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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 28 year old female hiker begins complaining of headache and nausea after reaching a height of 5010 metres. Despite having the headache and feeling nauseous, she continues to hike but becomes progressively worse. She is seen staggering, complains of feeling dizzy and has an ataxic gait. Which of the following is the appropriate treatment of this patient?
Your Answer: Descent
Correct Answer: Descent + dexamethasone
Explanation:High Altitude Cerebral Oedema (HACE) is a severe and potentially fatal manifestation of high altitude illness and is often characterized by ataxia, fatigue, and altered mental status. HACE is often thought of as an extreme form/end-stage of Acute Mountain Sickness (AMS). Although HACE represents the least common form of altitude illness, it may progress rapidly to coma and death as a result of brain herniation within 24 hours, if not promptly diagnosed and treated.
HACE generally occurs after 2 days above 4000m but can occur at lower elevations (2500m) and with faster onset. Some, but not all, individuals will suffer from symptoms of AMS such as headache, insomnia, anorexia, nausea prior to transitioning to HACE. Some may also have concomitant High Altitude Pulmonary Oedema (HAPE). HACE in isolation is rare, but the absence of concomitant HAPE or symptoms of AMS prior to deterioration does not rule-out the presence of HACE.
Most cases develop as a progression of AMS and will include a history of recent ascent to altitude and prior complaints/findings of AMS including a headache, fatigue, nausea, insomnia, and/or light-headedness. Some may also have signs/symptoms of HAPE. Transition to HACE is heralded by signs of encephalopathy including ataxia (usually the earliest clinical finding) and altered mentation which may range from mild to severe. Other symptoms may include a more severe headache, difficulty speaking, lassitude, a decline in the level of consciousness, and/or focal neurological deficits or seizures.
The mainstay of treatment is the immediate descent of at least 1000m or until symptoms improve. If descent is not an option, one may use a portable hyperbaric chamber and/or supplemental oxygen to temporize illness, but this should never replace or delay evaluation/descent when possible. If available, dexamethasone 8mg for one dose, followed by 4mg every 6 hours should be given to adults via PO, IM, or IV routes.
Acetazolamide has proven to be beneficial in only a single clinical study. The suggested dosing regimen for Acetazolamide is 250 mg PO, given twice daily. Though effective in alleviating or temporizing symptoms, none of the adjunct treatment modalities are definitive or a replacement for an immediate descent. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 2
Correct
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Which one of the following interventions has the least role in management of acne rosacea?
Your Answer: Low-dose topical corticosteroids
Explanation:Mild cases are often not treated at all, or are simply covered up with normal cosmetics and avoiding sun exposure. Therapy for the treatment of rosacea is not curative, and is best measured in terms of reduction in the amount of facial redness and inflammatory lesions. The two primary modalities of rosacea treatment are topical and oral antibiotic agents (including metronidazole and tetracyclines). Laser therapy may be appropriate for patients with prominent telangiectasia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 56-year-old female patient is complaining of a swollen upper limb after an insect bite. Although the bite site looks better, the gross oedema is still present. What is the most likely aetiology? Keep in mind that she has a history of breast cancer and radical mastectomy with axillary lymphadenectomy 10 years ago.
Your Answer: Lymphedema
Explanation:Lymphedema is most commonly the result of removal or damage to lymph nodes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 14 year-old is brought to the ED after being hit on the head with a cricket ball during a match. His teacher describes that he initially collapsed on the ground and complained of a sore head. Two minutes later, he got up and said he felt OK and continued playing. However, 30 minutes later he suddenly collapsed and lost consciousness. What injury is he most likely to have sustained?
Your Answer: Cerebral contusion
Correct Answer: Extradural haematoma
Explanation:A lucid interval, in which the patient portrays a temporary improvement in condition after a traumatic brain injury, is especially indicative of an epidural haematoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Which of the following would be the most appropriate treatment (leaving out the current NICE guidelines) for a 29 year old man with erythrodermic psoriasis and arthritis mutilans involving several digits of both hands?
Your Answer: Methotrexate
Correct Answer: Etanercept
Explanation:TNF-alpha inhibitors are known to ameliorate the symptoms and disease activity of Arthritis mutilans (a rare and severe form of psoriatic arthritis), by disabling the cytokines that are involved in inflammation and joint destruction. From the mentioned choices, this would be the most effective option. Methotrexate is the most commonly used DMARD, followed by sulfasalazine used in mild to moderate forms of psoriatic arthritis but has not shown much efficacy in arthritis mutilans. Phototherapy, narrowband UVB light therapy can be very effective in clearing skin lesions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old male is admitted with worsening shortness of breath with signs of left ventricular failure. He has a known genetic condition. On examination, there is an ejection systolic murmur loudest over the aortic area radiating to the carotids, bibasal crepitations and pitting oedema to the knees bilaterally. On closer inspection of the patient, you note a wide vermillion border, small spaced teeth and a flat nasal bridge. The patient also has a disinhibited friendly demeanour. What is the likely precipitating valvular issue?
Your Answer: Aortic regurgitation
Correct Answer: Supravalvular aortic stenosis
Explanation:Supravalvular aortic stenosis, is associated with a condition called William’s syndrome.
William’s syndrome is an inherited neurodevelopmental disorder caused by a microdeletion on chromosome 7. The most common symptoms of Williams syndrome are heart defects and unusual facial features. Other symptoms include failure to gain weight appropriately in infancy (failure to thrive) and low muscle tone. Individuals with Williams syndrome tend to have widely spaced teeth, a long philtrum, and a flattened nasal bridge.
Most individuals with Williams syndrome are highly verbal relative to their IQ, and are overly sociable, having what has been described as a cocktail party type personality. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 7
Correct
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A social worker has been diagnosed with hepatitis C infection. Which test will conclusively establish the presence of this infection?
Your Answer: HCV RNA
Explanation:The most sensitive test for detecting Hepatitis C infection (acute) is HCA RNA; it can be detected 1-2 weeks after infection. Anti-HCV antibodies take at least 6 weeks to develop and be positive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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An 80 year old female, previously diagnosed with polymyalgia rheumatica 18 months back, presents to the outpatient clinic with bilateral shoulder stiffness and generalized myalgia. The ESR was found to be 60mm/1st hour at the time of presentation. Prednisolone therapy was initiated at a daily dose of 15 mg along with Calcium and Vitamin supplementation. She reported resolution of her symptoms in one week. However the symptoms relapsed when the prednisolone dose was reduced below the current dose of 12.5 mg daily. How should she be ideally managed?
Your Answer: Increase the dose of prednisolone and add a bisphosphonate
Correct Answer: Continue the current dose of prednisolone and start methotrexate
Explanation:Polymyalgia rheumatica, a syndrome characterized by proximal muscle pain and stiffness in older persons, generally is treated with prednisone. Dosages of 15 to 25 mg of prednisone per day can reduce inflammation considerably, although many patients relapse when therapy is tapered. Long-term (18 to 36 months) steroid treatment has been recommended by several studies, but this can result in multiple side effects, including osteoporosis, hypertension, cataracts, and hyperglycaemia. Methotrexate has been used to reduce inflammation in rheumatoid arthritis, systemic vasculitis, and giant cell arteritis, and in some studies has been combined with prednisone to treat polymyalgia rheumatica, decreasing the duration of treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 21-year-old gentleman presents with facial and ankle swelling. This has slowly been developing over the past week. During the review of systems, he describes passing ‘frothy’ urine. A urine dipstick shows protein +++. What is the most likely cause of this presentation?
Your Answer: Minimal change disease
Explanation:Minimal change glomerulonephritis usually presents as nephrotic syndrome wherein the patient (usually a young adult) will present with proteinuria, oedema, and impaired kidney function, which were evident in this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Which statement is true regarding anorexia nervosa?
Your Answer: Has a good prognosis if treated
Correct Answer: It is the most common cause of admissions to child and adolescent psychiatric wards
Explanation:Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by an abnormally low body weight, an intense fear of gaining weight and a distorted perception of weight. People with anorexia place a high value on controlling their weight and shape, using extreme efforts that tend to significantly interfere with their lives.
The minimum level of severity is based, for adults, on current body mass index (BMI) (see below) or for
children and adolescents, on BMI percentile. The ranges below are derived from World Health
Organization categories for thinness in adults; for children and adolescents, corresponding BMI percentiles
should be used. The level of severity may be increased to reflect clinical symptoms, the degree of
functional disability, and the need for supervision.
Mild: BMI > 17 kg/m2
Moderate: BMI 16-16.99 kg/m2
Severe: BMI 15-15.99 kg/m2
Extreme: BMI < 15 kg/m2 Anorexia nervosa is more common in women than in men, with a female-to-male ratio of 10-20:1 in developed countries. The prognosis of anorexia nervosa is guarded. Morbidity rates range from 10-20%, with only 50% of patients making a complete recovery. Of the remaining 50%, 20% remain emaciated and 25% remain thin. The main change in the diagnosis of Anorexia Nervosa was to remove the criterion of amenorrhea (loss of menstrual cycle). Removing this criterion means that boys and men with Anorexia will finally be able to receive an appropriate diagnosis.
Similarly, girls and women who continue to have their period despite other symptoms associated with Anorexia, such as weight loss and food restriction, will now be eligible for a diagnosis of Anorexia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 11
Incorrect
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An 18 year old boy from Middle East presented with a 1 month history of a yellowish, crusted plaque over his scalp, along with some scarring alopecia. What will the likely diagnosis be?
Your Answer: Tinea capitis
Correct Answer: Favus
Explanation:Favus is a fungal infection of the scalp, resulting in the formation of a yellowish crusted plaque over the scalp and leads to scar formation with alopecia. Tinea capitus is a fungal infection of the scalp resulting in scaling and non scarring hair loss. Folliculitis presents with multiple perifollicular papules which can be caused by both bacteria and fungi. Cradle cap usually affects infants where the whole scalp is involved. It can lead to hair loss and responds to topical antifungals and keratolytics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 42 yr. old male patient who was on enalapril for hypertension presented with generalized body weakness. Investigations revealed hyperkalaemia. Which of the following can be expected in his ECG?
Your Answer: Tall, tented T waves
Explanation:In hyperkalaemia the ECG will show tall, tented T waves as well as small P waves and widened QRS complexes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Which of the following vaccines do not contain live organisms?
Your Answer: Typhoid (TY 21a)
Correct Answer: Polio (Salk)
Explanation:Live virus vaccines include: Vaccinia (smallpox), Measles, Mumps, Rubella (MMR combined vaccine), Varicella (chickenpox), Influenza (nasal spray), Rotavirus, Zoster (shingles) and Yellow fever. Inactivated vaccines are Polio (IPV), Hepatitis A and Rabies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old male patient is found to have an elevated serum paraprotein level of 35g/L. Bone marrow aspirate reveals 32% monoclonal plasma cell infiltrate. He has no evidence of anaemia, renal impairment, hypercalcaemia, or lytic lesions. What should be the next step in management?
Your Answer: Arrange for autologous stem cell transplantation
Correct Answer: Observe and monitor
Explanation:The patient is asymptomatic but matches the diagnostic criteria for multiple myeloma (MM). Therefore, the underlying diagnosis of this condition is smouldering multiple myeloma (SMM). SMM is an early precursor to MM. Its treatment is typically to watch and wait.
MM is a neoplasm of the bone marrow plasma cells. Peak incidence is in patients aged 60–70 years.
Clinical features of MM include:
1. Ostealgia, osteoporosis, pathological fractures (typically vertebral), and osteolytic lesions
2. Lethargy
3. Infections
4. Hypercalcaemia
5. Renal failure
6. Other features: amyloidosis e.g. macroglossia, carpal tunnel syndrome; neuropathy; hyperviscosityDiagnosis of MM is based on the confirmation of (a) one major criterion and one minor criterion or (b) three minor criteria in an individual who has signs or symptoms of multiple myeloma.
Major criteria:
1. >30% plasma cells on bone marrow biopsy
2. Monoclonal band of paraprotein on electrophoresis: >35g/L for IgG, 20g/L for IgA, or >1g of light chains excreted in the urine per dayMinor criteria:
1. 10–30% plasma cells on bone marrow biopsy
2. Abnormal monoclonal band but levels less than listed above
3. Lytic bone lesions observed radiographically
4. Immunosuppression -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old male with advanced COPD currently on treatment with salbutamol (as required) presents for review. After a complete history and examination, you conclude that he requires to be stepped up in his inhalational therapy. The decision to add tiotropium bromide to his regime was taken. Which of the following best describe the mechanism of action of tiotropium?
Your Answer: It is a short-acting anticholinergic agent
Correct Answer: It is a long-acting anticholinergic agent
Explanation:Tiotropium is a specific long-acting antimuscarinic agent indicated as maintenance therapy for patients with COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease).
It should be used cautiously in patients with narrow-angle glaucoma, prostatic hyperplasia or bladder neck obstruction.
The most frequently encountered adverse effects of tiotropium include pharyngitis, bronchitis, sinusitis, dry mouth, cough, and headaches. Paradoxical bronchospasm may also occur as a rare side-effect.
Dry mouth occurs in up to 14% of patients taking tiotropium, in keeping with its anticholinergic profile.
Rarer side-effects include tachycardia, blurred vision, urinary retention, and constipation. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 65 year old retired postman has been complaining of a two-month history of lethargy associated with dyspnoea. He has never smoked and takes no medication. The chest X-ray shows multiple round lesions increasing in size and numbers at the base. There is no hilar lymphadenopathy. What condition does he most likely have?
Your Answer: Pulmonary metastases
Explanation:Pulmonary metastasis is seen in 20-54% of extrathoracic malignancies. The lungs are the second most frequent site of metastases from extrathoracic malignancies. Twenty percent of metastatic disease is isolated to the lungs. The development of pulmonary metastases in patients with known malignancies indicates disseminated disease and places the patient in stage IV in TNM (tumour, node, metastasis) staging systems.
Chest radiography (CXR) is the initial imaging modality used in the detection of suspected pulmonary metastasis in patients with known malignancies. Chest CT scanning without contrast is more sensitive than CXR.
Breast, colorectal, lung, kidney, head and neck, and uterus cancers are the most common primary tumours with lung metastasis at autopsy. Choriocarcinoma, osteosarcoma, testicular tumours, malignant melanoma, Ewing sarcoma, and thyroid cancer frequently metastasize to lung, but the frequency of these tumours is low. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A patient is started on imipramine for depression. Which combination of side-effects is most likely to be associated with the intake of this class of antidepressants?
Your Answer: Dry mouth + urinary frequency
Correct Answer: Blurred vision + dry mouth
Explanation:Blurring of vision and dry mouth are antimuscarinic side-effects that are more common with imipramine than other types of tricyclic antidepressants.
Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are used less commonly now for depression due to their side-effects and toxicity in overdose. They are however used widely in the treatment of neuropathic pain, where smaller doses are typically required.
Mechanism of action: Tricyclic antidepressants impose their therapeutic effects by inhibiting presynaptic reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin in the central nervous system (this, may give rise to seizures).
Common side-effects:
Drowsiness
Dry mouth
Blurred vision
Constipation
Urinary retentionLow-dose amitriptyline is commonly used in the management of neuropathic pain and the prophylaxis of headaches (both tension and migraine).
Lofepramine has a lower incidence of toxicity in overdose
Amitriptyline and dosulepin (dothiepin) are considered the most dangerous in overdose. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Drug-induced lupus erythematosus most often occurs after taking which of the following drugs?
Your Answer: Isoniazid
Correct Answer: Procainamide
Explanation:Many drugs are responsible for causing drug induced lupus. However, it is most commonly associated with hydralazine, procainamide and quinidine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which area in the body controls the hypoxic drive to breathe?
Your Answer: Hypothalamus
Correct Answer: Carotid body
Explanation:The carotid body consists of chemosensitive cells at the bifurcation of the common carotid artery that respond to changes in oxygen tension and, to a lesser extent, pH. In contrast to central chemoreceptors (which primarily respond to PaCO2) and the aortic bodies (which primarily have circulatory effects: bradycardia, hypertension, adrenal stimulation, and also bronchoconstriction), carotid bodies are most sensitive to PaO2. At a PaO2 of approximately 55-60 mmHg, they send their impulses via CN IX to the medulla, increasing ventilatory drive (increased respiratory rate, tidal volume, and minute ventilation). Thus, patients who rely on hypoxic respiratory drive will typically have a resting PaO2 around 60 mm Hg.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 20
Correct
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A 52 year old female, known case of rheumatoid arthritis presents to the clinic with dyspnoea, cough, and intermittent pleuritic chest pain. She was previously taking second line agents Salazopyrine and gold previously and has now started Methotrexate with folic acid replacement a few months back. Pulmonary function tests reveal restrictive lung pattern and CXR reveals pulmonary infiltrates. Which of the following treatments is most suitable in this case?
Your Answer: Stop methotrexate
Explanation:Methotrexate lung disease (pneumonitis and fibrosis) is the specific etiological type of drug-induced lung disease. It can occur due to the administration of methotrexate which is an antimetabolite, which is given as disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs) in patients with rheumatoid arthritis. The typical clinical symptoms include progressive shortness of breath and cough, often associated with fever. Hypoxemia and tachypnoea are always present and crackles are frequently audible. Symptoms typically manifest within months of starting therapy. Methotrexate withdrawal is indicated in such cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Which part of the renal tubule is impermeable to water:
Your Answer: Connecting tubule
Correct Answer: The ascending limb of loop of Henle
Explanation:The walls of the ascending limb of the loop of Henle are not permeable to water. The tubular fluid thus becomes increasingly dilute as it ascends toward the cortex, whereas the interstitial fluid around the loops of Henle in the medulla becomes increasingly more concentrated.
The ascending limb actively reabsorbs NaCl but has an extremely low transepithelial osmotic water permeability, even in the presence of vasopressin. This combination of NaCl reabsorption without water reabsorption serves two vital functions: it provides NaCl to increase the osmolality of the medullary interstitium, tubules, vasculature, and collecting ducts; and it dilutes the luminal fluid within the thick ascending limb.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which of the following features of the jugular venous waveform indicates the closure of the tricuspid valve?
Your Answer: x descent
Correct Answer: c wave
Explanation:The a wave indicates atrial contraction. The c wave indicates ventricular contraction and resulting bulging of the tricuspid valve into the right atrium during isovolumetric systole. The v wave indicates venous filling. The x descent indicates the atrium relaxation and the movement of tricuspid valve downward. The y descent indicates the filling of the ventricle after the opening of the tricuspid valve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 38-year-old musician presented with a two-day history of sudden-onset occipital headache associated with nausea and vomiting. The next day, his right hand became weak for a few hours. On the same day he had an episode of sensory disturbance in his right upper limb consisting of tingling in his hand that spread up the arm, to his shoulder lasting less than two minutes in total. On the day of admission he had a similar episode of sensory disturbance lasting 30 seconds in total. On examination he had bilateral papilledema, no neck stiffness and an otherwise normal neurological examination. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Venous sinus thrombosis
Explanation:Cerebral venous sinus thrombosis (CVST) is associated with headache (>90% of cases), seizures, focal weakness (40%) and papilledema (40%), all seen in this patient.
Risk factors for CVST include genetic or acquired prothrombotic disorders, pregnancy, the oral contraceptive pill, vasculitis, malignancy, dehydration and infection. However, there are multiple other associated factors.
Diagnosis is normally confirmed with magnetic resonance venography (MRV). Treatment is with anticoagulation, initially with heparin and subsequently with warfarin. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 20-year-old boy returning from vacation in India presented with a history of fever, myalgia, headache and abdominal pain for 4 days duration. He revealed that he had bathed in a river during his vacation. On examination, he had severe muscle tenderness, hypotension (BP - 80/60mmHg) and tachycardia (140 bpm). What would be the first step in management?
Your Answer: IV normal saline
Explanation:The history is suggestive of leptospirosis. This is a zoonotic infection caused by a spirochete. As the patient is in shock, resuscitation with IV fluids is the first step in the management. IV antibiotics should be started (Doxycycline or Penicillin) as soon as possible. Other investigations mentioned are important during the management to rule out other possible diagnoses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 25
Correct
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A urine culture of a 50-year-old patient with urosepsis has isolated a multi-drug resistant Escherichia coli. What is the most likely reason for the multi-drug resistance?
Your Answer: Extended spectrum beta-lactamase (ESBL) production
Explanation:Extended-spectrum beta-lactamases (ESBL) are enzymes that confer resistance to most beta-lactam antibiotics, including penicillins, cephalosporins, and the monobactam aztreonam. Extended spectrum beta-lactamase (ESBL) production is the main reason for multi-drug resistance among E.coli. Commonly used medications to treat ESBL-involved infections include carbapenems (imipenem, meropenem, and doripenem), cephamycins (cefoxitin and cefotetan), Fosfomycin, nitrofurantoin, beta-lactamase inhibitors (clavulanic acid, tazobactam, or sulbactam), non-beta-lactamases and colistin (if all other medications have failed.)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 26
Correct
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A 24-year-old female presents with generalised irritation and erythematous skin after sunbathing on the beach. Which is the most appropriate immediate treatment for this patient?
Your Answer: Emollient cream
Explanation:Sun burn reactions usually occur after individuals with a light skin tone have prolonged exposure to the sun. The usual symptoms are redness and itching of the skin. The best treatment plan would be further avoidance of sun exposure and the topical application of emollients. These are Ist degree burns and aggressive therapy is not required in such cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 27
Correct
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In which one of the following diseases does the patient have to be isolated?
Your Answer: Measles
Explanation:Measles and chickenpox are spread by droplets. Thus, patients should be isolated.
Rheumatic fever and post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis are immune mediated diseases that don’t require isolation.
Herpetic gingivostomatitis spreads by direct transmission of infected secretions to the stratified squamous epithelium.
HSP is not an infectious disease. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 22 year old man is being evaluated for chronic lower backache. Which of the following would most strongly point towards the diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis?
Your Answer: Pain gets worse during the day
Correct Answer: Reduced lateral flexion of the lumbar spine
Explanation:Ankylosing spondylitis (spondylarthritis) is a chronic inflammatory disease of the axial skeleton that leads to partial or even complete fusion and rigidity of the spine. Males are disproportionately affected and upwards of 90% of patients are positive for the HLA-B27 genotype, which predisposes to the disease. The most characteristic early finding is pain and stiffness in the neck and lower back, caused by inflammation of the vertebral column and the sacroiliac joints. The pain typically improves with activity and is especially prominent at night. Other articular findings include tenderness to percussion and displacement of the sacroiliac joints (Mennell’s sign), as well as limited spine mobility, which can progress to restrictive pulmonary disease.
The most common extra-articular manifestation is acute, unilateral anterior uveitis. Diagnosis is primarily based on symptoms and x-ray of the sacroiliac joints, with HLA-B27 testing and MRI reserved for inconclusive cases. There is no curative treatment, but regular physiotherapy can slow progression of the disease. Additionally, NSAIDs and/or tumour necrosis factor-α inhibitors may improve symptoms. In severe cases, surgery may be considered to improve quality of life. The spine adopts a bamboo shape, not lordosis. The pain usually improves as the day progresses. leg raise test causes pain in cases of meningitis etc not in this case. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 29
Correct
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A 35-year-old female has a strong family history of cancer. Out of the following, which cancer is least likely to be inherited?
Your Answer: Gastric cancer
Explanation:Of all the listed options, gastric cancer is least likely to be inherited.
The above mentioned tumours are ruled out as explained below:
1. Breast and Ovarian cancers: Between 5%–10% of all breast cancers are thought to be hereditary. Mutation in the BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes also increase the risk of ovarian cancer.2. Colorectal and Endometrial cancers: About 5% of cases of colorectal cancer are caused by hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma (HNPCC) and 1% are due to familial adenomatous polyposis. Women who have HNPCC also have a markedly increased risk of developing endometrial cancer—around 5% of endometrial cancers occur in women with this risk factor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 30
Correct
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A 28 yr. old male was admitted with palpitations and chest discomfort for the past 1 hour. On examination his pulse rate was 200 bpm and blood pressure was 80/50 mmHg. His ECG revealed narrow complex tachycardia with a heart rate of 200 bpm. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?
Your Answer: Synchronised DC synchronised cardioversion
Explanation:Narrow complex tachycardia with hypotension is a medical emergency. Immediate synchronized cardioversion is the ideal management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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