevers

      Explanation:

      Pertussis: A Contagious Disease

      Pertussis, also known as whooping cough, is a highly contagious respiratory disease caused by the bacterium Bordetella pertussis. The incubation period lasts for 7-10 days, after which the child becomes maximally infectious during the first 7-14 days of the illness, known as the catarrhal phase. Although antibiotics do not have a significant effect on symptoms, they can reduce the period of infectivity.

      In children over two years old, a whoop may not always be present, but apnoeic episodes are common in infants. The bacterium is challenging to culture, but the use of PCR has improved diagnostic accuracy. While the annual death rate in the United Kingdom is low, pertussis is not a trivial disease, and vaccination is strongly recommended.

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  • Question 22 - You see a 7-year-old boy with his mother. He has had a productive...

    Correct

    • You see a 7-year-old boy with his mother. He has had a productive cough for 2 weeks. His vital signs are within normal range for his age. On examination, there are no signs of respiratory distress, but you hear crackles in the left base.

      He is normally fit and well. He is not on any regular medications. He has no known drug allergies.

      What is the most suitable course of action to take next in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Children with Pneumonia Symptoms

      According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), children who show symptoms of pneumonia but are not admitted to the hospital should not undergo a chest X-ray as a routine procedure. Instead, the first line of treatment for such cases is amoxicillin, which is safe to use in children without any drug allergies. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the best possible care for children with pneumonia symptoms.

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  • Question 23 - A 7-year-old boy comes to the clinic complaining of an extremely tender right...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old boy comes to the clinic complaining of an extremely tender right testicle that started four hours ago. There was no history of trauma or concurrent medical illness.
      During the examination, the right testicle was found to be retracted and lying horizontally, but it was too painful to palpate fully. The left hemiscrotum appeared normal.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Torsion

      Explanation:

      Torsion: A Serious Condition with Limited Treatment Window

      A short history of severe pain without any other symptoms should be considered as torsion. It is crucial to note that even if other symptoms are present, torsion should not be overlooked as there is only a limited time frame for treatment. A horizontal-lying testis is a typical indication of torsion, although it may not always be visible. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial in managing torsion and preventing any long-term damage.

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  • Question 24 - You see a 7-week old baby girl with her dad. He is worried...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 7-week old baby girl with her dad. He is worried as she has episodes where she cries uncontrollably and pulls her legs up to her tummy. She appears to be in pain and he is unable to calm her down. The crying doesn't seem to be related to feeding. The episodes last for around 30 minutes to 1 hour and occur for a total of about 3 hours a day. He finds it difficult to soothe her and is feeling exhausted.

      She is breastfed and is feeding well. She is growing appropriately and is having normal wet and dirty nappies.

      During the examination, she appears to be a healthy and content baby. No abnormalities are found.

      Which statement below, regarding infantile colic, is accurate?

      Your Answer: Colic is not associated with an increased risk of child maltreatment

      Correct Answer: Colic is associated with crying which most often occurs in the late afternoon or evening

      Explanation:

      Infantile colic is characterized by repeated episodes of excessive and inconsolable crying in an otherwise healthy and thriving infant. This condition typically begins in the first few weeks of life and resolves by around 3-4 months of age. The crying often occurs in the late afternoon or evening and may be accompanied by the infant drawing its knees up to its abdomen or arching its back. Colic affects both breastfed and bottle-fed infants and occurs equally in both sexes. However, it can lead to complications such as parental stress, anxiety, and depression, sleep deprivation, family tension, and attachment difficulties between parent and infant. It may also result in premature cessation of breastfeeding or weaning onto solid foods, as well as an increased risk of child maltreatment.

      Understanding Infantile Colic

      Infantile colic is a common condition that affects infants under three months old. It is characterized by excessive crying and pulling up of the legs, usually worse in the evening. This condition affects up to 20% of infants, and its cause is unknown.

      Despite its prevalence, the use of simeticone and lactase drops is not recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. These drops are commonly used to alleviate the symptoms of infantile colic, but their effectiveness is not supported by evidence. Therefore, it is important to seek medical advice before using any medication to treat infantile colic.

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  • Question 25 - At the 4-month baby check, a mother who has been exclusively breastfeeding tells...

    Incorrect

    • At the 4-month baby check, a mother who has been exclusively breastfeeding tells you that she thinks she will find bottle feeding more convenient. She is thinking of stopping breastfeeding. However, there are several medical advantages for breastfed children over those who are not breastfed, and you wish to inform her of these benefits.
      Which condition on this list does the evidence suggest that breastfeeding has the STRONGEST protective effect against?

      Your Answer: Vitamin D deficiency

      Correct Answer: Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)

      Explanation:

      Breastfeeding and its Effects on Infant Health: A Comprehensive Overview

      Breastfeeding has numerous benefits for infant health, including protection against sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS), many infections, childhood obesity, and future type 1 and 2 diabetes. While exclusive breastfeeding has the strongest protective effect against SIDS, any amount of breastfeeding can confer some protection. However, there is no evidence that exclusive breastfeeding protects against atopic eczema.

      Breastfeeding may also affect neonatal jaundice. Breastfeeding jaundice, which occurs before the mother’s milk supply is fully developed, can make physiological jaundice appear worse. Breastmilk jaundice, on the other hand, is different and typically peaks between days 5 and 15 before becoming normal after week 3. It may persist up to age 3 months, and its cause is unclear.

      Breastfeeding may also have implications for maternal bacterial infections, including tuberculosis. If the mother develops tuberculosis, temporarily stopping breastfeeding may be appropriate, but anti-tuberculosis drugs are safe for use with breastfeeding. Breastmilk is also low in vitamin D, so breastfed infants may need to receive vitamin D drops from 1 month of age if their mother has not taken supplements during pregnancy. This is particularly important for mothers at high risk of vitamin D deficiency.

      Overall, breastfeeding has numerous benefits for infant health, but it is important to be aware of its potential implications for certain conditions.

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  • Question 26 - A 7-month-old girl presents with diarrhoea and vomiting. She has vomited twice and...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-month-old girl presents with diarrhoea and vomiting. She has vomited twice and had about four diarrhoea stools in the previous 24 h. There is no obvious sign of dehydration. She was born at 37 weeks’ gestation with a low birthweight but has gained weight adequately since then.
      What is the most appropriate next management choice?

      Your Answer: Breastfeeding should cease

      Correct Answer: Oral rehydration salt solution should be given

      Explanation:

      Managing Gastroenteritis in Children: Importance of Oral Rehydration Salt Solution

      Gastroenteritis is a common condition in children, which can lead to dehydration if not managed properly. While most children do not show signs of dehydration, those at increased risk should be given oral rehydration salt solution as supplemental fluid. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), children at increased risk include infants younger than one year, those who have passed more than five loose stools or vomited more than twice in the previous 24 hours, and those with signs of malnutrition.

      It is important to note that feeding with formula or breast milk should continue if the child can tolerate it. Solid food should not be given, and fruit juices or carbonated drinks should be avoided due to their high osmolarity. While extra fluid intake should generally be encouraged, it may not be enough for children with multiple risk factors for dehydration. Therefore, oral rehydration salt solution should be given as recommended by healthcare professionals.

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  • Question 27 - A 4-month-old boy presents with an eight-hour history of vomiting and inconsolable crying....

    Incorrect

    • A 4-month-old boy presents with an eight-hour history of vomiting and inconsolable crying. He has a tender, irreducible lump in the right groin that extends into the scrotum.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Testicular torsion

      Correct Answer: Incarcerated hernia

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing between Inguinal Hernia and Other Groin Conditions in Children

      Inguinal hernias are a common condition affecting 1-3% of young children, with incarcerated or strangulated hernias accounting for 10-20% of cases. These hernias present as a swelling in the external or internal inguinal ring or scrotum, which may or may not be painful. In contrast, testicular torsion typically affects teenage boys and presents with testicular pain, tenderness, and swelling. Orchitis, caused by mumps, also presents with testicular pain and swelling but doesn’t involve swelling in the groin. Hydroceles, which contain fluid and transilluminate, are not typically tender and do not involve bowel in the scrotum. Undescended or retractile testicles may cause apparent groin swelling but do not involve tenderness. When evaluating a child with apparent groin swelling, it is important to palpate both testicles and consider the presence of tenderness, transillumination, and upper border of the swelling to distinguish between these conditions.

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  • Question 28 - A 28-year-old woman who is 39 weeks pregnant contacts you to ask for...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman who is 39 weeks pregnant contacts you to ask for information about the newborn hearing screening programme. She is concerned about potential harm to her baby's ears and is uncertain about giving consent for this screening.

      What is the screening test that is provided to all newborn infants as part of this programme?

      Your Answer: Play audiometry

      Correct Answer: Automated otoacoustic emission test

      Explanation:

      The automated otoacoustic emission test is utilized for screening hearing problems in newborns. This test involves inserting a small soft-tipped earpiece in the outer part of a baby’s ear to send clicking sounds down the ear. A healthy cochlea is indicated by the presence of a soft echo.

      The auditory brainstem response test is an incorrect answer. It may be conducted by an audiologist if a baby is not found to have satisfactory hearing during newborn screening with the automated otoacoustic emission test. This test involves placing small sensors on the baby, playing sounds of different frequencies into their ears, and recording the response using a computer.

      Play audiometry is also an incorrect answer. It is suitable for children between two and five years old and not for newborns as the child is required to perform a simple task when they hear a sound.

      Pure tone audiometry is another incorrect answer. It is used in older children (school age) and adults and is not suitable for use in newborns as the patient must respond when they hear a noise by pressing a button.

      Hearing Tests for Children

      Hearing tests are important for children to ensure that they are developing normally. There are several tests that may be performed on children of different ages. For newborns, an otoacoustic emission test is typically done as part of the Newborn Hearing Screening Programme. This test involves playing a computer-generated click through a small earpiece and checking for the presence of a soft echo, which indicates a healthy cochlea. If the results of this test are abnormal, an Auditory Brainstem Response test may be done.

      For infants between 6-9 months, a Distraction test may be performed by a health visitor with the help of two trained staff members. For children between 18 months to 2.5 years, a Recognition of familiar objects test may be used, which involves using familiar objects like a teddy or cup and asking the child simple questions like where is the teddy? For children over 2.5 years, Performance testing and Speech discrimination tests using similar-sounding objects like the Kendall Toy test or McCormick Toy Test may be used. Pure tone audiometry is typically done at school entry in most areas of the UK for children over 3 years old.

      In addition to these tests, there is also a questionnaire for parents in the Personal Child Health Records called Can your baby hear you? This questionnaire can help identify any potential hearing issues in children. Overall, hearing tests are an important part of ensuring that children are developing normally and can help identify any issues early on.

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  • Question 29 - The parents of a 4-year-old girl with cystic fibrosis are seeking guidance on...

    Incorrect

    • The parents of a 4-year-old girl with cystic fibrosis are seeking guidance on whether to have more children. Both parents are non-carriers of the disease. What is the likelihood that their next child will be a carrier of the cystic fibrosis gene?

      Your Answer: 1 in 25

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cystic Fibrosis

      Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that causes thickened secretions in the lungs and pancreas. It is an autosomal recessive condition that occurs due to a defect in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator gene (CFTR), which regulates a chloride channel. In the UK, 80% of CF cases are caused by delta F508 on chromosome 7, and the carrier rate is approximately 1 in 25.

      CF patients are at risk of colonization by certain organisms, including Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Burkholderia cepacia (previously known as Pseudomonas cepacia), and Aspergillus. These organisms can cause infections and exacerbate symptoms in CF patients. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor and manage these infections to prevent further complications.

      Overall, understanding cystic fibrosis and its associated risks can help healthcare providers provide better care for patients with this condition.

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  • Question 30 - A 9-year-old child is waiting in the GP's office when he suddenly experiences...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old child is waiting in the GP's office when he suddenly experiences facial swelling and difficulty breathing. An elderly patient is snacking on a bag of cashew nuts in the waiting room. The patient is in good health and had come with his mother for her appointment. As the attending GP, you diagnose the child with anaphylaxis. What would be the appropriate dosage of adrenaline to administer?

      Your Answer: Adrenaline 150 mcg IM STAT

      Correct Answer: Adrenaline 300 mcg IM STAT

      Explanation:

      If a child between the ages of 6 and 11 is experiencing an anaphylactic reaction, they should be given a dose of 300 micrograms (0.3ml) of adrenaline. This dose can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary. Based on the patient’s age of 8 years old, it is recommended to administer the adrenaline at a dose of 300 micrograms IM immediately, as stated in the BNF. It is likely that the child is having an anaphylactic reaction to the nuts they were exposed to in the GP waiting room.

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It can be caused by various triggers, including food, drugs, and insect venom. The symptoms of anaphylaxis typically develop suddenly and progress rapidly, affecting the airway, breathing, and circulation. Swelling of the throat and tongue, hoarse voice, and stridor are common airway problems, while respiratory wheeze and dyspnea are common breathing problems. Hypotension and tachycardia are common circulation problems. Skin and mucosal changes, such as generalized pruritus and widespread erythematous or urticarial rash, are also present in around 80-90% of patients.

      The most important drug in the management of anaphylaxis is intramuscular adrenaline, which should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary depending on the patient’s age, with the highest dose being 500 micrograms for adults and children over 12 years old. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary. If the patient’s respiratory and/or cardiovascular problems persist despite two doses of IM adrenaline, IV fluids should be given for shock, and expert help should be sought for consideration of an IV adrenaline infusion.

      Following stabilisation, non-sedating oral antihistamines may be given to patients with persisting skin symptoms. Patients with a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis should be referred to a specialist allergy clinic, and an adrenaline injector should be given as an interim measure before the specialist allergy assessment. Patients should be prescribed two adrenaline auto-injectors, and training should be provided on how to use them. A risk-stratified approach to discharge should be taken, as biphasic reactions can occur in up to 20% of patients. The Resus Council UK recommends a fast-track discharge for patients who have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline and have been given an adrenaline auto-injector and trained how to use it. Patients who require two doses of IM adrenaline or have had a previous biphasic reaction should be observed for a minimum of 6 hours after symptom resolution, while those who have had a severe reaction requiring more than two doses of IM adrenaline or have severe asthma should be observed for a minimum of 12 hours after symptom resolution. Patients who present late at night or in areas where access to emergency care may be difficult should also be observed for a minimum of 12

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  • Question 31 - A 25-year-old backpacker returns from a year of travelling in a remote part...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old backpacker returns from a year of travelling in a remote part of South America. She has had diarrhoea for three weeks and the lab confirms that she has giardiasis.

      What is the incubation period of giardiasis?

      Your Answer: One to two days

      Correct Answer: Four to six weeks

      Explanation:

      Giardiasis: A Chronic Diarrhoeal Disease

      Giardiasis is a chronic diarrhoeal disease caused by the flagellate protozoan parasite, Giardia lamblia. This parasite attaches to the small bowel but doesn’t invade it. The disease is prevalent in tropical regions and is contracted by ingesting cysts present in contaminated water or food.

      To diagnose giardiasis, stool microscopy is used to detect the cysts. Treatment for giardiasis involves the use of oral metronidazole or tinidazole. These medications are effective in eliminating the parasite and relieving symptoms.

      In conclusion, giardiasis is a chronic diarrhoeal disease that can be contracted by ingesting contaminated water or food. Early diagnosis and treatment are essential to prevent complications and reduce the spread of the disease.

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  • Question 32 - Which of the following statements about children with special educational needs (SEN) is...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements about children with special educational needs (SEN) is not true?

      Your Answer: 'School Action Plus' involves help from outside agencies such as speech therapists

      Correct Answer: A special educational needs coordinator (SENCO) is a paediatrician who specialises in education

      Explanation:

      A teacher who specializes in coordinating special educational needs is known as a SENCO.

      Special educational needs (SEN) refer to children who have a greater difficulty in learning compared to their peers or have a disability that hinders their access to educational facilities. When a child is struggling, a review called ‘School Action’ is conducted by the school and parents to determine what can be done. If outside help is required, such as from an educational psychologist or speech therapist, the review is called ‘School Action Plus’. However, if these actions are not sufficient, a formal statement of educational needs may be necessary.

      To assess children who may require help, a special educational needs coordinator (SENCO) is a teacher who specializes in this area. The statement of SEN should be made and reviewed annually to ensure that the child’s needs are being met. The Education Act 1993 aimed to provide early intervention to children with SEN.

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  • Question 33 - You are conducting a four-week baby check for a full-term newborn. The baby...

    Incorrect

    • You are conducting a four-week baby check for a full-term newborn. The baby is gaining weight and feeding properly. During the examination, you observe a red lump the size of a bean in the umbilicus with thick white discharge. The abdomen is soft with regular bowel sounds, and the lump cannot be reduced. The baby has no fever. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Umbilical hernia

      Correct Answer: Umbilical granuloma

      Explanation:

      To treat umbilical granulomas, salt or silver nitrate cautery can be applied. These granulomas are a common occurrence in babies and appear as a painless lump in the umbilicus, often accompanied by discharge. The umbilical stump typically falls off within ten days of birth, but granulomas can form as the area heals. To speed up the healing process, table salt can be applied for thirty minutes, followed by rinsing the area. This treatment should be repeated twice daily for five days and usually results in resolution within three weeks. If salt treatment is ineffective, silver nitrate cautery can be used, but it’s important to protect the surrounding skin with petroleum jelly.

      Paediatric Umbilical Disorders

      Embryology plays a significant role in the development of umbilical disorders in children. The umbilicus has two umbilical arteries and one umbilical vein during development. After birth, the cord separates, and the umbilical ring closes. Umbilical hernia is a common disorder in neonates, with up to 20% of infants affected. It is more prevalent in premature infants and usually resolves spontaneously within three years. Strangulation is rare. Paraumbilical hernia is another disorder caused by defects in the linea alba near the umbilicus. It is less likely to resolve spontaneously than an umbilical hernia. Omphalitis is a severe condition caused by an infection of the umbilicus, usually by Staphylococcus aureus. It can spread rapidly through the umbilical vessels, leading to portal pyaemia and portal vein thrombosis. Treatment involves a combination of topical and systemic antibiotics. Umbilical granuloma is characterised by cherry red lesions surrounding the umbilicus, which may bleed on contact and discharge seropurulent fluid. Chemical cautery with silver nitrate is an effective treatment. Persistent urachus is characterised by urinary discharge from the umbilicus and is caused by the persistence of the urachus, which attaches to the bladder. It is associated with other urogenital abnormalities. Persistent vitello-intestinal duct presents as an umbilical discharge that discharges small bowel content. It is best imaged using a contrast study to delineate the anatomy and is managed by laparotomy and surgical closure.

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  • Question 34 - A 5-year-old boy presents with his first febrile convulsion.

    Which of the following is...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy presents with his first febrile convulsion.

      Which of the following is appropriate information for his parents?

      Your Answer: There is a 75% chance of having a further febrile convulsion

      Correct Answer: Most cases happen between 6 months and 3 years of age

      Explanation:

      Febrile Convulsions: A Common Occurrence in Young Children

      Febrile convulsions are a relatively common occurrence in young children, with a prevalence of 5% between the ages of 6 months and 5 years. Clinical experience has shown that most of these convulsions occur before the age of three. The convulsions are typically tonic-clonic in nature, and most children (75%) will only experience one seizure. A strong family history of febrile seizures is the most important factor in predicting whether a child will develop further seizures.

      Fortunately, epilepsy develops in only approximately 2% of children who experience febrile convulsions. After the first seizure, no treatment is required other than symptomatic care. It is important for parents and caregivers to be aware of the signs and symptoms of febrile convulsions and to seek medical attention if they occur. With proper management and care, most children will recover fully from febrile convulsions without any long-term effects.

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  • Question 35 - A seven-week-old baby is brought to the surgery by his mother for his...

    Incorrect

    • A seven-week-old baby is brought to the surgery by his mother for his postnatal check. He was born at 36 weeks weighing 2.7kg. On examination the GP finds that the left testicle is not present in the scrotum or groin.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Refer immediately to paediatric surgery

      Correct Answer: Review at three months of age

      Explanation:

      Undescended Testes in Infants

      Undescended testes, also known as cryptorchidism, is a condition where one or both testes fail to descend into the scrotum. It is more common in unilateral cases, occurring four times more often than bilateral cases. At birth, the prevalence of undescended testes is 3.7%, which decreases to 1.0% by three months of age.

      It is important to review infants with unilateral undescended testes at three months of age and refer them before six months of age if the condition persists. While most cases will resolve on their own, surgical intervention may be necessary to prevent complications such as impaired fertility, testicular cancer, and testicular torsion. It is not appropriate to reassure and discharge infants with undescended testes, as some cases will require intervention.

      In cases where a disorder of sexual development is suspected, referral for endocrine and genetic testing may be useful. It is crucial to address undescended testes early to prevent potential complications and ensure proper treatment.

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  • Question 36 - A 4-year-old boy presents with croup to the out-of-hours centre. He has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy presents with croup to the out-of-hours centre. He has a temperature of 38.2°C, a respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min and a croupy cough. There is no intercostal recession.
      What is the most appropriate treatment for him? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Nebulised epinephrine (adrenaline)

      Correct Answer: Oral dexamethasone

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Croup: Choosing the Right Approach

      Croup is a common respiratory illness in children that can cause coughing, difficulty breathing, and other symptoms. When it comes to treating croup, there are several options available, but not all of them are appropriate for every child. Here’s a breakdown of some common treatment options and when they might be used:

      Oral Dexamethasone: For mild-to-moderate croup, a single oral dose of dexamethasone is often the best choice. This medication can help reduce inflammation in the airways and alleviate symptoms. If the child is too unwell to take oral medication, inhaled budesonide may be used instead.

      Nebulised Epinephrine: For children with moderate-to-severe distress, nebulised epinephrine can be effective in reducing swelling in the trachea. However, this treatment only lasts for a few hours, so close monitoring is necessary.

      Inhaling Humidified Air: While inhaling humidified air may help reduce a child’s anxiety, there is little evidence to suggest that it provides any significant symptomatic relief.

      IM Hydrocortisone: IM hydrocortisone is not typically used to treat croup. However, IM dexamethasone may be used as an alternative to oral dexamethasone.

      Nebulised Salbutamol: Salbutamol is not an appropriate treatment for croup, as it is typically used to treat asthma.

      In summary, the best treatment for croup will depend on the severity of the child’s symptoms and their overall health. If you suspect that your child has croup, it’s important to seek medical attention promptly to ensure that they receive the appropriate care.

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  • Question 37 - A three-month-old boy presents to the clinic with a scrotal mass that his...

    Incorrect

    • A three-month-old boy presents to the clinic with a scrotal mass that his mother has noticed. Upon examination, you observe a smooth, soft swelling on the right side of the scrotum. The testicle cannot be felt separately, and the lump is contained within the scrotum. You are able to palpate above the mass, and transillumination testing is positive. What is the most suitable course of action at this stage?

      Your Answer: Watch and wait

      Correct Answer: Anti-inflammatory treatment

      Explanation:

      Hydrocoele in Infants

      A hydrocoele is a condition where there is an accumulation of fluid around the testicle within the tunica vaginalis. This condition is common in infants and is usually asymptomatic. The swelling is smooth and fluctuant, and the testis cannot be felt separately. Transillumination is used to confirm the diagnosis.

      In most cases, hydrocoeles resolve spontaneously within the first year of life as the processus vaginalis gradually becomes obliterated. Therefore, watchful waiting is usually recommended, and the hydrocoele can be reviewed after the first year of life. However, if the hydrocoele persists, it can be assumed that the processus vaginalis will not close spontaneously, and surgical referral is necessary.

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  • Question 38 - A 3-month-old girl is brought to the morning clinic by her father. Since...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-month-old girl is brought to the morning clinic by her father. Since yesterday she has been taking reduced feeds and has been 'not her usual self'. On examination the baby appears well but has a low-grade temperature of 38.2ºC. What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Advise regarding antipyretics, to see if not settling

      Correct Answer: Admit to hospital

      Explanation:

      If a child is under 3 months old and has a temperature above 38ºC, it is considered a ‘red’ characteristic in the updated NICE guidelines, necessitating immediate referral to a pediatrician.

      The NICE Feverish illness in children guidelines were introduced in 2007 and updated in 2013 to provide a ‘traffic light’ system for assessing the risk of febrile illness in children under 5 years old. The guidelines recommend recording the child’s temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and capillary refill time, as well as looking for signs of dehydration. Measuring temperature should be done with an electronic thermometer in the axilla for children under 4 weeks or with an electronic/chemical dot thermometer in the axilla or an infra-red tympanic thermometer. The risk stratification table categorizes children as green (low risk), amber (intermediate risk), or red (high risk) based on their symptoms. Management recommendations vary depending on the risk level, with green children managed at home, amber children provided with a safety net or referred to a specialist, and red children urgently referred to a specialist. The guidelines also advise against prescribing oral antibiotics without an apparent source of fever and note that a chest x-ray is not necessary if a child with suspected pneumonia is not being referred to the hospital.

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  • Question 39 - You are seeing a 5-year-old boy in clinic who has a history of...

    Incorrect

    • You are seeing a 5-year-old boy in clinic who has a history of multiple wheezy episodes over the past 4 years and was diagnosed with asthma. He was admitted 5 months ago with shortness-of-breath and wheeze and was diagnosed with a viral exacerbation of asthma. He was prescribed Clenil (beclomethasone dipropionate) inhaler 50mcg bd and salbutamol 100 mcg prn via a spacer before discharge. His mother reports that he has a persistent night-time cough and is regularly using his salbutamol inhaler. On clinical examination, his chest appears normal.

      What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Add a long-acting beta agonist

      Correct Answer: Add a leukotriene receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      Managing Asthma in Children: NICE Guidelines

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) released guidelines in 2017 for the management of asthma in children aged 5-16. These guidelines follow a stepwise approach, with treatment options based on the severity of the child’s symptoms. For newly-diagnosed asthma, short-acting beta agonists (SABA) are recommended. If symptoms persist or worsen, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) may be used. Leukotriene receptor antagonists (LTRA) and long-acting beta agonists (LABA) may also be added to the treatment plan.

      For children under 5 years old, clinical judgement plays a greater role in diagnosis and treatment. The stepwise approach for this age group includes an 8-week trial of paediatric moderate-dose ICS for newly-diagnosed asthma or uncontrolled symptoms. If symptoms persist, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose ICS with LTRA may be used. If symptoms still persist, referral to a paediatric asthma specialist is recommended.

      It is important to note that NICE doesn’t recommend changing treatment for patients with well-controlled asthma simply to adhere to the latest guidelines. Additionally, maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) may be used for combined ICS and LABA treatment, but only for LABAs with a fast-acting component. The definitions for low, moderate, and high-dose ICS have also changed, with different definitions for children and adults.

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  • Question 40 - A 5-year-old boy complains of two months of widespread muscle aches and joint...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy complains of two months of widespread muscle aches and joint pains in his knees and ankles. In the last four weeks, he has experienced recurrent fevers reaching up to 39.5ºC that resolve spontaneously without the use of antipyretics. His mother also notes the emergence of a transient pink rash during the fevers. What is the MOST PROBABLE diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osteochondritis dissecans

      Correct Answer: Osgood-Schlatter disease

      Explanation:

      Symptoms of Systemic Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis

      Systemic Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA) is characterized by joint symptoms, high fevers that quickly return to normal, and a salmon pink rash. Other symptoms include lymph node enlargement, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, and serositis (pericarditis, pleuritis, peritonitis).

      Oligoarticular JIA may also cause joint symptoms, but it doesn’t explain the fever or rash. Osgood-Schlatter disease typically presents with knee pain, but it doesn’t account for the other symptoms reported in this scenario. Osteochondritis Dissecans may cause aching and swollen joints that worsen with activity, but it doesn’t explain the fevers or pink rash. Septic arthritis is less likely in this case since there is no specific joint that is red and swollen, and the child doesn’t appear to be generally unwell.

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  • Question 41 - A 7-year-old girl still wets the bed most nights. She is dry by...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl still wets the bed most nights. She is dry by day. Her development has been normal and she is otherwise well. She has never had a urinary infection. There are no behavioural problems or family issues.
      What is the most appropriate management option?

      Your Answer: Desmopressin

      Correct Answer: Enuresis alarm

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Enuresis: From Simple Measures to Medications

      Enuresis, or bedwetting, is a common problem among children. While most children outgrow it, some may need treatment. The first step is to try simple measures such as restricting fluid intake and encouraging regular toilet use. If bedwetting persists, an enuresis alarm may be considered as first-line treatment. Desmopressin, a medication that reduces urine production, can be used for rapid control or in combination with an alarm. However, it should be used second line after an alarm has been tried. Desmopressin with an anticholinergic medication like oxybutynin is another option, but specialist assessment is recommended. Imipramine, a tricyclic antidepressant, may be considered as a last resort after all other treatments have failed and with caution due to potential side effects. Overall, treatment options for enuresis should be tailored to the individual child and their specific needs.

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  • Question 42 - A 13-year-old boy has been experiencing pain in his left hip and knee,...

    Correct

    • A 13-year-old boy has been experiencing pain in his left hip and knee, causing him to stop playing rugby for the past month. There was no known injury, but his symptoms have worsened in the last 24 hours. Despite having an upper respiratory tract infection the week before, he is currently feeling well with no fever. He took one of his mother's co-codamol 30/500 an hour ago, which provided some relief. However, he is unable to walk without assistance.

      During the examination, his knee appears normal, but his hip tends to externally rotate when flexed. He is in the 95th percentile for weight, but all other observations are normal. He is currently taking 50 mcg of levothyroxine daily for hypothyroidism.

      What would be the appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Arrange emergency admission under orthopaedics

      Explanation:

      Slipped Upper Epiphysis: Diagnosis and Treatment

      Slipped upper epiphyses are more common in overweight boys aged 10-15 and are associated with obesity and hypothyroidism. Patients often present with pain, which may be referred to the knee, and it is important to examine the hips thoroughly. On examination, abduction and internal rotation may both be reduced, and the affected leg may be shortened. The key findings supporting the diagnosis are the presence of risk factors and gait abnormalities.

      Slipped epiphyses can be classified as acute, chronic, or acute on chronic, and as unstable or stable. In the case of unstable slipped epiphysis, urgent surgical repair is necessary to prevent avascular necrosis. Stable slipped epiphysis is usually treated with in situ screw fixation, and prophylactic fixation of the contralateral hip may also be considered.

      In the primary care setting, emergency admission under orthopaedics is necessary for patients with acute and unstable slipped epiphysis. For chronic and stable cases, x-ray is the first line investigation, and U&Es, serum TFTs, and serum growth hormone may also be considered.

      In summary, early diagnosis and appropriate treatment are crucial in managing slipped upper epiphysis.

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  • Question 43 - A 14-year-old boy presents with lethargy, abdominal bloating and loose stools. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy presents with lethargy, abdominal bloating and loose stools. He has lost 5 kg in weight over the last six months. Examination confirms a thin teenager with obvious pallor.
      What is the most appropriate test to investigate possible malabsorption?

      Your Answer: Human leukocyte antigen (HLA) genetic testing

      Correct Answer: IgA tissue transglutaminase antibodies (tTGAs)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Coeliac Disease Testing: Differentiating Between IgA tTGAs, IgA Gliadin Antibodies, IgA EMAs, HLA Genetic Testing, and IgG tTGAs

      Coeliac disease is a condition that affects the small intestine and is caused by an intolerance to gluten. While small-bowel biopsy is the most reliable way to diagnose coeliac disease, IgA tissue transglutaminase antibodies (tTGAs) are the preferred initial investigation. This test is highly specific and sensitive for untreated coeliac disease, but should not be performed on children younger than two years as it may give a false negative result.

      It is important to note that around 0.4% of the population has selective IgA deficiency, which can lead to a false-negative result. In such cases, the laboratory should measure IgA levels. Some laboratories may do this routinely when measuring tTGAs.

      IgA gliadin antibodies are not commonly used to diagnose coeliac disease. Instead, IgA EMAs are autoantibodies against tissue transglutaminase type 2 (tTGA2) and are highly specific and sensitive for untreated coeliac disease. However, IgA EMAs should be measured if IgA tTG is only weakly positive.

      HLA genetic testing is not recommended for diagnosing coeliac disease in primary care. Coeliac disease is strongly associated with the genes HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8, but testing for these genes is not necessary for diagnosis.

      Finally, IgG tTGAs should only be considered in people who are IgA deficient to avoid the risk of a false-negative IgA tTGA result.

      In summary, understanding the differences between these tests is crucial in accurately diagnosing coeliac disease and providing appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 44 - A three-year-old is brought to see you by his father. The father describes...

    Incorrect

    • A three-year-old is brought to see you by his father. The father describes how this morning his son 'blacked out'.
      On further questioning, the child was having a tantrum and started crying, he then seemed to turn blue and collapsed. Dad reports that after the collapse the child seemed to stiffen briefly but then recovered quickly. The child was well before the incident and has been well since.
      What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Simple faint

      Correct Answer: Breath holding attack

      Explanation:

      Breath Holding Attacks and Reflex Anoxic Seizures in Toddlers

      Breath holding attacks and reflex anoxic seizures are two types of episodes that can occur in toddlers. Breath holding attacks are triggered by upset and can start as early as six months of age, with a peak incidence at two years and typically stopping by five years of age. During a breath holding attack, the child cries, holds their breath, and becomes cyanosed, which can sometimes lead to loss of consciousness and stiffening. However, rapid recovery is common, and no treatment is required.

      On the other hand, reflex anoxic seizures are triggered by pain or discomfort, such as minor head trauma, cold food, or fright. After the trigger, the child becomes pale and falls to the floor, which can induce a seizure due to hypoxia resulting from cardiac asystole from vagal inhibition. These episodes are characterized by the pallor typically seen in reflex anoxic seizures.

      It is important to note that breath holding attacks can be confused with other options, especially when the child stiffens or progresses to a seizure. However, understanding the differences between these two types of episodes can help parents and caregivers provide appropriate care and reassurance to the child.

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  • Question 45 - A worried mother brings her 8-week old baby to your GP practice for...

    Correct

    • A worried mother brings her 8-week old baby to your GP practice for their routine postnatal baby check. She is concerned about her baby's noisy breathing, which she reports has been getting worse over the past few weeks. This baby was born at term with no complications. During examination, you hear an inspiratory stridor but no other abnormal lung sounds. The baby's heart sounds are normal, and the baby is alert and playful. There is no indication of any cyanosis. The baby has been growing and feeding normally. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Laryngomalacia

      Explanation:

      Noisy breathing in infants is often caused by a benign condition called laryngomalacia. This condition is characterized by the softening of the larynx cartilage, which leads to its collapse during inhalation. Although it can present at birth, it typically worsens during the first few weeks of life and resolves on its own before the child turns two years old. On the other hand, symptoms of foreign body obstruction occur suddenly. Cystic fibrosis, which is associated with poor growth and meconium ileus, can be detected through a neonatal heel prick test.

      Stridor in Children: Causes and Symptoms

      Stridor is a high-pitched, wheezing sound that occurs during breathing and is commonly seen in children. There are several causes of stridor in children, including croup, acute epiglottitis, inhaled foreign body, and laryngomalacia. Croup is a viral infection that affects the upper respiratory tract and is characterized by stridor, barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms. Acute epiglottitis is a rare but serious infection caused by Haemophilus influenza type B, which can lead to airway obstruction. Inhaled foreign body can cause sudden onset of coughing, choking, vomiting, and stridor, depending on the site of impaction. Laryngomalacia is a congenital abnormality of the larynx that typically presents in infants at 4 weeks of age with stridor.

      It is important to recognize the symptoms of stridor in children and seek prompt medical attention, especially if the child appears unwell or toxic. Treatment may include medications, such as corticosteroids or nebulized epinephrine, to reduce inflammation and improve breathing. In severe cases, hospitalization and airway management may be necessary. Parents and caregivers should also take steps to prevent the spread of viral infections, such as washing hands frequently and avoiding close contact with sick individuals.

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  • Question 46 - A 4-year-old girl is brought to the doctor by her father. For the...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl is brought to the doctor by her father. For the past 4 days she has been experiencing a sticky discharge from both eyes upon waking up. Upon examination, there is some crusting around the eyelid margins and the sclera are slightly pink. The father inquires if his daughter should stay home from preschool. What is the best answer to give?

      Response:

      Your Answer: He can return to nursery 3 days after the symptoms started

      Correct Answer: He doesn't need to be kept off nursery

      Explanation:

      Although nurseries and schools may provide contradictory advice, the guidelines from the Health Protection Agency are unambiguous in stating that children do not require exclusion. Providing parents with a copy of these guidelines to present to their childcare provider can be beneficial in certain situations.

      The Health Protection Agency has provided guidance on when children should be excluded from school due to infectious conditions. Some conditions, such as conjunctivitis, fifth disease, roseola, infectious mononucleosis, head lice, threadworms, and hand, foot and mouth, do not require exclusion. Scarlet fever requires exclusion for 24 hours after commencing antibiotics, while whooping cough requires exclusion for 2 days after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are taken. Measles requires exclusion for 4 days from onset of rash, rubella for 5 days from onset of rash, and Chickenpox until all lesions are crusted over. Mumps requires exclusion for 5 days from onset of swollen glands, while diarrhoea and vomiting require exclusion until symptoms have settled for 48 hours. Impetigo requires exclusion until lesions are crusted and healed, or for 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment, and scabies requires exclusion until treated. influenza requires exclusion until the child has recovered for 48 hours.

      Regarding Chickenpox, Public Health England recommends that children should be excluded until all lesions are crusted over, while Clinical Knowledge Summaries suggest that infectivity continues until all lesions are dry and have crusted over, usually about 5 days after the onset of the rash. It is important to follow official guidance and consult with healthcare professionals if unsure about exclusion periods for infectious conditions.

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  • Question 47 - A 6-week-old girl has had vomiting that has been increasing in frequency over...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-week-old girl has had vomiting that has been increasing in frequency over several days. Now when she vomits, the gastric contents are ejected with great force. She is ravenously hungry after each vomit. She is otherwise well but has started to lose weight.
      Which is the SINGLE MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gastroenteritis

      Correct Answer: Infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Vomiting in Infants: Symptoms and Descriptions

      Projectile vomiting is a common symptom in infants, but it can be caused by various conditions. One of the most common causes is infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, which is characterized by forceful vomiting after feeding. This condition is caused by the narrowing of the pyloric canal due to the hypertrophy and hyperplasia of the smooth muscle of the antrum of the stomach and pylorus. It usually occurs in infants aged 2-8 weeks and can be treated by pyloromyotomy.

      Gastro-oesophageal reflux is another cause of vomiting in infants, which is characterized by non-forceful regurgitation of milk due to the functional immaturity of the lower oesophageal sphincter. This condition is most common in the first weeks of life and usually resolves by 12-18 months.

      Duodenal atresia is a condition that causes hydramnios during pregnancy and intestinal obstruction in the newborn. About 30% of cases have Down syndrome and 30% have cardiovascular abnormalities.

      Gastroenteritis is an acute illness that can cause vomiting and loose stools. However, the vomiting is not usually projectile, and the baby would not appear hungry straight after vomiting. These are typical symptoms of pyloric stenosis in this age group.

      Lactose intolerance is a condition that develops in people with low lactase levels. Symptoms include bloating, nausea, abdominal pain, diarrhea, and flatulence. Although babies and children can be affected, primary lactose intolerance most commonly appears between 20 and 40 years.

      Understanding the Causes of Vomiting in Infants

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  • Question 48 - A mother brings her 2-year-old child to see you. The child has had...

    Correct

    • A mother brings her 2-year-old child to see you. The child has had diarrhoea and been vomiting for the last 48 hours.

      On further questioning, the child has had four very loose stools today and vomited three times. The child has no significant past medical history and is usually well. There has been no blood in the faeces. There is no history of foreign travel. On examination the child has a temperature of 37.5°C, is not dehydrated and has a soft abdomen with no focal findings. You diagnose gastroenteritis.

      What is the most appropriate way of managing this child?

      Your Answer: Conservative treatment with advice regarding hydration and when to seek further advice

      Explanation:

      Managing Gastroenteritis in Children

      Gastroenteritis is a common childhood illness that requires effective management to determine whether the child can be treated at home or needs referral to a hospital. It is important to note that not all children develop lactose intolerance after gastroenteritis, so switching to lactose-free formula is not recommended. Antibiotics are also usually unnecessary, as gastroenteritis is typically viral. The decision to manage the illness at home depends on the child’s hydration status and the parents’ ability to maintain that hydration.

      Hydration status is assessed clinically based on various factors such as alertness, pulse rate, capillary refill time, mucous membranes, skin turgor, and urine output. In primary care, taking blood to check for signs of dehydration is not routinely recommended. Referral to paediatrics should not be the default option for children under 12 months of age; the decision to treat at home or refer should be based on the clinical assessment. If the child is not clinically dehydrated and there are no atypical features, it would be reasonable to monitor them at home with advice on how to maintain hydration and when to seek review if their condition worsens.

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  • Question 49 - A 6-year-old child is brought to the emergency room by her mother after...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old child is brought to the emergency room by her mother after she noticed a red rash on her daughter's legs that doesn't disappear when pressed. The child has been unwell with a fever and cough since yesterday, but her symptoms have worsened throughout the day. The mother is worried because her daughter is also complaining of a headache and has cold hands and feet. During the examination, the child is found to have a petechial rash on her lower legs and a temperature of 38.4ºC. The mother reports that her daughter is allergic to penicillin and had a rash and vomiting after taking amoxicillin for an ear infection 2 years ago. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Phone 999

      Correct Answer: Phone 999 + administer intramuscular benzylpenicillin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Meningococcal Septicaemia

      Meningococcal septicaemia is a serious condition that can cause high morbidity and mortality if not treated early. It is the leading infectious cause of death in early childhood, making it crucial to have a high index of suspicion. According to the 2010 NICE guidelines, meningococcal disease can present as meningitis, septicaemia, or a combination of both.

      NICE divides the symptoms of meningococcal septicaemia into three categories: common nonspecific symptoms/signs, less common nonspecific symptoms/signs, and more specific symptoms/signs. Common nonspecific symptoms/signs include fever, vomiting, and lethargy, while less common nonspecific symptoms/signs include chills and shivering. More specific symptoms/signs include a non-blanching rash, altered mental state, capillary refill time more than 2 seconds, unusual skin colour, shock, hypotension, leg pain, and cold hands/feet.

      If meningococcal septicaemia is suspected, it is important to give intramuscular or intravenous benzylpenicillin unless there is a history of anaphylaxis. However, if giving benzylpenicillin will delay hospital transfer, it should not be given. NICE recommends phoning 999 in case of suspected meningococcal septicaemia.

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  • Question 50 - A 4-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his mother for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his mother for a check-up. She is anxious about his flat feet and is worried that he may experience foot pain and gait problems in the future. During the examination, the child walks normally, but an absent medial arch of the feet and genu valgum are observed when he stands still.

      What recommendations should be provided to the mother?

      Your Answer: Abnormal findings at this age, refer for paediatrician assessment

      Correct Answer: Common findings at this age, reassure

      Explanation:

      Flat feet (pes planus) and ‘knock knees’ (genu valgum) are common in children of this age and typically resolve on their own between the ages of 4-8 years. Therefore, reassurance should be given to the mother and orthopaedic or podiatry assessment is not necessarily required. However, if the parents are highly anxious, a paediatrician can be consulted for further reassurance. Additionally, physiotherapy is not necessary as there is no significant musculoskeletal abnormality to correct.

      Common Variations in Lower Limb Development in Children

      Parents may become concerned when they notice what appears to be abnormalities in their child’s lower limbs. This often leads to a visit to the primary care physician and a referral to a specialist. However, many of these variations are actually normal and will resolve on their own as the child grows.

      One common variation is flat feet, where the medial arch is absent when the child is standing. This is typically seen in children of all ages and usually resolves between the ages of 4-8 years. Orthotics are not recommended, and parental reassurance is appropriate.

      Another variation is in-toeing, which can be caused by metatarsus adductus, internal tibial torsion, or femoral anteversion. In most cases, these will resolve on their own, but severe or persistent cases may require intervention such as serial casting or surgical intervention. Out-toeing is also common in early infancy and usually resolves by the age of 2 years.

      Bow legs, or genu varum, are typically seen in the first or second year of life and are characterized by an increased intercondylar distance. This variation usually resolves by the age of 4-5 years. Knock knees, or genu valgum, are seen in the third or fourth year of life and are characterized by an increased intermalleolar distance. This variation also typically resolves on its own.

      In summary, many variations in lower limb development in children are normal and will resolve on their own. However, if there is concern or persistent symptoms, intervention may be appropriate.

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  • Question 51 - You are taking the family history of an adult whom you suspect may...

    Correct

    • You are taking the family history of an adult whom you suspect may have a cancer.
      Which of the following conditions would alert you to an increased risk of cancer?

      Your Answer: Neurofibromatosis

      Explanation:

      Syndromes and their Association with Cancer

      There are certain syndromes that have been linked to an increased risk of developing certain types of cancer. Down’s syndrome, for example, has been associated with leukaemia, while neurofibromatosis, which is inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion, has been linked to CNS tumours. Other rare syndromes have also been linked to certain cancers.

      It is important for primary healthcare professionals to be aware of these associations and to be vigilant for any unexplained symptoms in children or young people with these syndromes. Early detection and treatment can greatly improve outcomes for these patients. Therefore, it is crucial for healthcare professionals to stay informed and up-to-date on the latest research and recommendations regarding these syndromes and their potential links to cancer.

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  • Question 52 - A ten-year-old boy with a history of asthma and eczema comes to the...

    Correct

    • A ten-year-old boy with a history of asthma and eczema comes to the urgent GP clinic complaining of a cough. Upon entering the room, he appears to be in good health and is able to speak in complete sentences. His oxygen saturation levels are at 97% in air, his peak expiratory flow is at 60% of expected, his heart rate is at 115/min, and his respiratory rate is at 28/min. During chest examination, widespread wheezing is observed.

      What is the recommended course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Oral prednisolone and salbutamol via a spacer: one puff every 30-60 seconds to a maximum of 10 puffs

      Explanation:

      As expected, the child’s respiratory rate is less than 30 breaths per minute and heart rate is less than 125 beats per minute. The appropriate treatment for this asthma attack is oral prednisolone and salbutamol via a spacer, with one puff every 30-60 seconds up to a maximum of 10 puffs. It is important to administer steroid therapy to all children experiencing an asthma attack. High flow oxygen and salbutamol nebuliser are not necessary as the child’s SP02 is already at 97%.

      The management of acute asthma attacks in children depends on the severity of the attack. Children with severe or life-threatening asthma should be immediately transferred to the hospital. For children with mild to moderate acute asthma, bronchodilator therapy and steroid therapy should be given. The dosage of prednisolone depends on the age of the child. It is important to monitor SpO2, PEF, heart rate, respiratory rate, use of accessory neck muscles, and other clinical features to determine the severity of the attack.

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  • Question 53 - A mother brings her daughter to an appointment with the Practice Nurse for...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her daughter to an appointment with the Practice Nurse for her routine 4-month immunisations, which includes the new Meningitis B vaccine, introduced in 2015. What guidance should be provided regarding post-vaccination care at home?

      Your Answer: Avoid giving paracetamol if possible as it will reduce the immune response

      Correct Answer: Give paracetamol post-vaccination

      Explanation:

      It is common for individuals to experience a fever of over 38 degrees after receiving the Meningitis B vaccine. To prevent this from occurring, it is recommended that infants receive three doses of paracetamol, with the first dose administered immediately after vaccination. If necessary, parents should continue to administer paracetamol every 4-6 hours for up to 48 hours after vaccination. It is believed that the use of paracetamol doesn’t affect the effectiveness of the vaccine.

      Meningitis B Vaccine Now Part of Routine NHS Immunisation

      Children in the UK have been receiving immunisation against meningococcus serotypes A and C for many years. However, this led to meningococcal B becoming the most common cause of bacterial meningitis in the country. To address this, a vaccine against meningococcal B called Bexsero was developed and introduced to the UK market.

      Initially, the Joint Committee on Vaccination and Immunisation (JCVI) rejected the use of Bexsero after conducting a cost-benefit analysis. However, this decision was eventually reversed, and meningitis B has now been added to the routine NHS immunisation. Children will receive three doses of the vaccine at 2 months, 4 months, and 12-13 months.

      Moreover, Bexsero will also be available on the NHS for patients at high risk of meningococcal disease, such as those with asplenia, splenic dysfunction, or complement disorder. With the inclusion of meningitis B vaccine in the routine NHS immunisation, the UK hopes to reduce the incidence of bacterial meningitis and protect more children and high-risk patients from the disease.

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  • Question 54 - A 10-month-old baby girl comes to the emergency department with a 2 day...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-month-old baby girl comes to the emergency department with a 2 day history of high fevers and sensitivity to light. During the examination, her temperature is recorded as 40.2ºC. She has a rash that doesn't disappear when pressed and appears lethargic.

      What is the immediate medication that should be administered?

      Your Answer: Ceftriaxone

      Correct Answer: Benzylpenicillin

      Explanation:

      In case of suspected bacterial meningococcal septicaemia, benzylpenicillin should be administered to the patient without delaying their transfer to the hospital, unless there is a history of anaphylaxis. Ceftriaxone is the preferred treatment in secondary care, while cefotaxime can be used as an alternative if calcium-containing infusions are being given. Ampicillin can also be used in secondary care along with ceftriaxone. If the organism isolated is Listeria monocytogenes, gentamicin should be added to the treatment regimen.

      Understanding Meningococcal Septicaemia

      Meningococcal septicaemia is a serious condition that can cause high morbidity and mortality if not treated early. It is the leading infectious cause of death in early childhood, making it crucial to have a high index of suspicion. According to the 2010 NICE guidelines, meningococcal disease can present as meningitis, septicaemia, or a combination of both.

      NICE divides the symptoms of meningococcal septicaemia into three categories: common nonspecific symptoms/signs, less common nonspecific symptoms/signs, and more specific symptoms/signs. Common nonspecific symptoms/signs include fever, vomiting, and lethargy, while less common nonspecific symptoms/signs include chills and shivering. More specific symptoms/signs include a non-blanching rash, altered mental state, capillary refill time more than 2 seconds, unusual skin colour, shock, hypotension, leg pain, and cold hands/feet.

      If meningococcal septicaemia is suspected, it is important to give intramuscular or intravenous benzylpenicillin unless there is a history of anaphylaxis. However, if giving benzylpenicillin will delay hospital transfer, it should not be given. NICE recommends phoning 999 in case of suspected meningococcal septicaemia.

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  • Question 55 - A 10-month-old child presents with difficulty opening its bowels. The child is having...

    Correct

    • A 10-month-old child presents with difficulty opening its bowels. The child is having to strain to pass hard stools and is only going once a week. On reviewing the history, the child was born at full term with no perinatal complications. The baby passed meconium within 24 hours of birth and has had no previous issues with constipation. Examination shows a normal abdomen, perianal area, legs, and spine with no focal neurological signs. What is the best initial management approach?

      Your Answer: Start laxative treatment with a macrogol laxative (e.g. polyethylene glycol 3350 with electrolytes)

      Explanation:

      Management of Constipation in a 12-Month-Old Child

      This 12-month-old child has presented with constipation. Referral for specialist assessment or further investigation is not necessary at this stage, as there are no red flags in the history or examination. Treatment should be initiated in primary care.

      A rectal examination is not necessary for the primary care assessment. A thorough history and examination, as discussed in the stem, is sufficient to make an accurate diagnosis and identify the presence of any impaction.

      The first-line treatment for constipation is laxative treatment. A good first-line agent is macrogol polyethylene glycol 3350 with electrolytes (Movicol® Paediatric Plain). If there is a lack of effect, a stimulant laxative such as senna can be added to the treatment. In addition to laxative use, the patient and carers should be advised on lifestyle factors such as diet, including adequate fluid intake.

      Behavioural interventions, such as scheduled toileting, encouragement, and reward systems, may be appropriate depending on the age of the patient. Advice on exercise in older children may also be helpful. However, dietary interventions should not be used alone as a first-line treatment. Early use of a laxative is indicated and is the most appropriate option.

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  • Question 56 - A 6-year-old child presents clinically with mumps and has not been immunised.

    Which statement...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old child presents clinically with mumps and has not been immunised.

      Which statement is true of notifiable diseases?

      Your Answer: There is no need to notify the hospital regarding infectious diseases when patients are being admitted

      Correct Answer: Notification is a statutory duty

      Explanation:

      Disease Notification and Surveillance

      The notification of diseases has a long history, dating back to the great epidemics of the past. With improvements in hygiene and vaccination, infectious diseases have become less common, and many GP disease notification returns are inconsistent. However, it is still a legal obligation to report diseases. It is also essential that hospitals are informed of potential infectious diseases when patients are referred. The government uses various data sources for disease surveillance and increasingly relies on electronic data returns. Mumps remains a risk to unimmunised populations.

      Mumps: Epidemiology, Surveillance, and Control

      Mumps is a viral infection that can cause swelling of the salivary glands, fever, and headache. It is still a risk to unimmunised populations. To control the spread of mumps, it is essential to have effective epidemiology, surveillance, and control measures in place. This includes reporting cases to health authorities, monitoring outbreaks, and promoting vaccination. With the help of electronic data returns and other surveillance methods, it is possible to track the spread of mumps and take appropriate action to prevent further transmission. By working together, we can reduce the impact of mumps and other infectious diseases on our communities.

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  • Question 57 - A previously healthy 6-month-old baby boy is brought to the General Practitioner with...

    Incorrect

    • A previously healthy 6-month-old baby boy is brought to the General Practitioner with a 3-day history of coughing. He has now started to go off his feeds and his mother is getting rather concerned. On examination, he is tachypnoeic, with fine crepitations heard all over his lungs, with some wheeze in both lung fields.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Asthma

      Correct Answer: Bronchiolitis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Respiratory Symptoms in Infants

      Respiratory symptoms in infants can be caused by a variety of conditions, and it is important to consider the differential diagnosis to provide appropriate treatment. Here are some common conditions and their typical symptoms:

      Bronchiolitis: This acute infection of the lower respiratory tract is most common in infants between two and six months old. Symptoms include difficulty feeding, low-grade fever, coryza, cough, dyspnoea, wheezing, and respiratory distress.

      Croup: This inflammation of the upper airways is usually caused by a respiratory virus and affects children from three months to three years old. Symptoms include a barking cough, stridor, and wheeze.

      Asthma: This condition is rarely diagnosed in infants due to the lack of a clear diagnostic test. Symptoms overlap with common childhood illnesses and include coughing, wheezing, and difficulty breathing.

      Heart failure: This should be considered in infants with feeding and breathing difficulties, but typically presents with symptoms since birth.

      Pneumonia: This is another possible diagnosis for respiratory symptoms in infants, but examination findings such as reduced air entry and dull percussion note would support this diagnosis.

      In summary, a thorough evaluation of symptoms and examination findings is necessary to determine the appropriate diagnosis and treatment for respiratory symptoms in infants.

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  • Question 58 - A 6-month-old is brought to your clinic with suspected reflux. The parents report...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old is brought to your clinic with suspected reflux. The parents report that the baby has been experiencing regurgitation after feeds and becomes very distressed. The baby is fully formula-fed and has been difficult to feed. However, the baby is gaining weight well and is otherwise healthy. There is a family history of reflux, with the baby's older sibling having had reflux in infancy. Upon examination, the baby doesn't have tongue-tie, has a normal suck-reflex, and the abdominal examination is reassuring. What steps should be taken to address the suspected reflux?

      Your Answer: Trial of larger, less frequent feeds

      Correct Answer: Trial of alginate added to the formula

      Explanation:

      While positional management of gastro-oesophageal reflux may seem logical, it is important to note that infants should always sleep on their backs to minimize the risk of cot death. Although there are no concerning symptoms, it is advisable to provide treatment for the child’s distress. It is not recommended to increase the volume of feeds as this may exacerbate reflux. Instead, smaller and more frequent feeds could be considered. Diluting the feeds will not improve symptoms and may actually increase the volume in the stomach.

      Gastro-oesophageal reflux is a common cause of vomiting in infants, with around 40% of babies experiencing some degree of regurgitation. However, certain risk factors such as preterm delivery and neurological disorders can increase the likelihood of developing this condition. Symptoms typically appear before 8 weeks of age and include vomiting or regurgitation, milky vomits after feeds, and excessive crying during feeding. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical observation.

      Management of gastro-oesophageal reflux in infants involves advising parents on proper feeding positions, ensuring the infant is not overfed, and considering a trial of thickened formula or alginate therapy. However, proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are not recommended as a first-line treatment for isolated symptoms of regurgitation. PPIs may be considered if the infant experiences unexplained feeding difficulties, distressed behavior, or faltering growth. Metoclopramide, a prokinetic agent, should only be used with specialist advice.

      Complications of gastro-oesophageal reflux can include distress, failure to thrive, aspiration, frequent otitis media, and dental erosion in older children. If medical treatment is ineffective and severe complications arise, fundoplication may be considered. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the risk factors, symptoms, and management options for gastro-oesophageal reflux in infants.

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  • Question 59 - Each one of the following statements regarding ADHD is correct, except: ...

    Incorrect

    • Each one of the following statements regarding ADHD is correct, except:

      Your Answer: 75% of children are male

      Correct Answer: The majority of children have normal or increased intelligence

      Explanation:

      Autism spectrum disorder (ASD) is a neurodevelopmental condition that affects social interaction, communication, and behavior. It can be diagnosed in early childhood or later in life and is more common in boys than girls. Around 50% of children with ASD also have an intellectual disability. Symptoms can range from subtle difficulties in understanding and social function to severe disabilities. While there is no cure for ASD, early diagnosis and intensive educational and behavioral management can improve outcomes. Treatment involves a comprehensive approach that includes non-pharmacological therapies such as applied behavioral analysis, structured teaching methods, and family counseling. Pharmacological interventions may also be used to reduce symptoms like repetitive behavior, anxiety, and aggression. The goal of treatment is to increase functional independence and quality of life while decreasing disability and comorbidity.

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  • Question 60 - A 7-month-old infant comes in with a one day history of fever (39°C),...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-month-old infant comes in with a one day history of fever (39°C), and a generalised rash, which started on the legs and is now present on limbs and trunk virtually equally. The rash is purplish, non-palpable, and non-blanching. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Henoch-Schönlein purpura

      Correct Answer: Meningococcal septicaemia

      Explanation:

      Meningococcal Septicaemia and Other Skin Conditions

      Meningococcal septicaemia is a serious condition that can cause a non-blanching purpuric eruption all over the body. This symptom is a key indicator of the disease and should be taken seriously. Other skin conditions, such as giant urticaria, measles rash, and haemophilia, do not typically present with this type of rash.

      Giant urticaria is characterised by recurrent attacks of oedema that appear suddenly in various areas of the body. The measles rash, on the other hand, appears as a macular eruption on the face and neck that spreads over three days. Haemophilia is not associated with any generalised rash.

      HSP, another skin condition, may present in a subacute manner and is not typically associated with a high fever in an acutely unwell child. It may occur following an upper respiratory tract infection.

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  • Question 61 - A 28-year-old woman is 11 weeks pregnant and has been diagnosed with threadworm....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman is 11 weeks pregnant and has been diagnosed with threadworm. What treatment options are safe for her?

      Your Answer: Prescribe piperazine

      Correct Answer: Washing or wet-wiping at 3-hourly intervals during the day and personal hygiene measures

      Explanation:

      The recommended treatment for pregnant women with pinworm infection involves a combination of physical removal of eggs and hygiene methods. This may include washing the perianal area in the morning and at regular intervals throughout the day. Therefore, relying solely on strict personal hygiene measures for two weeks would not be the preferred option for this patient. Mebendazole is not recommended during the first trimester of pregnancy, but may be considered in the later stages if necessary.

      Threadworms: A Common Infestation Among Children in the UK

      Infestation with threadworms, also known as pinworms, is a prevalent condition among children in the UK. The infestation occurs when individuals swallow eggs present in their environment. Although around 90% of cases are asymptomatic, some possible features include perianal itching, especially at night, and vulval symptoms in girls.

      Diagnosis can be made by applying Sellotape to the perianal area and sending it to the laboratory for microscopy to see the eggs. However, most patients are treated empirically, and this approach is supported in the CKS guidelines.

      The recommended management for threadworm infestation is a combination of anthelmintic with hygiene measures for all members of the household. Mebendazole is used as a first-line treatment for children over six months old, with a single dose given unless the infestation persists. By following these guidelines, individuals can effectively manage and prevent the spread of threadworms.

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  • Question 62 - A 14-month-old girl is brought to the General Practice Surgery by her mother...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-month-old girl is brought to the General Practice Surgery by her mother following concerns raised by her nursery that she has not said any words and she makes sounds, but there are no recognisable words. They are also concerned that she doesn't respond when her name is called.
      Which is the single most appropriate initial management?

      Your Answer: Refer to Paediatrics

      Correct Answer: Refer to Audiology

      Explanation:

      Referral Pathways for Children with Developmental Delays

      When a child presents with developmental delays, it is important to consider appropriate referral pathways to ensure they receive the necessary assessments and interventions. Here are some examples of referral pathways for children with specific concerns:

      Refer to Audiology: If a child is presenting with speech delay and suspected hearing loss, they should be referred to Audiology for assessment.

      Refer to Paediatrics: For children with delays in one area of development or more general concerns, a full developmental assessment with a Paediatrician may be necessary. However, for isolated concerns regarding hearing and speech, an audiology assessment can be a useful initial investigation.

      Refer to Physiotherapy: Children presenting with delays in gross motor development may benefit from a referral to Physiotherapy.

      Refer to Social Services: While there may be no safeguarding concerns identified, it is important to remain vigilant about safeguarding concerns in children presenting with developmental delays.

      Refer to the Health Visitor: The Health Visitor can provide support to parents and caregivers, but if there are concerns regarding hearing and speech delays, a referral to Audiology should be made for assessment.

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  • Question 63 - What is the suggested amount of prednisolone for kids aged 3-17 years who...

    Incorrect

    • What is the suggested amount of prednisolone for kids aged 3-17 years who experience a worsening of their asthma symptoms?

      Your Answer: 1-2 mg/kg od for 7 days

      Correct Answer: 1-2 mg/kg od for 3-5 days

      Explanation:

      For the treatment of asthma in children, the recommended dose of prednisolone is 1-2 mg/kg once daily for a period of 3-5 days.

      The management of acute asthma attacks in children depends on the severity of the attack. Children with severe or life-threatening asthma should be immediately transferred to the hospital. For children with mild to moderate acute asthma, bronchodilator therapy and steroid therapy should be given. The dosage of prednisolone depends on the age of the child. It is important to monitor SpO2, PEF, heart rate, respiratory rate, use of accessory neck muscles, and other clinical features to determine the severity of the attack.

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  • Question 64 - A 3-year-old girl is brought to the doctor by her mother. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old girl is brought to the doctor by her mother. She has been experiencing a cold for the past few days but has been generally healthy and has not had a fever. Her mother has brought her to see you because she has developed some spots over the past day. During the examination, the child is cooperative and happy, with a normal heart rate and capillary refill time. She has a runny nose and her throat appears inflamed, but there is no exudate. You also notice a small ulcer on her mucous membranes. There are two small red papules at the edge of her lower lip, and there are a few vesicles and red papules on the palmar aspect of her hands. Her chest is clear, and her tympanic membranes are normal.

      What is the recommended duration for keeping her away from daycare?

      Your Answer: Until all lesions crusted over

      Correct Answer: No exclusion required

      Explanation:

      Children with hand foot and mouth infection can attend school or nursery as long as they are well enough to do so, and do not need to be excluded. This is because the infection is typically mild and self-limiting. However, if the child has a fever, they should be kept at home. It is important to note that exclusion periods for other illnesses, such as Chickenpox, rubella, measles, scarlet fever, and impetigo, differ from those for hand foot and mouth. For more information on exclusion periods, refer to the Public Health Agency website.

      The Health Protection Agency has provided guidance on when children should be excluded from school due to infectious conditions. Some conditions, such as conjunctivitis, fifth disease, roseola, infectious mononucleosis, head lice, threadworms, and hand, foot and mouth, do not require exclusion. Scarlet fever requires exclusion for 24 hours after commencing antibiotics, while whooping cough requires exclusion for 2 days after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are taken. Measles requires exclusion for 4 days from onset of rash, rubella for 5 days from onset of rash, and Chickenpox until all lesions are crusted over. Mumps requires exclusion for 5 days from onset of swollen glands, while diarrhoea and vomiting require exclusion until symptoms have settled for 48 hours. Impetigo requires exclusion until lesions are crusted and healed, or for 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment, and scabies requires exclusion until treated. influenza requires exclusion until the child has recovered for 48 hours.

      Regarding Chickenpox, Public Health England recommends that children should be excluded until all lesions are crusted over, while Clinical Knowledge Summaries suggest that infectivity continues until all lesions are dry and have crusted over, usually about 5 days after the onset of the rash. It is important to follow official guidance and consult with healthcare professionals if unsure about exclusion periods for infectious conditions.

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  • Question 65 - A 6-year-old boy is admitted to surgery with a worsening of his asthma...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy is admitted to surgery with a worsening of his asthma symptoms. According to the British Thoracic Society guidelines, it is classified as a moderate attack. How should his salbutamol inhaler and spacer device be used correctly?

      Your Answer: Give 2 puffs every 15-30 seconds up to a maximum of 10 puffs

      Correct Answer: Give 1 puff every 30-60 seconds up to a maximum of 10 puffs

      Explanation:

      The management of acute asthma attacks in children depends on the severity of the attack. Children with severe or life-threatening asthma should be immediately transferred to the hospital. For children with mild to moderate acute asthma, bronchodilator therapy and steroid therapy should be given. The dosage of prednisolone depends on the age of the child. It is important to monitor SpO2, PEF, heart rate, respiratory rate, use of accessory neck muscles, and other clinical features to determine the severity of the attack.

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  • Question 66 - You receive a call from the mother of a 2-year-old boy who has...

    Incorrect

    • You receive a call from the mother of a 2-year-old boy who has been suffering from a suspected viral upper respiratory tract infection for the past few days. The mother reports that the child has just had a seizure, and three months ago, he had a confirmed febrile convulsion after a similar illness. You schedule an appointment to see the child that morning. What factor should indicate the need for referral to paediatrics?

      Your Answer: A family history of epilepsy

      Correct Answer: The child still being drowsy 2 hours after the seizure

      Explanation:

      If a child remains drowsy for more than an hour, it is unlikely that they are experiencing a ‘simple’ febrile convulsion. A tonic-clonic seizure is a common occurrence and should not cause concern. Additionally, the presence of a confirmed infection focus, such as otitis media, should provide reassurance rather than necessitating hospitalization.

      Febrile convulsions are seizures that occur in otherwise healthy children when they have a fever. They are most common in children between the ages of 6 months and 5 years, affecting around 3% of children. Febrile convulsions usually occur at the onset of a viral infection when the child’s temperature rises rapidly. The seizures are typically brief, lasting less than 5 minutes, and are usually tonic-clonic in nature.

      There are three types of febrile convulsions: simple, complex, and febrile status epilepticus. Simple febrile convulsions last less than 15 minutes and are generalised seizures. Complex febrile convulsions last between 15 and 30 minutes and may be focal seizures. Febrile status epilepticus lasts for more than 30 minutes. Children who have had their first seizure or any features of a complex seizure should be admitted to paediatrics.

      Following a seizure, parents should be advised to call an ambulance if the seizure lasts longer than 5 minutes. Regular antipyretics have not been shown to reduce the chance of a febrile seizure occurring. If recurrent febrile convulsions occur, benzodiazepine rescue medication may be considered, but this should only be started on the advice of a specialist, such as a paediatrician. Rectal diazepam or buccal midazolam may be used.

      The overall risk of further febrile convulsions is 1 in 3, but this varies depending on risk factors for further seizure. These risk factors include age of onset under 18 months, fever below 39ºC, shorter duration of fever before the seizure, and a family history of febrile convulsions. Children with no risk factors have a 2.5% risk of developing epilepsy, while those with all three risk factors have a much higher risk of developing epilepsy, up to 50%.

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  • Question 67 - How many doses of tetanus vaccine should a teenager receive as part of...

    Correct

    • How many doses of tetanus vaccine should a teenager receive as part of the routine UK immunisation schedule?

      Your Answer: 5

      Explanation:

      Tetanus Vaccination and Management of Wounds

      The tetanus vaccine is a purified toxin that is given as part of a combined vaccine. In the UK, it is given as part of the routine immunisation schedule at 2, 3, and 4 months, 3-5 years, and 13-18 years, providing a total of 5 doses. This is considered to provide long-term protection against tetanus.

      When managing wounds, the first step is to classify them as clean, tetanus-prone, or high-risk tetanus-prone. Clean wounds are less than 6 hours old and non-penetrating with negligible tissue damage. Tetanus-prone wounds include puncture-type injuries acquired in a contaminated environment, wounds containing foreign bodies, and compound fractures. High-risk tetanus-prone wounds include wounds or burns with systemic sepsis, certain animal bites and scratches, heavy contamination with material likely to contain tetanus spores, wounds or burns that show extensive devitalised tissue, and wounds or burns that require surgical intervention.

      If the patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines with the last dose less than 10 years ago, no vaccine or tetanus immunoglobulin is required regardless of the wound severity. If the patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines with the last dose more than 10 years ago, a reinforcing dose of vaccine is required for tetanus-prone wounds, and a reinforcing dose of vaccine plus tetanus immunoglobulin is required for high-risk wounds. If the vaccination history is incomplete or unknown, a reinforcing dose of vaccine is required regardless of the wound severity, and a reinforcing dose of vaccine plus tetanus immunoglobulin is required for tetanus-prone and high-risk wounds.

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  • Question 68 - A 7-week-old boy is presented to your clinic by his mother in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-week-old boy is presented to your clinic by his mother in the afternoon. The mother reports that her baby has been experiencing effortless and painless regurgitation of his feeds for the past four weeks. The baby is being formula-fed and is currently taking bottles on demand every two hours. Apart from this, the baby is healthy and growing normally. There is no significant medical history, and the baby was born at full term without any complications. What is the appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Daily oral PPI (proton pump inhibitor)

      Correct Answer: Observation

      Explanation:

      Gastro-oesophageal reflux is a common cause of vomiting in infants, with around 40% of babies experiencing some degree of regurgitation. However, certain risk factors such as preterm delivery and neurological disorders can increase the likelihood of developing this condition. Symptoms typically appear before 8 weeks of age and include vomiting or regurgitation, milky vomits after feeds, and excessive crying during feeding. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical observation.

      Management of gastro-oesophageal reflux in infants involves advising parents on proper feeding positions, ensuring the infant is not overfed, and considering a trial of thickened formula or alginate therapy. However, proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are not recommended as a first-line treatment for isolated symptoms of regurgitation. PPIs may be considered if the infant experiences unexplained feeding difficulties, distressed behavior, or faltering growth. Metoclopramide, a prokinetic agent, should only be used with specialist advice.

      Complications of gastro-oesophageal reflux can include distress, failure to thrive, aspiration, frequent otitis media, and dental erosion in older children. If medical treatment is ineffective and severe complications arise, fundoplication may be considered. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the risk factors, symptoms, and management options for gastro-oesophageal reflux in infants.

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  • Question 69 - A 10-year-old girl is brought to the hospital after falling off her bike...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl is brought to the hospital after falling off her bike and fracturing her leg. She is experiencing a lot of pain and requests pain medication.

      Which of the following analgesics is not recommended for use in pediatric patients?

      Your Answer: Morphine

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      The use of aspirin as a pain reliever is not recommended for children because it can increase the risk of Reye’s syndrome. This condition is characterized by symptoms such as fever, rash, and vomiting, which can quickly progress to encephalopathy and even lead to death.

      However, aspirin is approved for use in treating Kawasaki disease and as an antiplatelet medication to prevent blood clots after surgery.

      Reye’s syndrome is a serious condition that affects children and causes progressive brain damage. It is often accompanied by the accumulation of fat in the liver, kidneys, and pancreas. The exact cause of Reye’s syndrome is not fully understood, but it is believed to be associated with the use of aspirin and viral infections. The condition is most common in children around 2 years of age and is characterized by confusion, seizures, and coma. Treatment for Reye’s syndrome is primarily supportive, and while the prognosis has improved in recent years, there is still a mortality rate of 15-25%.

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  • Question 70 - A 4-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician by her mother. She is...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician by her mother. She is currently being treated for a cold but her mother is worried about her heart rate. What is the typical heart rate for a 4-year-old child?

      Your Answer: 50 - 70 bpm

      Correct Answer: 90 - 140 bpm

      Explanation:

      Paediatric vital signs refer to the normal range of heart rate and respiratory rate for children of different ages. These vital signs are important indicators of a child’s overall health and can help healthcare professionals identify any potential issues. The table below outlines the age-appropriate ranges for heart rate and respiratory rate. Children under the age of one typically have a higher heart rate and respiratory rate, while older children have lower rates. It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor these vital signs regularly to ensure that children are healthy and developing properly.

      Age Heart rate Respiratory rate
      < 1 110 - 160 30 - 40
      1 – 2 100 – 150 25 – 35
      2 – 5 90 – 140 25 – 30
      5 – 12 80 – 120 20 – 25
      > 12 60 – 100 15 – 20

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  • Question 71 - What statements are true about childhood immunisation? ...

    Correct

    • What statements are true about childhood immunisation?

      Your Answer: Postponement of 6 in 1 vaccination is advised in the presence of fever

      Explanation:
      • Measles vaccination should not be given to a child with cystic fibrosis:
        • False:
          • Explanation: Children with cystic fibrosis should receive all routine vaccinations, including the measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine. Cystic fibrosis does not contraindicate live vaccines like MMR unless the child is severely immunocompromised. In fact, it is crucial to protect these children from preventable infections due to their underlying lung disease.
      • Children with a history of febrile convulsions should not be given polio vaccine:
        • False:
          • Explanation: A history of febrile convulsions is not a contraindication for receiving the polio vaccine. The polio vaccine is not associated with an increased risk of febrile seizures. The oral polio vaccine (OPV) has been replaced in many places by the inactivated polio vaccine (IPV), which is safer and does not cause the rare side effects associated with the live virus.
      • A live attenuated vaccine should not be given to a child with asthma:
        • False:
          • Explanation: Asthma, in itself, is not a contraindication for live attenuated vaccines, such as MMR or the live attenuated influenza vaccine (LAIV). However, if the asthma is severe or poorly controlled, especially if the child is on high-dose systemic corticosteroids, consultation with a healthcare provider is advisable before administering live vaccines.
      • Children with congenital heart disease should not be immunised against pertussis:
        • False:
          • Explanation: Children with congenital heart disease should receive all routine vaccinations, including the DTaP vaccine, which protects against pertussis. These children are at higher risk for severe complications from pertussis (whooping cough), making vaccination even more important.
      • Postponement of 6 in 1 vaccination is advised in the presence of fever:
        • True:
          • Explanation: It is generally recommended to postpone vaccination if a child has a moderate or severe acute illness with or without fever. This is to ensure that any potential side effects of the vaccine are not confused with the symptoms of the illness and to prevent further stress on the child’s immune system. Mild illnesses, however, typically do not warrant delaying vaccination.

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  • Question 72 - A 2-week-old girl has her hearing checked through the Newborn Hearing Screening program....

    Incorrect

    • A 2-week-old girl has her hearing checked through the Newborn Hearing Screening program. She had a normal delivery at 40 weeks and was discharged home with her parents. The hearing screening was abnormal and a follow-up test is required to confirm.

      What is the follow-up test needed in this case?

      Your Answer: Newborn otoacoustic emission test

      Correct Answer: Auditory brainstem response test

      Explanation:

      If a baby is found to have an abnormal hearing test at birth, they will be offered an auditory brainstem response test as a follow-up. This test involves placing electrodes on the scalp to measure auditory evoked potentials after sounds are played, and can indicate reduced hearing ability if there is no response.

      It is not appropriate to use a distraction test on a newborn, as they are not yet developed enough for this type of testing. This test is typically used for toddlers aged 6-9 months, and requires two staff members to assess the loudness required for the baby to react to sounds produced out of their field of view.

      Newborn otoacoustic emission testing is the initial screening assessment for hearing loss, but further investigations are needed to confirm the diagnosis. This test involves generating a click sound through an earpiece and measuring for the presence of a soft echo that indicates a healthy cochlea.

      Pure tone audiometry is not an appropriate second-line hearing investigation for newborns, as it requires the input of the participant when they hear specific sounds and is typically used in school-aged children.

      Hearing Tests for Children

      Hearing tests are important for children to ensure that they are developing normally. There are several tests that may be performed on children of different ages. For newborns, an otoacoustic emission test is typically done as part of the Newborn Hearing Screening Programme. This test involves playing a computer-generated click through a small earpiece and checking for the presence of a soft echo, which indicates a healthy cochlea. If the results of this test are abnormal, an Auditory Brainstem Response test may be done.

      For infants between 6-9 months, a Distraction test may be performed by a health visitor with the help of two trained staff members. For children between 18 months to 2.5 years, a Recognition of familiar objects test may be used, which involves using familiar objects like a teddy or cup and asking the child simple questions like where is the teddy? For children over 2.5 years, Performance testing and Speech discrimination tests using similar-sounding objects like the Kendall Toy test or McCormick Toy Test may be used. Pure tone audiometry is typically done at school entry in most areas of the UK for children over 3 years old.

      In addition to these tests, there is also a questionnaire for parents in the Personal Child Health Records called Can your baby hear you? This questionnaire can help identify any potential hearing issues in children. Overall, hearing tests are an important part of ensuring that children are developing normally and can help identify any issues early on.

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  • Question 73 - A neonate presents with a cleft palate and posterior displacement of the tongue....

    Incorrect

    • A neonate presents with a cleft palate and posterior displacement of the tongue. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Edward's syndrome

      Correct Answer: Pierre-Robin syndrome

      Explanation:

      Pierre-Robin syndrome is diagnosed in a baby who has micrognathia and a cleft palate. The baby is positioned in a prone position to alleviate upper airway obstruction. There is no familial history of similar conditions.

      Childhood syndromes are a group of medical conditions that affect children and are characterized by a set of common features. Patau syndrome, also known as trisomy 13, is a syndrome that presents with microcephaly, small eyes, cleft lip/palate, polydactyly, and scalp lesions. Edward’s syndrome, or trisomy 18, is characterized by micrognathia, low-set ears, rocker bottom feet, and overlapping of fingers. Fragile X syndrome is a condition that causes learning difficulties, macrocephaly, a long face, large ears, and macro-orchidism. Noonan syndrome presents with a webbed neck, pectus excavatum, short stature, and pulmonary stenosis. Pierre-Robin syndrome is characterized by micrognathia, posterior displacement of the tongue, and cleft palate. Prader-Willi syndrome presents with hypotonia, hypogonadism, and obesity. William’s syndrome is characterized by short stature, learning difficulties, a friendly and extroverted personality, and transient neonatal hypercalcaemia. Finally, Cri du chat syndrome, also known as chromosome 5p deletion syndrome, presents with a characteristic cry due to larynx and neurological problems, feeding difficulties and poor weight gain, learning difficulties, microcephaly, micrognathism, and hypertelorism. It is important to note that Pierre-Robin syndrome has many similarities with Treacher-Collins syndrome, but the latter is autosomal dominant and usually has a family history of similar problems.

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  • Question 74 - A young woman who is ten weeks pregnant comes to you with an...

    Incorrect

    • A young woman who is ten weeks pregnant comes to you with an erythematous rash, mild fever and enlarged glands in her neck. You suggest taking a blood test to check if she is immune to rubella since there is no record of her being immunised. She asks about the potential risk to her baby if she does have rubella. What is the percentage of infants that may develop congenital rubella syndrome and potential birth defects if a woman contracts rubella at ten weeks gestation?

      Your Answer: Up to 75%

      Correct Answer: Up to 90%

      Explanation:

      Maternal Rubella Infection in Pregnancy

      Maternal rubella infection during pregnancy can lead to fetal loss or congenital rubella syndrome (CRS). CRS is characterized by various abnormalities such as cataracts, deafness, cardiac defects, microcephaly, retardation of intrauterine growth, and inflammatory lesions in the brain, liver, lungs, and bone marrow.

      If the infection occurs within the first eight to ten weeks of pregnancy, up to 90% of surviving infants may experience damage, often with multiple defects. However, the risk of damage decreases to about 10-20% if the infection occurs between 11 and 16 weeks of gestation. Infections after 16 weeks of pregnancy are rare and typically only result in deafness, with no other fetal damage reported up to 20 weeks of pregnancy.

      Overall, maternal rubella infection during pregnancy can have severe consequences for the developing fetus, highlighting the importance of vaccination and prevention measures.

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  • Question 75 - A 5-year-old girl is seen in the Paediatric Admissions Unit. She has been...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old girl is seen in the Paediatric Admissions Unit. She has been experiencing a fever for the past week. During the examination, it is observed that she has red, painful lips and conjunctival injection. Additionally, her hands are swollen and red. After conducting blood tests, the following results were obtained:

      Hb 13.1 g/dl
      WBC 12.7 *109/l
      Platelets 520 *109/l
      CRP 96 mg/L

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Kawasaki disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Kawasaki Disease

      Kawasaki disease is a rare type of vasculitis that primarily affects children. It is important to identify this disease early on as it can lead to serious complications such as coronary artery aneurysms. The disease is characterized by a high-grade fever that lasts for more than five days, which is resistant to antipyretics. Other features include conjunctival injection, bright red, cracked lips, strawberry tongue, cervical lymphadenopathy, and red palms and soles that later peel.

      Diagnosis of Kawasaki disease is based on clinical presentation as there is no specific diagnostic test available. Management of the disease involves high-dose aspirin, which is one of the few indications for aspirin use in children. Intravenous immunoglobulin is also used as a treatment option. Echocardiogram is the initial screening test for coronary artery aneurysms instead of angiography.

      Complications of Kawasaki disease include coronary artery aneurysm, which can be life-threatening. Early recognition and treatment of Kawasaki disease can prevent serious complications and improve outcomes for affected children.

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  • Question 76 - A 7-year-old girl presents to your clinic with a blanching rash that started...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl presents to your clinic with a blanching rash that started on her abdomen and chest before spreading to her neck, legs, and arms. The rash is rough and has a sandpaper-like texture. She reports feeling feverish with a temperature of 38.5 ºC, a sore throat, and nausea two days before the rash appeared. On examination, you note her tongue has a beefy, red appearance and prominent cervical lymphadenopathy. You suspect scarlet fever. The patient has no significant medical history and no allergies. Hospital admission is not necessary. What is the most appropriate management option in primary care?

      Your Answer: Commence 10 days of oral erythromycin, no need to notify public health england (PHE)

      Correct Answer: Notify public health england (PHE) and commence 10 days of oral phenoxymethylpenicillin (penicillin V)

      Explanation:

      Scarlet fever is a condition caused by erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci, usually Streptococcus pyogenes. It is more common in children aged 2-6 years, with the highest incidence at 4 years. The disease is spread through respiratory droplets or direct contact with nose and throat discharges. The incubation period is 2-4 days, and symptoms include fever, malaise, headache, sore throat, ‘strawberry’ tongue, and a rash that appears first on the torso and spares the palms and soles. Scarlet fever is usually a mild illness, but it may be complicated by otitis media, rheumatic fever, acute glomerulonephritis, or rare invasive complications.

      To diagnose scarlet fever, a throat swab is usually taken, but antibiotic treatment should be started immediately, rather than waiting for the results. Management involves oral penicillin V for ten days, while patients with a penicillin allergy should be given azithromycin. Children can return to school 24 hours after starting antibiotics, and scarlet fever is a notifiable disease. Desquamation occurs later in the course of the illness, particularly around the fingers and toes. The rash is often described as having a rough ‘sandpaper’ texture, and children often have a flushed appearance with circumoral pallor. Invasive complications such as bacteraemia, meningitis, and necrotizing fasciitis are rare but may present acutely with life-threatening illness.

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  • Question 77 - A 3-month-old boy presents with a runny nose, cough and a temperature of...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-month-old boy presents with a runny nose, cough and a temperature of 38.5°C. On auscultation, he has widespread, fine inspiratory crackles and a faint wheeze. He is not tachypnoeic, he remains alert and is taking most feeds. There is slight intercostal and subcostal recession.
      What is the most appropriate management option?

      Your Answer: Clarithromycin

      Correct Answer: Paracetamol, ibuprofen and review in 24 hours

      Explanation:

      Management of Bronchiolitis in Infants

      Bronchiolitis is an acute infectious disease of the lower respiratory tract that commonly affects infants aged between two and six months. It is caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) and peaks during the winter months. Supportive measures such as fluid input, feeding, and temperature control are the mainstay of treatment. Antibiotics are not indicated as bronchiolitis is usually caused by a virus. Hospital admission is only necessary in severe cases or if there are significant comorbidities. Salbutamol via a spacer is not indicated in bronchiolitis. Careful safety netting is important to teach parents to spot deterioration and seek medical attention if necessary. Most infants with bronchiolitis have a mild, self-limiting illness that lasts for seven to ten days.

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  • Question 78 - A middle-aged couple attend clinic after the birth of their first grandchild and...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged couple attend clinic after the birth of their first grandchild and are worried about cot death as friends of theirs suffered a cot death.

      Which of the following actions could you advise that would reduce the risk of cot death?

      Your Answer: Suggest that they ensure that baby sleeps on its front

      Correct Answer: Avoid co-sleeping with the baby in their bed

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cot Death or Sudden Infant Death Syndrome

      Cot death or sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is a tragic occurrence that affects approximately 50 out of 100,000 live births. It is a condition that is associated with several risk factors, including parental smoking, teenage pregnancy, inadequate prenatal care, laying the infant to sleep on their stomach, excess bedding, and low birth weight. Co-sleeping is also regarded as a risk factor for SIDS.

      Contrary to popular belief, baby monitors do not reduce the incidence of cot death. However, Breastfeeding has been associated with a reduced incidence of SIDS. It is important for parents and caregivers to be aware of these risk factors and take necessary precautions to reduce the risk of SIDS. This includes placing the infant to sleep on their back, avoiding excess bedding, and ensuring a smoke-free environment. By understanding the risk factors and taking necessary precautions, we can work towards reducing the incidence of cot death and ensuring the safety of our infants.

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  • Question 79 - The mother of a 3-year-old boy contacts you for a telephone consultation seeking...

    Incorrect

    • The mother of a 3-year-old boy contacts you for a telephone consultation seeking advice on febrile convulsions. Her son was recently hospitalized due to his first febrile seizure, which was believed to be caused by a viral upper respiratory tract infection. She describes the convulsion as a typical, simple febrile seizure that lasted for 2-3 minutes, with complete recovery in approximately 30 minutes.

      The mother recalls being informed that there is a possibility of a recurrence, but she was unsure about what to do if it happens again. She mentions that they were not given any treatment during their hospital stay and were discharged home.

      She seeks your guidance on when to call an ambulance if her son experiences another febrile convulsion.

      Your Answer: A further simple febrile convulsion lasting 4 minutes with recovery taking >30 minutes

      Correct Answer: A further simple febrile convulsion lasting > 5 minutes

      Explanation:

      Parents should be informed that if their child experiences a febrile convulsion lasting longer than 5 minutes, they should immediately call for an ambulance. While some children may have recurrent febrile convulsions, simple ones typically last up to 15 minutes and result in complete recovery within an hour. In these cases, parents can manage their child at home with clear guidance on when to seek medical help and the use of medications like buccal midazolam or rectal diazepam. However, any febrile convulsion lasting longer than 5 minutes requires immediate medical attention, and if a second convulsion occurs within 30 minutes of the first, parents should also call for an ambulance.

      Febrile convulsions are seizures that occur in otherwise healthy children when they have a fever. They are most common in children between the ages of 6 months and 5 years, affecting around 3% of children. Febrile convulsions usually occur at the onset of a viral infection when the child’s temperature rises rapidly. The seizures are typically brief, lasting less than 5 minutes, and are usually tonic-clonic in nature.

      There are three types of febrile convulsions: simple, complex, and febrile status epilepticus. Simple febrile convulsions last less than 15 minutes and are generalised seizures. Complex febrile convulsions last between 15 and 30 minutes and may be focal seizures. Febrile status epilepticus lasts for more than 30 minutes. Children who have had their first seizure or any features of a complex seizure should be admitted to paediatrics.

      Following a seizure, parents should be advised to call an ambulance if the seizure lasts longer than 5 minutes. Regular antipyretics have not been shown to reduce the chance of a febrile seizure occurring. If recurrent febrile convulsions occur, benzodiazepine rescue medication may be considered, but this should only be started on the advice of a specialist, such as a paediatrician. Rectal diazepam or buccal midazolam may be used.

      The overall risk of further febrile convulsions is 1 in 3, but this varies depending on risk factors for further seizure. These risk factors include age of onset under 18 months, fever below 39ºC, shorter duration of fever before the seizure, and a family history of febrile convulsions. Children with no risk factors have a 2.5% risk of developing epilepsy, while those with all three risk factors have a much higher risk of developing epilepsy, up to 50%.

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  • Question 80 - You are educating the parent of a 5-year-old child with eczema about the...

    Incorrect

    • You are educating the parent of a 5-year-old child with eczema about the proper application of emollients. Which of the following statements is accurate?

      Your Answer: Emollients should be rubbed in to the skin until they 'disappear'

      Correct Answer: Creams soak into the skin faster than ointments

      Explanation:

      Understanding Eczema in Children

      Eczema is a common skin condition that affects around 15-20% of children and is becoming more prevalent. It usually appears before the age of 2 and clears up in around 50% of children by the age of 5 and in 75% of children by the age of 10. The condition is characterized by an itchy, red rash that can worsen with repeated scratching. In infants, the face and trunk are often affected, while in younger children, eczema typically occurs on the extensor surfaces. In older children, a more typical distribution is seen, with flexor surfaces affected and the creases of the face and neck.

      To manage eczema in children, it is important to avoid irritants and use simple emollients. Large quantities of emollients should be prescribed, roughly in a ratio of 10:1 with topical steroids. If a topical steroid is also being used, the emollient should be applied first, followed by waiting at least 30 minutes before applying the topical steroid. Creams soak into the skin faster than ointments, and emollients can become contaminated with bacteria, so fingers should not be inserted into pots. Many brands have pump dispensers to prevent contamination.

      In severe cases, wet wrapping may be used, which involves applying large amounts of emollient (and sometimes topical steroids) under wet bandages. Oral ciclosporin may also be used in severe cases. By understanding the features and management of eczema in children, parents and caregivers can help alleviate symptoms and improve the child’s quality of life.

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  • Question 81 - An 8-year-old boy comes to the clinic complaining of joint pain, fever, and...

    Incorrect

    • An 8-year-old boy comes to the clinic complaining of joint pain, fever, and feeling tired. He was seen in the clinic two weeks ago for a sore throat. During the examination, he has a sinus tachycardia, a pink rash in the form of rings on his trunk, and a systolic murmur.
      What is the best diagnosis and treatment plan?

      Your Answer: She has scarlet fever and should start a prolonged course of phenoxymethylpenicillin

      Correct Answer: She has rheumatic fever and should be admitted for appropriate treatment

      Explanation:

      Misdiagnosis of a Heart Murmur: Understanding the Differences between Rheumatic Fever, Lyme Disease, HSP, Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis, and Scarlet Fever

      A heart murmur can be a concerning symptom, but it is important to correctly diagnose the underlying condition. Rheumatic fever, Lyme disease, Henoch–Schönlein purpura (HSP), juvenile idiopathic arthritis, and scarlet fever can all present with a heart murmur, but each has distinct features that can help differentiate them.

      Rheumatic fever requires the presence of recent streptococcal infection and the fulfilment of Jones criteria, which include major criteria such as carditis, arthritis, Sydenham’s chorea, subcutaneous nodules, and erythema marginatum, as well as minor criteria such as fever, arthralgia, raised ESR or CRP, and prolonged PR interval on an electrocardiogram.

      Lyme disease presents with erythema migrans, arthralgia, and other symptoms depending on the stage of the disease, but a heart murmur is not a typical feature.

      HSP is characterised by purpura, arthritis, abdominal pain, gastrointestinal bleeding, orchitis, and nephritis.

      Juvenile idiopathic arthritis is chronic arthritis occurring before the age of 16 years that lasts for at least six weeks in the absence of any other cause, and may involve few or many joints, with additional features in some subsets, but it should not present with a heart murmur.

      Scarlet fever is characterised by a widespread red rash, fever, tachycardia, myalgia, and circumoral pallor, rather than joint pain.

      In summary, a heart murmur can be a symptom of various conditions, but a thorough evaluation of other symptoms and criteria is necessary to make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 82 - At what age do girls typically start showing the initial signs of puberty?...

    Incorrect

    • At what age do girls typically start showing the initial signs of puberty?

      Your Answer: 10 years

      Correct Answer: 11.5 years

      Explanation:

      Puberty: Normal Changes in Males and Females

      Puberty is a natural process that marks the transition from childhood to adolescence. In males, the first sign of puberty is testicular growth, which typically occurs around the age of 12. Testicular volume greater than 4 ml indicates the onset of puberty. The maximum height spurt for boys occurs at the age of 14. On the other hand, in females, the first sign of puberty is breast development, which usually occurs around the age of 11.5. The height spurt for girls reaches its maximum early in puberty, at the age of 12, before menarche. Menarche, or the first menstrual period, typically occurs at the age of 13, with a range of 11-15 years. Following menarche, there is only a slight increase of about 4% in height.

      During puberty, it is normal for boys to experience gynaecomastia, or the development of breast tissue. Girls may also experience asymmetrical breast growth. Additionally, diffuse enlargement of the thyroid gland may be seen in both males and females. These changes are all part of the normal process of puberty and should not be a cause for concern.

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  • Question 83 - A mother brings her 20-month-old son for review following a recent admission after...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 20-month-old son for review following a recent admission after a febrile convulsion. Which one of the following statements regarding febrile convulsions is not correct?

      Your Answer: They are seen in around 3% of children

      Correct Answer: Giving antipyretics promptly can reduce the chance of further seizures

      Explanation:

      There is no proof that administering antipyretics to a child with a fever can prevent febrile convulsions.

      Febrile convulsions are seizures that occur in otherwise healthy children when they have a fever. They are most common in children between the ages of 6 months and 5 years, affecting around 3% of children. Febrile convulsions usually occur at the onset of a viral infection when the child’s temperature rises rapidly. The seizures are typically brief, lasting less than 5 minutes, and are usually tonic-clonic in nature.

      There are three types of febrile convulsions: simple, complex, and febrile status epilepticus. Simple febrile convulsions last less than 15 minutes and are generalised seizures. Complex febrile convulsions last between 15 and 30 minutes and may be focal seizures. Febrile status epilepticus lasts for more than 30 minutes. Children who have had their first seizure or any features of a complex seizure should be admitted to paediatrics.

      Following a seizure, parents should be advised to call an ambulance if the seizure lasts longer than 5 minutes. Regular antipyretics have not been shown to reduce the chance of a febrile seizure occurring. If recurrent febrile convulsions occur, benzodiazepine rescue medication may be considered, but this should only be started on the advice of a specialist, such as a paediatrician. Rectal diazepam or buccal midazolam may be used.

      The overall risk of further febrile convulsions is 1 in 3, but this varies depending on risk factors for further seizure. These risk factors include age of onset under 18 months, fever below 39ºC, shorter duration of fever before the seizure, and a family history of febrile convulsions. Children with no risk factors have a 2.5% risk of developing epilepsy, while those with all three risk factors have a much higher risk of developing epilepsy, up to 50%.

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  • Question 84 - A 2-year-old girl with a barking cough is diagnosed with croup. However, she...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old girl with a barking cough is diagnosed with croup. However, she is feeding well and has only a low-grade fever of 37.9ºC. No intercostal recession is observed during examination. The decision is made to manage her in primary care. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Dexamethasone 0.15mg/kg stat with repeat dose 12 hours later

      Correct Answer: Dexamethasone 0.15mg/kg single dose

      Explanation:

      Regardless of severity, a one-time oral dose of dexamethasone (0.15 mg/kg) should be taken immediately for croup.

      Croup is a respiratory infection that affects young children, typically those between 6 months and 3 years old. It is most common in the autumn and is caused by parainfluenza viruses. The main symptom is stridor, which is caused by swelling and secretions in the larynx. Other symptoms include a barking cough, fever, and cold-like symptoms. The severity of croup can be graded based on the child’s symptoms, with mild cases having occasional coughing and no audible stridor at rest, and severe cases having frequent coughing, prominent stridor, and significant distress or lethargy. Children with moderate or severe croup should be admitted to the hospital, especially if they are under 6 months old or have other airway abnormalities. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical symptoms, but a chest x-ray can show subglottic narrowing. Treatment typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, and emergency treatment may include high-flow oxygen or nebulized adrenaline.

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  • Question 85 - A mother brings her 10 week old baby to your morning GP clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 10 week old baby to your morning GP clinic with a three day history of noisy breathing, coryza, reduced feeding, and increased fussiness. What signs would prompt you to consider admitting the infant?

      Your Answer: Three wet nappies so far today

      Correct Answer: Feeding less than 50% of normal

      Explanation:

      If a child with bronchiolitis displays any high risk signs, it is important to admit them for support with feeding to prevent dehydration. The NICE CKS provides a comprehensive list of these signs, which include a respiratory rate exceeding 60 per minute, intermittent apnoea, grunting, moderate or severe chest in-drawing, cyanosis, pale, ashen, mottled or blue skin color, lack of response to social cues, inability to be roused or stay awake, and appearing ill. Reduced skin turgor is also a sign of dehydration to watch out for.

      Understanding Bronchiolitis

      Bronchiolitis is a condition that is characterized by inflammation of the bronchioles. It is a serious lower respiratory tract infection that is most common in children under the age of one year. The pathogen responsible for 75-80% of cases is respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), while other causes include mycoplasma and adenoviruses. Bronchiolitis is more serious in children with bronchopulmonary dysplasia, congenital heart disease, or cystic fibrosis.

      The symptoms of bronchiolitis include coryzal symptoms, dry cough, increasing breathlessness, and wheezing. Fine inspiratory crackles may also be present. Children with bronchiolitis may experience feeding difficulties associated with increasing dyspnoea, which is often the reason for hospital admission.

      Immediate referral to hospital is recommended if the child has apnoea, looks seriously unwell to a healthcare professional, has severe respiratory distress, central cyanosis, or persistent oxygen saturation of less than 92% when breathing air. Clinicians should consider referring to hospital if the child has a respiratory rate of over 60 breaths/minute, difficulty with breastfeeding or inadequate oral fluid intake, or clinical dehydration.

      The investigation for bronchiolitis involves immunofluorescence of nasopharyngeal secretions, which may show RSV. Management of bronchiolitis is largely supportive, with humidified oxygen given via a head box if oxygen saturations are persistently < 92%. Nasogastric feeding may be needed if children cannot take enough fluid/feed by mouth, and suction is sometimes used for excessive upper airway secretions.

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  • Question 86 - A 2-year-old boy presents having had a seizure. His sister hit him; he...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old boy presents having had a seizure. His sister hit him; he became still and very pale, stiffened and fell to the floor. He was unresponsive for 20 seconds, with his eyes rolled up and with jerking of all four limbs. He did not wet himself or bite his tongue. He has no previous history and seems well now.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Simple faint

      Correct Answer: Reflex anoxic seizure

      Explanation:

      A reflex anoxic seizure, also known as white reflex asystolic attacks, is not an epileptic seizure but is often misdiagnosed as one. It occurs due to increased vagal tone, resulting in transient reflex asystole. These seizures can occur from birth but are common between six months to two years of age and are triggered by shock, anxiety, or minor injury. Symptoms include pallor, loss of consciousness, stiffening, eye deviation, and vagal asystole, which may progress to a seizure. However, there is a rapid spontaneous recovery, and no treatment is required. Unlike epileptic seizures, patients having a reflex anoxic seizure do not usually bite their tongue.

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  • Question 87 - As the on-call physician, a mother of a 4-year-old boy seeks your guidance....

    Incorrect

    • As the on-call physician, a mother of a 4-year-old boy seeks your guidance. Due to a recent outbreak of roseola infantum at her son's daycare, she is curious about the duration of time her child should stay away from the facility. Despite being healthy and showing no symptoms, what recommendation would you provide?

      Your Answer: To book an appointment so you can review the child before giving advice

      Correct Answer: There is no school exclusion

      Explanation:

      No need for school exclusion with roseola infantum as it is a self-limiting condition.

      Understanding Roseola Infantum

      Roseola infantum, also known as exanthem subitum or sixth disease, is a common illness that affects infants and is caused by the human herpesvirus 6 (HHV6). The incubation period for this disease is between 5 to 15 days, and it typically affects children between the ages of 6 months to 2 years.

      The symptoms of roseola infantum include a high fever that lasts for a few days, followed by a maculopapular rash. Other symptoms that may be present include Nagayama spots, which are papular enanthems on the uvula and soft palate, as well as cough and diarrhea. In some cases, febrile convulsions may occur in around 10-15% of cases.

      While roseola infantum can lead to other complications such as aseptic meningitis and hepatitis, school exclusion is not necessary.

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  • Question 88 - A 6-year-old girl is referred to the enuresis clinic by her pediatrician. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl is referred to the enuresis clinic by her pediatrician. Her mother initially contacted the pediatrician concerned with ongoing bedwetting and it turns out that the girl has never had a 'dry night'.

      The pediatrician has provided general advice on diet, fluid intake, and toileting behavior, though the mother says the bedwetting has not resolved. Despite the use of a reward system, the girl still wets the bed at night and the mother is getting worried.

      She speaks to the enuresis clinic and is sent home with an intervention.

      What intervention is likely to be recommended?

      Your Answer: Desmopressin

      Correct Answer: Enuresis alarm

      Explanation:

      If general advice has not been effective in treating nocturnal enuresis in a child, an enuresis alarm is typically the first-line option recommended by NICE guidelines. However, it may be worth exploring alternative reward systems to ensure the child is motivated to make the necessary effort. It is assumed that the mother can appropriately motivate their child, so this may not be a route taken by the clinic. If the enuresis alarm doesn’t work, pharmacological interventions such as desmopressin, oxybutynin, and unlicensed tolterodine may be considered.

      Managing Nocturnal Enuresis in Children

      Nocturnal enuresis, also known as bedwetting, is a common condition in children. It is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine during sleep in children aged 5 years or older who have not yet achieved continence. There are two types of nocturnal enuresis: primary and secondary. Primary enuresis occurs when a child has never achieved continence, while secondary enuresis occurs when a child has been dry for at least 6 months before.

      When managing nocturnal enuresis, it is important to look for possible underlying causes or triggers such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset urinary tract infections. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Lifting and waking techniques and reward systems, such as star charts, can also be effective.

      The first-line treatment for nocturnal enuresis is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up when they start to wet the bed. If an enuresis alarm is not effective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin can be used for short-term control, such as for sleepovers. It is important to note that reward systems should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights, such as using the toilet to pass urine before sleep. By following these management strategies, children with nocturnal enuresis can achieve continence and improve their quality of life.

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      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 89 - What is the appropriate course of action for managing a newborn boy with...

    Incorrect

    • What is the appropriate course of action for managing a newborn boy with an undescended left testicle and nappy rash?

      Your Answer: Reassure the mother that the testicle should descend by puberty

      Correct Answer: Arrange urgent referral to a specialist to be seen within 2 weeks

      Explanation:

      Management of Unilateral Undescended Testicle in Infants

      In cases of unilateral undescended testicle in infants, it is important to determine whether it is unilateral or bilateral as the management would differ. If it is unilateral, the infant should be re-examined at 6-8 weeks. If the testicle is still absent, another examination should be done at 4-5 months of age. If the testicle remains undescended at this stage, the child should be referred to a specialist. However, if both testicles are present in the scrotum at 4-5 months review, no further action is required.

      It is important to note that undescended testes pose a risk of developing future malignancy, especially if they present later in life. Therefore, boys and young men with a history of undescended testis should be advised to perform regular testicular self-examination during and after puberty to detect any potential testicular cancer.

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      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 90 - A 5-year-old boy is brought to the emergency room by his mother. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy is brought to the emergency room by his mother. He was playing on the monkey bars at the playground and fell off, landing on his right arm. He started crying and complained that his right elbow hurt. He is now reluctant to move the elbow and holds it slightly flexed and pronated with the forearm held against the abdomen. There is no tenderness, swelling, bruising or deformity at the elbow.
      Which is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Non-accidental injury

      Correct Answer: Radial head subluxation

      Explanation:

      Common Elbow Injuries in Children and Adults

      Radial head subluxation is a frequent injury in children under the age of 6 years. The rounded end of the radial head is still made of cartilage and can easily slip out of the encircling annular ligament when the arm is pulled. There is usually no history of trauma, but there may be a history of axial traction by a pull on the hand or wrist. Tenderness at the head of the radius may be present. Imaging is only necessary when a fracture is suspected. Manipulation can be done in the GP surgery by immobilizing the elbow with one hand and with the other hand applying axial compression while supinating the forearm and flexing the elbow. Alternatively, it can be done while pronating the forearm. A click indicates success.

      Supracondylar fracture of the humerus is most commonly seen in children and usually results from a fall on to an outstretched arm. The patient usually has elbow swelling and pain.

      Lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow) is a chronic condition that peaks between 40 and 50 years of age. It is thought to be an overload tendon injury.

      Radial neck fracture occurs due to trauma such as a fall onto the outstretched arm. The median age is 9–10 years. There is pain, swelling, and tenderness over the lateral side of the elbow.

      In cases of suspected non-accidental injury, the explanation should be consistent with the injury, and in the absence of other features, non-accidental injury is unlikely.

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      • Children And Young People
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