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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old male is referred to dermatology by his physician for a lesion on his forearm. The lesion began as a small red bump and has since progressed into a deep, red, necrotic ulcer with a violaceous border. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Erythema nodosum
Correct Answer: Pyoderma gangrenosum
Explanation:Understanding Shin Lesions: Differential Diagnosis and Characteristics
Shin lesions can be caused by various conditions, and it is important to differentiate between them to provide appropriate treatment. The four most common conditions that can cause shin lesions are erythema nodosum, pretibial myxoedema, pyoderma gangrenosum, and necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum.
Erythema nodosum is characterized by symmetrical, tender, erythematous nodules that heal without scarring. It is commonly caused by streptococcal infections, sarcoidosis, inflammatory bowel disease, and certain medications such as penicillins, sulphonamides, and oral contraceptive pills.
Pretibial myxoedema, on the other hand, is seen in Graves’ disease and is characterized by symmetrical, erythematous lesions that give the skin a shiny, orange peel appearance.
Pyoderma gangrenosum starts as a small red papule and later develops into deep, red, necrotic ulcers with a violaceous border. It is idiopathic in 50% of cases but may also be associated with inflammatory bowel disease, connective tissue disorders, and myeloproliferative disorders.
Finally, necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum is characterized by shiny, painless areas of yellow/red skin typically found on the shin of diabetics. It is often associated with telangiectasia.
Understanding the differential diagnosis and characteristics of shin lesions can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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You encounter an 18-year-old student with acne on his face, chest, and shoulders. He presents with papules and pustules accompanied by widespread inflammation. Additionally, he has nodules and scarring on his chin. After diagnosing him with moderate-severe acne, you decide to refer him to dermatology while initiating treatment. Your treatment plan includes prescribing a topical retinoid and an oral antibiotic. What is the first-line antibiotic for acne vulgaris?
Your Answer: Amoxicillin
Correct Answer: Tetracycline
Explanation:Tetracyclines are the preferred oral antibiotics for treating moderate to severe acne vulgaris. This condition is a common reason for patients to visit their GP and can significantly impact their quality of life.
To address this patient’s acne and scarring, it would be appropriate to initiate a topical treatment and prescribe an oral antibiotic. Referral to a dermatologist may also be necessary, but first-line treatment may be effective.
Tetracyclines are the recommended first-line oral antibiotics for acne vulgaris. All tetracyclines are licensed for this indication, and there is no evidence to suggest that one is more effective than another. The choice of specific tetracycline should be based on individual preference and cost.
Tetracycline and oxytetracycline are typically prescribed at a dose of 500 mg twice daily on an empty stomach. Doxycycline and lymecycline are taken once daily and can be taken with food, although doxycycline may cause photosensitivity.
Minocycline is not recommended for acne treatment, and erythromycin is a suitable alternative to tetracyclines if they are contraindicated. The usual dose for erythromycin is 500 mg twice daily.
Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with a history of gout presents with an itchy rash on his trunk. He reports starting ampicillin for a recent chest infection and another medication for his gout, but cannot recall the name of the gout medication. What is the likely cause of his rash?
Your Answer: Diclofenac
Correct Answer: Sulfinpyrazone
Explanation:Allopurinol and Rash Risk
Allopurinol, a medication commonly used to treat gout, can cause an itchy maculopapular rash in 2% of patients. However, when taken with ampicillin or amoxicillin, the risk of developing a rash increases. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of this potential interaction and to monitor patients closely for any signs of rash when prescribing these medications together. By doing so, they can help prevent and manage any adverse reactions that may occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old female patient comes to you with circular patches of non-scarring hair loss on her scalp that have developed in the last 3 months. You diagnose her with alopecia areata. Although you suggest a watch-and-wait approach, she is distressed by the condition and wishes to try treatment. What management options could you initiate in Primary Care?
Your Answer: Refer for wig
Correct Answer: Topical steroid
Explanation:Patients with hair loss may experience natural recovery within a year, but those who do not see regrowth or have more than 50% hair loss may require further treatment.
Understanding Alopecia Areata
Alopecia areata is a condition that is believed to be caused by an autoimmune response, resulting in localized hair loss that is well-defined and demarcated. This condition is characterized by the presence of small, broken hairs that resemble exclamation marks at the edge of the hair loss. While hair regrowth occurs in about 50% of patients within a year, it eventually occurs in 80-90% of patients. In many cases, a careful explanation of the condition is sufficient for patients. However, there are several treatment options available, including topical or intralesional corticosteroids, topical minoxidil, phototherapy, dithranol, contact immunotherapy, and wigs. It is important to understand the causes and treatment options for alopecia areata to effectively manage this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman with acne vulgaris has tried several topical treatments and oral antibiotics in primary care without improvement. She is referred to secondary care and started on isotretinoin.
What is the most appropriate advice she should be given regarding isotretinoin treatment? Choose ONE option only.Your Answer: Pregnancy should be avoided during treatment and for one month after treatment
Explanation:Understanding Isotretinoin: Important Information to Know
Isotretinoin is a medication used to treat severe inflammatory acne. However, there are important considerations to keep in mind before starting treatment. Here are some key points to be aware of:
Pregnancy should be avoided: Isotretinoin is known to be teratogenic, meaning it can cause birth defects. Women of childbearing age should use at least one form of contraception during treatment and for one month after treatment.
Serum lipids may decrease: While taking isotretinoin, minor changes in serum lipids and liver function may occur. These are monitored during treatment and the medication may be stopped if the tests worsen.
Emollients should not be used: Isotretinoin can cause dryness of the skin and mucous membranes, especially the lips. While patients may need to apply emollients, they should be cautious as they can interfere with the medication’s effectiveness.
Depression is a rare side effect: While depression is listed as a rare side effect of isotretinoin, there is no clear link between the medication and depression. Patients should be asked about mood and any changes should be reported to their healthcare provider.
The skin becomes greasier: Isotretinoin reduces sebum secretion, which can cause dryness of the skin and mucous membranes. However, some patients may experience an initial increase in oil production before seeing improvement in their acne.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 70-year-old lady has a limited superficial thrombophlebitis around her left ankle.
She describes pain and tenderness of the superficial veins.
There is no fever or malaise and no evidence of arterial insufficiency (her ankle brachial pressure index is 1).
She is allergic to penicillin.
What are the two most appropriate treatments for this patient?Your Answer: Topical non-steroidal
Explanation:Management of Limited Superficial Thrombophlebitis
In the management of limited superficial thrombophlebitis, the most appropriate treatment option is the use of class 1 compression stockings. This is because most patients find class 2 compression stockings too painful. Additionally, an ankle brachial pressure index of between 0.8 and 1.3 means that arterial disease is unlikely, and compression stockings are generally safe to wear. Antibiotics are not indicated unless there are signs of infection, and the patient’s allergy to penicillin precludes the use of antibiotics as a treatment option. Topical non-steroidals can be used for mild and limited superficial thrombophlebitis, such as is presented here. Although an oral non-steroidal or paracetamol may be suggested, it is not presented as an option. As this condition is relatively common in primary care, it is important to be familiar with the most appropriate treatment options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man comes to your clinic in the afternoon. He is concerned about his risk of developing acral lentiginous melanoma after learning that his brother has been diagnosed with the condition. He has read that this subtype of melanoma is more prevalent in certain ethnic groups and wants to know which group is most commonly affected.
Can you provide information on the ethnicity that is at higher risk for acral lentiginous melanoma?Your Answer: Scandinavians
Correct Answer: Asians
Explanation:The acral-lentiginous melanoma is a subtype of melanoma that is often disregarded and not commonly seen in Caucasians. It is more prevalent in individuals from the Far East. This type of melanoma typically grows slowly and may not be noticeable in its early stages, presenting as pigmented patches on the sole. As it progresses, nodular areas may develop, indicating deeper growth. Sadly, the Jamaican musician Bob Marley passed away at the age of 36 due to complications from an acral lentiginous melanoma.
Malignant melanoma is a type of skin cancer that has four main subtypes: superficial spreading, nodular, lentigo maligna, and acral lentiginous. Nodular melanoma is the most aggressive, while the other forms spread more slowly. Superficial spreading melanoma typically affects young people on sun-exposed areas such as the arms, legs, back, and chest. Nodular melanoma appears as a red or black lump that bleeds or oozes and affects middle-aged people. Lentigo maligna affects chronically sun-exposed skin in older people, while acral lentiginous melanoma appears on nails, palms, or soles in people with darker skin pigmentation. Other rare forms of melanoma include desmoplastic melanoma, amelanotic melanoma, and melanoma arising in other parts of the body such as ocular melanoma.
The main diagnostic features of melanoma are changes in size, shape, and color. Secondary features include a diameter of 7mm or more, inflammation, oozing or bleeding, and altered sensation. Suspicious lesions should undergo excision biopsy, and the lesion should be completely removed to facilitate subsequent histopathological assessment. Once the diagnosis is confirmed, the pathology report should be reviewed to determine whether further re-excision of margins is required. The margins of excision are related to Breslow thickness, with lesions 0-1 mm thick requiring a margin of 1 cm, lesions 1-2 mm thick requiring a margin of 1-2 cm (depending on site and pathological features), lesions 2-4mm thick requiring a margin of 2-3 cm (depending on site and pathological features), and lesions over 4mm thick requiring a margin of 3 cm. Further treatments such as sentinel lymph node mapping, isolated limb perfusion, and block dissection of regional lymph node groups should be selectively applied.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 8
Correct
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You are reviewing one of your elderly patients with chronic plaque psoriasis. You are contemplating prescribing calcipotriol as a monotherapy.
Which of the following statements about calcipotriol is accurate?Your Answer: It can be safely used long-term on an ongoing basis
Explanation:Psoriasis can be treated with calcipotriol for an extended period of time.
Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can also affect the joints. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released guidelines for managing psoriasis and psoriatic arthropathy. For chronic plaque psoriasis, NICE recommends a stepwise approach starting with regular use of emollients to reduce scale loss and itching. First-line treatment involves applying a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, once daily in the morning and evening, for up to 4 weeks. If there is no improvement after 8 weeks, a vitamin D analogue twice daily can be used as second-line treatment. Third-line options include a potent corticosteroid applied twice daily for up to 4 weeks or a coal tar preparation applied once or twice daily. Phototherapy and systemic therapy are also options for managing psoriasis.
For scalp psoriasis, NICE recommends using a potent topical corticosteroid once daily for 4 weeks. If there is no improvement, a different formulation of the corticosteroid or a topical agent to remove adherent scale can be used before applying the corticosteroid. For face, flexural, and genital psoriasis, a mild or moderate potency corticosteroid applied once or twice daily for a maximum of 2 weeks is recommended.
When using topical steroids, it is important to be aware of potential side effects such as skin atrophy, striae, and rebound symptoms. The scalp, face, and flexures are particularly prone to steroid atrophy, so topical steroids should not be used for more than 1-2 weeks per month. Systemic side effects may occur when potent corticosteroids are used on large areas of the body. NICE recommends a 4-week break before starting another course of topical corticosteroids and using potent corticosteroids for no longer than 8 weeks at a time and very potent corticosteroids for no longer than 4 weeks at a time. Vitamin D analogues, such as calcipotriol, can be used long-term and tend to reduce the scale and thickness of plaques but not the redness. Dithranol and coal tar are other treatment options with their own unique mechanisms of action and potential adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old boy presents with recurrent balanitis. He has swelling and redness of his glans penis and foreskin, and his mother reports a foul odor and slight discharge. What is the most frequently isolated organism in cases of balanitis?
Your Answer: Group B beta-haemolytic streptococci
Correct Answer: C. albicans
Explanation:Balanitis is most commonly caused by C. albicans, with group B beta-haemolytic streptococci being a less frequent cause among bacterial infections. The other options listed may also cause balanitis, but are not as commonly isolated.
Understanding Balanitis: Causes, Assessment, and Treatment
Balanitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the glans penis and sometimes extending to the underside of the foreskin. It can be caused by a variety of factors, including bacterial and candidal infections, autoimmune conditions, and poor hygiene. Proper assessment of balanitis involves taking a thorough history and conducting a physical examination to determine the cause and severity of the condition. In most cases, diagnosis is made clinically based on the history and examination, but in some cases, a swab or biopsy may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis.
Treatment of balanitis involves a combination of general and specific measures. General treatment includes gentle saline washes and proper hygiene practices, while specific treatment depends on the underlying cause of the condition. For example, candidiasis is treated with topical clotrimazole, while bacterial balanitis may be treated with oral antibiotics. Dermatitis and circinate balanitis are managed with mild potency topical corticosteroids, while lichen sclerosus and plasma cell balanitis of Zoon may require high potency topical steroids or circumcision.
Understanding the causes, assessment, and treatment of balanitis is important for both children and adults who may be affected by this condition. By taking proper hygiene measures and seeking appropriate medical treatment, individuals with balanitis can manage their symptoms and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old male is seen for a follow-up appointment six weeks after beginning an oral antibiotic for acne. He discontinued the medication two weeks ago due to a perceived change in his skin color, despite not being exposed to strong sunlight in the past six months. During the examination, there is a noticeable increase in skin pigmentation throughout his body, including the buttocks. Which antibiotic is most likely responsible for this reaction?
Your Answer: Doxycycline
Correct Answer: Minocycline
Explanation:Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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What amount of corticosteroid cream should be prescribed for two weeks to a teenager with eczema on the front and back of both hands?
Your Answer: 200 g
Correct Answer: 100 g
Explanation:How to Measure and Apply Topical Corticosteroids
Topical corticosteroids are commonly used to treat skin conditions such as eczema and psoriasis. It is important to apply them correctly to ensure maximum effectiveness and minimize side effects.
To apply topical corticosteroids, spread a thin layer over the affected area, making sure to cover it completely. The amount of cream or ointment needed can be measured using a fingertip unit (ftu), which is the length of cream or ointment expelled from a tube from the tip of an adult index finger to the first crease. One ftu is approximately 0.5 g and is enough to cover an area twice the size of an adult hand (palm and fingers together).
For example, to treat both hands for two weeks, 14 g of cream or ointment is needed. If the hands are frequently immersed in water, it may be necessary to apply the cream or ointment twice daily, in which case 15-30 g should be prescribed.
By following these guidelines, patients can ensure that they are using the correct amount of topical corticosteroids and achieving the best possible results.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female patient complains of a rash on her neck and forehead. She recently came back from a trip to Greece a week ago and had her hair colored two days ago. Upon examination, there is a vesicular rash around her hairline that is oozing, but her scalp is not severely affected. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Photocontact dermatitis
Correct Answer: Allergic contact dermatitis
Explanation:Understanding Contact Dermatitis
Contact dermatitis is a skin condition that can be caused by two main types of reactions. The first type is irritant contact dermatitis, which is a non-allergic reaction that occurs due to exposure to weak acids or alkalis, such as detergents. This type of dermatitis is commonly seen on the hands and is characterized by erythema, but crusting and vesicles are rare.
The second type of contact dermatitis is allergic contact dermatitis, which is a type IV hypersensitivity reaction. This type of dermatitis is uncommon and is often seen on the head following hair dyes. It presents as an acute weeping eczema that predominantly affects the margins of the hairline rather than the hairy scalp itself. Topical treatment with a potent steroid is indicated for this type of dermatitis.
Cement is a frequent cause of contact dermatitis. The alkaline nature of cement may cause an irritant contact dermatitis, while the dichromates in cement can also cause an allergic contact dermatitis. It is important to understand the different types of contact dermatitis and their causes to effectively manage and treat this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 13
Correct
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An 80-year-old woman presents with sudden onset erythema of the face. Both cheeks are affected as is the bridge of the nose. The erythema began in the paranasal areas and has spread to both cheeks rapidly. The affected area is bright red, firm, swollen and painful. The edge of the erythema is sharply defined and raised. She has been feeling hot and has been shivering. No other symptoms are reported.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Erysipelas
Explanation:Understanding Erysipelas
Erysipelas is a condition that is typically diagnosed based on clinical symptoms. It usually comes on suddenly and is accompanied by systemic symptoms such as fever. The condition is commonly found on the lower limbs or the face, with facial involvement often manifesting as a butterfly distribution on the cheeks and nasal bridge. The affected skin is characterized by a sharp, well-defined raised border and is bright red, firm, and swollen. In severe cases, dimpling, blistering, and necrosis can occur. While cellulitis shares some clinical features with erysipelas, it doesn’t demonstrate the same clear swelling. Erysipelas is predominantly caused by Group A beta-hemolytic streptococci.
Other conditions that can cause skin flushing and redness include carcinoid syndrome, mitral stenosis, rosacea, and systemic lupus erythematosus. Carcinoid syndrome is associated with neuroendocrine tumors that produce hormones, while mitral stenosis can cause a malar flush across the cheeks. Rosacea is a skin condition that affects the face and causes redness and blushing, while systemic lupus erythematosus is an autoimmune condition that can have multi-organ involvement and is characterized by a photosensitive malar butterfly rash.
Overall, the sudden onset and associated fever make erysipelas the most likely diagnosis based on the information provided.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old boy is diagnosed with Norwegian scabies.
Which of the following statements regarding Norwegian scabies is correct?Your Answer: Is best treated by salicylate emulsion
Correct Answer: It is caused by Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Understanding Scabies: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Scabies is a skin infestation caused by the microscopic mite Sarcoptes scabiei. It is a common condition that affects people of all races and social classes worldwide. Scabies spreads rapidly in crowded conditions where there is frequent skin-to-skin contact, such as in hospitals, institutions, child-care facilities, and nursing homes. The infestation can be easily spread to sexual partners and household members, and may also occur by sharing clothing, towels, and bedding.
The symptoms of scabies include papular-like irritations, burrows, or rash of the skin, particularly in the webbing between the fingers, skin folds on the wrist, elbow, or knee, the penis, breast, and shoulder blades. Treatment options for scabies include permethrin ointment, benzyl benzoate, and oral ivermectin for resistant cases. Antihistamines and calamine lotion may also be used to alleviate itching.
It is important to note that whilst common scabies is not associated with eosinophilia, Norwegian scabies is associated with massive infestation, and as such, eosinophilia is a common finding. Norwegian scabies also carries a very high level of infectivity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 60-year-old man presents with a painful rash consisting of erythematous, swollen plaques with clusters of small vesicles. These are present in a band on the left side of the body extending from the lower dorsal area of the back around the front of the abdomen but not crossing the midline. The rash has been present for 48 hours.
Which of the following is the most appropriate drug to prescribe for a patient presenting at this stage of the illness?
Your Answer: Aciclovir
Explanation:Treatment for Herpes Zoster (Shingles)
Herpes zoster, commonly known as shingles, is a viral infection that affects a specific dermatome. It is recommended to start antiviral treatment, such as aciclovir, within 72 hours of rash onset for individuals over 50 years old. Aciclovir has been shown to reduce the duration of symptoms and the risk of post-herpetic neuralgia. It is also indicated for those with ophthalmic herpes zoster, non-truncal rash, moderate to severe pain or rash, and immunocompromised individuals. Prednisolone may be added to aciclovir, but results are mixed. Pain relief can be achieved with co-codamol, but stronger medications may be necessary. Amitriptyline or gabapentin may be used for post-herpetic neuralgia. Antiviral treatment is not recommended for immunocompetent children with mild symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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You have a telephone consultation with an 18-year-old male who has a 6-month history of acne. He has never consulted about this before. He started a university course 3 months ago and thinks that the acne has worsened since then. His older brother had a similar problem and received specialist treatment from a dermatologist.
You review the photo he has sent in and note open and closed comedones on his face with sparse papules. There are no pustules or scarring and no other body areas are affected.
What is the best management option for this likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Oral lymecycline and benzoyl peroxide gel
Correct Answer: Benzoyl peroxide gel
Explanation:To prevent bacterial resistance, topical antibiotic lotion should be prescribed in combination with benzoyl peroxide. It may be considered as a treatment option if topical benzoyl peroxide has not been effective. However, it is important to avoid overcleaning the skin as this can cause dryness and irritation. It is also important to note that acne is not caused by poor hygiene. When treating moderate acne, an oral antibiotic should be co-prescribed with benzoyl peroxide or a topical retinoid if topical treatment alone is not effective. Lymecycline and benzoyl peroxide gel should not be used as a first-line treatment, but rather as a second-line option in case of treatment failure with benzoyl peroxide alone.
Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 17
Correct
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An 80-year-old female comes to the clinic from her nursing home with an atypical rash on her arms and legs. The rash appeared after starting furosemide for her mild ankle swelling. Upon examination, there are multiple tense lesions filled with fluid, measuring 1-2 cm in diameter on her arms and legs. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Erythema multiforme
Explanation:Pemphigoid: A Skin Condition Caused by Furosemide
Pemphigoid is a skin condition that typically affects elderly individuals, presenting as tense blisters on the arms and legs. In some cases, it can be caused by the use of furosemide, a diuretic medication. While other diuretics can also cause pemphigoid, it is a rarer occurrence.
A positive immunofluorescence test can confirm the diagnosis, and treatment typically involves the use of steroids. It is important to differentiate pemphigoid from pemphigus, which presents in younger age groups and causes flaccid blisters that easily erupt and leave widespread lesions.
Overall, recognizing the signs and causes of pemphigoid is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman schedules a routine visit with you. She is currently 18 weeks pregnant and has a lengthy history of acne vulgaris. Before her pregnancy, she effectively managed her acne with a topical retinoid and the combined oral contraceptive. However, she discontinued both treatments prior to becoming pregnant and has noticed a resurgence of her acne. Despite trying over-the-counter benzoyl peroxide, she has not seen any improvement.
What would be the best course of action for managing her acne during pregnancy?Your Answer: No other treatment options safe in pregnancy
Correct Answer: Combined topical benzoyl peroxide + clindamycin gel
Explanation:During pregnancy, acne is a common issue and many typical treatments are not appropriate. However, it is safe to use topical antibiotics for managing acne during pregnancy. It is recommended to prescribe a combination of topical antibiotics and benzoyl peroxide. On the other hand, topical retinoids should not be used during pregnancy. If topical treatments are not effective, oral erythromycin can be considered as an option.
Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Liam is a 2-day old boy who was born with a pale pink patch on the back of his neck. It has an irregular edge and is more visible when he cries. It was noted to blanch with pressure.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Cherry angioma
Correct Answer: Salmon patch
Explanation:Salmon patches are a type of birthmark caused by excess blood vessels, but they typically go away on their own without treatment. These birthmarks are often found in symmetrical patterns on the forehead, eyelids, or nape of the neck.
Cafe-au-lait spots are another type of birthmark that appear as brown patches on the skin. While they are common, they can sometimes be a sign of an underlying medical condition.
Cherry angiomas are small, red bumps that tend to develop later in life.
Port-wine stains are a rare type of birthmark that can darken over time and are often asymmetrical in appearance.
Strawberry naevi are raised, red lesions that typically appear within the first few weeks of life.
Understanding Salmon Patches in Newborns
Salmon patches, also known as stork marks or stork bites, are a type of birthmark that can be found in approximately 50% of newborn babies. These marks are characterized by their pink and blotchy appearance and are commonly found on the forehead, eyelids, and nape of the neck. While they may cause concern for new parents, salmon patches typically fade over the course of a few months. However, marks on the neck may persist. These birthmarks are caused by an overgrowth of blood vessels and are completely harmless. It is important for parents to understand that salmon patches are a common occurrence in newborns and do not require any medical treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman presents with a severe flare-up of hand eczema. She has vesicular lesions on both hands, which are typical of bilateral pompholyx. The patient has been using Eumovate (clobetasone butyrate 0.05%) for a week, but her symptoms have not improved. You decide to prescribe Betnovate (betamethasone valerate 0.1%) for two weeks and then review her condition. According to the BNF guidelines, what is the appropriate amount of Betnovate to prescribe?
Your Answer: 30 g
Explanation:Topical Steroids for Eczema Treatment
Eczema is a common skin condition that causes red, itchy, and inflamed skin. Topical steroids are often used to treat eczema, but it is important to use the weakest steroid cream that effectively controls the patient’s symptoms. The potency of topical steroids varies, and the table below shows the different types of topical steroids by potency.
To determine the appropriate amount of topical steroid to use, the fingertip rule can be applied. One fingertip unit (FTU) is equivalent to 0.5 g and is sufficient to treat an area of skin about twice the size of an adult hand. The table also provides the recommended number of FTUs per dose for different areas of the body.
The British National Formulary (BNF) recommends specific quantities of topical steroids to be prescribed for a single daily application for two weeks. The recommended amounts vary depending on the area of the body being treated.
In summary, when using topical steroids for eczema treatment, it is important to use the weakest steroid cream that effectively controls symptoms and to follow the recommended amounts for each area of the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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You are assessing a patient with chronic plaque psoriasis. Previously, a combination of beclomethasone and calcipotriol was attempted but proved ineffective. Subsequently, calcipotriol monotherapy was prescribed twice daily, but this also failed to alleviate symptoms. The patient, who is in his mid-thirties, presents with plaques measuring approximately 6-7 cm on his elbows and knees. According to NICE guidelines, what are the two most suitable options to discuss with him?
Your Answer: Tacrolimus OR a coal tar preparation
Correct Answer: Beclomethasone twice a day OR a coal tar preparation
Explanation:Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can also affect the joints. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released guidelines for managing psoriasis and psoriatic arthropathy. For chronic plaque psoriasis, NICE recommends a stepwise approach starting with regular use of emollients to reduce scale loss and itching. First-line treatment involves applying a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, once daily in the morning and evening, for up to 4 weeks. If there is no improvement after 8 weeks, a vitamin D analogue twice daily can be used as second-line treatment. Third-line options include a potent corticosteroid applied twice daily for up to 4 weeks or a coal tar preparation applied once or twice daily. Phototherapy and systemic therapy are also options for managing psoriasis.
For scalp psoriasis, NICE recommends using a potent topical corticosteroid once daily for 4 weeks. If there is no improvement, a different formulation of the corticosteroid or a topical agent to remove adherent scale can be used before applying the corticosteroid. For face, flexural, and genital psoriasis, a mild or moderate potency corticosteroid applied once or twice daily for a maximum of 2 weeks is recommended.
When using topical steroids, it is important to be aware of potential side effects such as skin atrophy, striae, and rebound symptoms. The scalp, face, and flexures are particularly prone to steroid atrophy, so topical steroids should not be used for more than 1-2 weeks per month. Systemic side effects may occur when potent corticosteroids are used on large areas of the body. NICE recommends a 4-week break before starting another course of topical corticosteroids and using potent corticosteroids for no longer than 8 weeks at a time and very potent corticosteroids for no longer than 4 weeks at a time. Vitamin D analogues, such as calcipotriol, can be used long-term and tend to reduce the scale and thickness of plaques but not the redness. Dithranol and coal tar are other treatment options with their own unique mechanisms of action and potential adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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How would you characterize an individual with asteatotic eczema?
Your Answer: A 55-year-old male with well demarcated, coin shaped plaques of eczema
Correct Answer: An 90-year-old female who has developed cracked fissured skin on her lower legs with a 'crazy-paving' appearance
Explanation:Types of Eczema and Asteatotic Eczema in Elderly Patients
There are various types of eczema, each with its own unique characteristics and triggers. Atopic eczema is common in children, while pompholyx affects middle-aged women and discoid eczema is more prevalent in older men. Varicose eczema is often seen in individuals with poor circulation, and asteatotic eczema is a common condition in elderly patients.
Asteatotic eczema is caused by a lack of epidermal lubrication, which can be exacerbated by factors such as over-washing, inadequate soap removal, diuretic use, and dry air with low humidity. This condition is characterized by dry, cracked skin with a crazy-paving appearance. Treatment involves addressing any underlying triggers and using topical emollients and steroids to soothe and moisturize the affected area. With proper care, asteatotic eczema can be effectively managed in elderly patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman presents to you with concerns about the lumps on her ear that she has had since her teenage years. Upon examination, you diagnose her with a keloid scar. What information should you provide to this patient about keloid scars?
Your Answer: They only arise following significant trauma
Correct Answer: Recurrence after excision is common
Explanation:Mythbusting Keloid Scars: Common Misconceptions and Facts
Keloid scars are often misunderstood and surrounded by myths. Here are some common misconceptions and facts about keloid scars:
Recurrence after excision is common: Keloid scars are likely to recur after surgical excision as there is further trauma to the skin, which may result in a larger scar than the original.
They only arise following significant trauma: Keloid scars may develop after minor skin trauma, acne scarring, or immunizations.
Topical steroid treatment should be avoided: Keloid scars may be reduced in size by topical steroid tape or intralesional steroid injections given every 2–6 weeks. Other treatments include pressure dressings, cryotherapy, and laser treatment.
They are more common in Caucasian individuals: Keloid scars are more common in non-Caucasian individuals, with an incidence of 6–16% in African populations.
They may undergo malignant transformation: There is no association between keloid scars and malignancy. The complications of keloid scars are typically only cosmetic, although they may sometimes affect mobility if occurring near a joint.
In conclusion, it is important to understand the facts about keloid scars to dispel any myths and misconceptions surrounding them. With proper treatment and management, keloid scars can be effectively reduced in size and their impact on a person’s life minimized.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman is concerned about her sister who is being tested for possible vulval cancer. She inquires about any initial indications.
How does vulval intraepithelial neoplasia (VIN) typically manifest?Your Answer: VIN is usually completely asymptomatic
Correct Answer: VIN can present with vulval itching or burning or flat/slightly raised vulval skin lesions
Explanation:Vulval intraepithelial neoplasia, a type of skin lesion that can lead to squamous cell carcinoma, often presents with vulval skin lesions accompanied by burning and itching. While VIN can be asymptomatic, most women with this condition experience raised or flat discolored lesions on the labia majora, labia minora, and posterior fourchette in shades of brown, pink, or red.
Understanding Vulval Intraepithelial Neoplasia
Vulval intraepithelial neoplasia (VIN) is a condition that affects the skin of the vulva, which is the external female genitalia. It is a pre-cancerous lesion that can lead to squamous skin cancer if left untreated. VIN is more common in women who are around 50 years old, and there are several risk factors that can increase the likelihood of developing this condition.
One of the main risk factors for VIN is infection with human papillomavirus (HPV) types 16 and 18. Other factors that can increase the risk of developing VIN include smoking, herpes simplex virus 2, and lichen planus. Symptoms of VIN may include itching and burning, as well as raised and well-defined skin lesions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old woman has moderately severe acne consisting mainly of inflamed papules. There has been no visible response in spite of taking erythromycin 500 mg twice daily for three months. She also uses benzoyl peroxide but finds it irritates her face if she uses it too frequently. She found oxytetracycline upset her stomach. Her only other medication is Microgynon 30®, which she uses for contraception.
What is the most appropriate primary care management option?Your Answer: Tretinoin gel
Correct Answer: Co-cyprindiol in place of Microgynon 30®
Explanation:Treatment Options for Moderate to Severe Acne
Explanation:
When treating moderate to severe acne, it is important to consider various options and their associated risks and benefits. In cases where topical treatments and oral antibiotics have not been effective, alternative options should be explored.
One option is to switch to a combined oral contraceptive pill, such as co-cyprindiol, which can provide better control over acne. However, it is important to discuss the higher risk of venous thromboembolism associated with this type of contraceptive.
If primary care treatments continue to fail, referral to a dermatologist for consideration of isotretinoin may be necessary. Isotretinoin tablets can be effective in treating severe acne, but they must be prescribed by a dermatologist.
Extending the course of systemic antibiotics beyond three months, as advised by NICE guidance, is not recommended. Similarly, topical antibiotics and tretinoin gel are unlikely to be effective when systemic antibiotics have not worked.
In summary, when treating moderate to severe acne, it is important to consider all options and their associated risks and benefits. Referral to a dermatologist may be necessary if primary care treatments are not effective.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Which of the following conditions results in non-scarring hair loss?
Your Answer: Tinea capitis
Correct Answer: Alopecia areata
Explanation:Types of Alopecia and Their Causes
Alopecia, or hair loss, can be categorized into two types: scarring and non-scarring. Scarring alopecia occurs when the hair follicle is destroyed, while non-scarring alopecia is characterized by the preservation of the hair follicle.
Scarring alopecia can be caused by various factors such as trauma, burns, radiotherapy, lichen planus, discoid lupus, and untreated tinea capitis. On the other hand, non-scarring alopecia can be attributed to male-pattern baldness, certain drugs like cytotoxic drugs, carbimazole, heparin, oral contraceptive pill, and colchicine, nutritional deficiencies such as iron and zinc deficiency, autoimmune disorders like alopecia areata, telogen effluvium, hair loss following a stressful period like surgery, and trichotillomania.
It is important to identify the type of alopecia and its underlying cause in order to determine the appropriate treatment. In some cases, scarring may develop in untreated tinea capitis if a kerion develops. Understanding the different types and causes of alopecia can help individuals take necessary steps to prevent or manage hair loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man visits his GP with concerns about 'spots' on the head of his penis. He mentions that they have always been present and have not changed in any way. The patient confirms that he is not sexually active and has never had any sexual partners.
During the examination, the GP observes several flesh-coloured papules on the corona of the penis. The GP diagnoses the patient with pearly penile papules.
What is the most important advice the GP can offer the patient?Your Answer: Given the examination findings, testing for HIV and Mycoplasma genitalium should be undertaken
Correct Answer: Pearly penile papules are benign and do not need to be investigated
Explanation:Pearly penile papules are a common and harmless occurrence that do not require any medical intervention. These small bumps, typically measuring 1-2 mm in size, are found around the corona of the penis and are not a cause for concern. Although patients may worry about their appearance, they are asymptomatic and do not indicate any underlying health issues.
It is important to note that pearly penile papules are not caused by any sexually transmitted infections, and therefore, routine sexual health screenings are not necessary. Screening should only be conducted if there is a genuine concern or suspicion of an infection. Typically, sexual health initiatives target individuals between the ages of 18 and 25.
Understanding STI Ulcers
Genital ulcers are a common symptom of several sexually transmitted infections (STIs). One of the most well-known causes is the herpes simplex virus (HSV) type 2, which can cause severe primary attacks with fever and subsequent attacks with multiple painful ulcers. Syphilis, caused by the spirochaete Treponema pallidum, has primary, secondary, and tertiary stages, with a painless ulcer (chancre) appearing in the primary stage. Chancroid, a tropical disease caused by Haemophilus ducreyi, causes painful genital ulcers with a sharply defined, ragged, undermined border and unilateral, painful inguinal lymph node enlargement. Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV), caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, has three stages, with the first stage showing a small painless pustule that later forms an ulcer, followed by painful inguinal lymphadenopathy in the second stage and proctocolitis in the third stage. LGV is treated with doxycycline. Other causes of genital ulcers include Behcet’s disease, carcinoma, and granuloma inguinale (previously called Calymmatobacterium granulomatis). Understanding the different causes of STI ulcers is crucial in diagnosing and treating these infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a rash and feeling generally unwell. He has a history of epilepsy and was started on phenytoin three weeks ago. One week ago, he developed mouth ulcers, malaise, and a cough. Two days ago, he developed a widespread red rash that has now formed large fluid-filled blisters, covering approximately 30% of his body area. The lesions separate when slight pressure is applied. On examination, his temperature is 38.3ºC and pulse is 126/min. His blood results show:
- Na+ 144 mmol/l
- K+ 4.2 mmol/l
- Bicarbonate 19 mmol/l
- Urea 13.4 mmol/l
- Creatinine 121 µmol/l
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Drug-induced lupus
Correct Answer: Toxic epidermal necrolysis
Explanation:Understanding Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis
Toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN) is a severe skin disorder that can be life-threatening and is often caused by a reaction to certain drugs. The condition causes the skin to appear scalded over a large area and is considered by some to be the most severe form of a range of skin disorders that includes erythema multiforme and Stevens-Johnson syndrome. Symptoms of TEN include feeling unwell, a high temperature, and a rapid heartbeat. Additionally, the skin may separate with mild lateral pressure, a sign known as Nikolsky’s sign.
Several drugs are known to cause TEN, including phenytoin, sulphonamides, allopurinol, penicillins, carbamazepine, and NSAIDs. If TEN is suspected, the first step is to stop the use of the drug that is causing the reaction. Supportive care is often required, and patients may need to be treated in an intensive care unit. Electrolyte derangement and volume loss are potential complications that need to be monitored. Intravenous immunoglobulin is a commonly used first-line treatment that has been shown to be effective. Other treatment options include immunosuppressive agents such as ciclosporin and cyclophosphamide, as well as plasmapheresis.
In summary, TEN is a severe skin disorder that can be caused by certain drugs. It is important to recognize the symptoms and stop the use of the drug causing the reaction. Supportive care is often required, and patients may need to be treated in an intensive care unit. Intravenous immunoglobulin is a commonly used first-line treatment, and other options include immunosuppressive agents and plasmapheresis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old male visits the nearby sexual health clinic with a concern. He has a sizable, keratinised genital wart on the shaft of his penis that has been there for approximately three months. Due to embarrassment, he has delayed seeking medical attention. What is the best initial course of action?
Your Answer: Electrocautery
Correct Answer: Cryotherapy
Explanation:For the treatment of genital warts, cryotherapy is recommended for solitary, keratinised warts, while topical podophyllum is suggested for multiple, non-keratinised warts. As the wart is keratinised, cryotherapy should be the first choice of treatment.
Understanding Genital Warts
Genital warts, also known as condylomata accuminata, are a common reason for visits to genitourinary clinics. These warts are caused by various types of the human papillomavirus (HPV), with types 6 and 11 being the most common. It is important to note that HPV, particularly types 16, 18, and 33, can increase the risk of cervical cancer.
The warts themselves are small, fleshy growths that are typically 2-5 mm in size and may be slightly pigmented. They can also cause itching or bleeding. Treatment options for genital warts include topical podophyllum or cryotherapy, depending on the location and type of lesion. Topical agents are generally used for multiple, non-keratinised warts, while solitary, keratinised warts respond better to cryotherapy. Imiquimod, a topical cream, is typically used as a second-line treatment. It is important to note that genital warts can be resistant to treatment, and recurrence is common. However, most anogenital HPV infections clear up on their own within 1-2 years without intervention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 30
Correct
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A male patient of yours has just been diagnosed with malignant melanoma.
In what age group is the highest incidence rate per 100,000 population with this type of malignancy in the US?Your Answer: 60-69 years
Explanation:Melanoma Skin Cancer in the UK
According to Cancer Research UK, melanoma skin cancer is the 5th most common cancer in the UK, accounting for 4% of all new cancer cases. Every year, there are approximately 16,700 new cases of melanoma skin cancer in the UK, which equates to 46 new cases every day.
Melanoma skin cancer affects both males and females, with around 8,400 new cases reported in each gender annually. The incidence rates for melanoma skin cancer are highest in people aged 85 to 89.
It is important to be aware of the risks and symptoms of melanoma skin cancer, such as changes in the size, shape, or color of moles or other skin lesions. Early detection and treatment can greatly improve the chances of successful treatment and recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 31
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman who is pregnant for the first time presents at 10 weeks gestation with an itchy erythematous papular rash on the flexures of her arms. She has been experiencing significant nausea for the past 4 weeks and vomits approximately every 3 days. She has no significant medical history.
What is the probable diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Atopic eruption of pregnancy
Explanation:The most common skin disorder found in pregnancy is atopic eruption of pregnancy, which usually starts in the first or second trimester. Patients often have a widespread eczematous eruption on the face, neck, and flexural areas. Other presentations include prurigo of pregnancy or pruritic folliculitis of pregnancy. Dermatitis herpetiformis is a vesicular autoimmune skin eruption associated with gluten sensitivity, while intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy presents with severe, intractable pruritus on the palms and soles in the third trimester. Pemphigoid gestationis is a rare condition that typically occurs later in pregnancy with urticarial lesions or papules around the umbilicus, and vesicles may also be present. The nausea and vomiting experienced during pregnancy are likely due to typical nausea and vomiting of pregnancy. Immunofluorescence shows deposition of IgA within the dermal papillae.
Understanding Atopic Eruption of Pregnancy
Atopic eruption of pregnancy (AEP) is a prevalent skin condition that occurs during pregnancy. It is characterized by a red, itchy rash that resembles eczema. Although it can be uncomfortable, AEP is not harmful to the mother or the baby. Fortunately, no specific treatment is required, and the rash usually disappears after delivery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 32
Incorrect
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What is the most potent topical steroid used for treating dermatological conditions?
Your Answer: Eumovate (clobetasone butyrate 0.05%)
Correct Answer: Locoid (hydrocortisone butyrate 0.1%)
Explanation:Topical Steroid Potencies: Understanding the Differences
Topical steroids are commonly used in general practice to treat various skin conditions. However, it is crucial to understand the relative potencies of these medications to prescribe them safely and effectively.
Dermovate is the most potent topical steroid, classified as very potent. Betnovate and hydrocortisone butyrate are both considered potent, while eumovate falls under the moderate potency category. Hydrocortisone 1% is classified as mild.
To gain a better understanding of topical steroid potencies, the British National Formulary provides a helpful overview. By knowing the differences between these medications, healthcare professionals can prescribe the appropriate treatment for their patients’ skin conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 33
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding the shingles vaccine (Zostavax) is accurate?
Your Answer: The most common side-effect is a generalised myalgia
Correct Answer: It is given subcutaneously
Explanation:Varicella-Zoster Vaccination: Protection Against Chickenpox and Shingles
Varicella-zoster is a herpesvirus that causes Chickenpox and shingles. There are two types of vaccines available to protect against these infections. The first type is a live attenuated vaccine that prevents primary varicella infection or Chickenpox. This vaccine is recommended for healthcare workers who are not immune to VZV and for individuals who are in close contact with immunocompromised patients.
The second type of vaccine is designed to reduce the incidence of herpes zoster or shingles caused by reactivation of VZV. This live-attenuated vaccine is given subcutaneously and is offered to patients aged 70-79 years. The vaccine is also available as a catch-up campaign for those who missed out on their vaccinations in the previous two years of the program. However, the shingles vaccine is not available on the NHS to anyone aged 80 and over because it seems to be less effective in this age group.
The main contraindication for both vaccines is immunosuppression. Side effects of the vaccines include injection site reactions, and less than 1 in 10,000 individuals may develop Chickenpox. It is important to note that vaccination is the most effective way to prevent varicella-zoster infections and their complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman has been experiencing an uncomfortable rash around her mouth for the past 2 months. She uses a skin-cleansing face wash daily and applies hydrocortisone 1% ointment twice a day. Additionally, she has sought advice from a pharmacist who recommended clotrimazole 2% cream and has started using an old tube of fusidic acid cream. She has also started taking iron supplements after reading online that her symptoms may be due to iron deficiency. Despite all these efforts, her rash is getting worse.
During examination, you observe clusters of papules with surrounding erythema around her mouth, with sparing of her lip margins. There are no comedones, cysts, or nodules.
What is the top priority treatment that should be discontinued?Your Answer: Fusidic acid
Correct Answer: Hydrocortisone
Explanation:The patient’s perioral dermatitis is likely being exacerbated by her use of topical steroids, so the primary focus of treatment should be to avoid them. Topical erythromycin or clindamycin may be helpful for some patients, while more severe cases may require oral antibiotics like tetracycline or doxycycline. To be cautious, it is recommended that the patient stop using all topical creams and switch to a gentle non-soap-based cleanser for facial washing. It is important to note that oral iron is not a contributing factor to perioral dermatitis, and it is possible that the patient may have mistaken her symptoms for angular cheilitis, which is linked to iron deficiency.
Understanding Periorificial Dermatitis
Periorificial dermatitis is a skin condition that is commonly observed in women between the ages of 20 and 45 years old. The use of topical corticosteroids, and to a lesser extent, inhaled corticosteroids, is often linked to the development of this condition. The symptoms of periorificial dermatitis include the appearance of clustered erythematous papules, papulovesicles, and papulopustules, which are typically found in the perioral, perinasal, and periocular regions. However, the skin immediately adjacent to the vermilion border of the lip is usually spared.
When it comes to managing periorificial dermatitis, it is important to note that steroids may actually worsen the symptoms. Instead, the condition should be treated with either topical or oral antibiotics. By understanding the features and management of periorificial dermatitis, individuals can take the necessary steps to address this condition and improve their skin health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 35
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a 26-year-old female who has a medical history of seborrhoeic dermatitis and eczema, which have been well controlled for a few years. However, over the past two months, she has experienced a flare-up, particularly around her mouth. She attempted to alleviate the symptoms with an over-the-counter steroid cream, but it only made the condition worse.
During the examination, you observed clustered erythematous papules around her mouth, but the skin immediately adjacent to the vermilion border was unaffected. Her cheeks and forehead were also unaffected.
Based on the most probable diagnosis, which of the following management options is the most appropriate?Your Answer: Topical clotrimazole 1%
Correct Answer: Oral lymecycline tablets
Explanation:Peri-oral dermatitis cannot be treated with potent steroids as they are not effective. Emollients are also not recommended for improving the condition. Patients are advised to stop using all face care products until the flare-up of peri-oral dermatitis has subsided. The British Association of Dermatology (BAD) provides a useful leaflet on this condition that should be consulted.
Understanding Periorificial Dermatitis
Periorificial dermatitis is a skin condition that is commonly observed in women between the ages of 20 and 45 years old. The use of topical corticosteroids, and to a lesser extent, inhaled corticosteroids, is often linked to the development of this condition. The symptoms of periorificial dermatitis include the appearance of clustered erythematous papules, papulovesicles, and papulopustules, which are typically found in the perioral, perinasal, and periocular regions. However, the skin immediately adjacent to the vermilion border of the lip is usually spared.
When it comes to managing periorificial dermatitis, it is important to note that steroids may actually worsen the symptoms. Instead, the condition should be treated with either topical or oral antibiotics. By understanding the features and management of periorificial dermatitis, individuals can take the necessary steps to address this condition and improve their skin health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 36
Correct
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A 28-year-old male patient presents with a rash in his groin area that he has noticed for the past 3 months. The rash is asymptomatic and appears as well-defined pink/brown patches with fine scaling and superficial fissures. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Erythrasma
Explanation:Understanding Erythrasma: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment
Erythrasma is a skin condition that is characterized by a flat, slightly scaly, pink or brown rash that is typically found in the groin or axillae. Although it is generally asymptomatic, it can cause discomfort and embarrassment for those who have it. The condition is caused by an overgrowth of the diphtheroid Corynebacterium minutissimum, which is a type of bacteria that is commonly found on the skin.
One way to diagnose erythrasma is through examination with Wood’s light, which reveals a coral-red fluorescence. This can help doctors to distinguish it from other skin conditions that may have similar symptoms.
Fortunately, erythrasma can be treated effectively with topical miconazole or antibacterial medications. In more severe cases, oral erythromycin may be prescribed to help clear up the infection. With proper treatment, most people with erythrasma can expect to see a significant improvement in their symptoms within a few weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 37
Correct
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A 54-year-old lady comes to your clinic for a new patient health check. While conducting the examination, you observe an 8 mm pigmented lesion on her back. She informs you that she had no knowledge of the lesion. The lesion has a uniform pigmentation and a regular outline. It is dry and inflamed, but appears distinct from all of her other moles on her back. She also mentions that her brother was recently diagnosed with melanoma.
What is the best course of action?Your Answer: Monitor for eight weeks
Explanation:Urgent Referral Needed for Suspicious Lesion
This lesion on the patient’s skin may be a melanoma, and there are several clinical concerns that warrant urgent referral. Firstly, the lesion appears to be new and is greater than 7 mm in diameter. Additionally, there is a family history of melanoma, and the lesion is inflamed. It is important to be aware of the ugly duckling sign, which refers to a pigmented lesion that looks different from the surrounding ones.
Given the patient’s age and family history, she is at high risk of melanoma and should be referred urgently to a dermatologist. It is important to note that excision in primary care should be avoided, as the guidance for excising lesions in primary care may differ depending on the country. Prompt referral and evaluation by a specialist is crucial in cases like this to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 38
Correct
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You are reviewing the shared care protocols in the practice for prescribing and monitoring disease modifying anti-rheumatic drugs.
Which of the following DMARDs can cause retinal damage and requires monitoring for visual symptoms including pre-treatment visual assessment and biennial review of vision?Your Answer: Azathioprine
Explanation:Hydroxychloroquine Monitoring Requirements
Shared care protocols are commonly used between primary and secondary care to monitor and prescribe DMARDs. Hydroxychloroquine, used to treat rheumatoid arthritis and systemic lupus erythematosus, requires monitoring of visual symptoms as it can cause retinal damage. The Royal College of Ophthalmologists recommends that patients be assessed by an optometrist prior to treatment if any signs or symptoms of eye disease are present. During treatment, visual symptoms should be enquired about and annual visual acuity recorded. If visual acuity changes or vision is blurred, patients should be advised to stop treatment and seek advice. The BNF and NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries provide further information on the monitoring requirements for hydroxychloroquine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man presents with tear-drop papules on his trunk and limbs, covering less than 10% of his body. He appears to be in good health and guttate psoriasis is suspected. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Referral to secondary care
Correct Answer: Reassurance + topical treatment if lesions are symptomatic
Explanation:According to the psoriasis guidelines of the British Association of Dermatologists, there is no evidence to suggest that antibiotic therapy provides any therapeutic benefits.
Guttate psoriasis is a type of psoriasis that is more commonly seen in children and adolescents. It is often triggered by a streptococcal infection that occurred 2-4 weeks prior to the appearance of the lesions. The condition is characterized by the presence of tear drop-shaped papules on the trunk and limbs, along with pink, scaly patches or plaques of psoriasis. The onset of guttate psoriasis tends to be acute, occurring over a few days.
In most cases, guttate psoriasis resolves on its own within 2-3 months. There is no clear evidence to support the use of antibiotics to treat streptococcal infections associated with the condition. Treatment options for guttate psoriasis include topical agents commonly used for psoriasis and UVB phototherapy. In cases where the condition recurs, a tonsillectomy may be necessary.
It is important to differentiate guttate psoriasis from pityriasis rosea, which is another skin condition that can present with similar symptoms. Guttate psoriasis is typically preceded by a streptococcal sore throat, while pityriasis rosea may be associated with recent respiratory tract infections. The appearance of guttate psoriasis is characterized by tear drop-shaped, scaly papules on the trunk and limbs, while pityriasis rosea presents with a herald patch followed by multiple erythematous, slightly raised oval lesions with a fine scale. Pityriasis rosea is self-limiting and resolves after around 6 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 40
Correct
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You phone a nursing home with the results of a nail clipping for one of their residents which has confirmed the presence of Trichophyton rubrum. The patient is an 80-year-old woman with vascular dementia, type 2 diabetes, osteoporosis, and ischaemic heart disease.
The nail clippings had been sent because of dystrophy of the left hallux nail and 2nd toenail on one foot. You decide that topical treatment would be more appropriate than oral treatment to reduce the risk of side effects and issue a prescription for topical amorolfine. You advise the nurse this should be applied twice a week, and that her nails should be clipped short regularly.
What other advice should you give regarding the treatment?Your Answer: Treatment may need to be continued for up to a year
Explanation:Topical treatment for fungal toenail infection may require a duration of up to 12 months. Patients should be advised to wear clean socks and shoes made of breathable fabrics like cotton, instead of synthetic fabric. Terbinafine, an oral antifungal, may cause taste disturbance as a known side effect. It is important to inform patients that the treatment course for fungal toenail infection may last for 3-6 months for oral antifungal treatment and 9-12 months for topical amorolfine. Some Clinical Commissioning Groups may require patients to purchase their own treatments for minor ailments that are available without a prescription.
Fungal Nail Infections: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Fungal nail infections, also known as onychomycosis, can affect any part of the nail or the entire nail unit. However, toenails are more susceptible to infection than fingernails. The primary cause of fungal nail infections is dermatophytes, with Trichophyton rubrum being the most common. Yeasts, such as Candida, and non-dermatophyte molds can also cause fungal nail infections. Risk factors for developing a fungal nail infection include increasing age, diabetes mellitus, psoriasis, and repeated nail trauma.
The most common symptom of a fungal nail infection is thickened, rough, and opaque nails. Patients may present with unsightly nails, which can be a source of embarrassment. Differential diagnoses include psoriasis, repeated trauma, lichen planus, and yellow nail syndrome. To confirm a fungal nail infection, nail clippings or scrapings of the affected nail should be examined under a microscope and cultured. However, the false-negative rate for cultures is around 30%, so repeat samples may be necessary if clinical suspicion is high.
Asymptomatic fungal nail infections do not require treatment unless the patient is bothered by the appearance. Topical treatment with amorolfine 5% nail lacquer is recommended for limited involvement, while oral terbinafine is the first-line treatment for more extensive involvement due to a dermatophyte infection. Fingernail infections require 6 weeks to 3 months of therapy, while toenails should be treated for 3 to 6 months. Oral itraconazole is recommended for more extensive involvement due to a Candida infection, with pulsed weekly therapy being the preferred method.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic with a highly sensitive 0.5 cm nodule on the free border of the helix of his left ear. The nodule has been there for approximately six weeks and has a small amount of scale attached to its surface. He has trouble sleeping on that side of his head. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma
Correct Answer: Chondrodermatitis nodularis helicis
Explanation:Chondrodermatitis Nodularis Chronica Helicis: A Benign Tender Lump in the Ear Cartilage
Chondrodermatitis nodularis chronica helicis is a common condition characterized by a benign tender lump in the cartilaginous portion of the ear, specifically in the helix or antihelix. It is often caused by pressure between the head and pillow during sleep, particularly in individuals who predominantly sleep on one side. Minor trauma, exposure to cold, and tight headgear or telephone headsets can also trigger the condition.
The lesion rarely resolves on its own and conservative measures such as using a soft pillow or sleeping on the opposite side may be attempted. Wearing a protective pressure-relieving device, using topical and intralesional steroids, or applying topical glyceryl trinitrate may also provide relief. Cryotherapy is sometimes used as well.
Excision of the damaged cartilage area is often successful, but recurrence can occur at the edge of the excised area. The distinctive feature of chondrodermatitis nodularis chronica helicis is the associated pain and tenderness, which sets it apart from painless cutaneous tumors and non-tender actinic keratoses.
It is important to note that tophi, which contain a white pasty material and are usually not painful or tender, typically develop around 10 years after the first attack of gout in untreated patients and are commonly found around the elbows, hands, and feet.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man with type-1 diabetes has observed an atypical lesion on the dorsum of his left hand. Upon examination, he presents with a solitary erythematous circular lesion that has a raised border. The lesion is not scaly.
What is the most probable diagnosis from the options provided?Your Answer: Tinea manum
Correct Answer: Granuloma annulare
Explanation:Dermatological Conditions: Granuloma Annulare, Necrobiosis Lipoidica, Fungal Infection, Scabies, and Erythema Multiforme
Granuloma Annulare is a skin condition that presents as groups of papules forming an arc or ring around a slightly depressed center. It is usually found on the dorsal surfaces of hands, feet, fingers, and extensor surfaces of arms and legs. The generalised form of this condition presents similar but bigger rings that are more widely disseminated. A subcutaneous form also exists that presents as nodules. Although an association with diabetes has been suggested, it is not always present. The local type is self-limiting and doesn’t require treatment, while a large number of treatments are described for the generalised form but have little evidence to support them.
Necrobiosis Lipoidica is another condition that occurs in patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus. It is characterised by firm, red-yellow plaques that occur over the shins. This condition may pre-date the development of diabetes by many years.
Fungal infections, such as tinea or ringworm, are epidermal conditions that produce scaling. On the other hand, scabies presents as crusted linear itchy lesions on the hands and web spaces, plus a generalised itchy nonspecific rash. Erythema Multiforme presents as multiple erythematous lesions with a darker or vesicular centre, particularly on the hands and feet.
In summary, these dermatological conditions have distinct presentations and require different treatments. It is important to seek medical advice for proper diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 43
Correct
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A 28-year-old female presents to the clinic with a 4-week history of a mild rash on her face. She reports that the rash is highly sensitive to sunlight and has been wearing hats for protection. The patient is six months postpartum and has no significant medical history.
During the examination, an erythematous rash with superficial pustules is observed on the forehead, nose, and cheeks.
What is the most effective treatment for the underlying condition?Your Answer: Topical metronidazole
Explanation:Acne rosacea is a skin condition that commonly affects fair-skinned individuals over the age of 30, with symptoms appearing on the nose, cheeks, and forehead. Flushing, erythema, and telangiectasia can progress to papules and pustules. Exacerbating factors include sunlight, pregnancy, certain drugs, and food. For mild to moderate cases, NICE recommends metronidazole as a first-line treatment, with other topical agents such as brimonidine, oxymetazoline, benzoyl peroxide, and tretinoin also being effective. Systemic antibiotics like erythromycin and tetracycline can be used for moderate to severe cases. Camouflage creams and sunscreen can help manage symptoms, but do not treat the underlying condition. Steroid creams are not recommended for acne rosacea, while topical calcineurin inhibitors may be used for other skin conditions like seborrheic dermatitis, lichen planus, and vitiligo.
Rosacea, also known as acne rosacea, is a skin condition that is chronic in nature and its cause is unknown. It typically affects the nose, cheeks, and forehead, and the first symptom is often flushing. Telangiectasia, which are small blood vessels that are visible on the skin, are common, and the condition can progress to persistent erythema with papules and pustules. Rhinophyma, a condition where the nose becomes enlarged and bulbous, can also occur. Ocular involvement, such as blepharitis, can also be present, and sunlight can exacerbate symptoms.
Management of rosacea depends on the severity of the symptoms. For mild symptoms, topical metronidazole may be used, while topical brimonidine gel may be considered for patients with predominant flushing but limited telangiectasia. More severe cases may require systemic antibiotics such as oxytetracycline. It is recommended that patients apply a high-factor sunscreen daily and use camouflage creams to conceal redness. Laser therapy may be appropriate for patients with prominent telangiectasia, and those with rhinophyma should be referred to a dermatologist for further management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy has two circular patches of hair loss in close proximity on his scalp. Choose the one characteristic that would indicate a diagnosis of tinea capitis instead of alopecia areata from the options provided.
Your Answer: Nail pitting
Correct Answer: Scaly skin in the area of hair loss
Explanation:Understanding Tinea Capitis: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Tinea capitis, also known as scalp ringworm, is a fungal infection that affects the scalp and hair follicles. It is caused by dermatophytes Microsporum spp. and Trichophyton spp. and is more common in children and people of Afro-Caribbean background. If left untreated, it can lead to permanent hair loss.
Symptoms of tinea capitis include scaly patches on the scalp, inflammation, and pus-filled bumps known as kerion. To confirm the diagnosis, scalp scrapings including hairs and hair fragments should be examined.
Prompt treatment with systemic terbinafine or griseofulvin is necessary. Griseofulvin is the most effective agent for Microsporum canis infections, while terbinafine is more effective for Trichophyton infections. However, terbinafine is not licensed for use in children under 12 years old.
It is important to note that broken hairs in tinea capitis do not taper at the base, unlike the exclamation mark hairs seen in alopecia areata. Nail pitting, on the other hand, is a symptom of psoriasis and may also occur in alopecia areata. In alopecia areata, hair regrowth usually begins with fine white hairs, and onset is most common in childhood and adolescence.
Understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment of tinea capitis is crucial in preventing permanent hair loss and managing the infection effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 45
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman presents with recurrent cold sores on her lip. She experiences frequent outbreaks during the spring and summer, which are painful and affect her confidence when going outside. She has tried over-the-counter creams with little success. She has no significant medical history and wants to prevent future outbreaks.
What is the best course of action for managing her condition?Your Answer: Repeated courses of oral aciclovir to be taken at the onset of symptoms
Explanation:Management of Recurrent Herpes Labialis: Treatment Options and Diagnostic Considerations
Recurrent herpes labialis, commonly known as cold sores, can be a frustrating and uncomfortable condition for patients. Here are some management options to consider:
– Oral antivirals: Treatment with oral antivirals may be considered in healthy patients if the lesions are persistent. Treatment should be started at the onset of the prodrome until the lesions have healed.
– Topical aciclovir: While topical aciclovir can be used intermittently when prodromal symptoms appear, it is not recommended for long-term prophylaxis.
– Sun protection: Sun exposure can trigger facial herpes simplex, so sun protection using a high-protection-factor sunscreen and other measures may be tried.
– Laser therapy: There is no evidence to support laser therapy in the management of recurrent herpes labialis.
– Diagnostic considerations: Investigations are not usually necessary in primary care to confirm the diagnosis. Tests for underlying immunosuppression may be considered with persistent or severe episodes.It is important to work with patients to find the best management plan for their individual needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old patient comes to the dermatology clinic with a three-month history of skin discoloration on their back. During the examination, you notice patchy areas of mild hypopigmentation that cover large portions of the back. Based on your observations, you suspect that the patient has pityriasis versicolor. What organism is most likely responsible for this condition?
Your Answer: Histoplasma capsulatum
Correct Answer: Malassezia
Explanation:Understanding Pityriasis Versicolor
Pityriasis versicolor, also known as tinea versicolor, is a fungal infection that affects the skin’s surface. It is caused by Malassezia furfur, which was previously known as Pityrosporum ovale. This condition is characterized by patches that are commonly found on the trunk area. These patches may appear hypopigmented, pink, or brown, and may become more noticeable after sun exposure. Scaling is also a common feature, and mild itching may occur.
Pityriasis versicolor can affect healthy individuals, but it may also occur in people with weakened immune systems, malnutrition, or Cushing’s syndrome. Treatment for this condition typically involves the use of topical antifungal agents. According to NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries, ketoconazole shampoo is a cost-effective option for treating large areas. If topical treatment fails, alternative diagnoses should be considered, and oral itraconazole may be prescribed.
In summary, pityriasis versicolor is a fungal infection that affects the skin’s surface. It is characterized by patches that may appear hypopigmented, pink, or brown, and scaling is a common feature. Treatment typically involves the use of topical antifungal agents, and oral itraconazole may be prescribed if topical treatment fails.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old female presents to you with a pigmented skin lesion. She has come in because she has noticed that the brown-coloured lesion has grown in size. She denies any inflammation, oozing or change in sensation.
On examination, there is an 8 mm diameter lesion on her right leg. The lesion is asymmetrical with an irregular notched border, it is evenly pigmented. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommend using a '7-point weighted checklist' in order to evaluate a pigmented skin lesion.
What is the score of this patient's skin lesion using the 7-point checklist based on the above clinical description?Your Answer: 1
Correct Answer: 5
Explanation:NICE Guidance on Assessing Pigmented Skin Lesions
NICE guidance on Suspected cancer: recognition and referral (NG12) recommends using the ‘7-point weighted checklist’ to evaluate pigmented skin lesions. This checklist includes major and minor features of lesions, with major features scoring 2 points each and minor features scoring 1 point each. Lesions scoring 3 or more points are considered suspicious and should be referred for further evaluation, even if the score is less than 3 and the clinician strongly suspects cancer.
For example, if a patient has a pigmented skin lesion that has changed in size and has an irregular shape, they would score 2 points for each major feature. Additionally, if the lesion has a diameter of 8 mm or more, it would score a single point for a minor feature. Therefore, the overall score for this lesion would be 5, indicating that it is suspicious and requires further evaluation.
It is important for clinicians to use this checklist when assessing pigmented skin lesions to ensure that potential cases of skin cancer are not missed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 48
Correct
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You are evaluating an 80-year-old woman who has had varicose veins for a long time. She has recently noticed some darkening of the skin on both lower legs along with some dryness, but no pain or other symptoms. Her routine blood tests, including HbA1c, were normal. On examination, you observe mild pigmentation and dry skin on both lower legs, but normal distal pulses and warm feet. There are no indications of DVT. Your diagnosis is venous eczema. As per current NICE guidelines, what is the most appropriate next step in management?
Your Answer: Referral to vascular service
Explanation:Patients who have developed skin changes due to varicose veins, such as pigmentation and eczema, should be referred to secondary care.
Understanding Varicose Veins
Varicose veins are enlarged and twisted veins that occur when the valves in the veins become weak or damaged, causing blood to flow backward and pool in the veins. They are most commonly found in the legs and can be caused by various factors such as age, gender, pregnancy, obesity, and genetics. While many people seek treatment for cosmetic reasons, others may experience symptoms such as aching, throbbing, and itching. In severe cases, varicose veins can lead to skin changes, bleeding, superficial thrombophlebitis, and venous ulceration.
To diagnose varicose veins, a venous duplex ultrasound is typically performed to detect retrograde venous flow. Treatment options vary depending on the severity of the condition. Conservative treatments such as leg elevation, weight loss, regular exercise, and compression stockings may be recommended for mild cases. However, patients with significant or troublesome symptoms, skin changes, or a history of bleeding or ulcers may require referral to a specialist for further evaluation and treatment. Possible treatments include endothermal ablation, foam sclerotherapy, or surgery.
In summary, varicose veins are a common condition that can cause discomfort and cosmetic concerns. While many cases do not require intervention, it is important to seek medical attention if symptoms or complications arise. With proper diagnosis and treatment, patients can manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents for follow-up. She has been experiencing recurrent genital warts for the last 3 years and has not seen improvement with topical podophyllum. She previously underwent cryotherapy but is hesitant to do it again due to discomfort. During the exam, numerous fleshy genital warts are observed around her introitus. What is the best course of action for treatment?
Your Answer: Oral aciclovir
Correct Answer: Topical imiquimod
Explanation:Understanding Genital Warts
Genital warts, also known as condylomata accuminata, are a common reason for visits to genitourinary clinics. These warts are caused by various types of the human papillomavirus (HPV), with types 6 and 11 being the most common. It is important to note that HPV, particularly types 16, 18, and 33, can increase the risk of cervical cancer.
The warts themselves are small, fleshy growths that are typically 2-5 mm in size and may be slightly pigmented. They can also cause itching or bleeding. Treatment options for genital warts include topical podophyllum or cryotherapy, depending on the location and type of lesion. Topical agents are generally used for multiple, non-keratinised warts, while solitary, keratinised warts respond better to cryotherapy. Imiquimod, a topical cream, is typically used as a second-line treatment. It is important to note that genital warts can be resistant to treatment, and recurrence is common. However, most anogenital HPV infections clear up on their own within 1-2 years without intervention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 50
Incorrect
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You see a pediatric patient with a suspected fungal skin infection but the appearance is atypical and so you want to send skin samples for fungal microscopy and culture.
Which of the following forms part of best practice with regards the sample?Your Answer: Skin should be scraped from the advancing edge of the lesion
Correct Answer: The patient should be informed that microscopy and culture results should be available within 1-2 days
Explanation:Obtaining Skin Samples for Fungal Microscopy and Culture
To obtain skin samples for fungal microscopy and culture, it is recommended to scrape the skin from the advancing edge of the lesion(s) using a blunt scalpel blade. This area typically provides a higher yield of dermatophyte. It is important to obtain at least 5 mm2 of skin flakes, which should be placed into folded dark paper and secured with a paperclip. Alternatively, commercially available packs can be used.
The sample should be kept at room temperature as dermatophytes are inhibited at low temperatures. Microscopy results typically take 1-2 days, while culture results take 2-3 weeks. By following these steps, accurate and timely results can be obtained for the diagnosis and treatment of fungal infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 51
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old gentleman presents with a small non-tender lump in the natal cleft. He reports no discharge from the lump. You suspect this to be a pilonidal sinus.
What is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step? Choose ONE option only.Your Answer: Flucloxacillin
Correct Answer: Refer to general surgeons
Explanation:Management of Asymptomatic Pilonidal Sinus Disease
A watch and wait approach is recommended for individuals with asymptomatic pilonidal sinus disease. It is important for patients to maintain good perianal hygiene through regular bathing or showering. However, there is no evidence to support the removal of buttock hair in these patients. If cellulitis is suspected, antibiotic treatment should be considered. Referral to a surgical team may be necessary if the pilonidal sinus is discharging or if an acute pilonidal abscess requires incision and drainage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 52
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman comes in with a persistent erythematous rash on her cheeks and a 'red nose'. She reports experiencing occasional facial flushing. During examination, erythematous skin is observed on the nose and cheeks, along with occasional papules. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Topical hydrocortisone
Correct Answer: Topical metronidazole
Explanation:For the treatment of mild rosacea symptoms, the recommended first-line option is topical metronidazole. However, if the symptoms are severe or resistant, oral tetracycline may be necessary.
Rosacea, also known as acne rosacea, is a skin condition that is chronic in nature and its cause is unknown. It typically affects the nose, cheeks, and forehead, and the first symptom is often flushing. Telangiectasia, which are small blood vessels that are visible on the skin, are common, and the condition can progress to persistent erythema with papules and pustules. Rhinophyma, a condition where the nose becomes enlarged and bulbous, can also occur. Ocular involvement, such as blepharitis, can also be present, and sunlight can exacerbate symptoms.
Management of rosacea depends on the severity of the symptoms. For mild symptoms, topical metronidazole may be used, while topical brimonidine gel may be considered for patients with predominant flushing but limited telangiectasia. More severe cases may require systemic antibiotics such as oxytetracycline. It is recommended that patients apply a high-factor sunscreen daily and use camouflage creams to conceal redness. Laser therapy may be appropriate for patients with prominent telangiectasia, and those with rhinophyma should be referred to a dermatologist for further management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 53
Correct
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A 28-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents with a complaint of a 'facial rash'. Upon examination, you note a blotchy, brownish pigmentation on both cheeks. She reports starting the combined oral contraceptive a few months ago and believes that her skin began to develop the pigmentation after starting the pill. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Dermatomyositis
Explanation:Chloasma: A Common Skin Condition in Women
Chloasma, also known as melasma, is a skin condition characterized by brown pigmentation that typically develops across the cheeks. It is more common in women and in people with darker skin, and commonly presents between the ages of 30-40. Hormonal contraceptives, pregnancy, sun exposure, and certain cosmetics are well-documented triggers for developing the condition.
It is important to note that other conditions can cause facial rashes, but they would not fit into the description of chloasma. Acne rosacea causes papules and pustules, as well as facial flushing. Dermatomyositis causes a heliotrope rash across the face, eyelids, and light-exposed areas. Perioral dermatitis, also known as muzzle rash, causes papules that are usually seen around the mouth. Seborrhoeic dermatitis causes a scaling, flaky rash.
Overall, chloasma is a common skin condition that can be triggered by hormonal changes and sun exposure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 54
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman has been consulting with the practice nurse for a few weeks about a leg ulcer on her right leg that doesn't seem to be healing despite multiple rounds of antibiotics. You schedule some Doppler tests, which reveal an ankle: brachial pressure index (ABPI) of 0.4 in the affected leg and 0.8 in the other leg. A wound swab indicates the presence of coliforms. What is the most probable diagnosis from the options provided?
Your Answer: Underlying skin cancer
Correct Answer: Arterial insufficiency
Explanation:Understanding the Ankle-Brachial Pressure Index (ABPI) and its Role in Diagnosing Peripheral Arterial Disease
The ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) is a crucial diagnostic tool for identifying peripheral arterial disease. By comparing the systolic blood pressure at the ankle to the brachial artery pressure, doctors can determine if there is lower blood pressure in the leg, which is a sign of arterial disease. To measure the ABPI, a Doppler ultrasound blood flow detector and a sphygmomanometer are used to detect the artery pulse in the brachial and dorsalis pedis or posterior tibial arteries.
A normal ABPI falls between 0.9 and 1.2, while a value below 0.9 indicates arterial disease. An ABPI of 1.3 or greater is considered abnormal and suggests severe arterial disease. In cases where the ABPI is below 0.5, the disease is considered severe. It’s important to note that an ulcer with a normal ABPI is most likely a venous ulcer.
While coliforms are common commensals in leg ulcers and typically don’t require treatment, failure of any ulcer to heal should raise concerns about the possibility of a squamous cell carcinoma. Vasculitis typically doesn’t affect the ABPI unless it’s a large vessel vasculitis, such as polyarteritis nodosa, which would be apparent. Understanding the ABPI and its role in diagnosing peripheral arterial disease is crucial for effective treatment and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 55
Incorrect
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Which of the following causes of pneumonia is most commonly linked with the onset of erythema multiforme major?
Your Answer: Legionella
Correct Answer: Mycoplasma
Explanation:Understanding Erythema Multiforme
Erythema multiforme is a type of hypersensitivity reaction that is commonly triggered by infections. It can be classified into two forms, minor and major. Previously, Stevens-Johnson syndrome was thought to be a severe form of erythema multiforme, but they are now considered separate entities.
The features of erythema multiforme include target lesions that initially appear on the back of the hands or feet before spreading to the torso. The upper limbs are more commonly affected than the lower limbs, and pruritus, or mild itching, may occasionally be present.
The causes of erythema multiforme can include viruses such as herpes simplex virus, bacteria like Mycoplasma and Streptococcus, drugs such as penicillin and NSAIDs, and connective tissue diseases like systemic lupus erythematosus. Malignancy and sarcoidosis can also be underlying causes.
Erythema multiforme major is the more severe form of the condition and is associated with mucosal involvement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 56
Correct
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A 5-year-old girl has a history of fever and worsening eczema on her face over the past 2 days. The child appears unwell and has clustered blisters and punched-out erosions covering her chin and left cheek.
Select from the list the single most appropriate initial management.Your Answer: Emergency admission to hospital
Explanation:This young boy is suffering from eczema herpeticum, which is a herpes simplex infection that has developed on top of his atopic eczema. If someone with eczema experiences rapidly worsening, painful eczema, along with possible fever, lethargy, or distress, and clustered blisters that resemble early cold sores, they may have contracted herpes simplex virus. Additionally, punched-out erosions that are uniform in appearance and may coalesce could also be present. If eczema that has become infected fails to respond to antibiotic and corticosteroid treatment, patients should be admitted to the hospital for intravenous aciclovir and same-day dermatological review. For less severely affected individuals, oral aciclovir and frequent review may be an option. This information is based on guidance from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 57
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of an itchy, scaly rash that has been gradually developing over the past few months. He has no significant medical history except for a diagnosis of generalised anxiety disorder. Upon examination, the patient has several indistinct, pink patches with yellow/brown scales. The affected areas are primarily located on the sternum, eyebrows, and nasal bridge. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Atopic dermatitis
Correct Answer: Seborrhoeic dermatitis
Explanation:Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a common cause of an itchy rash on the face and scalp, with a typical distribution pattern. Unlike atopic dermatitis, which affects flexural areas, seborrhoeic dermatitis is characterized by scales. Pityriasis rosea, on the other hand, presents with a herald patch on the trunk, followed by scaly patches that form a fir-tree pattern.
Understanding Seborrhoeic Dermatitis in Adults
Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a chronic skin condition that affects around 2% of the general population. It is caused by an inflammatory reaction related to the overgrowth of a fungus called Malassezia furfur, which is a normal inhabitant of the skin. The condition is characterized by eczematous lesions that appear on the sebum-rich areas of the body, such as the scalp, periorbital, auricular, and nasolabial folds. It can also lead to the development of otitis externa and blepharitis.
Seborrhoeic dermatitis is often associated with other medical conditions, such as HIV and Parkinson’s disease. The management of scalp disease typically involves the use of over-the-counter preparations containing zinc pyrithione or tar as a first-line treatment. If these are not effective, ketoconazole is the preferred second-line agent. Selenium sulphide and topical corticosteroids may also be useful.
For the management of seborrhoeic dermatitis on the face and body, topical antifungals such as ketoconazole are recommended. Topical steroids can also be used, but only for short periods. However, the condition can be difficult to treat, and recurrences are common. It is important to seek medical advice if the symptoms persist or worsen despite treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 58
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old boy presents with acne affecting his face. On examination, there are multiple comedones on his face and a handful of papules and pustules. There are no nodules or scarring. The treating doctor decides to start him on topical benzoyl peroxide combined with an antibiotic.
Which of the following is the single most appropriate topical antibiotic to use?Your Answer: Minocycline
Correct Answer: Clindamycin
Explanation:Treatment Options for Mild to Moderate Acne: Clindamycin, Lymecycline, Flucloxacillin, Minocycline, and Trimethoprim
Acne is classified as mild to moderate if there are less than 35 inflammatory lesions and less than 2 nodules. For this type of acne, topical clindamycin is recommended as a first-line treatment, which can be combined with benzoyl peroxide, adapalene, or tretinoin. On the other hand, oral lymecycline is not recommended for mild to moderate acne but is effective for moderate to severe acne. Flucloxacillin is not used in acne treatment, while minocycline is effective but can cause liver problems and a lupus-like syndrome. Lastly, trimethoprim is used for people with moderate to severe acne who cannot tolerate or have a contraindication to oral lymecycline or doxycycline. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best treatment option for each individual case of acne.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 59
Correct
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A 29-year-old man who has recently moved to the UK from Uganda presents with complaints of fatigue and purple skin lesions all over his body. During examination, multiple raised purple lesions are observed on his trunk and arms. Additionally, smaller purple lesions are noticed in his mouth. The patient has recently begun taking acyclovir for herpes zoster infection.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Kaposi's sarcoma
Explanation:The patient’s raised purple lesions suggest Kaposi’s sarcoma, which is often associated with HIV infection. The recent herpes zoster infection also suggests underlying immunocompromise. Other conditions such as dermatofibromas, psoriasis, and drug reactions are unlikely to present in this way, and a haemangioma is less likely than Kaposi’s sarcoma.
Kaposi’s sarcoma is a type of cancer that is caused by the human herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8). It is characterized by the appearance of purple papules or plaques on the skin or mucosa, such as in the gastrointestinal and respiratory tract. These skin lesions may eventually ulcerate, while respiratory involvement can lead to massive haemoptysis and pleural effusion. Treatment options for Kaposi’s sarcoma include radiotherapy and resection. It is commonly seen in patients with HIV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 60
Incorrect
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A 79-year-old patient presents to her GP with a rash on her anterior thighs that has developed over the past 3 weeks. She reports that the rash is not painful or itchy but is concerned as it doesn't blanch with the 'glass test'. The patient mentions having flu-like symptoms recently and has been spending most of her time in her chair with blankets and a hot water bottle on her lap.
During the examination, the GP observes a well-defined area of mottled erythema that appears net-like across the patient's anterior thighs. The area is non-tender and non-blanching.
What is the most likely diagnosis for this lesion?Your Answer: Viral exanthem
Correct Answer: Erythema ab igne
Explanation:The most probable cause of the patient’s skin discoloration is erythema ab igne, which is caused by excessive exposure to infrared radiation from heat sources such as hot water bottles or open fires. The patient’s history of repeated exposure to a heat source and the demarcated area on her legs where she used a hot water bottle support this diagnosis. Erythema ab igne is characterized by a reticulated area of hyperpigmentation or erythema with telangiectasia, and treatment involves removing the heat source to prevent the development of squamous cell carcinoma.
Meningococcal septicaemia, which causes a purpuric rash, is unlikely in this case as the patient has had the rash for three weeks, and it is a late sign of the condition. Additionally, meningitis and meningococcal septicaemia are more common in children, particularly under 5s, although they can occur in adults.
Pressure ulcers, which occur due to restricted blood flow from pressure on tissue, are less likely in this case as they typically form on the posterior aspect of the legs, and the reticulated pattern of the lesion doesn’t match with a pressure ulcer.
Psoriasis, a chronic autoimmune skin disorder characterized by itchy, raised pink or red lesions with silvery scaling, is not consistent with the patient’s history and symptoms.
Erythema ab igne: A Skin Disorder Caused by Infrared Radiation
Erythema ab igne is a skin condition that occurs due to prolonged exposure to infrared radiation. It is characterized by the appearance of erythematous patches with hyperpigmentation and telangiectasia in a reticulated pattern. This condition is commonly observed in elderly women who sit close to open fires for extended periods.
If left untreated, erythema ab igne can lead to the development of squamous cell skin cancer. Therefore, it is essential to identify and treat the underlying cause of the condition. Patients should avoid prolonged exposure to infrared radiation and seek medical attention if they notice any changes in their skin.
In conclusion, erythema ab igne is a skin disorder that can have serious consequences if left untreated. It is important to take preventive measures and seek medical attention if any symptoms are observed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 61
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding acne vulgaris is inaccurate?
Your Answer: Typical lesions include comedones and pustules
Correct Answer: Beyond the age of 25 years acne vulgaris is more common in males
Explanation:Females over the age of 25 years are more prone to acne.
Acne vulgaris is a prevalent skin condition that typically affects adolescents, with the face, neck, and upper trunk being the most commonly affected areas. The condition is characterized by the blockage of the pilosebaceous follicle with keratin plugs, leading to the formation of comedones, inflammation, and pustules. It is estimated that around 80-90% of teenagers are affected by acne, with 60% of them seeking medical advice. Moreover, acne may persist beyond adolescence, with 10-15% of females and 5% of males over 25 years old being affected.
The pathophysiology of acne vulgaris is multifactorial, with several factors contributing to its development. One of the primary factors is follicular epidermal hyperproliferation, which leads to the formation of a keratin plug that obstructs the pilosebaceous follicle. Although androgen activity may control the sebaceous glands, levels are often normal in patients with acne. Another factor is the colonization of the anaerobic bacterium Propionibacterium acnes, which contributes to the inflammatory response. Inflammation is also a significant factor in the pathophysiology of acne vulgaris, leading to the formation of papules, pustules, and nodules.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 62
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old woman comes in for follow-up after a laparoscopic appendectomy that went smoothly. She reports feeling fine and has no issues to report. During the examination, linear, clearly defined abrasions are observed on her forearms and scalp. The patient appears unconcerned about these lesions and has a history of severe anxiety and depression. A punch biopsy is performed, which reveals nonspecific results.
What could be the probable reason for these symptoms?Your Answer: Lichen planus
Correct Answer: Dermatitis artefacta
Explanation:The sudden appearance of linear, well-defined skin lesions with a lack of concern from the patient may indicate dermatitis artefacta, a condition where the lesions are self-inflicted. A punch biopsy has ruled out other potential causes, and the patient’s history of psychiatric disorders supports this diagnosis. Atopic dermatitis is a possibility, but typically presents with additional symptoms such as pruritus and scaly erythematous plaques. Cutaneous T-cell lymphoma cannot be ruled out without a biopsy, and lichen planus is unlikely due to the patient’s lack of distress from pruritus.
Understanding Dermatitis Artefacta
Dermatitis artefacta is a rare condition that affects individuals of any age, but is more common in females. It is characterised by self-inflicted skin lesions that patients typically deny are self-induced. The condition is strongly associated with personality disorder, dissociative disorders, and eating disorders, with a prevalence of up to 33% in patients with bulimia or anorexia.
Patients with dermatitis artefacta present with well-demarcated linear or geometric lesions that appear suddenly and do not evolve over time. The lesions may be caused by scratching with fingernails or other objects, burning skin with cigarettes, or chemical exposure. Commonly affected areas include the face and dorsum of the hands. Despite the severity of the skin lesions, patients may display a nonchalant attitude, known as la belle indifference.
Diagnosis of dermatitis artefacta is based on clinical history and exclusion of other dermatological conditions. Biopsy of skin lesions is not routine but may be helpful to exclude other conditions. Psychiatric assessment may be necessary. Differential diagnosis includes other dermatological conditions and factitious disorders such as Munchausen syndrome and malingering.
Management of dermatitis artefacta involves a multidisciplinary approach with dermatologists, psychologists, and psychiatrists. Direct confrontation is unhelpful and may discourage patients from seeking medical help. Treatment includes providing occlusive dressing, topical antibiotics, and bland emollients. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors and cognitive behavioural therapy may be helpful, although evidence is limited.
In summary, dermatitis artefacta is a rare condition that requires a multidisciplinary approach for management. Understanding the clinical features, risk factors, and differential diagnosis is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 63
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the least acknowledged as a negative consequence of using phenytoin?
Your Answer: Coarsening of facial features
Correct Answer: Alopecia
Explanation:Hirsutism is a known side effect of phenytoin, while alopecia is not commonly associated with it.
Understanding the Adverse Effects of Phenytoin
Phenytoin is a medication commonly used to manage seizures. Its mechanism of action involves binding to sodium channels, which increases their refractory period. However, the drug is associated with a large number of adverse effects that can be categorized as acute, chronic, idiosyncratic, and teratogenic.
Acute adverse effects of phenytoin include dizziness, diplopia, nystagmus, slurred speech, ataxia, confusion, and seizures. Chronic adverse effects may include gingival hyperplasia, hirsutism, coarsening of facial features, drowsiness, megaloblastic anemia, peripheral neuropathy, enhanced vitamin D metabolism causing osteomalacia, lymphadenopathy, and dyskinesia.
Idiosyncratic adverse effects of phenytoin may include fever, rashes, including severe reactions such as toxic epidermal necrolysis, hepatitis, Dupuytren’s contracture, aplastic anemia, and drug-induced lupus. Finally, teratogenic adverse effects of phenytoin are associated with cleft palate and congenital heart disease.
It is important to note that phenytoin is also an inducer of the P450 system. While routine monitoring of phenytoin levels is not necessary, trough levels should be checked immediately before a dose if there is a need for adjustment of the phenytoin dose, suspected toxicity, or detection of non-adherence to the prescribed medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 64
Incorrect
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You see a 50-year-old woman with generalised hair loss from her scalp over the past year. She has no features of androgen excess. She has no medical history and is not on any regular medication. Recent blood tests including ferritin were unremarkable. On examination, you note some mild thinning around the crown area and widening of the central parting of her hair. You make a diagnosis of androgenetic alopecia.
What would be the next most appropriate management step?Your Answer: Refer to dermatology
Correct Answer: Cyproterone acetate
Explanation:NICE Recommends Topical Minoxidil as First-Line Treatment for Female Androgenetic Alopecia
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends the use of topical minoxidil 2% solution as the first-line treatment for androgenetic alopecia in women. This medication is available over-the-counter and has been found to be effective in promoting hair growth. However, NICE advises against prescribing other drug treatments in primary care.
Referral to dermatology should be considered in certain cases. For instance, if a woman has an atypical presentation of hair loss, or if she experiences extensive hair loss. Additionally, if treatment with topical minoxidil has been ineffective after one year, referral to a dermatologist may be necessary. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can ensure that women with androgenetic alopecia receive appropriate and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 65
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old female presents with a 5-week history of a painful red rash around her mouth that is occasionally itchy. She has a history of chronic sinusitis and has been using intranasal mometasone spray for the past 3 months. Despite using Canestan cream for 7 days and topical erythromycin for 4 weeks, prescribed by a GP colleague for suspected perioral dermatitis, the rash persists and has become more severe.
During examination, you observe an erythematous papular rash with pustules around her mouth and nasolabial fold. There are no blisters, yellow crusting, or telangiectasia.
You agree with your colleague's diagnosis but believe that her symptoms are severe. What is the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer: Topical miconazole to continue for 10 days after the rash has healed
Correct Answer: Oral lymecycline for 4-6 weeks
Explanation:Perioral dermatitis is best treated with either topical or oral antibiotics.
The patient in question is experiencing perioral dermatitis, which is characterized by a rash of erythematous papulopustules around the mouth and nose, and sometimes the eyes. Despite its name, it is not actually a form of dermatitis, but rather a type of rosacea that is often triggered by the use of steroids, including those that are inhaled or applied topically.
Mild cases of perioral dermatitis can be managed with topical antibiotics, while moderate to severe cases may require a course of oral antibiotics lasting 4-6 weeks. Therefore, the correct answer is oral lymecycline.
It is important to note that the use of steroids, whether topical or oral, should be avoided in the management of perioral dermatitis, and any ongoing steroid use should be discontinued if possible.
Topical miconazole is an antifungal medication used to treat fungal skin infections, which typically present as scaly, itchy, circular rashes rather than papulopustular lesions.
Aciclovir is an antiviral medication used to treat herpes simplex infections, such as cold sores. While these infections can occur around the mouth, they typically present as localized blisters rather than a papulopustular rash.
Understanding Periorificial Dermatitis
Periorificial dermatitis is a skin condition that is commonly observed in women between the ages of 20 and 45 years old. The use of topical corticosteroids, and to a lesser extent, inhaled corticosteroids, is often linked to the development of this condition. The symptoms of periorificial dermatitis include the appearance of clustered erythematous papules, papulovesicles, and papulopustules, which are typically found in the perioral, perinasal, and periocular regions. However, the skin immediately adjacent to the vermilion border of the lip is usually spared.
When it comes to managing periorificial dermatitis, it is important to note that steroids may actually worsen the symptoms. Instead, the condition should be treated with either topical or oral antibiotics. By understanding the features and management of periorificial dermatitis, individuals can take the necessary steps to address this condition and improve their skin health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 66
Correct
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A 27-year-old male visits his GP after experiencing 3 episodes of prickling sensations in his left arm accompanied by involuntary jerking, lasting for a minute each time. He remains conscious during the episodes. The patient has a history of asthma and a nut allergy but is not taking any regular medications. After being referred to a neurologist, he is diagnosed with focal epilepsy and prescribed lamotrigine. What uncommon side effect should the patient be advised about, particularly in the initial 8 weeks of treatment?
Your Answer: Stevens-Johnson syndrome
Explanation:Lamotrigine therapy is associated with a rare but acknowledged adverse effect.
Lamotrigine is a medication that is primarily used as an antiepileptic drug. It is typically prescribed as a second-line treatment for a range of generalised and partial seizures. The drug works by blocking sodium channels in the body, which helps to reduce the occurrence of seizures.
Despite its effectiveness in treating seizures, lamotrigine can also cause a number of adverse effects. One of the most serious of these is Stevens-Johnson syndrome, a rare but potentially life-threatening skin condition. Other possible side effects of the drug include dizziness, headache, nausea, and blurred vision. It is important for patients taking lamotrigine to be aware of these potential risks and to report any unusual symptoms to their healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 67
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old male presents to your clinic with a suspected fungal toenail infection. The infection has been gradually developing, causing discoloration of the nail unit with white/yellow streaks and distorting the nail bed. The severity of the infection is moderate. During his last visit, nail scrapings were taken for microscopy and culture, which recently confirmed dermatophyte infection. The patient is experiencing discomfort while walking and is seeking treatment for the fungal infection.
What is the most suitable treatment option for this patient?Your Answer: Topical amorolfine 5% nail lacquer
Correct Answer: Oral terbinafine
Explanation:Oral terbinafine is recommended for treating dermatophyte nail infections.
Fungal Nail Infections: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Fungal nail infections, also known as onychomycosis, can affect any part of the nail or the entire nail unit. However, toenails are more susceptible to infection than fingernails. The primary cause of fungal nail infections is dermatophytes, with Trichophyton rubrum being the most common. Yeasts, such as Candida, and non-dermatophyte molds can also cause fungal nail infections. Risk factors for developing a fungal nail infection include increasing age, diabetes mellitus, psoriasis, and repeated nail trauma.
The most common symptom of a fungal nail infection is thickened, rough, and opaque nails. Patients may present with unsightly nails, which can be a source of embarrassment. Differential diagnoses include psoriasis, repeated trauma, lichen planus, and yellow nail syndrome. To confirm a fungal nail infection, nail clippings or scrapings of the affected nail should be examined under a microscope and cultured. However, the false-negative rate for cultures is around 30%, so repeat samples may be necessary if clinical suspicion is high.
Asymptomatic fungal nail infections do not require treatment unless the patient is bothered by the appearance. Topical treatment with amorolfine 5% nail lacquer is recommended for limited involvement, while oral terbinafine is the first-line treatment for more extensive involvement due to a dermatophyte infection. Fingernail infections require 6 weeks to 3 months of therapy, while toenails should be treated for 3 to 6 months. Oral itraconazole is recommended for more extensive involvement due to a Candida infection, with pulsed weekly therapy being the preferred method.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 68
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old patient presents with abdominal symptoms and also requests that you examine a skin lesion on their shoulder. The patient reports having noticed the lesion for a few years and that it has slowly been increasing in size. They mention having worked as a builder and property developer, resulting in significant sun exposure. On examination, you note an irregular pale red patch on the right shoulder measuring 6x4mm. The lesion has a slightly raised 'rolled' pearly edge and a small eroded area in the center. There is no surrounding inflammation, and the lesion doesn't feel indurated.
What is your plan for managing this patient's skin lesion?Your Answer: No action needed (low risk lesion)
Correct Answer: Routine referral to dermatology
Explanation:When a superficial basal cell carcinoma (BCC) is suspected, it is recommended to make a standard referral. This presentation is typical of BCC, which usually grows slowly and hardly ever spreads to other parts of the body. Dermatology referral is necessary in such cases. While Efudix and cryotherapy may be used as substitutes for excision in treating superficial BCC, it is important to seek the guidance of a dermatologist.
Understanding Basal Cell Carcinoma
Basal cell carcinoma (BCC) is a type of skin cancer that is commonly found in the Western world. It is characterized by slow growth and local invasion, with metastases being extremely rare. Lesions are also known as rodent ulcers and are typically found on sun-exposed areas, particularly on the head and neck. The most common type of BCC is nodular BCC, which initially appears as a pearly, flesh-colored papule with telangiectasia. As it progresses, it may ulcerate, leaving a central crater.
If a BCC is suspected, a routine referral should be made. There are several management options available, including surgical removal, curettage, cryotherapy, topical cream such as imiquimod or fluorouracil, and radiotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 69
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old single man comes to the GP with a severe psoriatic type rash on the palmar surface of his hands and the soles of his feet. He has recently returned from a trip to Thailand.
He also reports experiencing conjunctivitis, joint pains, and a rash on his penis.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Pompholyx eczema
Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis
Explanation:Rash on Soles and Palms: Possible Causes
A rash on the soles and palms can be a symptom of various conditions, including reactive arthritis (Reiter’s), syphilis, psoriasis (excluding guttate form), eczema (pompholyx), and erythema multiforme. Palmoplantar psoriasis may also present as a pustular form, while athlete’s foot can be caused by Trichophyton rubrum.
In this particular case, the symptoms are most consistent with reactive arthritis, which can be associated with sexually transmitted infections or bacterial gastroenteritis. The fact that the patient recently traveled to Ibiza raises the possibility of a sexually transmitted infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 70
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner (GP) with a scaly erythematous rash on his right foot. There is no rash on his left foot. The GP suspects a dermatophyte fungal infection (Tinea pedis) and wants to confirm the diagnosis.
What is the correct statement about the skin scraping specimen?Your Answer: A culture of yeasts is usually significant
Correct Answer: The presence of branching hyphae on microscopy confirms the diagnosis
Explanation:Diagnosing Fungal Skin Infections: Microscopy and Culture
To confirm a dermatophyte fungal infection, skin samples are collected for microscopy and culture. A scalpel blade is used to scrape off superficial scales from the leading edge of the rash. Lack of scale may indicate a misdiagnosis. Microscopy involves staining the sample with potassium hydroxide and examining it for fungal hyphae. Culture identifies the specific organism responsible for the infection, but may take several weeks and can produce false negatives. Yeast infections can be identified by seeing budding yeast cells under the microscope, but yeasts and moulds may also be harmless colonizers. It is important to confirm the diagnosis before treatment, but if a dermatophyte infection is suspected, treatment should begin promptly. Samples should be transported in a sterile container or black paper envelope.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 71
Incorrect
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Sophie has just turned 30 and has recently started taking Microgynon 30. However, she is concerned about the impact it may have on her skin as she has an important event coming up soon. What is a typical skin-related adverse effect of Microgynon 30?
Your Answer: Discoid eczema
Correct Answer: Melasma
Explanation:The use of combined oral contraceptive pills can lead to skin-related side effects that are similar to those observed during pregnancy. The high levels of estrogen in these pills can cause hyperpigmentation, known as melasma, on areas of the skin that are exposed to the sun. This side effect is more common in women who use the pill for longer durations or at higher doses. However, melasma usually disappears after discontinuing the pill or after pregnancy.
The oral contraceptive pill can also cause vascular effects such as spider naevi, telangiectasia, and angiomas due to high levels of estrogen. Women taking the pill may also experience genital candidiasis (thrush). The progesterone used in the pill can be androgenic, leading to acne vulgaris, hirsutism, greasy hair, and alopecia. However, some progesterones, such as drospirenone (in Yasmin) and desogestrel (in Marvelon), are less androgenic and induce acne less. For effective treatment of acne, the estrogen dose must be sufficient to counteract the androgenic nature of the progesterone used.
There is no evidence to suggest that taking the oral contraceptive pill increases the risk of eczema, rosacea, or dermatographia. However, the pill may cause erythema nodosum more commonly than erythema multiforme.
Understanding Melasma: A Common Skin Condition
Melasma is a skin condition that causes the development of dark patches or macules on sun-exposed areas, especially the face. It is more common in women and people with darker skin. The term chloasma is sometimes used to describe melasma during pregnancy. The condition is often associated with hormonal changes, such as those that occur during pregnancy or with the use of hormonal medications like the combined oral contraceptive pill or hormone replacement therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 72
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old woman comes in with a chronic rash on her face that she tries to conceal with heavy make-up. She has a history of recurrent conjunctivitis and itchy eyes. Upon examination, there are papules and pustules on her nose and forehead, along with sebaceous hyperplasia on the tip of her nose.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus
Correct Answer: Acne rosacea
Explanation:Differentiating Skin Conditions: Acne Rosacea, Cosmetic Allergy, Systemic Lupus, and Dermatitis Herpetiformis
Skin conditions can be difficult to differentiate, but understanding their unique characteristics can help with accurate diagnosis and treatment. Acne rosacea is a common inflammatory condition that presents with pustules and papules, facial flushing, and secondary eye involvement. Contact dermatitis, on the other hand, lacks pustules and papules and is often associated with a history of exposure to an irritant or allergen. Comedones are not typically present in acne rosacea, especially in older patients.
Cosmetic allergy is another condition that can present with red, itchy, and scaly skin, often with blisters. It is more common than people realize, affecting up to 10% of the population over a lifetime. Irritant reactions are more common than allergic reactions, but both can be triggered by exposure to certain ingredients in cosmetics.
Systemic lupus is a chronic autoimmune disease that can affect multiple organs, including the skin. A classic sign of lupus is a butterfly-shaped rash on the face, but other systemic features should also be present. The rash tends to come and go, lasting hours or days.
Dermatitis herpetiformis is a chronic skin condition characterized by itchy papules and vesicles that typically affect the scalp, shoulders, buttocks, elbows, and knees. It is associated with gluten sensitivity and can be diagnosed with a skin biopsy.
In summary, understanding the unique characteristics of different skin conditions can help with accurate diagnosis and treatment. If you are experiencing skin symptoms, it is important to seek medical advice from a healthcare professional.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 73
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old woman visits her GP for a regular check-up and expresses concern about her facial acne. She has a combination of comedones and pustules, but no significant scarring. Despite using a topical retinoid, she is hesitant to try another oral antibiotic after experiencing no improvement with three months of lymecycline. She has no risk factors for venous thromboembolism, her blood pressure is normal, and her cervical screening is up to date. She is interested in exploring hormonal treatments for her acne. What is the most appropriate medication to prescribe?
Your Answer: Dianette (Co-cyprindiol)
Correct Answer: Microgynon
Explanation:When treating moderate acne that doesn’t respond to topical treatments, it may be appropriate to add an oral antibiotic like lymecycline or doxycycline for up to three months. If there is no improvement, the acne worsens, or the patient cannot tolerate side effects, a different antibiotic can be tried. However, if the patient doesn’t want to try a different antibiotic, combined oral contraceptives can be considered as long as there are no contraindications. Second or third-generation combined oral contraceptives are typically preferred, such as Microgynon. It is important to note that Cerelle, a progesterone-only contraceptive, can worsen acne due to its androgenic activity. Dianette (co-cyprindiol) is a second-line contraceptive option for moderate to severe acne, but it comes with an increased risk of VTE and should only be used after careful discussion of the risks and benefits with the patient. It should be discontinued three months after acne has been controlled. Similarly, Cerazette is not a suitable option due to its androgenic activity.
Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 74
Correct
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A 21-year-old farmer presents to the General Practitioner with a boggy inflamed lump on the upper central forehead that extends into the hairline. The lump has multiple small pustular areas on the surface and is of recent onset. Additionally, there is hair loss from the affected area of the scalp. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Kerion
Explanation:Understanding Kerion: An Inflammatory Mass Caused by Zoophilic Dermatophyte Fungal Infection
Kerion is a rare form of tinea infection that results in an inflammatory mass caused by a zoophilic dermatophyte fungal infection. Unlike the more common anthropophilic dermatophytes that produce a mild, chronic inflammation, zoophilic dermatophytes of animal origin produce an intense inflammatory response. The scalp is most commonly affected by zoophilic organisms such as Microsporum canis from domestic pets or Trichophyton verrucosum from cattle and horses.
Kerion is often misdiagnosed as a bacterial infection, and failure to diagnose it early can result in permanent alopecia in the affected areas. Symptoms may include enlarged regional lymph nodes, fever, and malaise. Definitive diagnosis is made by isolating the fungus from culture of hair and scalp scales, but fungal culture is often negative due to the difficulty in isolating the fungus. In such cases, treatment may be initiated based on clinical suspicion.
Treatment for kerion involves oral antifungal agents such as terbinafine, itraconazole, or griseofulvin for at least six to eight weeks. Antibiotics may also be needed if there is a bacterial infection present. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for kerion is crucial for proper diagnosis and management of this uncommon fungal infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 75
Incorrect
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During a 4-week baby check, you observe a flat, pink-colored, vascular skin lesion measuring 30x20mm over the baby's nape. The lesion blanches on pressure and has been present since birth without any significant changes. The baby is developing normally. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Atopic dermatitis
Correct Answer: Salmon patch
Explanation:Salmon patches are a type of birthmark caused by excess blood vessels, but they typically go away on their own. If a person has a flat birthmark that was present from birth, it could only be a port-wine stain or a salmon patch. Salmon patches are more common and often appear as a pink discoloration on the back of the neck. Atopic dermatitis, a type of eczema, doesn’t appear at birth but may develop later in life, often on the neck and other areas that bend. Strawberry birthmarks, on the other hand, usually appear shortly after birth and are raised above the skin’s surface. They can either disappear, shrink, or remain the same over time.
Understanding Salmon Patches in Newborns
Salmon patches, also known as stork marks or stork bites, are a type of birthmark that can be found in approximately 50% of newborn babies. These marks are characterized by their pink and blotchy appearance and are commonly found on the forehead, eyelids, and nape of the neck. While they may cause concern for new parents, salmon patches typically fade over the course of a few months. However, marks on the neck may persist. These birthmarks are caused by an overgrowth of blood vessels and are completely harmless. It is important for parents to understand that salmon patches are a common occurrence in newborns and do not require any medical treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 76
Correct
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A 19-year-old girl presents to you with concerns about her acne on her face, chest, and upper back. She is feeling self-conscious about it, especially after her boyfriend made some comments about her skin. She has been using a combination of topical benzoyl peroxide and antibiotics for the past few months.
Upon examination, you note the presence of comedones, papules, and pustules, but no nodules or cysts. There is no scarring.
What is the recommended first-line treatment for her acne at this stage?Your Answer: Lymecycline
Explanation:Since the topical preparation did not work for the patient, the next step would be to try an oral antibiotic. The recommended first-line options are lymecycline, oxytetracycline, tetracycline, or doxycycline. Lymecycline is preferred as it only needs to be taken once a day, which can improve the patient’s adherence to the treatment.
Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 77
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman presents with concerns regarding hair loss.
She has been noticing patches of hair loss over the past three months without any associated itching. Her medical history includes hypothyroidism, for which she takes 100 micrograms of thyroxine daily, and she takes the combined oral contraceptive for regular withdrawal bleeds.
During examination, she appears healthy with a BMI of 22 kg/m2 and a blood pressure of 122/72 mmHg. Upon examining her scalp, two distinct patches of hair loss, approximately 2-3 cm in diameter, are visible on the vertex of her head and the left temporo-occipital region.
What is the most probable cause of her hair loss?Your Answer: Drug induced
Explanation:Hair Loss and Autoimmune Conditions
This young woman is experiencing hair loss and has been diagnosed with an autoimmune condition and hypothyroidism. Her symptoms are consistent with alopecia areata, a condition where hair loss occurs in discrete patches. While only 1% of cases of alopecia are associated with thyroid disease, it is a possibility in this case. However, scarring alopecia is more typical of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), which is not present in this patient. Androgenic alopecia, which causes thinning at the vertex and temporal areas, is also not consistent with this patient’s symptoms. Over-treatment with thyroxine or the use of oral contraceptives can cause generalised hair loss, but this is not the case for this patient. It is important to properly diagnose the underlying condition causing hair loss in order to provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 78
Incorrect
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Which of the following skin conditions is less frequently observed in individuals with systemic lupus erythematosus?
Your Answer: Photosensitivity
Correct Answer: Keratoderma blenorrhagica
Explanation:Reiter’s syndrome is characterized by the presence of waxy yellow papules on the palms and soles, a condition known as keratoderma blenorrhagica.
Skin Disorders Associated with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a chronic autoimmune disease that can affect various organs and tissues in the body, including the skin. Skin manifestations of SLE include a photosensitive butterfly rash, discoid lupus, alopecia, and livedo reticularis, which is a net-like rash. The butterfly rash is a red, flat or raised rash that appears on the cheeks and bridge of the nose, often sparing the nasolabial folds. Discoid lupus is a chronic, scarring skin condition that can cause red, raised patches or plaques on the face, scalp, and other areas of the body. Alopecia is hair loss that can occur on the scalp, eyebrows, and other areas of the body. Livedo reticularis is a mottled, purplish discoloration of the skin that can occur on the arms, legs, and trunk.
The skin manifestations of SLE can vary in severity and may come and go over time. They can also be a sign of more serious internal organ involvement. Treatment for skin manifestations of SLE may include topical or oral medications, such as corticosteroids, antimalarials, and immunosuppressants, as well as sun protection measures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 79
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man comes to you with a widespread fungal skin infection in his groin area. You decide to send skin scrapings for testing, but in the meantime, you believe it is appropriate to start him on an oral antifungal based on your clinical assessment and judgement. He has no significant medical history, is not taking any other medications, and has no known drug allergies.
What is the most suitable initial treatment to administer?Your Answer: Ketoconazole
Correct Answer: Terbinafine
Explanation:Oral Antifungal Treatment for Severe Fungal Disease
Oral antifungal treatment may be necessary for adults with severe or extensive fungal disease. In some cases, treatment can begin before mycology results are obtained, based on clinical judgement. Terbinafine is the preferred first-line treatment for oral antifungal therapy in primary care. However, if terbinafine is not tolerated or contraindicated, oral itraconazole or oral griseofulvin may be used as alternatives. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for each individual case. Proper treatment can help manage symptoms and prevent the spread of fungal infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 80
Correct
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A 38-year-old man presents with a pigmented skin lesion. His partner urged him to come and see you as she noticed that the lesion has recently changed and grown in size. There is no history of inflammation, oozing or change in sensation.
On examination, there is a 9 mm diameter pigmented skin lesion on his back. The lesion is asymmetrical with an irregular notched border, it is evenly pigmented.
Using the 7-point weighted checklist recommended by NICE for evaluating pigmented skin lesions, what is the score of this patient's skin lesion based on the above clinical description?Your Answer: 7
Explanation:NICE Guidance on Referral for Suspected Cancer
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends using the ‘7-point weighted checklist’ to evaluate pigmented skin lesions for potential cancer. The checklist includes major features such as changes in size, irregular shape, and irregular color, which score 2 points each, and minor features such as largest diameter of 7 mm or more, inflammation, oozing, and change in sensation, which score 1 point each. Lesions scoring 3 or more points are considered suspicious and should be referred for further evaluation. However, clinicians should always refer lesions they strongly suspect to be cancerous, even if the score is less than 3. For example, a lesion with a score of 5 due to change in size, irregular shape, and a diameter of 9 mm would warrant referral for further evaluation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 81
Incorrect
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You are working in a GP practice, and your next patient is a female aged 35, who has recently registered. She is living in a hostel near to the practice. She has a previous medical history of anxiety and depression, and is coded to be an ex-intravenous drug user.
She reports having intensely itchy 'lumps' on her arms and legs for the past two weeks. Upon examination, she has multiple red bumps and raised areas on her limbs and torso, with some of these appearing in a curved line pattern. Her hands, feet, and groin are unaffected.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Scabies infestation
Correct Answer: Bedbug infestation
Explanation:If a patient complains of intensely itchy bumps on their arms, torso, or legs, it may be a sign of a bed bug infestation. This is especially true if the patient has recently stayed in a hotel, hostel, or other temporary accommodation, as bed bugs can easily travel on clothing and luggage.
While scabies is a possible differential diagnosis, it is less likely if the patient doesn’t have involvement of the finger webs or linear burrows beneath the skin. Bed bug bites tend to appear as lumps or welts, rather than small spots.
If the lesions are aligned in a line or curve, this is also suggestive of a bed bug infestation, as the insects tend to move across the skin in a linear fashion.
Dealing with Bed Bugs: Symptoms, Treatment, and Prevention
Bed bugs are a type of insect that can cause a range of clinical problems, including itchy skin rashes, bites, and allergic reactions. Infestation with Cimex hemipterus is the primary cause of these symptoms. In recent years, bed bug infestations have become increasingly common in the UK, and they can be challenging to eradicate. These insects thrive in mattresses and fabrics, making them difficult to detect and eliminate.
Topical hydrocortisone can help control the itch. However, the definitive treatment for bed bugs is through a pest management company that can fumigate your home. This process can be costly, but it is the most effective way to eliminate bed bugs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 82
Correct
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An 80-year-old man comes in for a skin examination. He has three small scaly pink growths on his forehead and two on his forearms. He reports having had these growths before and they were typically treated with cryotherapy. No other notable growths are observed.
What is the best course of action?Your Answer: Topical diclofenac
Explanation:The most suitable treatment for this patient’s likely actinic keratoses is topical diclofenac. Other options include topical imiquimod and topical 5-fluorouracil, but they may cause skin irritation. Punch biopsies are not necessary in this case, as the lesions are typical for actinic keratosis and have been treated before. Referral to a dermatologist is not needed at this stage, but it should be considered if squamous cell carcinomas are suspected. Shave biopsies are not required either. Topical corticosteroids are not appropriate for Premalignant skin lesions.
Actinic keratoses, also known as solar keratoses, are skin lesions that develop due to prolonged exposure to the sun. These lesions are typically small, crusty, and scaly, and can appear in various colors such as pink, red, brown, or the same color as the skin. They are commonly found on sun-exposed areas like the temples of the head, and multiple lesions may be present.
To manage actinic keratoses, prevention of further risk is crucial, such as avoiding sun exposure and using sun cream. Treatment options include a 2 to 3 week course of fluorouracil cream, which may cause redness and inflammation. Topical hydrocortisone may be given to help settle the inflammation. Topical diclofenac is another option for mild AKs, with moderate efficacy and fewer side-effects. Topical imiquimod has shown good efficacy in trials. Cryotherapy and curettage and cautery are also available as treatment options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 83
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman is pregnant for the first time. She presents with a diffuse dark pigmentation over both cheeks.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Pityriasis alba
Correct Answer: Chloasma
Explanation:Common Skin Pigmentation Disorders and Their Characteristics
Chloasma, also known as melasma, is a skin condition characterized by hyperpigmentation in sun-exposed areas, particularly the face. The exact cause of chloasma is unknown, but it is believed to be related to hormonal activity, as it occurs more frequently in women and can worsen during pregnancy or with the use of oral contraceptives. Treatment options include avoiding prolonged sun exposure and using a sunblock, as well as topical depigmenting agents like hydroxyquinone.
Acanthosis nigricans is a skin condition characterized by thickening and pigmentation of the major flexures, and is commonly seen in patients with stomach cancer, insulin-resistant diabetes, and obesity.
Pityriasis alba is a skin condition characterized by white dry patches on the cheeks of dark-skinned atopic individuals.
Pityriasis versicolor is a skin condition characterized by brown or white scaly patches on the trunk, and is caused by a yeast infection.
Post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation can occur after any inflammatory condition and is most common in dark-skinned individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 84
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old male patient visits his GP complaining of a recurrent itchy rash on his hands and feet. He travels frequently to the Middle East for business purposes and has engaged in unprotected sexual activity during one of his trips. Upon examination, the palms and soles show an itchy vesicular rash with erythema and excoriation. What is the probable cause of this rash, considering the patient's exposure?
Your Answer: Syphilis
Correct Answer: Humidity
Explanation:Pompholyx eczema can be triggered by high humidity levels, such as sweating, and hot temperatures. This is evidenced by the recurrent vesicles that appear on the palms and soles, accompanied by erythema. The patient’s frequent travels to the Middle East, which is known for its high humidity levels, may have contributed to the development of this condition.
Chlamydia is not a factor in the development of pompholyx eczema. While chlamydia can cause keratoderma blennorrhagica, which affects the soles of the feet and palms, it has a different appearance and is not typically itchy or erythematous.
Cold temperatures are not a trigger for pompholyx eczema, although they may cause Raynaud’s phenomenon.
Sunlight exposure is not a trigger for pompholyx eczema, although it may cause other skin conditions such as lupus and polymorphic light eruption.
Understanding Pompholyx Eczema
Pompholyx eczema, also known as dyshidrotic eczema, is a type of skin condition that affects both the hands and feet. It is often triggered by humidity and high temperatures, such as sweating. The main symptom of pompholyx eczema is the appearance of small blisters on the palms and soles, which can be intensely itchy and sometimes accompanied by a burning sensation. Once the blisters burst, the skin may become dry and crack.
To manage pompholyx eczema, cool compresses and emollients can be used to soothe the affected areas. Topical steroids may also be prescribed to reduce inflammation and itching. It is important to avoid further irritation of the skin by avoiding triggers such as excessive sweating and using gentle, fragrance-free products. With proper management, the symptoms of pompholyx eczema can be controlled and minimized.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 85
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old obese woman had a deep venous thrombosis several years ago. She has an ulcer over the left medial malleolus with fibrosis and purpura of the surrounding skin.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: A vasculitic ulcer
Correct Answer: A venous ulcer
Explanation:Understanding Venous Leg Ulcers: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment Options
Venous leg ulcers are a common condition in the UK, accounting for approximately 3% of new cases seen in dermatological clinics. These ulcers are more prevalent in patients who are obese, have a history of varicose veins, or have experienced deep vein thrombosis. The underlying cause of venous leg ulcers is venous stasis, which leads to an increase in capillary pressure, fibrin deposits, and poor oxygenation of the skin. This, in turn, can result in poorly nourished skin and minor trauma, leading to ulceration.
Treatment for venous leg ulcers focuses on reducing exudates and promoting healing using dressings such as Granuflex® or Sorbisan®. Compression bandaging is the primary treatment option, and preventive therapy may include weight loss, wearing support stockings, or surgical treatment of varicose veins.
It is important to note that other conditions may present with similar symptoms, such as absent pulses, widespread purpura on the legs, injury, or diabetes. Therefore, a proper diagnosis is crucial to ensure appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 86
Incorrect
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A 6-month-old girl has poorly demarcated erythematous patches, with scale and crusting on both cheeks. Milder patches are also to be found on the limbs and trunk. The limbs are predominantly affected in the flexures. The child has been scratching and has disturbed sleep because of the itch.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Impetigo
Correct Answer: Atopic eczema
Explanation:Distinguishing Skin Conditions: Atopic Eczema, Impetigo, Acute Urticaria, Psoriasis, and Scabies
When examining a child with skin complaints, it is important to distinguish between different skin conditions. Atopic eczema is a common cause of skin complaints in young children, presenting with poorly demarcated erythematous lesions, scale, and crusting. It typically affects the face in young children and only starts to predominate in the flexures at an older age.
Impetigo, on the other hand, would cause lesions in a less widespread area and present with a yellow/golden crust. Acute urticaria would cause several raised smooth lesions that appear rapidly, without crust or scale. Psoriasis produces well-demarcated lesions, which are not seen in atopic eczema.
Scabies would normally produce a more widespread rash with papules and excoriation, and sometimes visible burrows. It would not produce the scaled crusted lesions described in atopic eczema. By understanding the unique characteristics of each skin condition, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 87
Correct
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A 47-year-old patient complains of pruritic lesions on the soles of their feet that have persisted for the last two months. Upon examination, small blisters are observed, accompanied by dry and cracked skin in the surrounding area. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pompholyx
Explanation:Understanding Pompholyx Eczema
Pompholyx eczema, also known as dyshidrotic eczema, is a type of skin condition that affects both the hands and feet. It is often triggered by humidity and high temperatures, such as sweating. The main symptom of pompholyx eczema is the appearance of small blisters on the palms and soles, which can be intensely itchy and sometimes accompanied by a burning sensation. Once the blisters burst, the skin may become dry and crack.
To manage pompholyx eczema, cool compresses and emollients can be used to soothe the affected areas. Topical steroids may also be prescribed to reduce inflammation and itching. It is important to avoid further irritation of the skin by avoiding triggers such as excessive sweating and using gentle, fragrance-free products. With proper management, the symptoms of pompholyx eczema can be controlled and minimized.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 88
Incorrect
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A 65 year-old-gentleman with varicose veins has tried conservative management options, but these have led to little improvement. Other than aching in his legs, he is otherwise well. An ABPI was measured at 0.7.
Which is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step?Your Answer: Class 3 compression stockings
Correct Answer: Class 2 compression stockings
Explanation:Understanding ABPI and Compression Stockings
When a patient is found to have an ABPI of 0.7, it is likely that they have other symptoms of arterial insufficiency. An ABPI less than 0.8 indicates severe arterial insufficiency, while an ABPI greater than 1.3 may be due to calcified and incompressible arteries. It is important to note that compression stockings are contraindicated in patients with ABPIs less than 0.8 or greater than 1.3.
The class of stocking used is not based on the ABPI, but rather the condition being treated. Closed toe stockings are generally used, but open toe stockings may be necessary if the patient has arthritic or clawed toes, has a fungal infection, prefers to wear a sock over the compression stocking, or has a long foot size compared with their calf size. Understanding ABPI and the appropriate use of compression stockings can help improve patient outcomes and prevent potential complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 89
Incorrect
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Samantha is a 30-year-old woman who visits her doctor complaining of fatigue, night sweats, and muscle pains that have been bothering her for a few months. She believes that these symptoms began after she developed a rash on her leg four months ago. She has not traveled anywhere. Samantha is upset and emotional about her symptoms.
As part of Samantha's evaluation, which tests should be considered?Your Answer: Throat swab
Correct Answer: Borrelia burgdorferi antibody test
Explanation:Consider Lyme disease as a possible diagnosis for patients presenting with vague and unexplained symptoms such as fever, night sweats, headache, or paraesthesia. These symptoms may also include inflamed lymph nodes, neck pain, and joint/muscle aches. The causative agent of Lyme disease is Borrelia burgdorferi. Malaria is unlikely in patients with no travel history and symptoms lasting for 4 months. Scabies typically presents with an itchy rash, which is not evident in the scenario. Glandular fever may cause fatigue and muscle aches, but the absence of a sore throat and the need for a blood test for diagnosis make it less likely. Toxoplasma gondii is usually asymptomatic but may cause flu-like symptoms and muscle aches, and it is not associated with a rash.
Lyme Disease: Symptoms and Progression
Lyme disease is a bacterial infection that is transmitted through the bite of an infected tick. The disease progresses in two stages, with early and later features. The early features of Lyme disease include erythema migrans, which is a small papule that often appears at the site of the tick bite. This papule develops into a larger annular lesion with central clearing, resembling a bulls-eye. This occurs in 70% of patients and is accompanied by systemic symptoms such as malaise, fever, and arthralgia.
As the disease progresses, it can lead to more severe symptoms. The later features of Lyme disease include cardiovascular symptoms such as heart block and myocarditis, as well as neurological symptoms such as cranial nerve palsies and meningitis. Patients may also experience polyarthritis, which is inflammation in multiple joints.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 90
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old patient presents for follow-up after being discharged from the hospital. He complains of experiencing itchy, raised red bumps on his skin that appeared about 12 hours after taking his discharge medication for the first time. The symptoms have worsened over the past few days, and he has never experienced anything like this before. On examination, faint pink raised patches are observed on his trunk and upper arms.
Which medication is the most probable cause of the patient's symptoms?Your Answer: Atorvastatin
Correct Answer: Aspirin
Explanation:Aspirin is the most likely cause of the patient’s urticaria, as it is a known trigger for this condition. Atorvastatin, bisoprolol, and metformin are not commonly associated with urticaria, although they may have other side effects.
Urticaria, also known as hives, can be caused by various drugs. Some of the most common drugs that can trigger urticaria include aspirin, penicillins, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), and opiates. These medications can cause an allergic reaction in some individuals, leading to the development of hives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 91
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman presents with a rash on her face. She reports having a facial rash with flushing for a few weeks. Upon examination, there is a papulopustular rash with telangiectasia on both cheeks and nose. What is the probable diagnosis, and what is the potential complication associated with it?
Your Answer: Pericarditis
Correct Answer: Blepharitis
Explanation:Acne rosacea is a skin condition that results in long-term facial flushing, erythema, telangiectasia, pustules, papules, and rhinophyma. It can also impact the eyes, leading to blepharitis, keratitis, and conjunctivitis. Treatment options include topical antibiotics such as metronidazole gel or oral tetracycline, particularly if there are ocular symptoms.
Rosacea, also known as acne rosacea, is a skin condition that is chronic in nature and its cause is unknown. It typically affects the nose, cheeks, and forehead, and the first symptom is often flushing. Telangiectasia, which are small blood vessels that are visible on the skin, are common, and the condition can progress to persistent erythema with papules and pustules. Rhinophyma, a condition where the nose becomes enlarged and bulbous, can also occur. Ocular involvement, such as blepharitis, can also be present, and sunlight can exacerbate symptoms.
Management of rosacea depends on the severity of the symptoms. For mild symptoms, topical metronidazole may be used, while topical brimonidine gel may be considered for patients with predominant flushing but limited telangiectasia. More severe cases may require systemic antibiotics such as oxytetracycline. It is recommended that patients apply a high-factor sunscreen daily and use camouflage creams to conceal redness. Laser therapy may be appropriate for patients with prominent telangiectasia, and those with rhinophyma should be referred to a dermatologist for further management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 92
Incorrect
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What condition is characterized by a rash that causes itching?
Your Answer: Granuloma annulare
Correct Answer: Meningococcal purpura
Explanation:Common Skin Rashes and Their Associated Conditions
Dermatitis herpetiformis is a skin rash that causes vesicles and intense itching. It is often linked to coeliac disease. Erythema chronicum migrans is a rash that appears as a red macule or papule and grows into an annular lesion. It is associated with Lyme disease, which is caused by a spirochaete infection. Erythema nodosum is a painful nodular rash that typically appears on the shins. If it is accompanied by arthritis of the ankles and wrists and bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, it is indicative of acute sarcoidosis. Granuloma annulare is a benign condition that produces firm nodules that merge to form ring-shaped lesions. Finally, the non-blanching purpuric rash of meningococcal disease is not itchy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 93
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman visits her GP due to sudden appearance of lesions on her arms. She was convinced by her mother to attend the appointment as she was not interested in seeking medical attention. The patient is unable to provide a clear history of the lesions' progression. Her medical history includes mild asthma, depression, and generalised anxiety disorder.
Upon examination, the patient has well-defined, linear skin lesions on both arms. The lesions do not appear to be dry or scaly but seem to be excoriated. There are no apparent signs of infection.
What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Neurotic excoriations
Correct Answer: Dermatitis artefacta
Explanation:The sudden appearance of linear, well-defined skin lesions with a lack of concern or emotional response, known as ‘la belle indifference’, strongly suggests dermatitis artefacta or factitious dermatitis. This rare condition involves self-inflicted skin damage, and patients often deny their involvement. Treatment requires a collaborative approach between dermatologists and psychiatrists, with a focus on building a positive relationship with the patient. Other conditions such as dermatitis herpetiformis, lichen planus, and neurotic excoriations have different clinical presentations and are not consistent with the scenario described.
Understanding Dermatitis Artefacta
Dermatitis artefacta is a rare condition that affects individuals of any age, but is more common in females. It is characterised by self-inflicted skin lesions that patients typically deny are self-induced. The condition is strongly associated with personality disorder, dissociative disorders, and eating disorders, with a prevalence of up to 33% in patients with bulimia or anorexia.
Patients with dermatitis artefacta present with well-demarcated linear or geometric lesions that appear suddenly and do not evolve over time. The lesions may be caused by scratching with fingernails or other objects, burning skin with cigarettes, or chemical exposure. Commonly affected areas include the face and dorsum of the hands. Despite the severity of the skin lesions, patients may display a nonchalant attitude, known as la belle indifference.
Diagnosis of dermatitis artefacta is based on clinical history and exclusion of other dermatological conditions. Biopsy of skin lesions is not routine but may be helpful to exclude other conditions. Psychiatric assessment may be necessary. Differential diagnosis includes other dermatological conditions and factitious disorders such as Munchausen syndrome and malingering.
Management of dermatitis artefacta involves a multidisciplinary approach with dermatologists, psychologists, and psychiatrists. Direct confrontation is unhelpful and may discourage patients from seeking medical help. Treatment includes providing occlusive dressing, topical antibiotics, and bland emollients. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors and cognitive behavioural therapy may be helpful, although evidence is limited.
In summary, dermatitis artefacta is a rare condition that requires a multidisciplinary approach for management. Understanding the clinical features, risk factors, and differential diagnosis is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 94
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man presents with peeling, dryness and mild itching of the palm of his right hand. On examination, there is hyperkeratosis of the palm with prominent white skin lines. The left hand appears normal.
What is the most appropriate investigation for this patient?Your Answer: Therapeutic trial of potent topical steroid
Correct Answer: Skin scraping for fungus
Explanation:Understanding Tinea Manuum: A Unilateral Scaly Rash
Tinea manuum is a type of fungal infection that affects the hands. It is characterized by a unilateral scaly rash that can also involve the back of the hand and nails. In some cases, both hands may be affected, but the involvement tends to be asymmetrical.
The most common cause of tinea manuum is an anthropophilic fungus such as Tricophyton rubrum, Tricophyton mentagrophytes, or Epidermophyton floccosum. These fungi are typically found on human skin and can be easily transmitted through direct contact.
In some cases, tinea manuum may present as a raised border with clearing in the middle, resembling a ringworm. This is more likely to occur when a zoophilic fungus is responsible, such as Trichophyton erinacei from a hedgehog or Microsporum canis from a cat or dog.
It is important to suspect dermatophyte fungus when a unilateral scaly rash is present on the hands. Treatment typically involves antifungal medication, and it is important to maintain good hand hygiene to prevent further spread of the infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 95
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old girl visits the clinic with her father. She sustained a minor injury to her knee while playing soccer and her father is worried that it might be infected. The injury occurred 3 weeks ago and was described as a scrape. Upon examination, you observe a well-healed superficial abrasion on the skin, with several small, raised pink bumps with a central dimple surrounding the scrape. The skin around the wound is not red and feels cool to the touch. Additionally, you notice a cluster of similar bumps on her back. Her father reports that these bumps have been present for approximately 7 months.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Chickenpox
Correct Answer: Molluscum contagiosum
Explanation:Molluscum contagiosum, a viral lesion commonly seen in children, can exhibit the Koebner phenomenon, which causes lesions to appear at sites of injury. Unlike contact dermatitis, there is no history of exposure to chemicals. Chickenpox presents with a shorter time frame and a rash that blisters and scabs over, while pompholyx eczema is typically found on the hands and soles of the feet. The presence of cool surrounding skin suggests that a bacterial infection is unlikely.
The Koebner Phenomenon: Skin Lesions at the Site of Injury
The Koebner phenomenon refers to the occurrence of skin lesions at the site of injury. This phenomenon is commonly observed in various skin conditions such as psoriasis, vitiligo, warts, lichen planus, lichen sclerosus, and molluscum contagiosum. In other words, if a person with any of these skin conditions experiences trauma or injury to their skin, they may develop new lesions in the affected area.
This phenomenon is named after Heinrich Koebner, a German dermatologist who first described it in 1876. The exact mechanism behind the Koebner phenomenon is not fully understood, but it is believed to be related to the immune system’s response to injury. In some cases, the injury may trigger an autoimmune response, leading to the development of new lesions.
The Koebner phenomenon can be a frustrating and challenging aspect of managing skin conditions. It is important for individuals with these conditions to take precautions to avoid injury to their skin, such as wearing protective clothing or avoiding activities that may cause trauma. Additionally, prompt treatment of any new lesions that develop can help prevent further spread of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 96
Incorrect
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You are requested to assess the heel of an 85-year-old woman by the community nurses due to suspected pressure ulcer development. Upon inspection, you observe a 3 cm region of erythema on the left heel with a minor area of partial thickness skin loss affecting the epidermis in the middle. What grade would you assign to the pressure ulcer?
Your Answer: Grade 4
Correct Answer: Grade 2
Explanation:Understanding Pressure Ulcers and Their Management
Pressure ulcers are a common problem among patients who are unable to move parts of their body due to illness, paralysis, or advancing age. These ulcers typically develop over bony prominences such as the sacrum or heel. Malnourishment, incontinence, lack of mobility, and pain are some of the factors that predispose patients to the development of pressure ulcers. To screen for patients who are at risk of developing pressure areas, the Waterlow score is widely used. This score includes factors such as body mass index, nutritional status, skin type, mobility, and continence.
The European Pressure Ulcer Advisory Panel classification system grades pressure ulcers based on their severity. Grade 1 ulcers are non-blanchable erythema of intact skin, while grade 2 ulcers involve partial thickness skin loss. Grade 3 ulcers involve full thickness skin loss, while grade 4 ulcers involve extensive destruction, tissue necrosis, or damage to muscle, bone, or supporting structures with or without full thickness skin loss.
To manage pressure ulcers, a moist wound environment is encouraged to facilitate ulcer healing. Hydrocolloid dressings and hydrogels may help with this. The use of soap should be discouraged to avoid drying the wound. Routine wound swabs should not be done as the vast majority of pressure ulcers are colonized with bacteria. The decision to use systemic antibiotics should be taken on a clinical basis, such as evidence of surrounding cellulitis. Referral to a tissue viability nurse may be considered, and surgical debridement may be beneficial for selected wounds.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 97
Correct
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An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic with painful swelling of his penis and a retracted foreskin. He has a long-term catheter in place. What is the most frequent cause of paraphimosis in a non-diabetic man of this age? Choose ONE answer.
Your Answer: Failure of a clinician to replace the foreskin after a procedure
Explanation:Causes of Paraphimosis: Understanding the Factors Involved
Paraphimosis is a medical condition where the foreskin becomes trapped behind the glans penis and cannot be reduced. While it can be a painful and distressing condition, it is important to understand the various factors that can contribute to its development.
One common cause of paraphimosis is the failure of a clinician to replace the foreskin after a procedure. This can occur during penile examination, cleaning, catheterisation, or cystoscopy. If the foreskin is left retracted for too long, it can become swollen and difficult to reduce.
Another potential cause is chronic balanoposthitis, which is a chronic inflammation of the glans and foreskin. While this is uncommon, it can lead to phimosis (inability to retract the foreskin) in men with diabetes.
Lichen sclerosus is another dermatological condition that can lead to phimosis. While it is uncommon, it is important to be aware of this potential cause.
Excessive sexual activity is not a common cause of paraphimosis and is not indicated by the history. However, it is important to practice safe and responsible sexual behavior to prevent any potential complications.
Finally, while sildenafil has been reported to cause priapism (a sustained painful penile erection), it is not a known cause of paraphimosis. By understanding the various factors involved in the development of paraphimosis, individuals can take steps to prevent this condition and seek appropriate medical care if necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 98
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents with a facial rash that has been present for a few weeks. The rash appears erythematous, greasy, and has a fine scale on her cheeks, nasolabial folds, eyebrows, nasal bridge, and scalp. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Eczema
Correct Answer: Seborrhoeic dermatitis
Explanation:Seborrhoeic dermatitis is often the culprit behind an itchy rash that appears on the face and scalp. This condition is characterized by its distribution pattern, which affects these areas. It can be distinguished from acne rosacea, which typically doesn’t involve the nasolabial folds and is marked by the presence of telangiectasia and pustules.
Understanding Seborrhoeic Dermatitis in Adults
Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a chronic skin condition that affects around 2% of the general population. It is caused by an inflammatory reaction related to the overgrowth of a fungus called Malassezia furfur, which is a normal inhabitant of the skin. The condition is characterized by eczematous lesions that appear on the sebum-rich areas of the body, such as the scalp, periorbital, auricular, and nasolabial folds. It can also lead to the development of otitis externa and blepharitis.
Seborrhoeic dermatitis is often associated with other medical conditions, such as HIV and Parkinson’s disease. The management of scalp disease typically involves the use of over-the-counter preparations containing zinc pyrithione or tar as a first-line treatment. If these are not effective, ketoconazole is the preferred second-line agent. Selenium sulphide and topical corticosteroids may also be useful.
For the management of seborrhoeic dermatitis on the face and body, topical antifungals such as ketoconazole are recommended. Topical steroids can also be used, but only for short periods. However, the condition can be difficult to treat, and recurrences are common. It is important to seek medical advice if the symptoms persist or worsen despite treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 99
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old Jewish woman presents with recurrent mouth ulcers for several months. Recently, she has developed painful blisters on her back that seem to be spreading after attempting to pop them with a needle.
The patient is typically healthy and not taking any medications. She works at an elementary school and denies using any over-the-counter drugs recently.
During the examination, the patient exhibits mucosal blistering and extensive flaccid vesicles and bullae that are sensitive to touch. She has no fever.
A biopsy of the lesions reveals acantholysis.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Stevens-Johnson syndrome
Correct Answer: Pemphigus vulgaris
Explanation:Mucosal blistering is a common symptom of Pemphigus vulgaris, while skin blisters are typically painful but not itchy. This condition is often seen in middle-aged patients and is characterized by flaccid blisters and erosions that are Nikolsky’s sign positive. Mucous membrane involvement is also frequently observed. Bullous pemphigoid is a similar condition but is more prevalent in the elderly and features tense blisters without acantholysis on biopsy.
Pemphigus vulgaris is an autoimmune condition that occurs when the body’s immune system attacks desmoglein 3, a type of cell adhesion molecule found in epithelial cells. This disease is more prevalent in the Ashkenazi Jewish population. The most common symptom is mucosal ulceration, which can be the first sign of the disease. Oral involvement is seen in 50-70% of patients. Skin blistering is also a common symptom, with easily ruptured vesicles and bullae. These lesions are typically painful but not itchy and may appear months after the initial mucosal symptoms. Nikolsky’s sign is a characteristic feature of pemphigus vulgaris, where bullae spread following the application of horizontal, tangential pressure to the skin. Biopsy results often show acantholysis.
The first-line treatment for pemphigus vulgaris is steroids, which help to reduce inflammation and suppress the immune system. Immunosuppressants may also be used to manage the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 100
Incorrect
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During a follow up visit at an asthma clinic a 39-year-old female complains of the appearance of a mole.
Which of the following characteristics of the lesion would raise suspicion that it is a malignant melanoma?Your Answer: Lesion is present on face
Correct Answer: Lesion has irregular outline
Explanation:Characteristics of Melanoma: The ABCDE Mnemonic
Melanoma is a type of skin cancer that can be deadly if not detected and treated early. To help identify potential melanomas, dermatologists use the ABCDE mnemonic. Each letter represents a characteristic that may indicate the presence of melanoma.
A stands for asymmetry. If one half of a mole or lesion doesn’t match the other half, it may be a sign of melanoma. B is for border irregularity. Melanomas often have uneven or jagged edges. C represents color variegation. Melanomas may have multiple colors or shades within the same lesion. D is for diameter. Melanomas are typically larger than a pencil eraser, but any mole or lesion that is 6mm or more in diameter should be examined by a dermatologist. Finally, E stands for evolution. Any changes in size, shape, or color of a mole or lesion should be monitored closely.
By remembering the ABCDE mnemonic, individuals can be more aware of the characteristics of melanoma and seek medical attention if they notice any concerning changes in their skin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 101
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old dairy farmer presents with a small white lesion on his left cheek. It has grown slowly over several months and it now has a central ulcer.
What is the most likely nature of this lesion?Your Answer: Basal cell carcinoma
Correct Answer: Basal cell papilloma (seborrhoeic keratosis)
Explanation:Lesion on the Face: Indications of Basal Cell Carcinoma
The presence of a slow-growing lesion on the face, with a central ulcer located above a line drawn from the angle of the mouth to the ear lobe, is a strong indication of basal cell carcinoma. This type of cancer tends to develop slowly, and the presence of an ulcer in the center of the lesion is a common characteristic. On the other hand, squamous cell carcinoma grows much faster than basal cell carcinoma. It is important to note that seborrhoeic keratoses have a papillary warty surface, which is different from the appearance of basal cell carcinoma. Proper diagnosis and treatment are crucial in managing any type of skin lesion, especially those that may indicate the presence of cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 102
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old student presents to the walk-in centre complaining of intense itching. He says that this is worse at night and after showering. On examination he has extensive scratch marks and papules on his trunk and limbs. In the finger web spaces and on the wrists are a few 0.5cm irregular grey lines. He has no previous medical history of note and takes no regular medication.
Select the most likely diagnosis.Your Answer: Pemphigus vulgaris
Correct Answer: Scabies
Explanation:Skin Conditions: Symptoms and Characteristics
Scabies, Dermatitis Artefacta, Nodular Prurigo, Pemphigus Vulgaris, and Pompholyx are all skin conditions with distinct symptoms and characteristics.
Scabies is caused by a mite that burrows under the skin, causing intense itching and papules, vesicles, pustules, and nodules. The finger web space lines are mite burrows. It is acquired through person-to-person contact and can live off the host for up to 36 hours.
Dermatitis Artefacta, on the other hand, is a condition where the patient produces lesions through their own actions. These lesions may include red patches, swelling, blisters, crusts, cuts, burns, and scars. They do not itch and may have a bizarre shape or linear arrangement.
Nodular Prurigo is characterized by very itchy firm scaly nodules that occur mainly on the extensor aspects of the arms and legs. They tend to persist over time and may lessen in severity with treatment.
Pemphigus Vulgaris involves painful flaccid bullae and erosions that may be widespread and involve mucous membranes. It is not itchy.
Finally, Pompholyx involves the hands and feet and is usually symmetrical. It is characterized by itching and burning, and vesiculation initially along the lateral aspects of the fingers and then on the palms or soles. Vesicles tend to resolve after about 3-4 weeks, but recurrences are common.
Overall, these skin conditions have distinct symptoms and characteristics that can help with diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 103
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man returns from a holiday in Spain. He is worried about the multiple white patches on his upper chest where he failed to get a proper suntan. Upon examination, these patches have well-defined scaly white skin and a significant lack of pigmentation compared to the tanned areas. What is the most suitable treatment option from the following list?
Your Answer: Cosmetic camouflage
Correct Answer: Clotrimazole cream
Explanation:Understanding and Treating Pityriasis Versicolor
Pityriasis versicolor is a skin condition caused by the yeast Malassezia furfur. It presents as patches of scaling skin that become depigmented compared to surrounding normal skin areas, particularly noticeable during the summer months. The lesions primarily involve the trunk but may spread to other areas. The condition is not contagious as the organism is commensal.
Treatment usually involves topical antifungals such as clotrimazole, terbinafine, or miconazole. Selenium sulphide, an anti-dandruff shampoo, can also be used. However, the condition may recur, and repeat treatments may be necessary. Oral agents such as itraconazole or fluconazole are only used if topical treatments fail.
Skin camouflage can be used to disguise lesions of vitiligo, which may be distressing for patients. The charity organization ‘Changing Faces’ provides this service. Hydrocortisone and fusidic acid are ineffective in treating pityriasis versicolor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 104
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old man comes to the clinic with multiple itchy skin lesions on his arms and trunk. The lesions appear scaly and have a coppery brown color. The doctor suspects pityriasis versicolor. What is the best treatment option for this condition?
Your Answer: Topical hydrocortisone
Correct Answer: Ketoconazole shampoo
Explanation:Pityriasis versicolor can be treated with ketoconazole shampoo.
Understanding Pityriasis Versicolor
Pityriasis versicolor, also known as tinea versicolor, is a fungal infection that affects the skin’s surface. It is caused by Malassezia furfur, which was previously known as Pityrosporum ovale. This condition is characterized by patches that are commonly found on the trunk area. These patches may appear hypopigmented, pink, or brown, and may become more noticeable after sun exposure. Scaling is also a common feature, and mild itching may occur.
Pityriasis versicolor can affect healthy individuals, but it may also occur in people with weakened immune systems, malnutrition, or Cushing’s syndrome. Treatment for this condition typically involves the use of topical antifungal agents. According to NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries, ketoconazole shampoo is a cost-effective option for treating large areas. If topical treatment fails, alternative diagnoses should be considered, and oral itraconazole may be prescribed.
In summary, pityriasis versicolor is a fungal infection that affects the skin’s surface. It is characterized by patches that may appear hypopigmented, pink, or brown, and scaling is a common feature. Treatment typically involves the use of topical antifungal agents, and oral itraconazole may be prescribed if topical treatment fails.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 105
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman is worried about experiencing hair loss. Her family has a history of premature hair loss, and upon examination, she has diffuse hair loss over her scalp, which appears normal. She is curious if medication can assist her in this situation.
What is the most effective licensed medication she can use?Your Answer: Ketoconazole (topical)
Correct Answer: Minoxidil (topical)
Explanation:Treatment Options for Female-Pattern Hair Loss
Female-pattern hair loss, also known as androgenic alopecia, is a common cause of hair loss in women. While there is no cure for this condition, there are several treatment options available. One such option is topical minoxidil, which can stimulate limited hair growth in some adults. It comes in 2% and 5% solutions, with the 2% strength recommended for women. Cyproterone acetate and spironolactone are anti-androgens that may have a role in treatment, but should only be used under specialist guidance and are not licensed for this purpose. Finasteride is not licensed for use in women of childbearing age due to the potential for fetal abnormalities. Topical ketoconazole is indicated for seborrhoiec dermatitis of the scalp, which is not typically associated with female-pattern hair loss. Overall, treatment options for female-pattern hair loss should be discussed with a healthcare professional.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 106
Incorrect
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You are asked by one of your practice nurses to see a new health care support worker at the practice who has become unwell. She is a young adult and has just put on a pair of latex gloves to assist the nurse with a procedure. Immediately after putting the gloves on she has developed diffuse itch and widespread urticaria is present. She has some mild angioedema and a slight wheeze is audible.
Which of the following describes this scenario?Your Answer: Type III allergic reaction
Correct Answer: Type II allergic reaction
Explanation:Allergic Reactions to Natural Rubber Latex
Natural rubber latex (NRL) is commonly found in healthcare products, including gloves. However, NRL proteins can cause a type I immediate hypersensitivity allergic reaction, which can be severe. In addition, some products made with NRL may contain chemical additives that cause an irritant contact dermatitis, resulting in localized skin irritation. This is not an allergic response to NRL.
Another type of allergic reaction, a type IV allergic contact dermatitis, can occur due to sensitization to the chemical additives used in NRL gloves. This type of reaction may take months or even years to develop, but once sensitized, symptoms usually occur within 10-24 hours of exposure and can worsen over a 72 hour period. It is important for healthcare workers and patients to be aware of the potential for allergic reactions to NRL and to take appropriate precautions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 107
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man has evidence of sun damage on his bald scalp including several actinic keratoses.
Select from the list the single most correct statement regarding actinic keratoses.Your Answer: Diclofenac gel is the most effective treatment
Correct Answer: Induration under the surface keratin suggests malignant change
Explanation:Understanding Actinic Keratoses: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment Options
Actinic keratoses (AK) or solar keratoses are skin lesions caused by prolonged exposure to ultraviolet light. This condition is commonly seen in fair-skinned individuals who have spent a lot of time in the sun. While AK is similar to Bowen’s disease, which is a type of skin cancer, most solitary lesions do not progress to malignancy. However, patients with more than 10 AKs have a 10 to 15% risk of developing skin cancer, making it a significant concern.
AKs typically start as small rough spots that are more easily felt than seen. Over time, they enlarge and become red and scaly. Lesions with pronounced hyperkeratosis, increased erythema, or induration, ulceration, and lesions that recur after treatment or are unresponsive to treatment should be suspected of malignant change.
For mild AKs, no therapy or emollients are necessary. However, curettage or excision, cryotherapy, and photodynamic therapy are the most effective treatments. 5-fluorouracil cream can clear AKs, but it produces a painful inflammatory response. Diclofenac gel has moderate efficacy but has fewer side effects than other topical preparations and is used for mild AKs.
In conclusion, understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for AKs is crucial for early detection and prevention of skin cancer. Regular skin checks and sun protection measures are essential for individuals at risk of developing AKs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 108
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old male presents for follow-up. He has a medical history of acne and is currently taking oral lymecycline. Despite treatment, there has been no improvement and upon examination, scarring is evident on his face. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Oral cyproterone acetate
Correct Answer: Referral for oral isotretinoin
Explanation:Referral for oral retinoin is recommended for patients with scarring.
Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 109
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements about strawberry birthmarks is not true?
Your Answer: Are usually not present at birth
Correct Answer: Only 50% resolve before 10 years of age
Explanation:Strawberry naevi, also known as capillary haemangiomas, are not usually present at birth but can develop quickly within the first month of life. They appear as raised, red, and lobed tumours that commonly occur on the face, scalp, and back. These growths tend to increase in size until around 6-9 months before gradually disappearing over the next few years. However, in rare cases, they can obstruct the airway if they occur in the upper respiratory tract. Capillary haemangiomas are more common in white infants, particularly in females, premature infants, and those whose mothers have undergone chorionic villous sampling.
Complications of strawberry naevi include obstruction of vision or airway, bleeding, ulceration, and thrombocytopaenia. Treatment may be necessary if there is visual field obstruction, and propranolol is now the preferred choice over systemic steroids. Topical beta-blockers such as timolol may also be used. Cavernous haemangioma is a type of deep capillary haemangioma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 110
Incorrect
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You encounter a 40-year-old woman with psoriasis. She has a flare-up on her leg and you prescribe topical Dermovate cream (Clobetasol propionate 0.05%) as part of her treatment plan. She asks you about the duration for which she can use this cream on her leg. What is the maximum duration recommended by NICE for the use of this type of corticosteroid?
Your Answer: Do not use continuously at any site for longer than 2 weeks
Correct Answer: Do not use continuously at any site for longer than 4 weeks
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for the Use of Topical Corticosteroids
According to NICE guidelines, it is not recommended to use highly potent corticosteroids continuously at any site for more than 4 weeks. The duration of use may vary depending on the potency of the steroid being used. It is important to note that it can be challenging to remember the potency of different steroid formulations based on their trade names. Therefore, it is advisable to have a reference handy. The Eczema Society provides a useful table of commonly used topical steroids.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 111
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man with a 25-year history of chronic plaque psoriasis is being seen in clinic. Despite having severe psoriasis at times, he is currently managing well with only topical therapy. Which of the following conditions is he NOT at an elevated risk for due to his psoriasis history?
Your Answer: Ulcerative colitis
Correct Answer: Melanoma
Explanation:The risk of non-melanoma skin cancer is higher in individuals with psoriasis.
Psoriasis is a condition that can have both physical and psychological complications, beyond just psoriatic arthritis. While it may be tempting to focus solely on topical treatments, it’s important to keep in mind the potential risks associated with psoriasis. Patients with this condition are at a higher risk for cardiovascular disease, hypertension, venous thromboembolism, depression, ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease, non-melanoma skin cancer, and other types of cancer such as liver, lung, and upper gastrointestinal tract cancers. Therefore, it’s crucial to consider these potential complications when managing a patient with psoriasis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 112
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding hirsutism is accurate?
Your Answer: Weight loss may make hirsutism worse in obese patients
Correct Answer: Co-cyprindiol (Dianette) may be a useful treatment for patients moderate-severe hirsutism
Explanation:Understanding Hirsutism and Hypertrichosis
Hirsutism is a term used to describe excessive hair growth in women that is dependent on androgens, while hypertrichosis refers to hair growth that is not androgen-dependent. Polycystic ovarian syndrome is the most common cause of hirsutism, but other factors such as Cushing’s syndrome, obesity, and certain medications can also contribute to this condition. To assess hirsutism, the Ferriman-Gallwey scoring system is often used, which assigns scores to nine different body areas. Management of hirsutism may involve weight loss, cosmetic techniques, or the use of oral contraceptive pills or topical medications.
Hypertrichosis, on the other hand, can be caused by a variety of factors such as certain medications, congenital conditions, and even anorexia nervosa. It is important to identify the underlying cause of excessive hair growth in order to determine the most appropriate treatment approach. By understanding the differences between hirsutism and hypertrichosis, individuals can better manage these conditions and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 113
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with a rash on his elbows. He has no other medical issues except for occasional migraines, which he has been treating with atenolol. Upon examination, the lesions appear as distinct, elevated, scaly plaques. What is the most suitable initial treatment option?
Your Answer: Short contact dithranol
Correct Answer: Dovobet®
Explanation:Treatment Options for Chronic Plaque Psoriasis
Chronic plaque psoriasis is a skin condition that can be exacerbated by beta-blockers. Therefore, it is important to discontinue the use of beta-blockers and explore alternative prophylactic drugs for migraine in patients with psoriasis. In addition, regular use of emollients is recommended.
For active therapy, potent corticosteroids, vitamin D analogues, dithranol, and tar preparations are all acceptable first-line options. However, corticosteroids and topical vitamin D analogues are typically preferred due to their ease of application and cosmetic acceptability. A Cochrane review found that combining a potent corticosteroid with a vitamin D analogue was the most effective treatment, with a lower incidence of local adverse events. Dovobet®, which combines betamethasone 0.1% with calcipotriol, is one such option. Calcipotriol used alone is also an acceptable alternative treatment.
For psoriasis of the face, flexures, and genitalia, calcineurin inhibitors such as tacrolimus and pimecrolimus are second-line options after moderately potent corticosteroids.
Managing Chronic Plaque Psoriasis: Treatment Options and Considerations
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 114
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old man presents with the rapid development of large oval macules on his trunk. Some of the macules have a little scale on them. He had noticed a single larger lesion that appeared a few days earlier but thought little of it. He is otherwise well.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Guttate psoriasis
Correct Answer: Pityriasis rosea
Explanation:Distinguishing Skin Conditions: Pityriasis Rosea, Guttate Psoriasis, Drug Eruption, Pityriasis Versicolor, and Viral Exanthema
Pityriasis rosea is characterized by a larger herald patch followed by a rash on the trunk with pink macules and fine scale. The rash will resolve on its own in 6-12 weeks, but emollients or steroid treatments can help relieve itch. Guttate psoriasis typically presents with small lesions preceded by a sore throat, which is not seen in this scenario. Drug eruption causes a maculopapular rash that begins on the trunk and moves to the extremities, but there is no mention of medication in this case. Pityriasis versicolor causes large macules with fine scale on the trunk, which can become confluent, but this is not seen here. A viral exanthem is usually accompanied by systemic symptoms such as fever or malaise, which are absent in this case. Knowing the distinguishing features of these skin conditions can aid in accurate diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 115
Incorrect
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What is the recommendation for the use of tacrolimus and pimecrolimus in atopic eczema according to NICE guidance?
Your Answer: Second line treatment for moderate to severe eczema, not controlled by topical steroids in the under 2-years-old, where there is a risk of serious corticosteroid side effects
Correct Answer: First line treatment for moderate to severe eczema in the over twos, where there is a risk of serious corticosteroid side effects
Explanation:Second-Line Treatment for Moderate to Severe Eczema in Children
Eczema is a common skin condition that affects many children. Steroids are often used as a first-line treatment, but in cases where they are not effective, a second-line treatment may be necessary. One such treatment is recommended for children over 2-years-old with moderate to severe eczema. This treatment should not be used as a first-line option, but rather as a second-line option when steroids are not controlling the condition. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for each individual case of eczema. By following this recommendation, children with moderate to severe eczema can receive effective treatment and relief from their symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 116
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with a pigmented skin lesion on her back that has grown quickly over the past few months. She has a history of frequent sunbed use. The lesion measures 9.5 mm in diameter. She is referred to Dermatology, where a diagnosis of malignant melanoma is confirmed.
What characteristic of the lesion would indicate the worst prognosis for this disease?Your Answer: Lack of microsatellite metastasis
Correct Answer: Breslow thickness > 3 mm
Explanation:Prognostic Factors for Malignant Melanoma
Malignant melanoma is a type of skin cancer that can be staged based on several prognostic factors. The Breslow thickness, measured in millimetres from the dermo-epidermal junction, is a key factor. A thickness greater than 3.5 mm is associated with a poor prognosis, while a thickness less than 1.5 mm has a 5-year survival rate of over 90%. The diameter of the melanoma, however, has not been found to be a significant factor.
Clarke’s level is another important factor, measured from I to IV based on the level of invasion through the dermis. A Clarke’s level of I indicates that the melanoma has not invaded past the basement membrane, which is associated with a better outcome for the patient.
Microsatellite metastases, which are cutaneous metastases around the primary melanoma, can increase the TNM staging score and result in a worse prognosis. Therefore, the lack of microsatellite metastasis is a positive prognostic factor.
Surface ulceration, or the presence of an open sore on the skin, is a poor prognostic indicator and is accounted for in TNM scoring. The absence of surface ulceration is a positive factor for the patient’s prognosis.
Overall, these factors can help predict the prognosis for patients with malignant melanoma and guide treatment decisions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 117
Correct
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You see a 35-year-old man with psoriasis. As part of his treatment plan, you prescribe topical Betnovate (Betamethasone valerate 0.1%) cream for a psoriasis flare-up on his leg. He inquires about the duration for which he can use this cream on his leg.
According to NICE guidelines, what is the maximum duration for which this type of corticosteroid can be used?Your Answer: Do not use continuously at any site for longer than 8 weeks
Explanation:NICE Guidelines on the Use of Potent Corticosteroids
Potent corticosteroids should not be used continuously at any site for longer than 8 weeks, according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines. It is important to note that the potency of steroid formulations can be difficult to remember from the trade name, so it is recommended to have a reference on hand. The Eczema Society provides a helpful table of commonly used topical steroids. Remembering these guidelines can help ensure safe and effective use of potent corticosteroids.
Spacing:
Potent corticosteroids should not be used continuously at any site for longer than 8 weeks, according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines.
It is important to note that the potency of steroid formulations can be difficult to remember from the trade name, so it is recommended to have a reference on hand. The Eczema Society provides a helpful table of commonly used topical steroids.
Remembering these guidelines can help ensure safe and effective use of potent corticosteroids.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 118
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man comes to you with a bothersome skin rash. He has been experiencing this for a few weeks now and has not found relief with an emollient cream. The itching is described as 'severe' and has caused him difficulty sleeping. Upon examination, you observe a mixture of papules and vesicles on his buttocks and the extensor surface of his knees and elbows. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Scabies
Correct Answer: Dermatitis herpetiformis
Explanation:Understanding Dermatitis Herpetiformis
Dermatitis herpetiformis is a skin disorder that is linked to coeliac disease and is caused by the deposition of IgA in the dermis. It is characterized by itchy, vesicular skin lesions that appear on the extensor surfaces such as the elbows, knees, and buttocks.
To diagnose dermatitis herpetiformis, a skin biopsy is performed, and direct immunofluorescence is used to show the deposition of IgA in a granular pattern in the upper dermis.
The management of dermatitis herpetiformis involves a gluten-free diet and the use of dapsone. By adhering to a gluten-free diet, patients can reduce the severity of their symptoms and prevent further damage to their skin. Dapsone is a medication that can help to alleviate the symptoms of dermatitis herpetiformis by reducing inflammation and suppressing the immune system.
In summary, dermatitis herpetiformis is a skin disorder that is associated with coeliac disease and is caused by the deposition of IgA in the dermis. It is characterized by itchy, vesicular skin lesions and can be managed through a gluten-free diet and the use of dapsone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 119
Incorrect
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The School Nurse requests your evaluation of a leg ulcer she has been treating, as it is not improving. The ulcer is situated on the lower leg, has an irregular shape, and a purple border that is undermined. The student reports that it began as a tiny red bump on the skin and that the ulcer is causing discomfort. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Malignant melanoma
Correct Answer: Pyoderma gangrenosum
Explanation:When faced with a skin ulcer that doesn’t heal, it is important to consider pyoderma gangrenosum as a possible diagnosis. This condition typically begins as a red bump that eventually turns into a painful ulcer with a purple, indented border. It is often linked to autoimmune disorders in approximately 50% of cases.
Understanding Pyoderma Gangrenosum
Pyoderma gangrenosum is a rare inflammatory disorder that causes painful skin ulceration. While it can affect any part of the skin, it is most commonly found on the lower legs. This condition is classified as a neutrophilic dermatosis, which means that it is characterized by the infiltration of neutrophils in the affected tissue. The exact cause of pyoderma gangrenosum is unknown in 50% of cases, but it can be associated with inflammatory bowel disease, rheumatological conditions, haematological disorders, and other conditions.
The initial symptoms of pyoderma gangrenosum may start suddenly with a small pustule, red bump, or blood-blister. The skin then breaks down, resulting in an ulcer that is often painful. The edge of the ulcer is typically described as purple, violaceous, and undermined. The ulcer itself may be deep and necrotic and may be accompanied by systemic symptoms such as fever and myalgia. Diagnosis is often made by the characteristic appearance, associations with other diseases, the presence of pathergy, histology results, and ruling out other causes of an ulcer.
Treatment for pyoderma gangrenosum typically involves oral steroids as first-line therapy due to the potential for rapid progression. Other immunosuppressive therapies, such as ciclosporin and infliximab, may be used in difficult cases. It is important to note that any surgery should be postponed until the disease process is controlled on immunosuppression to avoid worsening the condition. Understanding pyoderma gangrenosum and its potential causes and treatments can help patients and healthcare providers manage this rare and painful condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 120
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male comes to the surgery with a chronic issue of excessive sweating in his armpits. Apart from this, he is healthy, but the problem is impacting his self-esteem and social activities. What would be the best course of action for managing this condition?
Your Answer: Topical hydrocortisone 1%
Correct Answer: Topical aluminium chloride
Explanation:Hyperhidrosis is typically treated with topical preparations containing aluminium chloride as the first-line option.
Managing Hyperhidrosis
Hyperhidrosis is a condition characterized by excessive sweating. To manage this condition, there are several options available. The first-line treatment is the use of topical aluminium chloride preparations, which can cause skin irritation as a side effect. Another option is iontophoresis, which is particularly useful for patients with palmar, plantar, and axillary hyperhidrosis. Botulinum toxin is also licensed for axillary symptoms. Surgery, such as endoscopic transthoracic sympathectomy, is another option, but patients should be informed of the risk of compensatory sweating. Overall, there are several management options available for hyperhidrosis, and patients should work with their healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for their individual needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 121
Correct
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A 25-year-old male presents with a new skin rash, which appeared during his summer vacation spent hiking. He displays several pale brown patches on his neck, upper back, and chest. The patches seem slightly flaky but are not causing any discomfort. He is generally healthy. What is the most suitable initial treatment for this condition?
Your Answer: Ketoconazole shampoo
Explanation:Pityriasis versicolor is a skin condition caused by an overgrowth of Malassezia yeast, which commonly affects young males. It results in multiple patches of discolored skin, mainly on the trunk, which can appear pale brown, pink, or depigmented. The condition often occurs after exposure to humid, sunny environments.
According to NICE guidelines, the first-line treatment for pityriasis versicolor is either ketoconazole shampoo applied topically for five days or selenium sulphide shampoo for seven days (off-label indication). While topical antifungal creams like clotrimazole are effective, they are not typically used as first-line treatment unless the affected area is small due to their higher cost.
Understanding Pityriasis Versicolor
Pityriasis versicolor, also known as tinea versicolor, is a fungal infection that affects the skin’s surface. It is caused by Malassezia furfur, which was previously known as Pityrosporum ovale. This condition is characterized by patches that are commonly found on the trunk area. These patches may appear hypopigmented, pink, or brown, and may become more noticeable after sun exposure. Scaling is also a common feature, and mild itching may occur.
Pityriasis versicolor can affect healthy individuals, but it may also occur in people with weakened immune systems, malnutrition, or Cushing’s syndrome. Treatment for this condition typically involves the use of topical antifungal agents. According to NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries, ketoconazole shampoo is a cost-effective option for treating large areas. If topical treatment fails, alternative diagnoses should be considered, and oral itraconazole may be prescribed.
In summary, pityriasis versicolor is a fungal infection that affects the skin’s surface. It is characterized by patches that may appear hypopigmented, pink, or brown, and scaling is a common feature. Treatment typically involves the use of topical antifungal agents, and oral itraconazole may be prescribed if topical treatment fails.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 122
Incorrect
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An obese 57-year-old man presents with a discharge from under the foreskin and a sore penis. There are small, red erosions on the glans, and the foreskin is also swollen and red. He denies any recent sexual contact. He is otherwise fit and well and doesn't take any regular medications.
Which condition is most likely to have led to these signs and symptoms?Your Answer: Human immunodeficiency virus infection
Correct Answer: Diabetes mellitus
Explanation:Causes of Balanitis and their Risk Factors
Balanitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the glans penis. There are several causes of balanitis, and identifying the underlying cause is crucial for effective treatment. Here are some of the common causes of balanitis and their associated risk factors:
Diabetes Mellitus: Diabetes is the most common underlying condition associated with adult balanitis, especially if the blood sugar is poorly controlled. It predisposes the patient to a bacterial or candida infection. Obesity is also a risk factor for underlying diabetes.
Human Immunodeficiency Virus Infection: While immunosuppression (such as secondary to HIV infection) predisposes to balanitis, there are no indications that he is at risk of HIV.
Contact Dermatitis: Contact or irritant dermatitis is a cause of balanitis; however, there are no risk factors described. Common causes of contact dermatitis balanitis include condoms, soap, and poor hygiene.
Syphilis: Syphilis is a cause of infective balanitis; however, it is not the most common cause and is unlikely in a patient who denies recent sexual contact.
Trichomonas: Although a cause of infective balanitis, trichomonas is not the most common cause and is unlikely in a patient who denies recent sexual contact.
In conclusion, identifying the underlying cause of balanitis is crucial for effective treatment. Diabetes, HIV infection, contact dermatitis, syphilis, and trichomonas are some of the common causes of balanitis, and their associated risk factors should be considered during diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 123
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy is brought to see you with a symptomless crop of lesions in the left axillary area, which have been present for two months.
Examination revealed skin coloured to pearly white, hemispherical to umbilicated papular lesions. Each one is approximately 4 mm in diameter and there are approximately 20 of these lesions present.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Herpes simplex
Correct Answer: Cutaneous cryptococcosis
Explanation:Skin Lesions and Their Differential Diagnosis
Molluscum contagiosum is easily diagnosed by the appearance of pearly white hemispherical lesions, often with an umbilicated center, on the limbs, trunk, or face. However, in HIV-positive patients, cutaneous cryptococcosis should also be considered when encountering similar lesions, especially if accompanied by pulmonary or neurological symptoms. Folliculitis presents with painful papulopustular follicular lesions, while herpes simplex infection manifests as recurrent grouped vesicular eruptions at mucocutaneous junctions. Warts, on the other hand, appear as verrucous plaques and papules, usually on the extremities. Knowing the differential diagnosis of these skin lesions can aid in proper diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 124
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of a skin rash caused by her new wristwatch. The doctor suspects an allergy to nickel. What is the most appropriate test to confirm this suspicion?
Your Answer: Serum nickel antibodies
Correct Answer: Skin patch test
Explanation:Understanding Nickel Dermatitis
Nickel dermatitis is a type of allergic contact dermatitis that is commonly caused by exposure to nickel. This condition is an example of a type IV hypersensitivity reaction, which means that it is caused by an immune response to a specific substance. In the case of nickel dermatitis, the immune system reacts to nickel, which is often found in jewelry such as watches.
To diagnose nickel dermatitis, a skin patch test is typically performed. This involves applying a small amount of nickel to the skin and monitoring the area for any signs of an allergic reaction. If a reaction occurs, it is likely that the individual has nickel dermatitis and will need to avoid exposure to nickel in the future.
Overall, understanding nickel dermatitis is important for anyone who may be at risk of developing this condition. By recognizing the symptoms and avoiding exposure to nickel, individuals can manage their symptoms and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 125
Incorrect
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As a salaried GP working in a GP surgery, you recently had a consultation with a 75-year-old man who presented with an unsightly left hallux toenail. The nail was thickened and had a yellowish tinge, leading you to suspect a fungal toenail infection. After arranging nail scrapings and sending them off to the laboratory for analysis, the results have returned positive for Trichophyton rubrum. You call the patient to discuss the results and he is eager to know what treatment options are available.
What would be the most appropriate treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Oral itraconazole, taken once daily for 3-6 months
Correct Answer: Oral terbinafine, taken once daily for 3-6 months
Explanation:Fungal toenail infections caused by Trichophyton rubrum are challenging to treat and require extended courses of oral antifungal medication. Terbinafine is the preferred option and treatment usually lasts for 3-6 months. However, terbinafine can have harmful effects on the liver, so liver function tests should be conducted regularly during treatment. Oral itraconazole is another option, but it is typically used for fungal nail infections caused by yeasts and given as pulsed therapy. Topical creams are not effective for treating fungal toenail infections. In this case, the patient’s asymptomatic fungal toenail doesn’t require urgent surgical removal. A podiatrist referral may be considered if the patient has a high-risk foot or difficulty caring for their nails, but an urgent referral is not necessary.
Fungal Nail Infections: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Fungal nail infections, also known as onychomycosis, can affect any part of the nail or the entire nail unit. However, toenails are more susceptible to infection than fingernails. The primary cause of fungal nail infections is dermatophytes, with Trichophyton rubrum being the most common. Yeasts, such as Candida, and non-dermatophyte molds can also cause fungal nail infections. Risk factors for developing a fungal nail infection include increasing age, diabetes mellitus, psoriasis, and repeated nail trauma.
The most common symptom of a fungal nail infection is thickened, rough, and opaque nails. Patients may present with unsightly nails, which can be a source of embarrassment. Differential diagnoses include psoriasis, repeated trauma, lichen planus, and yellow nail syndrome. To confirm a fungal nail infection, nail clippings or scrapings of the affected nail should be examined under a microscope and cultured. However, the false-negative rate for cultures is around 30%, so repeat samples may be necessary if clinical suspicion is high.
Asymptomatic fungal nail infections do not require treatment unless the patient is bothered by the appearance. Topical treatment with amorolfine 5% nail lacquer is recommended for limited involvement, while oral terbinafine is the first-line treatment for more extensive involvement due to a dermatophyte infection. Fingernail infections require 6 weeks to 3 months of therapy, while toenails should be treated for 3 to 6 months. Oral itraconazole is recommended for more extensive involvement due to a Candida infection, with pulsed weekly therapy being the preferred method.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 126
Correct
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During her annual medication review, a 36 year old woman with psoriasis should be screened for which associated conditions as recommended by NICE?
Your Answer: Psoriatic arthropathy
Explanation:Psoriasis is linked to all the aforementioned conditions. To ensure early detection of psoriatic arthropathy, NICE advises annual screening of psoriasis patients using a validated tool like the Psoriasis Epidemiological Screening Tool (PEST). Additionally, patients should undergo cardiovascular risk assessment every 5 years, or more frequently if necessary.
Psoriasis is a condition that can have both physical and psychological complications, beyond just psoriatic arthritis. While it may be tempting to focus solely on topical treatments, it’s important to keep in mind the potential risks associated with psoriasis. Patients with this condition are at a higher risk for cardiovascular disease, hypertension, venous thromboembolism, depression, ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease, non-melanoma skin cancer, and other types of cancer such as liver, lung, and upper gastrointestinal tract cancers. Therefore, it’s crucial to consider these potential complications when managing a patient with psoriasis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 127
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old patient visits their doctor after experiencing an urticarial skin rash upon starting a new medication. What is the most probable cause of the rash?
Your Answer: Simvastatin
Correct Answer: Aspirin
Explanation:Urticaria is frequently observed as a result of aspirin, despite the fact that all medications have the potential to cause it.
Urticaria, also known as hives, can be caused by various drugs. Some of the most common drugs that can trigger urticaria include aspirin, penicillins, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), and opiates. These medications can cause an allergic reaction in some individuals, leading to the development of hives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 128
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents with a 5-month history of toenail thickening and lifting with discoloration on 2 of his 5 toes on his left foot. He is in good health and has no other medical issues. He is eager to receive treatment as it is causing discomfort when he walks.
Upon examination, you determine that he has an obvious fungal toenail infection on his 2nd and 5th toenails of his left foot and proceed to take some nail clippings.
After a week, you receive the mycology results which confirm the presence of Trichophyton rubrum.
What is the most suitable course of treatment?Your Answer: Griseofulvin
Correct Answer: Oral terbinafine
Explanation:When it comes to dermatophyte nail infections, the preferred treatment is oral terbinafine, especially when caused by Trichophyton rubrum, which is a common organism responsible for such infections. It is important to note that not treating the infection is not an option, especially when the patient is experiencing symptoms such as pain while walking. Oral itraconazole may be more appropriate for Candida infections or as a second-line treatment for dermatophyte infections. Amorolfine nail lacquer is not recommended according to NICE CKS guidelines if more than two nails are affected.
Fungal Nail Infections: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Fungal nail infections, also known as onychomycosis, can affect any part of the nail or the entire nail unit. However, toenails are more susceptible to infection than fingernails. The primary cause of fungal nail infections is dermatophytes, with Trichophyton rubrum being the most common. Yeasts, such as Candida, and non-dermatophyte molds can also cause fungal nail infections. Risk factors for developing a fungal nail infection include increasing age, diabetes mellitus, psoriasis, and repeated nail trauma.
The most common symptom of a fungal nail infection is thickened, rough, and opaque nails. Patients may present with unsightly nails, which can be a source of embarrassment. Differential diagnoses include psoriasis, repeated trauma, lichen planus, and yellow nail syndrome. To confirm a fungal nail infection, nail clippings or scrapings of the affected nail should be examined under a microscope and cultured. However, the false-negative rate for cultures is around 30%, so repeat samples may be necessary if clinical suspicion is high.
Asymptomatic fungal nail infections do not require treatment unless the patient is bothered by the appearance. Topical treatment with amorolfine 5% nail lacquer is recommended for limited involvement, while oral terbinafine is the first-line treatment for more extensive involvement due to a dermatophyte infection. Fingernail infections require 6 weeks to 3 months of therapy, while toenails should be treated for 3 to 6 months. Oral itraconazole is recommended for more extensive involvement due to a Candida infection, with pulsed weekly therapy being the preferred method.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 129
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old Caucasian woman with a history of type 1 diabetes presents for review. She has just returned from a summer holiday in Spain and has noticed some patches on her limbs that do not appear to have tanned. Otherwise the skin in these patches appears normal.
Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer: Psoriasis
Correct Answer: Vitiligo
Explanation:Understanding Vitiligo: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment Options
Vitiligo is a skin condition that results in the loss of melanocyte function, leading to areas of depigmentation on the skin. It is believed to be an autoimmune disorder and is often associated with other autoimmune diseases. While it affects around 0.4% of the Caucasian population, it can be more distressing for those with darker skin tones. Symptoms include patches of skin that fail to tan, particularly during the summer months.
Treatment options for vitiligo include using strong protection on affected areas and using potent topical corticosteroids for up to two months to stimulate repigmentation. However, these should not be used on the face or during pregnancy. Hospital referral may be necessary if more than 10% of the body is involved, and treatment may include topical calcineurin inhibitors or phototherapy.
It is important to differentiate vitiligo from other skin conditions such as pityriasis versicolor, lichen sclerosus, psoriasis, and chloasma. Macules and patches are flat, while papules and plaques are raised. A lesion becomes a patch or a plaque when it is greater than 2 cm across.
Overall, understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for vitiligo can help individuals manage this condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 130
Incorrect
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A 39-year-old female patient complains of a skin rash that has been bothering her for a week. She reports experiencing a burning sensation and itchiness around her mouth. Despite using hydrocortisone cream, the rash has not improved significantly. On examination, you observe a bilateral perioral papular eruption consisting of 4-5 clusters of 1-2 mm papules with sparing of the vermillion border. What would be the most suitable next step in managing this patient's condition?
Your Answer: Clotrimazole 1%
Correct Answer: Topical metronidazole
Explanation:Hydrocortisone is the most appropriate treatment for this patient’s perioral dermatitis, as it is a milder steroid compared to other options. Stronger steroids can worsen the condition with prolonged use. While using only emollients is not unreasonable, it may not provide complete relief within a reasonable timeframe. It is also recommended to minimize the use of skin products. Fusidic acid is typically used for localized impetigo, but it is not suitable for this patient as there are no signs of golden-crusted lesions.
Understanding Periorificial Dermatitis
Periorificial dermatitis is a skin condition that is commonly observed in women between the ages of 20 and 45 years old. The use of topical corticosteroids, and to a lesser extent, inhaled corticosteroids, is often linked to the development of this condition. The symptoms of periorificial dermatitis include the appearance of clustered erythematous papules, papulovesicles, and papulopustules, which are typically found in the perioral, perinasal, and periocular regions. However, the skin immediately adjacent to the vermilion border of the lip is usually spared.
When it comes to managing periorificial dermatitis, it is important to note that steroids may actually worsen the symptoms. Instead, the condition should be treated with either topical or oral antibiotics. By understanding the features and management of periorificial dermatitis, individuals can take the necessary steps to address this condition and improve their skin health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 131
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman has a pigmented lesion on her leg.
Select from the list the single feature that would be most suggestive of malignancy.Your Answer: Itching
Correct Answer: Recent growth
Explanation:Identifying Suspicious Pigmented Lesions: Signs of Malignancy
When it comes to pigmented lesions, it’s important to approach new or growing ones with caution. While benign melanocytic naevi tend to remain stable over time, malignant lesions may exhibit signs of growth and other concerning features. These may include a size greater than 7mm, irregular pigmentation, asymmetry, and an irregular border or contour. While itching and bleeding may also be indicative of malignancy, they can also be caused by other factors such as trauma or seborrhoeic keratosis. To identify potential melanomas, healthcare professionals may use the Glasgow 7-point checklist or the ABCDE’s of melanoma. By remaining vigilant and aware of these warning signs, we can help ensure early detection and treatment of potentially dangerous pigmented lesions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 132
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl comes to you with concerns about her acne. Upon examination, you observe several pustules, nodules, and some scarring. The patient expresses a desire for treatment as her acne is affecting her mood. While waiting for a dermatology referral, what initial treatment would you recommend?
Your Answer: Prescribe a topical antibiotic only
Correct Answer: Prescribe an oral antibiotic in combination with topical Benzoyl Peroxide
Explanation:Severe acne is characterized by the presence of nodules, cysts, and a high risk of scarring. It is recommended to refer patients with severe acne for specialist assessment and treatment, which may include oral isotretinoin. In the meantime, a combination of oral antibiotics and topical retinoids or benzoyl peroxide can be prescribed.
Topical antibiotics should be avoided when using oral antibiotics. Tetracycline, oxytetracycline, doxycycline, or lymecycline are the first-line antibiotic options, while erythromycin can be used as an alternative. Minocycline is not recommended.
It is not recommended to prescribe antibiotics alone or to combine a topical and oral antibiotic. Women who require contraception can be prescribed a combined oral contraceptive (COC), with a standard COC being suitable for most women. Co-cyprindiol (Dianette®) should only be considered when other treatments have failed and should be discontinued after three to four menstrual cycles once the acne has resolved.
Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 133
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis presents for follow-up. He underwent ileostomy surgery six years ago, which has been successful until recently. He is currently experiencing significant pain in the area around the stoma site. Upon examination, a deep erythematous ulcer with a ragged edge is observed, along with swollen and erythematous surrounding skin. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Munchausen's syndrome
Correct Answer: Pyoderma gangrenosum
Explanation:Pyoderma gangrenosum, which can be observed around the stoma site, is linked to inflammatory bowel disease. Surgery is not recommended as it may exacerbate the condition, and immunosuppressants are typically used for treatment. It is important to consider malignancy as a possible alternative diagnosis, and lesions should be referred to a specialist for evaluation and potential biopsy. While irritant contact dermatitis is a common occurrence, it is unlikely to result in such a profound ulcer.
Understanding Pyoderma Gangrenosum
Pyoderma gangrenosum is a rare inflammatory disorder that causes painful skin ulceration. While it can affect any part of the skin, it is most commonly found on the lower legs. This condition is classified as a neutrophilic dermatosis, which means that it is characterized by the infiltration of neutrophils in the affected tissue. The exact cause of pyoderma gangrenosum is unknown in 50% of cases, but it can be associated with inflammatory bowel disease, rheumatological conditions, haematological disorders, and other conditions.
The initial symptoms of pyoderma gangrenosum may start suddenly with a small pustule, red bump, or blood-blister. The skin then breaks down, resulting in an ulcer that is often painful. The edge of the ulcer is typically described as purple, violaceous, and undermined. The ulcer itself may be deep and necrotic and may be accompanied by systemic symptoms such as fever and myalgia. Diagnosis is often made by the characteristic appearance, associations with other diseases, the presence of pathergy, histology results, and ruling out other causes of an ulcer.
Treatment for pyoderma gangrenosum typically involves oral steroids as first-line therapy due to the potential for rapid progression. Other immunosuppressive therapies, such as ciclosporin and infliximab, may be used in difficult cases. It is important to note that any surgery should be postponed until the disease process is controlled on immunosuppression to avoid worsening the condition. Understanding pyoderma gangrenosum and its potential causes and treatments can help patients and healthcare providers manage this rare and painful condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 134
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man has well demarcated itchy erythematous round scaly patches between 1 cm and 3 cm in diameter on his both shins. The scaling is not accentuated by scratching the patches. He has no nail changes.
Select from the list the single most suitable management option.Your Answer: Calcipotriol ointment
Correct Answer: Betamethasone valerate 0.1% cream
Explanation:Understanding Discoid Eczema: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Discoid eczema, also known as nummular eczema, is a skin condition characterized by coin-shaped patches of itchy, red, and scaly skin. Unlike psoriasis, these patches are flat and not raised. The condition can occur anywhere on the body, but it tends to affect the extensor aspects of the limbs.
In some cases, the lesions may be vesicular and weep. Skin scrapings may be sent for mycology to exclude dermatophyte fungus infection, especially if the condition is more prominent on one side of the body. However, the absence of nail changes makes psoriasis and fungal infection less likely.
To treat discoid eczema, a potent topical corticosteroid is usually needed and should be used until the inflammation is suppressed, which typically takes 2-4 weeks. Emollients, such as emulsifying ointment, can also be beneficial if the skin is dry and can be applied indefinitely as a soap substitute.
It’s important to note that 1% hydrocortisone cream is much less effective in treating discoid eczema. Instead, calcipotriol ointment is used for psoriasis, and terbinafine cream is used for dermatophyte fungal infections. If you suspect you have discoid eczema, it’s best to consult with a dermatologist for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 135
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old girl presents to the clinic with concerns about hair loss on her scalp. She has a history of atopic eczema and has depigmented areas on her hands. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus
Correct Answer: Trichotillomania
Explanation:Co-Existence of Vitiligo and Alopecia Areata
This girl is experiencing a combination of vitiligo and alopecia areata, two conditions that can co-exist and have a similar autoimmune cause. Alopecia areata is highly suggested by the presence of discrete areas of hair loss and normal texture on the scalp. These conditions can cause significant emotional distress and impact a person’s self-esteem.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 136
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female is worried about the unsightly appearance of her toenails. She has noticed a whitish discoloration that extends up the nail bed in several toes on both feet. After confirming a dermatophyte infection, she has been diligently cutting her nails and applying topical amorolifine, but with no improvement. What is the best course of treatment?
Your Answer: Topical fluconazole
Correct Answer: Topical terbinafine
Explanation:Treatment for Fungal Nail Infection
If an adult has a confirmed fungal nail infection and self-care measures or topical treatment are not successful or appropriate, treatment with an oral antifungal agent should be offered. The first-line recommendation is Terbinafine because it is effective against both dermatophytes and Candida species. On the other hand, the ‘-azoles’ such as fluconazole do not have as much efficacy against dermatophytes. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help prevent the spread of infection and improve the appearance of the affected nail.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 137
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl comes to your clinic complaining of cracked and peeling feet for the past 3 weeks. Her soles appear shiny and glazed, but her heels are not affected. The web spaces between her toes are also spared. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Tinea pedis
Correct Answer: Juvenile plantar dermatosis
Explanation:It is crucial to correctly diagnose juvenile plantar dermatosis as it can be misidentified as athlete’s foot, and therefore requires different treatment.
Juvenile plantar dermatosis is a prevalent condition that causes dry skin on the feet in children and adolescents, typically affecting those aged 3 to 14, although it can occur in individuals of any age. One key distinguishing factor is that juvenile plantar dermatosis spares the web spaces, whereas tinea pedis (athlete’s foot) commonly affects these areas.
The initial treatment for juvenile plantar dermatosis involves using moisturizing cream at night and barrier cream during the day. Additionally, patients can be advised to reduce friction by wearing well-fitting shoes, two pairs of cotton socks, and changing socks frequently.
Eczema typically presents as scaly, red patches in flexor creases, such as the elbow or knee.
Contact dermatitis may appear similar to juvenile plantar dermatosis, but there would be a history of exposure to a potential trigger.
In summary, accurately diagnosing juvenile plantar dermatosis is crucial to ensure appropriate treatment is provided, as it can be mistaken for other conditions such as athlete’s foot.
Understanding Athlete’s Foot
Athlete’s foot, medically known as tinea pedis, is a common fungal infection that affects the skin on the feet. It is caused by fungi in the Trichophyton genus and is characterized by scaling, flaking, and itching between the toes. The condition is highly contagious and can spread through contact with infected surfaces or people.
To treat athlete’s foot, clinical knowledge summaries recommend using a topical imidazole, undecenoate, or terbinafine as a first-line treatment. These medications work by killing the fungi responsible for the infection and relieving symptoms. It is important to maintain good foot hygiene and avoid sharing personal items such as socks and shoes to prevent the spread of the infection. With proper treatment and prevention measures, athlete’s foot can be effectively managed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 138
Incorrect
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How many milligrams of corticosteroid cream are present in a single 'fingertip unit'?
Your Answer: 5 mg
Correct Answer: 10 mg
Explanation:How to Measure the Amount of Topical Corticosteroids to Apply
Topical corticosteroids are commonly used to treat skin conditions such as eczema and psoriasis. It is important to apply the cream or ointment in the correct amount to ensure effective treatment and avoid side effects. The length of cream or ointment expelled from a tube can be used to specify the quantity to be applied to a given area of skin. This length can be measured in terms of a fingertip unit (ftu), which is the distance from the tip of the adult index finger to the first crease. One fingertip unit (approximately 500 mg or 0.5 g) is sufficient to cover an area that is twice that of the flat adult hand (palm and fingers together).
It is important to spread the corticosteroid thinly on the skin but in sufficient quantity to cover the affected areas. The amount of cream or ointment used should not be confused with potency, as one gram of a potent steroid is the same in terms of mass as one gram of a mild steroid. Potency doesn’t come into play when measuring the amount of cream to use. If you need to make an educated guess, think about the units. One milligram is an exceptionally small amount and is unlikely to represent a fingertip unit. By using the fingertip unit measurement, you can ensure that you are applying the correct amount of topical corticosteroid for effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 139
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman complains of discomfort while eating. Upon examination, white-lace pattern lesions and ulcers are observed in the buccal region of her mouth.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Oral lichen planus
Explanation:Oral lichen planus is characterised by buccal white-lace pattern lesions and ulcers, causing discomfort while eating. Other conditions such as Sjögren’s syndrome, blocked Stensen’s duct, Behçet’s disease, and oral psoriasis may have different symptoms and are less likely to be the cause of buccal lesions.
Lichen planus is a skin condition that has an unknown cause, but is believed to be related to the immune system. It is characterized by an itchy rash that appears as small bumps on the palms, soles, genital area, and inner surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive pattern of white lines on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon. Oral involvement is common, with around 50% of patients experiencing a white-lace pattern on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes, such as thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging, may also occur.
Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, including gold, quinine, and thiazides. Treatment for lichen planus typically involves the use of potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more severe cases, oral steroids or immunosuppressive medications may be necessary. Overall, lichen planus can be a challenging condition to manage, but with proper treatment, symptoms can be controlled and quality of life can be improved.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 140
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents with a skin lesion on his anterior chest wall. He reports that he noticed it about four weeks ago and it has grown in size so he has come to get it checked. It is not causing the patient any symptoms.
On examination there is a pigmented lesion which is 5 mm in diameter. It is two-tone with a dark brown portion and an almost black portion. The lesion has an irregular notched border and is asymmetrical.
You are unsure of the diagnosis.
What is the most appropriate management plan?Your Answer: Reassure the patient and advise them to seek review should the lesion grow further or start to cause symptoms
Correct Answer: Refer urgently to a dermatologist as a suspected cancer
Explanation:The ABCDEF Checklist for Assessing Suspicious Pigmented Lesions
The ABCDEF checklist is a useful tool for assessing suspicious pigmented lesions, particularly for identifying potential melanomas. The checklist includes six criteria: asymmetry, irregular border, irregular colour, dark or diameter greater than 6 mm, evolutionary change, and funny looking.
Asymmetry refers to a lack of mirror image in any of the quadrants when the lesion is divided into four quadrants. Irregular border and irregular colour are self-explanatory, with irregular colour indicating at least two different colours in the lesion and lack of even pigmentation throughout the lesion being particularly suspicious. Dark or diameter greater than 6 mm refers to the size and colour of the lesion, with blue or black colour being particularly concerning. Evolutionary change refers to changes in size, colour, shape, or elevation.
The presence of any one of these criteria should raise suspicion of melanoma and prompt urgent referral to a dermatologist. Additionally, the funny looking criterion, also known as the ugly duckling sign, should be considered. This refers to a mole that appears different from the rest, even if ABCD and E criteria are absent.
Overall, the ABCDEF checklist is a valuable tool for identifying potentially cancerous pigmented lesions and ensuring prompt referral for specialist assessment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 141
Correct
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Which of the following is the least probable cause of a bullous rash?
Your Answer: Lichen planus
Explanation:The bullous form of lichen planus is an exceptionally uncommon occurrence.
Bullous Disorders: Causes and Types
Bullous disorders are characterized by the formation of fluid-filled blisters or bullae on the skin. These can be caused by a variety of factors, including congenital conditions like epidermolysis bullosa, autoimmune diseases like bullous pemphigoid and pemphigus, insect bites, trauma or friction, and certain medications such as barbiturates and furosemide.
Epidermolysis bullosa is a rare genetic disorder that affects the skin’s ability to adhere to the underlying tissue, leading to the formation of blisters and sores. Autoimmune bullous disorders occur when the immune system mistakenly attacks proteins in the skin, causing blistering and inflammation. Insect bites can also cause bullae to form, as can trauma or friction from activities like sports or manual labor.
Certain medications can also cause bullous disorders as a side effect. Barbiturates, for example, have been known to cause blistering and skin rashes in some people. Furosemide, a diuretic used to treat high blood pressure and edema, can also cause bullae to form in some cases.
Overall, bullous disorders can be caused by a variety of factors and can range from mild to severe. Treatment options depend on the underlying cause and may include medications, wound care, and lifestyle modifications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 142
Incorrect
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A 23 year old female presents for a routine contraception pill check. She has been taking co-cyprindiol for the past year. Her blood pressure and BMI are normal, she doesn't smoke, and has no personal or family history of stroke, venous thromboembolism, or migraine. She previously had acne but reports it has been clear for the past 4 months and wishes to continue on the same pill. She is in a committed relationship. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer: Discontinue co-cyprindiol and change to progesterone-only pill
Correct Answer: Discontinue co-cyprindiol and change to standard combined oral contraceptive pill
Explanation:The MHRA recommends discontinuing co-cyprindiol (Dianette) 3-4 cycles after acne has cleared due to the increased risk of venous thromboembolism. It should not be used solely for contraception. However, the patient still requires contraception, and a combined pill may offer better contraceptive coverage than a progesterone-only pill, while also providing some benefit for her skin. Other contraceptive options should also be considered.
Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 143
Correct
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A 25-year-old soldier who returned from a tour of Iraq 3 months ago comes to the clinic with a painless ulcer on his forearm. He explains that it began as a small bump and has been growing in size. Upon examination, there is a 4 cm ulcer with a sunken center and a raised firm border. The patient is healthy otherwise and has no other medical issues.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Cutaneous leishmaniasis
Explanation:Based on the patient’s travel history to Afghanistan and the presence of a painless single lesion, the most probable diagnosis is cutaneous leishmaniasis. Although primary syphilis can also present with a painless lesion, the size and location of the lesion on the back of the hand is atypical. Pyoderma gangrenosum typically causes pain and presents more acutely. While a buruli ulcer can also present similarly, it is rare, mostly found in children, and has not been reported in the Middle East.
Source: WHO fact sheets on leishmaniasis
Cutaneous leishmaniasis is transmitted by sandflies and usually manifests as an erythematous patch or papule that gradually enlarges and becomes an ulcer with a raised indurated border. In dry forms, the lesion is crusted with a raised edge. It is usually painless unless a secondary bacterial infection is present. Afghanistan has particularly high levels of cutaneous leishmaniasis.Leishmaniasis: A Disease Caused by Sandfly Bites
Leishmaniasis is a disease caused by the protozoa Leishmania, which are transmitted through the bites of sandflies. There are three main forms of the disease: cutaneous, mucocutaneous, and visceral. Cutaneous leishmaniasis is characterized by a crusted lesion at the site of the bite, which may be accompanied by an underlying ulcer. It is typically diagnosed through a punch biopsy from the edge of the lesion. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis can spread to involve the mucosae of the nose, pharynx, and other areas. Visceral leishmaniasis, also known as kala-azar, is the most severe form of the disease and is characterized by fever, sweats, rigors, massive splenomegaly and hepatomegaly, poor appetite, weight loss, and grey skin. The gold standard for diagnosis is bone marrow or splenic aspirate. Treatment is necessary for cutaneous leishmaniasis acquired in South or Central America due to the risk of mucocutaneous leishmaniasis, while disease acquired in Africa or India can be managed more conservatively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 144
Incorrect
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When assessing the respiratory system of a middle-aged patient, you observe some alterations in the skin. The skin on the back of the neck and axillae is hyperkeratotic and hyperpigmented. What underlying condition do you think is causing these changes?
Your Answer: Liver cirrhosis
Correct Answer: Type 2 diabetes
Explanation:Acanthosis nigricans is a condition where certain areas of the skin, such as the neck, armpits, and skin folds, become thickened and darkened with a velvety texture. Skin tags may also be present. While it can occur on its own in individuals with darker skin tones, it is often a sign of insulin resistance and related conditions like type 2 diabetes, polycystic ovarian syndrome, Cushing’s syndrome, or hypothyroidism. Certain medications like corticosteroids, insulin, and hormone medications can also cause acanthosis nigricans. If it develops quickly and in unusual areas like the mouth, it may indicate an internal malignancy, particularly gastric cancer.
Acanthosis nigricans is a condition characterized by the presence of brown, velvety plaques that are symmetrical and commonly found on the neck, axilla, and groin. This condition can be caused by various factors such as type 2 diabetes mellitus, gastrointestinal cancer, obesity, polycystic ovarian syndrome, acromegaly, Cushing’s disease, hypothyroidism, familial factors, Prader-Willi syndrome, and certain drugs like the combined oral contraceptive pill and nicotinic acid.
The pathophysiology of acanthosis nigricans involves insulin resistance, which leads to hyperinsulinemia. This, in turn, stimulates the proliferation of keratinocytes and dermal fibroblasts through interaction with insulin-like growth factor receptor-1 (IGFR1). This process results in the formation of the characteristic brown, velvety plaques seen in acanthosis nigricans. Understanding the underlying mechanisms of this condition is crucial in its diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 145
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old female student presents with generalised pruritus of six weeks duration.
She has little other history of note and has otherwise been well. This itching has deteriorated over this time and is particularly worse at night. She has been unaware of any rashes and denies taking any prescribed drugs. There is no history of atopy.
She shares a flat with her boyfriend and drinks approximately 12 units per week and smokes cannabis occasionally.
On examination, there is little of note except there are some scratch marks over the shoulders and back and she has some erythema between the fingers. Otherwise cardiovascular, respiratory and abdominal examination is normal.
Which of the following therapies would be most appropriate treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Permethrin cream
Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:Understanding Scabies: Symptoms and Treatment
Scabies is a highly contagious disease caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, which is commonly found in sexually active individuals. The disease is characterized by generalised pruritus, and it is important to carefully examine the finger spaces for burrows.
The most effective treatments for scabies include permethrin cream, topical benzyl benzoate, and malathion. While permethrin cream doesn’t directly alleviate pruritus, it helps to kill the mite, which is the root cause of the disease. Patients should be advised that it may take some time for the itching to subside as the allergic reaction to the mite abates. Additionally, it is important to apply the cream to all areas below the neck, not just where the rash is present.
In summary, scabies is a highly contagious disease that can cause significant discomfort. However, with proper treatment and care, patients can effectively manage their symptoms and prevent the spread of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 146
Correct
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A 68-year-old male is referred to dermatology for evaluation of a non-healing skin ulcer on his lower leg that has persisted for 8 weeks despite a course of oral flucloxacillin. What is the initial investigation that should be prioritized?
Your Answer: Ankle-brachial pressure index
Explanation:To rule out arterial insufficiency as a potential cause, it would be beneficial to conduct an ankle-brachial pressure index measurement. If the results are abnormal, it may be necessary to refer the patient to vascular surgeons.
If the ulcer doesn’t respond to active management, such as compression bandaging, it may be necessary to consider a biopsy to rule out malignancy and a referral should be made.
It is uncommon for non-healing leg ulcers to be caused by persistent infection.
Venous ulceration is a type of ulcer that is commonly found above the medial malleolus. To determine the cause of non-healing ulcers, it is important to conduct an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) test. A normal ABPI value is between 0.9 to 1.2, while values below 0.9 indicate arterial disease. However, values above 1.3 may also indicate arterial disease due to arterial calcification, especially in diabetic patients.
The most effective treatment for venous ulceration is compression bandaging, specifically four-layer bandaging. Oral pentoxifylline, a peripheral vasodilator, can also improve the healing rate of venous ulcers. While there is some evidence supporting the use of flavonoids, there is little evidence to suggest the benefit of hydrocolloid dressings, topical growth factors, ultrasound therapy, and intermittent pneumatic compression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 147
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman visits her GP with a complaint of sudden anal pain. During the examination, the doctor notices a tender, oedematous, purplish subcutaneous perianal lump.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Pilonidal sinus
Correct Answer: Thrombosed haemorrhoids
Explanation:The posterior midline is where anal fissures, hemorrhoids, and pilonidal sinuses are commonly found. Genital warts, on the other hand, are small fleshy growths that are slightly pigmented and may cause itching or bleeding. These warts are usually caused by HPV types 6 and 11. Pilonidal sinus, which is characterized by cycles of pain and discharge, is caused by hair debris creating sinuses in the skin. If the sinus is located near the anus, it may cause anal pain.
Thrombosed haemorrhoids are characterized by severe pain and the presence of a tender lump. Upon examination, a purplish, swollen, and tender subcutaneous perianal mass can be observed. If the patient seeks medical attention within 72 hours of onset, referral for excision may be necessary. However, if the condition has progressed beyond this timeframe, patients can typically manage their symptoms with stool softeners, ice packs, and pain relief medication. Symptoms usually subside within 10 days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 148
Incorrect
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The community midwife has approached you regarding a patient she saw for her booking appointment that morning. The patient is a 22-year-old student who did not plan on becoming pregnant and is currently taking multiple prescribed medications. The midwife has requested that you review the medication list to determine if any of them need to be discontinued. The patient is taking levothyroxine for hypothyroidism, beclomethasone and salbutamol inhalers for asthma, adapalene gel for acne, and occasionally uses metoclopramide for migraines. She also purchases paracetamol over the counter for her migraines. She is believed to be approximately 8 weeks pregnant but is waiting for her dating scan.
Which of her medications, if any, should be stopped?Your Answer: Levothyroxine
Correct Answer: Adapalene gel
Explanation:During pregnancy, it is not recommended to use topical or oral retinoids, including Adapalene gel, due to the risk of birth defects. Benzoyl peroxide can be considered as an alternative. Levothyroxine may need to be adjusted to meet the increased metabolic demands of pregnancy, and consultation with an endocrinologist may be necessary. beclomethasone inhaler should be continued to maintain good asthma control, unless there is a specific reason not to. Metoclopramide is generally considered safe during pregnancy and can be used if needed.
Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 149
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old carpenter presents to you with concerns about his thumb nail that has been black for a few weeks. He suspects that he may have injured the nail while working, but he expected the discoloration to have disappeared by now. Upon examination, you notice a dark stripe running along the length of the nail plate of his left thumb. The adjacent nail fold is also dark.
What would be the best course of action for managing this condition?Your Answer: Reassurance that nail trauma often takes several weeks to subside
Correct Answer: Urgent referral (2 week wait) to dermatology
Explanation:If a new pigmented line appears in a nail, especially if there is damage to the nail, it is important to be highly suspicious of subungual melanoma and seek urgent referral. Subungual melanoma is a type of acral-lentiginous melanoma that can be mistaken for trauma. It typically presents as a longitudinal, pigmented band on the nail, with wider bands being more likely to be melanoma. Hutchinson’s sign, where the pigment extends onto the nail fold, may also be present. The lesion may also cause ulceration and destruction of the nail-plate.
Malignant melanoma is a type of skin cancer that has four main subtypes: superficial spreading, nodular, lentigo maligna, and acral lentiginous. Nodular melanoma is the most aggressive, while the other forms spread more slowly. Superficial spreading melanoma typically affects young people on sun-exposed areas such as the arms, legs, back, and chest. Nodular melanoma appears as a red or black lump that bleeds or oozes and affects middle-aged people. Lentigo maligna affects chronically sun-exposed skin in older people, while acral lentiginous melanoma appears on nails, palms, or soles in people with darker skin pigmentation. Other rare forms of melanoma include desmoplastic melanoma, amelanotic melanoma, and melanoma arising in other parts of the body such as ocular melanoma.
The main diagnostic features of melanoma are changes in size, shape, and color. Secondary features include a diameter of 7mm or more, inflammation, oozing or bleeding, and altered sensation. Suspicious lesions should undergo excision biopsy, and the lesion should be completely removed to facilitate subsequent histopathological assessment. Once the diagnosis is confirmed, the pathology report should be reviewed to determine whether further re-excision of margins is required. The margins of excision are related to Breslow thickness, with lesions 0-1 mm thick requiring a margin of 1 cm, lesions 1-2 mm thick requiring a margin of 1-2cm (depending on site and pathological features), lesions 2-4mm thick requiring a margin of 2-3 cm (depending on site and pathological features), and lesions over 4mm thick requiring a margin of 3 cm. Further treatments such as sentinel lymph node mapping, isolated limb perfusion, and block dissection of regional lymph node groups should be selectively applied.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 150
Correct
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What is true about malignant melanoma in the UK?
Your Answer: Malignant transformation in common moles is about 1:10,000
Explanation:Malignant Melanoma: Types, Incidence, and Demographics
Malignant melanoma is a type of skin cancer that can occur not only on the skin but also on mucosal surfaces such as the subungual, buccal, and anal areas. While most cases of melanoma occur on the trunk or legs, it can also present in other areas. The incidence of malignant melanoma has been rapidly increasing in white populations worldwide, with a threefold increase in Great Britain from 1971 to 1996.
Amelanotic malignant melanoma is a type of melanoma that lacks pigment and is often associated with metastasis to the skin. It is believed that more than 50% of cases arise without a pre-existing pigmented lesion. Tumour size is only one of the criteria used in the 2009 AJCC Melanoma Staging and Classification.
According to Cancer Research UK, the demographics of malignant melanoma in the UK show that it is more common in females than males and is most frequently diagnosed in people aged 65-69. It is also more common in affluent areas and in those with fair skin, light hair, and blue or green eyes. Regular skin checks and sun protection are important in preventing and detecting malignant melanoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 151
Incorrect
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You see a 38-year-old woman being treated for a fungal infection of one of her great toenails. This was causing her discomfort with walking and so treatment was felt appropriate. Nail clippings confirmed a dermatophyte infection. She has been taking oral terbinafine for this for the last 3 months and is seen today for review.
When the oral terbinafine was started a notch was filed at the base of the nail abnormality.
On examination the abnormal nail has remained distal to the notch as the nail has grown out.
What is the most appropriate management plan?Your Answer: Continue the terbinafine and arrange a further review in 3 months time
Correct Answer: Continue the terbinafine and add in a topical antifungal in combination
Explanation:Monitoring Fungal Nail Infections
Fungal nail infections may require extended periods of oral antifungal treatment. It is important to monitor the patient for any nail growth 3-6 months after treatment initiation. To aid in this monitoring process, consider filing a notch at the base of the most abnormal nail at the start of treatment. This notch can serve as a reference point for comparing old and new nail growth during follow-up appointments.
If the abnormal nail remains distal to the notch as it grows out, no further treatment is necessary. However, if the abnormal nail moves proximal to the notch, this indicates that the infection is still present and further treatment is needed. By closely monitoring nail growth and responding appropriately, healthcare providers can effectively manage fungal nail infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 152
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a 5-year-old boy with eczema. Which of the following emollients is most likely to cause skin irritation?
Your Answer: Oilatum
Correct Answer: Aqueous cream
Explanation:Aqueous Cream May Cause Skin Irritation, Warns Drug Safety Update
The use of aqueous cream as an emollient has been widely prescribed in the UK. However, a report published in the March 2013 issue of the Drug Safety Update (DSU) warns that it may cause burning and skin irritation in some patients, particularly children with eczema. The report showed that 56% of patients attending a paediatric dermatology clinic who used aqueous cream as a leave-on emollient reported skin irritation, typically within 20 minutes of application. This compared to 18% of children who used an alternative emollient. Skin irritation was not seen in patients using aqueous cream as a soap substitute. It is believed that the high sodium lauryl sulfate content in aqueous cream may be the cause of the irritation. The DSU doesn’t suggest that aqueous cream should not be prescribed, but advises that patients and parents should be warned about possible side-effects. It is recommended to routinely prescribe alternative emollients.
Spacing: 2
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 153
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man has been diagnosed with scabies after presenting with itchy lesions on his hands. As part of the treatment plan, it is important to advise him to apply permethrin 5% cream as directed. Additionally, he should be reminded to treat all members of his household and wash all bedding and clothes in hot water. What instructions should be given regarding the application of the cream?
Your Answer: From neck down + leave for 4 hours
Correct Answer: All skin including scalp + leave for 12 hours + repeat in 7 days
Explanation:Scabies: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Scabies is a skin condition caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, which is spread through prolonged skin contact. It is most commonly seen in children and young adults. The mite burrows into the skin, laying its eggs in the outermost layer. The resulting intense itching is due to a delayed hypersensitivity reaction to the mites and eggs, which occurs about a month after infection. Symptoms include widespread itching, linear burrows on the fingers and wrists, and secondary features such as excoriation and infection.
The first-line treatment for scabies is permethrin 5%, followed by malathion 0.5% if necessary. Patients should be advised to avoid close physical contact until treatment is complete and to treat all household and close contacts, even if asymptomatic. Clothing, bedding, and towels should be laundered, ironed, or tumble-dried on the first day of treatment to kill off mites. The insecticide should be applied to all areas, including the face and scalp, and left on for 8-12 hours for permethrin or 24 hours for malathion before washing off. Treatment should be repeated after 7 days.
Crusted scabies, also known as Norwegian scabies, is a severe form of the condition seen in patients with suppressed immunity, particularly those with HIV. The skin is covered in hundreds of thousands of mites, and isolation is essential. Ivermectin is the treatment of choice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 154
Correct
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A 48-year-old obese man comes to the General Practitioner with a rash on his inner upper right thigh that has been present for the past six months. The rash is itchy and consists of an erythematous plaque with a scaly prominent border. The central part of the plaque appears to be healing.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Tinea cruris
Explanation:Differentiating Between Skin Infections: Tinea Cruris, Candidiasis, Intertrigo, Psoriasis, and Seborrhoeic Dermatitis
Skin infections can present with similar symptoms, making it difficult to differentiate between them. Here are some key characteristics to help distinguish between tinea cruris, candidiasis, intertrigo, psoriasis, and seborrhoeic dermatitis.
Tinea cruris is a fungal infection that affects the groin area, causing scaly skin with a healing center. It is more common in men and tends to be asymmetrically distributed.
Candidiasis, on the other hand, is caused by yeast and can affect various areas, including the mouth, vulva, and skin. Infected skin appears moist or macerated, with a ragged edge and possible pustules or papules.
Intertrigo is a rash that develops in body folds due to chafing of warm, moist skin. It causes inflammation, redness, and discomfort, but doesn’t typically present with plaques or scaling.
Psoriasis is a chronic autoimmune condition that typically presents symmetrically on extensor surfaces. It is unlikely to have a solitary lesion on the upper inner thigh, and the scale usually diffuses across the plaque.
Seborrhoeic dermatitis commonly affects the scalp, face, and upper trunk, and rarely presents as a solitary patch on the upper thigh. Patches appear inflamed and greasy.
By understanding the unique characteristics of each skin infection, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 155
Correct
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A 49-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of wheals and urticaria. He is currently taking multiple medications.
Which medication is the most probable cause of his allergic reaction?Your Answer: Paracetamol
Explanation:Possible Causes of Urticarial Eruption
Urticaria, commonly known as hives, is a skin condition characterized by itchy, raised, and red welts. One of the most likely causes of an urticarial eruption is aspirin. However, other drugs are also frequently associated with this condition, including non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), penicillin, angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, thiazides, and codeine. It is important to identify the underlying cause of urticaria to prevent further episodes and manage symptoms effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 156
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man with a history of atopic eczema and contact dermatitis experiences worsening of his dermatitis due to irritants at work. What is the most frequent irritant that leads to contact dermatitis?
Your Answer: Cotton
Correct Answer: Soap and cleaning agents
Explanation:Common Causes of Contact Dermatitis
Contact dermatitis is a skin condition that occurs when the skin comes into contact with an irritant or allergen. The most common causes of contact dermatitis include soap and cleaning agents, which can affect people in various fields, especially cleaners and healthcare workers. Wet work is also a significant cause of dermatitis. Latex, particularly in the form of latex-powdered gloves, used to be a common irritant, but the use of latex-free gloves has reduced its occurrence. Nickel found in jewelry can cause a localized reaction, but it is less common than dermatitis caused by soap and cleaning products. Acrylics can also cause contact dermatitis, but they are less common than other irritants. Natural fibers like cotton are less likely to cause a dermatitis reaction compared to synthetic fibers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 157
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man attends as he is concerned about his 'moles'. His father was diagnosed with a malignant melanoma at the age of 49. He has worked in construction since leaving school and has spent many years working outside. He tells you that he has spent about 10 years working in North Africa, the majority of the time he spent outside in the sun.
The patient has fair hair and blue eyes. You examine his skin and he has about 60 common naevi 2 mm or less in diameter. He also has four atypical naevi (naevi with flat and raised areas, oval in shape, with some colour variation) which are all 6 mm or more in diameter. He reports no changes in any of the moles but as he has so many is worried about his risk of skin cancer.
What is the greatest risk factor for this patient to develop a melanoma?Your Answer: The number and characteristics of his naevi
Correct Answer: His history of high sun exposure
Explanation:Assessing Pigmented Skin Lesions and Identifying Risk Factors for Melanoma
When assessing a pigmented skin lesion, it is important to consider any risk factors for melanoma. The number and characteristics of naevi are the greatest risk factors for melanoma, with individuals who have more than 50 melanocytic naevi, of which 3 or more are atypical in appearance, classified as having atypical mole syndrome. This syndrome occurs in about 2% of the population and increases the risk of developing melanoma by 7 to 10 fold. The risk is further increased if there is a family history of melanoma in a first or second degree relative, known as familial atypical mole syndrome. Other risk factors include light-colored eyes, unusually high sun exposure, and red or light-colored hair.
It is important to understand the extent of risk associated with these factors, as identifying high-risk patients presents an opportunity to advise them accordingly. Patients at moderately increased risk of melanoma should be taught how to self-examine, including those with atypical mole phenotype, previous melanoma, and organ transplant recipients. Patients with giant congenital pigmented naevi also require long-term follow-up by a specialist, usually a dermatologist. By understanding these risk factors and providing appropriate guidance, healthcare professionals can help prevent and detect melanoma in high-risk patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 158
Correct
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Which one of the following aspects of daily living is specifically inquired about in Dermatology Life Quality Index (DLQI)?
Your Answer: Sexual intercourse
Explanation:Understanding the Dermatology Life Quality Index (DLQI)
The Dermatology Life Quality Index (DLQI) is a commonly used tool to evaluate the impact of chronic skin conditions on a patient’s quality of life. It consists of 10 questions, each scored out of 3, with a maximum score of 30. The higher the score, the more significant the impact on the patient’s quality of life. The DLQI covers six areas, including symptoms and feelings, daily activities, leisure, work and school, personal relationships, and treatment.
The DLQI questions are designed to assess the level of discomfort, embarrassment, and interference with daily activities caused by the skin condition. Patients are asked to rate the severity of symptoms such as itchiness, soreness, and pain, as well as the impact on social and leisure activities, work or study, and personal relationships. The DLQI also evaluates the impact of treatment on the patient’s life.
Interpreting the DLQI scores is straightforward. A score of 0-1 indicates no effect on the patient’s life, while a score of 2-5 suggests a small impact. A score of 6-10 indicates a moderate effect, while a score of 11-20 suggests a very large impact. A score of 21-30 indicates an extremely large impact on the patient’s life.
In summary, the DLQI is a quick and easy tool to assess the impact of chronic skin conditions on a patient’s quality of life. It provides valuable information to healthcare professionals to tailor treatment plans and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 159
Correct
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A 55-year-old man with a history of ischaemic heart disease and psoriasis presents with a significant worsening of his plaque psoriasis on his elbows and knees over the past two weeks. His medications have been recently altered at the cardiology clinic. Which medication is most likely to have exacerbated his psoriasis?
Your Answer: Atenolol
Explanation:Plaque psoriasis is known to worsen with the use of beta-blockers.
Psoriasis can be worsened by various factors, including trauma, alcohol consumption, and certain medications such as beta blockers, lithium, antimalarials (chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine), NSAIDs, ACE inhibitors, and infliximab. Additionally, the sudden withdrawal of systemic steroids can also exacerbate psoriasis symptoms. It is important to note that streptococcal infection can trigger guttate psoriasis, a type of psoriasis characterized by small, drop-like lesions on the skin. Therefore, individuals with psoriasis should be aware of these exacerbating factors and take steps to avoid or manage them as needed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 160
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old female presents with a three month history of a dry, pruritic rash affecting the lower arms and thighs.
What is the most appropriate initial management of this patient?Your Answer: Topical corticosteroids
Correct Answer: Patch testing to ascertain contact allergen
Explanation:Asteatotic Eczema and Xerotic Skin in the Elderly
Asteatotic eczema is a common problem that often affects the elderly population. This condition can be improved with the use of plain emollients. Xerotic skin is also common in the elderly, particularly during the winter months when central heating can cause dryness. While other treatments may be necessary for patients who do not respond to emollients, these moisturizers should be the first line of defense against asteatotic eczema and xerotic skin. By using emollients regularly, patients can help to keep their skin hydrated and healthy.
Overall, it is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these common skin conditions in the elderly and to recommend appropriate treatments to help manage symptoms and improve quality of life. By addressing asteatotic eczema and xerotic skin early on, healthcare providers can help to prevent more serious complications from developing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 161
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man in a nursing home has dementia and is experiencing severe pruritus. During examination, he has excoriations on his trunk and limbs. There is some scaling on his palms, particularly in the web spaces.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Chronic renal failure
Correct Answer: Scabies infestation
Explanation:Skin Conditions and Diseases: Differential Diagnosis for Pruritus and Rash
When a patient presents with pruritus and a rash, it is important for doctors to consider a range of possible skin conditions and diseases. One common cause of such symptoms is scabies infestation, which can be identified by a scaly rash on the hands with burrows and scaling in the web spaces. However, the rash in scabies is nonspecific and can be mistaken for eczema, so doctors must maintain a high index of suspicion and consider scabies as a diagnosis until proven otherwise.
Other skin conditions and diseases that may cause pruritus and rash include diabetes, atopic eczema, chronic renal failure, and iron deficiency anaemia. Diabetes is associated with several skin conditions, such as necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum and acanthosis nigricans, but typically doesn’t present with pruritus and rash. Atopic eczema can lead to pruritus and rash, but patients with this condition usually have a long history of eczematous lesions elsewhere on their body. Chronic renal failure may cause pruritus due to uraemia, but rarely results in a skin rash. Iron deficiency anaemia may cause itching and pruritus, but doesn’t typically cause a skin rash.
In summary, when a patient presents with pruritus and rash, doctors must consider a range of possible skin conditions and diseases, including scabies infestation, diabetes, atopic eczema, chronic renal failure, and iron deficiency anaemia. A thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to accurately identify the underlying cause of the patient’s symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 162
Incorrect
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A father brings his 4-year-old daughter to your GP surgery. He has noticed that she has been scratching her face, particularly around her mouth and that she has developed some 'spots and scabs' in the area. The patient doesn't appear systemically unwell or distressed. The child has a history of atopic eczema and viral-induced wheeze.
On examination of the child's face you note the presence of pustules and vesicles surrounding the mouth and nose area along with some honey-coloured plaques. You diagnose impetigo and prescribe topical fusidic acid as well as advising good hygiene measures.
The father is concerned about sending the child to preschool. What do you advise?Your Answer: The patient must have been on treatment for 24 h before returning to daycare
Correct Answer: The patient must have been on treatment for 48h before returning to daycare
Explanation:Patients with impetigo can go back to school or work once they are no longer contagious, which is either when all lesions have crusted over or after 48 hours of starting treatment. For measles or rubella, it is recommended to wait for at least 4 days after the rash appears before returning to work or school.
Understanding Impetigo: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Impetigo is a common bacterial skin infection that is caused by either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. It can occur as a primary infection or as a complication of an existing skin condition such as eczema. Impetigo is most common in children, especially during warm weather. The infection can develop anywhere on the body, but it tends to occur on the face, flexures, and limbs not covered by clothing.
The infection spreads through direct contact with discharges from the scabs of an infected person. The bacteria invade the skin through minor abrasions and then spread to other sites by scratching. Infection is spread mainly by the hands, but indirect spread via toys, clothing, equipment, and the environment may occur. The incubation period is between 4 to 10 days.
Symptoms of impetigo include ‘golden’, crusted skin lesions typically found around the mouth. It is highly contagious, and children should be excluded from school until the lesions are crusted and healed or 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment.
Management of impetigo depends on the extent of the disease. Limited, localized disease can be treated with hydrogen peroxide 1% cream or topical antibiotic creams such as fusidic acid or mupirocin. MRSA is not susceptible to either fusidic acid or retapamulin, so topical mupirocin should be used in this situation. Extensive disease may require oral flucloxacillin or oral erythromycin if penicillin-allergic. The use of hydrogen peroxide 1% cream was recommended by NICE and Public Health England in 2020 to cut antibiotic resistance. The evidence base shows it is just as effective at treating non-bullous impetigo as a topical antibiotic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 163
Incorrect
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A mother brings in her 5-year-old son and shows you a picture of some concerning lesions on his body. She is worried about whether he should stay home from school. Upon examination, you diagnose him with molluscum contagiosum. What advice would you give her?
Your Answer: Exclusion until 24 hours after antibiotics
Correct Answer: No school exclusion is required
Explanation:Molluscum contagiosum doesn’t require school exclusion or antiviral treatment as it is a self-limiting condition. Unlike Chickenpox, the lesions do not crust over. Antibiotics are not effective against this viral infection. It may take several months for the lesions to disappear, making unnecessary and impractical to consider other options.
Understanding Molluscum Contagiosum
Molluscum contagiosum is a viral skin infection that is commonly found in children, particularly those with atopic eczema. It is caused by the molluscum contagiosum virus and can be transmitted through direct contact or contaminated surfaces. The infection presents as pinkish or pearly white papules with a central umbilication, which can appear anywhere on the body except for the palms of the hands and soles of the feet. In children, the lesions are commonly found on the trunk and flexures, while in adults, they can appear on the genitalia, pubis, thighs, and lower abdomen.
While molluscum contagiosum is a self-limiting condition that usually resolves within 18 months, it is important to avoid sharing towels, clothing, and baths with uninfected individuals to prevent transmission. Scratching the lesions should also be avoided, and treatment may be necessary to alleviate itching or if the lesions are considered unsightly. Treatment options include simple trauma or cryotherapy, depending on the age of the child and the parents’ wishes. In some cases, referral may be necessary, such as for individuals who are HIV-positive with extensive lesions or those with eyelid-margin or ocular lesions and associated red eye.
Overall, understanding molluscum contagiosum and taking appropriate precautions can help prevent the spread of the infection and alleviate symptoms if necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 164
Incorrect
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You see a 30-year-old woman who is concerned about a sudden and significant amount of hair loss from her scalp in the past few weeks. She is typically healthy and has no medical history except for giving birth 2 months ago. On examination, there is no apparent focal loss of hair.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Trichotillomania
Correct Answer: Androgenetic alopecia
Explanation:Types of Hair Loss
Telogen effluvium is a sudden and severe shedding of hair that often occurs after significant events such as childbirth, severe illness, crash diets, or new medications. Androgenetic alopecia is the most common type of progressive hair loss, which presents in men with scalp hair loss or a receding hairline. In women, it often affects the crown of the scalp with preservation of the frontal hairline. Tinea capitis is a fungal infection that typically presents with an itchy, scaly scalp with patchy hair loss. Traction alopecia is due to the traction applied to the hair in certain hairstyles such as ponytails. Trichotillomania is a psychiatric condition in which patients pull their hair out. Understanding the different types of hair loss can help individuals identify the cause of their hair loss and seek appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 165
Correct
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A 75 year-old patient contacts you seeking advice regarding the routine shingles vaccination. The patient has previously experienced an episode of shingles and is unsure if they need to receive the vaccine. How do you respond?
Your Answer: Vaccination will reduce likelihood of further attacks
Explanation:To enhance his immunity and minimize the likelihood of recurrent shingles, it is recommended that he receive the shingles vaccination. The vaccine is believed to provide protection against shingles for a minimum of 5 years.
Varicella-Zoster Vaccination: Protection Against Chickenpox and Shingles
Varicella-zoster is a herpesvirus that causes Chickenpox and shingles. There are two types of vaccines available to protect against these infections. The first type is a live attenuated vaccine that prevents primary varicella infection or Chickenpox. This vaccine is recommended for healthcare workers who are not immune to VZV and for individuals who are in close contact with immunocompromised patients.
The second type of vaccine is designed to reduce the incidence of herpes zoster or shingles caused by reactivation of VZV. This live-attenuated vaccine is given subcutaneously and is offered to patients aged 70-79 years. The vaccine is also available as a catch-up campaign for those who missed out on their vaccinations in the previous two years of the program. However, the shingles vaccine is not available on the NHS to anyone aged 80 and over because it seems to be less effective in this age group.
The main contraindication for both vaccines is immunosuppression. Side effects of the vaccines include injection site reactions, and less than 1 in 10,000 individuals may develop Chickenpox. It is important to note that vaccination is the most effective way to prevent varicella-zoster infections and their complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 166
Incorrect
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A 23 year old female comes to you seeking treatment for her moderate acne. She has attempted using benzoyl peroxide from the drugstore. She discloses that she is presently attempting to get pregnant. Which of the subsequent acne treatments would be appropriate for this patient?
Your Answer: Oral lymecycline
Correct Answer: Oral erythromycin
Explanation:Pregnancy poses a challenge when it comes to treating acne as many treatments can be harmful to the developing foetus. It is important to consider this issue before starting any treatment, especially in women of childbearing age who may not yet know they are pregnant.
Retinoids, such as isotretinoin and adapalene, are not safe for use during pregnancy due to their teratogenic effects. Dianette, a contraceptive pill, is not suitable for this patient who is trying to conceive. Antibiotics like oxytetracycline, tetracycline, lymecycline, and doxycycline can accumulate in growing bones and teeth, making them unsuitable for use during pregnancy. Erythromycin, on the other hand, is considered safe for use during pregnancy.
Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 167
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman comes to you with a lesion on her left cheek that has been present for 3 days. The area is red, warm, slightly tender, and measures 2 cm in diameter. She has no significant medical history except for a penicillin allergy. She is not experiencing fever and the rash appears to be a mild facial cellulitis without any involvement of the periorbital or orbital regions. What course of treatment do you recommend?
Your Answer: Topical fusidic acid qds 1 week
Correct Answer: Clarithromycin 500mg bd 1 week
Explanation:For adults with mild facial cellulitis, the recommended treatment is a 7-day course of co-amoxiclav or clarithromycin for those with a penicillin allergy. A review should be arranged after 48 hours, either by telephone or face-to-face, depending on clinical judgement.
Urgent hospital admission is necessary for patients with red flags such as Eron Class III or IV cellulitis, severe or rapidly deteriorating cellulitis, immunocompromised individuals, very young or frail patients, those with significant lymphoedema, and those with facial or periorbital cellulitis unless it is very mild. For Eron Class II cellulitis, admission may not be necessary if the community has the facilities and expertise to administer intravenous antibiotics and monitor the patient, subject to local guidelines.
The Eron classification system can assist in determining the appropriate level of care and treatment. Class I patients show no signs of systemic toxicity and have no uncontrolled co-morbidities. Class II patients are either systemically unwell or have a comorbidity that may complicate or delay resolution of infection. Class III patients have significant systemic upset or limb-threatening infections due to vascular compromise. Class IV patients have sepsis syndrome or a severe life-threatening infection such as necrotising fasciitis.
Understanding Cellulitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Cellulitis is a common skin infection caused by Streptococcus pyogenes or Staphylococcus aureus. It is characterized by inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissues, usually on the shins, accompanied by erythema, pain, swelling, and sometimes fever. The diagnosis of cellulitis is based on clinical features, and no further investigations are required in primary care. However, bloods and blood cultures may be requested if the patient is admitted and septicaemia is suspected.
To guide the management of patients with cellulitis, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend using the Eron classification. Patients with Eron Class III or Class IV cellulitis, severe or rapidly deteriorating cellulitis, very young or frail patients, immunocompromised patients, patients with significant lymphoedema, or facial or periorbital cellulitis (unless very mild) should be admitted for intravenous antibiotics. Patients with Eron Class II cellulitis may not require admission if the facilities and expertise are available in the community to give intravenous antibiotics and monitor the patient.
The first-line treatment for mild/moderate cellulitis is flucloxacillin, while clarithromycin, erythromycin (in pregnancy), or doxycycline is recommended for patients allergic to penicillin. Patients with severe cellulitis should be offered co-amoxiclav, cefuroxime, clindamycin, or ceftriaxone. Understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of cellulitis is crucial for effective management and prevention of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 168
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man with a history of hypertension, psoriasis, and bipolar disorder visits his doctor complaining of a thick scaly patch on his right knee that appeared after starting a new medication.
Which of the following drugs is most likely responsible for exacerbating his rash?Your Answer: Clindamycin
Correct Answer: Lithium
Explanation:Lithium has been found to potentially worsen psoriasis symptoms.
Psoriasis can be worsened by various factors, including trauma, alcohol consumption, and certain medications such as beta blockers, lithium, antimalarials (chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine), NSAIDs, ACE inhibitors, and infliximab. Additionally, the sudden withdrawal of systemic steroids can also exacerbate psoriasis symptoms. It is important to note that streptococcal infection can trigger guttate psoriasis, a type of psoriasis characterized by small, drop-like lesions on the skin. Therefore, individuals with psoriasis should be aware of these exacerbating factors and take steps to avoid or manage them as needed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 169
Correct
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A 70-year-old man inquires about the 'shingles vaccine'. Which of the following statements about Zostavax is accurate?
Your Answer: Is suitable for patients who've had Chickenpox
Explanation:Regardless of whether a person has had Chickenpox or shingles previously, Zostavax should still be administered.
Varicella-Zoster Vaccination: Protection Against Chickenpox and Shingles
Varicella-zoster is a herpesvirus that causes Chickenpox and shingles. There are two types of vaccines available to protect against these infections. The first type is a live attenuated vaccine that prevents primary varicella infection or Chickenpox. This vaccine is recommended for healthcare workers who are not immune to VZV and for individuals who are in close contact with immunocompromised patients.
The second type of vaccine is designed to reduce the incidence of herpes zoster or shingles caused by reactivation of VZV. This live-attenuated vaccine is given subcutaneously and is offered to patients aged 70-79 years. The vaccine is also available as a catch-up campaign for those who missed out on their vaccinations in the previous two years of the program. However, the shingles vaccine is not available on the NHS to anyone aged 80 and over because it seems to be less effective in this age group.
The main contraindication for both vaccines is immunosuppression. Side effects of the vaccines include injection site reactions, and less than 1 in 10,000 individuals may develop Chickenpox. It is important to note that vaccination is the most effective way to prevent varicella-zoster infections and their complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 170
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman has plaques of psoriasis on her face.
Select the single most suitable preparation for her to apply.Your Answer: Dithrocream®
Correct Answer: Hydrocortisone cream 1%
Explanation:Treatment of Facial Psoriasis: Precautions and Options
When it comes to treating psoriasis on the face, it is important to keep in mind that the skin in this area is particularly sensitive. While various preparations can be used, some may cause irritation, staining, or other unwanted effects. For instance, calcipotriol can irritate the skin, betamethasone can lead to skin atrophy, and coal tar and dithranol can cause staining. Therefore, milder options are typically preferred, such as hydrocortisone or clobetasone butyrate. These may also be combined with an agent that is effective against Candida for flexural psoriasis.
It is important to note that corticosteroids should only be used for a limited time (1-2 weeks per month) to treat facial psoriasis. If short-term moderate potency corticosteroids do not provide satisfactory results or if continuous treatment is needed, a calcineurin inhibitor such as pimecrolimus cream or tacrolimus ointment may be used for up to 4 weeks. However, it is worth noting that these options do not have a license for this particular indication. Overall, caution and careful consideration of the options are key when treating psoriasis on the face.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 171
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old female has been diagnosed with a small area of Bowen's disease on her right foot. She is concerned about the possibility of it developing into invasive squamous cell carcinoma and is asking whether she should consider having it surgically removed instead of using 5-fluorouracil cream.
As her healthcare provider, you explain the diagnosis and the likelihood of the Bowen's disease progressing into invasive cancer.
What is the risk of it developing into invasive squamous cell carcinoma?Your Answer: 50%
Correct Answer: 5-10%
Explanation:In some instances, it may develop into an invasive squamous cell carcinoma.
Understanding Bowen’s Disease: A Precursor to Skin Cancer
Bowen’s disease is a type of skin condition that is considered a precursor to squamous cell carcinoma, a type of skin cancer. It is more commonly found in elderly patients and is characterized by red, scaly patches that are often 10-15 mm in size. These patches are slow-growing and typically occur on sun-exposed areas such as the head, neck, and lower limbs.
If left untreated, there is a 5-10% chance of developing invasive skin cancer. However, Bowen’s disease can often be diagnosed and managed in primary care if the diagnosis is clear or if it is a repeat episode. Treatment options include topical 5-fluorouracil, which is typically used twice daily for four weeks. This treatment often results in significant inflammation and erythema, so topical steroids are often given to control these side effects. Other management options include cryotherapy and excision.
In summary, understanding Bowen’s disease is important as it is a precursor to skin cancer. Early diagnosis and management can prevent the development of invasive skin cancer and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 172
Correct
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A 20-year-old student comes in with a 1 cm golden, crusted lesion on the border of her left lower lip. She reports that she had a similar episode before and that topical hydrogen peroxide did not help.
What would be the most appropriate course of action for management?Your Answer: Topical fusidic acid
Explanation:If hydrogen peroxide is not appropriate, topical fusidic acid can be used for impetigo.
Understanding Impetigo: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Impetigo is a common bacterial skin infection that is caused by either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. It can occur as a primary infection or as a complication of an existing skin condition such as eczema. Impetigo is most common in children, especially during warm weather. The infection can develop anywhere on the body, but it tends to occur on the face, flexures, and limbs not covered by clothing.
The infection spreads through direct contact with discharges from the scabs of an infected person. The bacteria invade the skin through minor abrasions and then spread to other sites by scratching. Infection is spread mainly by the hands, but indirect spread via toys, clothing, equipment, and the environment may occur. The incubation period is between 4 to 10 days.
Symptoms of impetigo include ‘golden’, crusted skin lesions typically found around the mouth. It is highly contagious, and children should be excluded from school until the lesions are crusted and healed or 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment.
Management of impetigo depends on the extent of the disease. Limited, localized disease can be treated with hydrogen peroxide 1% cream or topical antibiotic creams such as fusidic acid or mupirocin. MRSA is not susceptible to either fusidic acid or retapamulin, so topical mupirocin should be used in this situation. Extensive disease may require oral flucloxacillin or oral erythromycin if penicillin-allergic. The use of hydrogen peroxide 1% cream was recommended by NICE and Public Health England in 2020 to cut antibiotic resistance. The evidence base shows it is just as effective at treating non-bullous impetigo as a topical antibiotic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 173
Incorrect
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You see a 4-year-old girl who has had a fever for the past five days. Her mother reports her mouth looks more red and sore than usual. She also reports discomfort in her eyes.
On examination, you note a widespread non-vesicular rash and cervical lymphadenopathy.
What is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step?Your Answer: Refer to the on-call paediatric team
Correct Answer: Reassure
Explanation:Kawasaki Disease Treatment and Follow-Up
Patients diagnosed with Kawasaki disease typically require hospitalization for treatment with intravenous immunoglobulin and to monitor for potential myocardial events. Due to the risk of cardiac complications, follow-up echocardiograms are necessary to detect any coronary artery aneurysms. It is important to note that Kawasaki disease is not a notifiable disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 174
Incorrect
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A 39-year-old lady presents with a mild cellulitis of the hand. She has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medication. A finger prick blood glucose test shows a reading of 4.5 mmol/l. There are no complications and she appears to be in good health. You decide to prescribe flucloxacillin 500 mg qds. As per NICE guidelines, what is the standard duration for this course of antibiotics?
Your Answer: 3 days
Correct Answer: 10 to 14 days
Explanation:NICE Guidance on Cellulitis and Erysipelas Treatment
NICE has recently updated its guidance on the treatment of cellulitis and erysipelas with NG141. According to the new guidelines, Flucloxacillin 500mg qds is the first choice treatment for people over the age of 18. The recommended course of treatment is an oral course for 5 to 7 days. However, if a person is severely unwell or unable to take oral medication, a twice daily course of the intravenous antibiotic may be necessary. Based on clinical assessment, a longer course of up to 14 days may be needed. It is important to note that skin takes time to return to normal, and full resolution at 5 to 7 days is not expected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 175
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man has a well-demarcated, raised, tender, erythematous area on his left shin. It has appeared in the last 48 hours. His temperature is 38.5 °C. The left lower leg has evidence of varicose skin changes and excoriation.
What is the most likely causative organism?Your Answer: Pseudomonas
Correct Answer: Streptococcus
Explanation:Understanding the Causes of Cellulitis: Streptococcus, Staphylococcus, Herpes Simplex Virus, Pseudomonas, and Varicella Zoster Virus
Cellulitis is a common skin infection that is characterized by a red, tender area of skin associated with a fever. The most common pathogen causing cellulitis is streptococcus, which can enter the body through excoriated skin. Staphylococcus can also cause cellulitis, but it is less common than streptococcus. Herpes simplex virus typically causes cold sores or genital warts, and can be inoculated into abrasions, but this would produce a vesicular rash. Pseudomonas is not a common pathogen in cellulitis, but can occur following puncture wounds or in immunocompromised people. Varicella zoster virus causes Chickenpox and shingles, but neither of these descriptions are seen in cellulitis. Understanding the different causes of cellulitis can help with proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 176
Correct
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Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with onycholysis in elderly individuals?
Your Answer: Raynaud's disease
Explanation:Onycholysis can be caused by Raynaud’s disease or any condition that affects blood flow.
Understanding Onycholysis: Causes and Symptoms
Onycholysis is a condition that occurs when the nail plate separates from the nail bed. This can be caused by a variety of factors, including trauma from excessive manicuring, fungal infections, skin diseases like psoriasis and dermatitis, impaired circulation in the extremities, and systemic diseases like hyper- and hypothyroidism. In some cases, the cause of onycholysis may be unknown, or idiopathic.
Symptoms of onycholysis can include a visible gap between the nail plate and nail bed, as well as discoloration or thickening of the nail. In some cases, the affected nail may become brittle or break easily.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 177
Correct
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A 70-year-old ex-farmer has well-controlled congestive cardiac failure and mild dementia. He points to a hard horn-like lesion sticking up from his left pinna for about 0.5 cm. It has a slightly indurated fleshy base.
Select from the list the single most appropriate course of action.Your Answer: Urgent referral to secondary care
Explanation:Cutaneous Horns and the Risk of Squamous Cell Carcinoma
Cutaneous horns are hard, keratin-based growths that often occur on sun-damaged skin. Farmers and other outdoor workers are particularly at risk due to their increased sun exposure. While most cutaneous horns are benign, doctors should be cautious as they can be a sign of squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) at the base of the lesion. SCCs can metastasize, especially if they occur on the ear, so urgent referral for removal is necessary if an SCC is suspected.
Although most cutaneous horns are caused by viral warts or seborrheic keratosis, up to 20% of lesions can be a sign of premalignant actinic keratoses or frank malignancy. Therefore, it is important for doctors to carefully evaluate any cutaneous horn and consider the possibility of SCC. While current guidelines discourage GPs from excising lesions suspected to be SCCs, urgent referral for removal is necessary to prevent metastasis and ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 178
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man is diagnosed with actinic keratoses on his left cheek and prescribed fluorouracil cream. Two weeks later he presents as the skin where he is applying treatment has become red and sore. On examination there is no sign of weeping or blistering. What is the most appropriate action?
Your Answer: Stop fluorouracil cream + prescribe topical hydrocortisone
Correct Answer: Continue fluorouracil cream + review in 1 week
Explanation:Actinic keratoses, also known as solar keratoses, are skin lesions that develop due to prolonged exposure to the sun. These lesions are typically small, crusty, and scaly, and can appear in various colors such as pink, red, brown, or the same color as the skin. They are commonly found on sun-exposed areas like the temples of the head, and multiple lesions may be present.
To manage actinic keratoses, prevention of further risk is crucial, such as avoiding sun exposure and using sun cream. Treatment options include a 2 to 3 week course of fluorouracil cream, which may cause redness and inflammation. Topical hydrocortisone may be given to help settle the inflammation. Topical diclofenac is another option for mild AKs, with moderate efficacy and fewer side-effects. Topical imiquimod has shown good efficacy in trials. Cryotherapy and curettage and cautery are also available as treatment options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 179
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman comes to you with concerns about hair loss that she believes began after giving birth to her second child 10 months ago. She reports being in good health and not taking any medications. During your examination, you observe areas of hair loss on the back of her head. The skin appears normal, and you notice a few short, broken hairs at the edges of two of the patches. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Trichotillomania
Correct Answer: Alopecia areata
Explanation:Understanding Alopecia Areata
Alopecia areata is a condition that is believed to be caused by an autoimmune response, resulting in localized hair loss that is well-defined and demarcated. This condition is characterized by the presence of small, broken hairs that resemble exclamation marks at the edge of the hair loss. While hair regrowth occurs in about 50% of patients within a year, it eventually occurs in 80-90% of patients. In many cases, a careful explanation of the condition is sufficient for patients. However, there are several treatment options available, including topical or intralesional corticosteroids, topical minoxidil, phototherapy, dithranol, contact immunotherapy, and wigs. It is important to understand the causes and treatment options for alopecia areata to effectively manage this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 180
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of an itchy patch on her back that has been present for six months. She also experiences pins and needles in the same area. The patch is located over the border of her left scapula. Upon examination, the skin sensation seems normal, and there is a clearly defined hyperpigmented patch without any scaling.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Pityriasis versicolor
Correct Answer: Notalgia paraesthetica
Explanation:Notalgia paraesthetica is a condition that causes chronic itching or tingling on the medial border of the scapula. This can lead to the development of post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation due to repeated rubbing and scratching of the affected area. The exact cause of this sensory neuropathy is not fully understood.
Causes of Pruritus
Pruritus, commonly known as itching, can be caused by various underlying conditions. Liver disease, often associated with a history of alcohol excess, can present with stigmata of chronic liver disease such as spider naevi, bruising, palmar erythema, and gynaecomastia. Evidence of decompensation such as ascites, jaundice, and encephalopathy may also be present. Iron deficiency anaemia can cause pallor and other signs such as koilonychia, atrophic glossitis, post-cricoid webs, and angular stomatitis. Pruritus after a warm bath and a ruddy complexion may indicate polycythaemia. Gout and peptic ulcer disease can also cause itching. Chronic kidney disease may present with lethargy, pallor, oedema, weight gain, hypertension, lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly, hepatomegaly, and fatigue. Other causes of pruritus include hyper- and hypothyroidism, diabetes, pregnancy, senile pruritus, urticaria, and skin disorders such as eczema, scabies, psoriasis, and pityriasis rosea. It is important to identify the underlying cause of pruritus in order to provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 181
Incorrect
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You encounter a 35 year old woman during her routine medication review. She has chronic plaque psoriasis on her trunk and her repeat prescription includes emollients, a topical coal-tar preparation, and a potent topical steroid cream for use during flare-ups. What guidance should you provide her regarding self-care with potent topical steroids for her psoriasis?
Your Answer: Should not be used continuously on the same site for longer than 4 weeks; aim for at least 8 weeks break between courses
Correct Answer: Should not be used continuously on the same site for longer than 8 weeks; aim for at least 4 weeks break between courses
Explanation:According to NICE, it is not recommended to use potent topical steroids for psoriasis on the same area for more than 8 weeks without a break of at least 4 weeks between courses. For very potent topical steroids, continuous use should not exceed 4 weeks, and patients should aim for a break of at least 4 weeks between courses. Prolonged use can lead to irreversible skin atrophy and striae, systemic steroid side effects, or destabilization of psoriasis. To maintain control when not using topical steroids, other topical therapies such as coal tar or vitamin D analogues can be used.
Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can also affect the joints. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released guidelines for managing psoriasis and psoriatic arthropathy. For chronic plaque psoriasis, NICE recommends a stepwise approach starting with regular use of emollients to reduce scale loss and itching. First-line treatment involves applying a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, once daily in the morning and evening, for up to 4 weeks. If there is no improvement after 8 weeks, a vitamin D analogue twice daily can be used as second-line treatment. Third-line options include a potent corticosteroid applied twice daily for up to 4 weeks or a coal tar preparation applied once or twice daily. Phototherapy and systemic therapy are also options for managing psoriasis.
For scalp psoriasis, NICE recommends using a potent topical corticosteroid once daily for 4 weeks. If there is no improvement, a different formulation of the corticosteroid or a topical agent to remove adherent scale can be used before applying the corticosteroid. For face, flexural, and genital psoriasis, a mild or moderate potency corticosteroid applied once or twice daily for a maximum of 2 weeks is recommended.
When using topical steroids, it is important to be aware of potential side effects such as skin atrophy, striae, and rebound symptoms. The scalp, face, and flexures are particularly prone to steroid atrophy, so topical steroids should not be used for more than 1-2 weeks per month. Systemic side effects may occur when potent corticosteroids are used on large areas of the body. NICE recommends a 4-week break before starting another course of topical corticosteroids and using potent corticosteroids for no longer than 8 weeks at a time and very potent corticosteroids for no longer than 4 weeks at a time. Vitamin D analogues, such as calcipotriol, can be used long-term and tend to reduce the scale and thickness of plaques but not the redness. Dithranol and coal tar are other treatment options with their own unique mechanisms of action and potential adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 182
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old Caucasian woman comes in with a recent skin lesion on her forearm that has been there for 3 weeks. She mentions that she first noticed it after a minor injury to the area, and it has been growing rapidly since then. Upon examination, there is a 12mm raised, symmetrical nodule with a large keratinized center. The surrounding skin looks normal, and there are no other comparable lesions. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Molluscum contagiosum
Correct Answer: Keratoacanthoma
Explanation:Understanding Keratoacanthoma
Keratoacanthoma is a type of non-cancerous tumor that affects the epithelial cells. It is more commonly found in older individuals and is rare in younger people. The appearance of this tumor is often described as a volcano or crater, starting as a smooth dome-shaped papule that rapidly grows into a central crater filled with keratin. While spontaneous regression within three months is common, it is important to have the lesion removed as it can be difficult to distinguish from squamous cell carcinoma. Removal can also prevent scarring. It is important to be aware of the features of keratoacanthoma and seek medical attention if any suspicious growths are noticed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 183
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a vesicular rash that is extremely itchy and evenly spread over his arms, legs, elbows, shoulders, and buttocks. He reports that the rash appears and disappears, with periods of a few weeks when it is almost gone. He also experiences intermittent diarrhea, which has been attributed to irritable bowel syndrome. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Erythema nodosum
Correct Answer: Dermatitis herpetiformis
Explanation:Possible Coeliac Disease and Dermatitis Herpetiformis
The patient’s history of bowel symptoms suggests the possibility of undiagnosed coeliac disease, which may be linked to dermatitis herpetiformis. A gluten exclusion diet may help improve the rash, but dapsone may also be effective in treating it. Other potential causes of a vesicular rash include erythema multiforme, porphyria, and pemphigus/pemphigoid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 184
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old woman presents with a deterioration of her psoriasis.
She is known to suffer with chronic plaque psoriasis and in the past has suffered with extensive disease. On reviewing her notes she was recently started on a new tablet by her consultant psychiatrist.
Which if the following tablets is the most likely cause of her presentation?Your Answer: Fluoxetine
Correct Answer: Lithium
Explanation:Psoriasis Triggers and Medications
Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can be triggered or worsened by various factors. One of the triggers is a streptococcal infection, which can cause guttate psoriasis. Stress, cigarette smoking, and alcohol consumption are also known to be implicated in the development of psoriasis. In addition, certain medications have been identified as potential triggers, including lithium, indomethacin, chloroquine, NSAIDs, and beta-blockers. Among these medications, lithium is considered the most likely culprit. It is important for individuals with psoriasis to be aware of these triggers and to avoid them whenever possible to manage their condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 185
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents with a 2-year history of mild persistent erythema on her cheeks and nose, which worsens with spicy foods and hot drinks. She has noticed a recent worsening of her symptoms and is now 12 weeks pregnant. On examination, you note a centrofacial erythematous rash with papules, pustules, and a bulbous nose. The patient has no known medication allergies. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Topical ivermectin
Correct Answer: Refer to dermatology
Explanation:Patients who have developed rhinophyma as a result of rosacea should be referred to a dermatologist for further evaluation and treatment. Rhinophyma is a severe form of rosacea that affects the nasal soft tissues, causing nasal obstruction, disfigurement, and significant psychological distress. Only specialized care in secondary settings can provide the necessary assessment and management, which may include laser therapy, scalpel excision, electrocautery, or surgery.
Continuing with self-management measures is not recommended as the patient requires an escalation in treatment. However, lifestyle modifications remain an essential aspect of her management.
Prescribing oral doxycycline is not appropriate in this case as the patient is pregnant, and the medication is contraindicated.
Topical brimonidine is also not recommended as the manufacturer advises against its use during pregnancy due to limited information available. While it can provide temporary relief of flushing and erythema symptoms, it is not a suitable treatment option for rhinophyma.
Rosacea, also known as acne rosacea, is a skin condition that is chronic in nature and its cause is unknown. It typically affects the nose, cheeks, and forehead, and the first symptom is often flushing. Telangiectasia, which are small blood vessels that are visible on the skin, are common, and the condition can progress to persistent erythema with papules and pustules. Rhinophyma, a condition where the nose becomes enlarged and bulbous, can also occur. Ocular involvement, such as blepharitis, can also be present, and sunlight can exacerbate symptoms.
Management of rosacea depends on the severity of the symptoms. For mild symptoms, topical metronidazole may be used, while topical brimonidine gel may be considered for patients with predominant flushing but limited telangiectasia. More severe cases may require systemic antibiotics such as oxytetracycline. It is recommended that patients apply a high-factor sunscreen daily and use camouflage creams to conceal redness. Laser therapy may be appropriate for patients with prominent telangiectasia, and those with rhinophyma should be referred to a dermatologist for further management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 186
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man visits his GP urgently due to a recent increase in his INR levels. He has been on Warfarin for a decade and has consistently maintained an INR reading between 2 and 3. However, his most recent blood test showed an INR of 6.2. He reports receiving a topical medication for a facial rash at a walk-in centre two weeks ago.
What is the most probable treatment that led to the elevation in his INR?Your Answer: Clotrimazole
Correct Answer: Mupirocin
Explanation:Miconazole Oral Gel and Warfarin Interaction
Miconazole oral gel, commonly known as Daktarin, is often used to treat candidal infections of the mouth and face. However, it can interact with the anticoagulant drug warfarin, which is metabolized by the CYP2C9 enzyme. Miconazole inhibits this enzyme, leading to increased levels of warfarin in the bloodstream and potentially causing bleeding. Other antimicrobial agents like Aciclovir, Clotrimazole, Fucidin, and Mupirocin can be used to treat infected rashes on the face, but they do not have significant interactions with warfarin. As a core competence of clinical management, safe prescribing and medicines management approaches should include awareness of common drug interactions, especially those that can affect patient safety when taking warfarin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 187
Incorrect
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John is a 35-year-old man with a body mass index of 32 kg/m² who has presented with a recurrence of boils in his axilla. He has had this numerous times before requiring antibiotics and has even had an incision and drainage on one occasion. He also described one episode of such boils on his vulva a few years ago. On this occasion, you notice large red lumps in his right axilla. There is some scarring of the skin and you also notice a little hole with pus discharging out of it.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Carbuncles
Correct Answer: Hidradenitis suppurativa
Explanation:The development of sinus tracts and fistulas can be a possible complication of hidradenitis suppurativa.
Understanding Hidradenitis Suppurativa
Hidradenitis suppurativa (HS) is a chronic skin disorder that causes painful and inflammatory nodules, pustules, sinus tracts, and scars in intertriginous areas. It is more common in women and typically affects adults under 40. HS occurs due to chronic inflammatory occlusion of folliculopilosebaceous units that obstructs the apocrine glands and prevents keratinocytes from properly shedding from the follicular epithelium. Risk factors include family history, smoking, obesity, diabetes, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and mechanical stretching of skin.
The initial manifestation of HS involves recurrent, painful, and inflamed nodules that can rupture and discharge purulent, malodorous material. The axilla is the most common site, but it can also occur in other areas such as the inguinal, inner thighs, perineal and perianal, and inframammary skin. Coalescence of nodules can result in plaques, sinus tracts, and ‘rope-like’ scarring. Diagnosis is made clinically.
Management of HS involves encouraging good hygiene and loose-fitting clothing, smoking cessation, and weight loss in obese patients. Acute flares can be treated with steroids or antibiotics, and surgical incision and drainage may be needed in some cases. Long-term disease can be treated with topical or oral antibiotics. Lumps that persist despite prolonged medical treatment are excised surgically. Complications of HS include sinus tracts, fistulas, comedones, scarring, contractures, and lymphatic obstruction.
HS can be differentiated from acne vulgaris, follicular pyodermas, and granuloma inguinale. Acne vulgaris primarily occurs on the face, upper chest, and back, whereas HS primarily involves intertriginous areas. Follicular pyodermas are transient and respond rapidly to antibiotics, unlike HS. Granuloma inguinale is a sexually transmitted infection caused by Klebsiella granulomatis and presents as an enlarging ulcer that bleeds in the inguinal area.
Overall, understanding HS is crucial for early diagnosis and effective management of this chronic and painful skin disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 188
Incorrect
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A couple approaches you with concerns about their toddler's birthmark. They notice a dark red patch on their child's cheek that appears irregular. After examination, you diagnose it as a port wine stain. What should the parents know about this type of birthmark?
Your Answer: Treatment is surgical excision
Correct Answer: Tend to darken over time
Explanation:Understanding Port Wine Stains
Port wine stains are a type of birthmark that are characterized by their deep red or purple color. Unlike other vascular birthmarks, such as salmon patches and strawberry hemangiomas, port wine stains do not go away on their own and may even become more prominent over time. These birthmarks are typically unilateral, meaning they only appear on one side of the body.
Fortunately, there are treatment options available for those who wish to reduce the appearance of port wine stains. Cosmetic camouflage can be used to cover up the birthmark, while laser therapy is another option that can help to fade the color and reduce the raised appearance of the stain. However, it’s important to note that multiple laser sessions may be required to achieve the desired results. Overall, understanding port wine stains and the available treatment options can help individuals make informed decisions about managing these birthmarks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 189
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old obese woman presents with a leg ulcer. This followed a superficial traumatic abrasion a month ago that never healed. She has a past history of ischaemic heart disease. Examination reveals a 5cm ulcer over the left shin; it is superficial with an irregular border and slough in the base. There is mild pitting oedema and haemosiderin deposition bilaterally on the legs. The ipsilateral foot pulses are weakly palpable.
Which diagnosis fits best with this clinical picture?
Your Answer: Neuropathic ulcer
Correct Answer: Venous ulcer
Explanation:Differentiating Venous Ulcers from Other Types of Leg Ulcers
Venous leg ulcers are a common type of leg ulcer in the UK, accounting for around 3% of all new cases attending dermatology clinics. These ulcers are typically large and superficial, and are accompanied by signs of chronic venous insufficiency. This condition leads to venous stasis and increased capillary pressure, resulting in secondary skin changes whose mechanisms are not well understood. Predisposing factors to venous insufficiency include obesity, history of varicose veins, leg trauma, and deep vein thrombosis.
In contrast, arterial ulcers are typically small and punched out, occurring most commonly over a bony prominence such as a malleolus or on the toes. Bowen’s disease, a form of squamous cell carcinoma in situ, commonly occurs on the legs in women but would not reach a size of 5cm in only a month. Neuropathic ulcers, on the other hand, occur on the feet in the context of peripheral neuropathy. Vasculitic ulcers are also a possibility, but there are no clues in the history or findings to suggest their presence.
To differentiate venous ulcers from other types of leg ulcers, it is important to look for corroborating signs of chronic venous insufficiency, such as peripheral edema, venous eczema, haemosiderin deposition, lipodermatosclerosis, and atrophie blanche. Workup should include measurement of the ankle brachial pressure indices (ABPIs) to exclude coexistent arterial disease. If the ABPIs are satisfactory, the cornerstone of management is compression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 190
Incorrect
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What is a risk factor for developing squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) of the skin?
Your Answer: Simple hydrocarbons
Correct Answer: Acute ulceration
Explanation:Skin Damage and Other Factors Predisposing to Cancer
Certain types of skin damage, such as burns, scarring, ulceration, radiation, and chemical damage, can increase the risk of developing cancer. In addition, exposure to polycyclic hydrocarbons and coal by-products, which are found in certain situations, particularly in the United Kingdom, can also increase the risk of cancer. For example, chimney sweeps in the past were at a higher risk of developing scrotal cancer due to exposure to these substances.
Lichen sclerosis is another factor that can predispose individuals to cancer, specifically vulval cancer. Solar keratoses are also a common cause of cancer. However, psoriasis and lichen planus are not considered predisposing factors. While there is some controversy surrounding the risk of lichen planus, the consensus view is that it probably doesn’t increase the risk of squamous cell carcinoma (SCC), except for the ulcerative form of oral lichen planus, which may have an increased risk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 191
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents to her GP for the second time with complaints of multiple bites on her legs, three weeks after returning from a beach holiday in The Gambia. She has a medical history of type 1 diabetes that is well managed with basal bolus insulin. Upon examination, she has several ulcers on both lower legs that are causing her significant itching. The previous physician ordered the following blood tests:
- Haemoglobin: 120 g/L (115-160)
- White cell count: 7.0 ×109/L (4-10)
- Platelets: 182 ×109/lL (150-400)
- Sodium: 138 mmol/L (134-143)
- Potassium: 4.3 mmol/L (3.5-5)
- Creatinine: 115 μ/L (60-120)
- CRP: 25 (<10)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Mycobacterium marinum
Correct Answer: Sandfly bites
Explanation:Sandfly Bites and Cutaneous Leishmaniasis
The location of the ulcers on the patient’s skin, especially after returning from a beach holiday, is a common sign of sandfly bites that can lead to cutaneous leishmaniasis. The slight increase in CRP levels indicates a localized skin infection, which usually heals on its own within a few weeks. However, systemic leishmaniasis requires treatment with antimony-based compounds like sodium stibogluconate. Therefore, it is essential to identify the cause of the ulcers and seek appropriate medical attention to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 192
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old male presents with a non-healing ulcer at the site of a flame burn injury on his foot 7 years ago. The burn injury was managed with dressings and skin grafting but has never healed completely. Over the last 4 months, he has suffered from recurrent bleeding and ulceration at this site.
Upon examination, there is extensive scarring on the dorsal aspect of his foot, and there is a 35mm ulcerated area with associated tenderness.
The histopathology report confirmed the presence of malignant disease, describing the presence of keratin pearls. Imaging showed evidence of metastases.
What is the most likely type of malignancy in this case?Your Answer: Sarcoma
Correct Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)
Explanation:Understanding Squamous Cell Carcinoma of the Skin
Squamous cell carcinoma is a type of skin cancer that is commonly seen in individuals who have had excessive exposure to sunlight or have undergone psoralen UVA therapy. Other risk factors include actinic keratoses and Bowen’s disease, immunosuppression, smoking, long-standing leg ulcers, and genetic conditions. While metastases are rare, they may occur in 2-5% of patients.
This type of cancer typically appears on sun-exposed areas such as the head and neck or dorsum of the hands and arms. The nodules are painless, rapidly expanding, and may have a cauliflower-like appearance. Bleeding may also occur in some cases.
Treatment for squamous cell carcinoma involves surgical excision with margins of 4mm for lesions less than 20 mm in diameter and 6mm for larger tumors. Mohs micrographic surgery may be used in high-risk patients and in cosmetically important sites. Prognosis is generally good for well-differentiated tumors that are less than 20 mm in diameter and less than 2 mm deep. However, poorly differentiated tumors that are larger than 20 mm in diameter and deeper than 4mm, as well as those associated with immunosuppression, have a poorer prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 193
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old woman is experiencing a skin issue and is curious if using a sunbed could alleviate it. Identify the sole condition that can be positively impacted by exposure to sunlight.
Your Answer: Discoid lupus erythematosus
Correct Answer: Psoriasis
Explanation:The Dangers and Benefits of UV Light Therapy for Skin Conditions
UV light therapy, including UVB and PUVA, can effectively treat psoriasis, atopic eczema, cutaneous T-cell lymphoma, and even polymorphic light eruption. However, sunlight can worsen conditions like lupus erythematosus and rosacea, and lead to skin ageing and cancer over time. Tanning, whether from the sun or a sunbed, should only be used under medical supervision for phototherapy. It’s important to weigh the potential benefits and risks of UV light therapy for skin conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 194
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with complaints of facial acne. On physical examination, it is noted that the majority of the lesions are closed and open comedones with very few inflamed lesions. What would be the most appropriate initial treatment?
Your Answer: Topical clindamycin
Correct Answer: Adapalene
Explanation:Treatment Options for Mild-to-Moderate Comedonal Acne
Comedonal acne, characterized by blackheads and whiteheads, can be effectively treated with topical preparations. The first-line treatment is topical retinoids such as adapalene, tretinoin, or isotretinoin, followed by azelaic acid or benzoyl peroxide. While some initial redness and skin peeling may occur, this typically subsides over time. If excessive irritation occurs, treatment should be reduced or suspended until the reaction subsides. Adapalene is the preferred option due to its low irritation potential. Treatment should be applied once daily to all affected areas and continued until no new lesions appear. Topical retinoids are not recommended during pregnancy, and women of childbearing age should use effective contraception.
Topical retinoids work by normalizing follicular keratinization, promoting comedone drainage, and inhibiting new comedone formation. They are also effective at treating inflammation by inhibiting microcomedone formation, as supported by evidence from placebo-controlled trials. In severe cases, manual extraction of sebum using a comedone extractor may be necessary, along with benzoyl peroxide for inflamed lesions. Topical antibiotics are ineffective against non-inflamed lesions, while systemic antibiotics are used for inflamed lesions and systemic retinoids for severe acne or treatment failures.
Managing Comedonal Acne: Topical Treatment Options and Considerations
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 195
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman comes in for pre-employment evaluation as she is starting work as a nurse on a pediatric ward next month. She has received all her childhood and school-aged vaccinations but cannot recall if she had Chickenpox as a child.
What vaccine is most likely required before she can start her new job?Your Answer: Diphtheria, pertussis and tetanus booster
Correct Answer: Varicella vaccine
Explanation:For healthcare workers who do not have natural immunity to varicella, the most appropriate course of action is to administer a varicella vaccine. While a diphtheria, pertussis, and tetanus booster may be recommended by the employer, it is not necessary in this case as the patient has a history of vaccination. Hepatitis A vaccine is typically only given to those who travel and is not routinely required for employment. While an influenza vaccine may be suggested by the employer, the patient’s most pressing need is likely the varicella vaccine. While a measles, mumps, and rubella vaccination may be considered, it is not the most urgent vaccination needed for employment.
Varicella-Zoster Vaccination: Protection Against Chickenpox and Shingles
Varicella-zoster is a herpesvirus that causes Chickenpox and shingles. There are two types of vaccines available to protect against these infections. The first type is a live attenuated vaccine that prevents primary varicella infection or Chickenpox. This vaccine is recommended for healthcare workers who are not immune to VZV and for individuals who are in close contact with immunocompromised patients.
The second type of vaccine is designed to reduce the incidence of herpes zoster or shingles caused by reactivation of VZV. This live-attenuated vaccine is given subcutaneously and is offered to patients aged 70-79 years. The vaccine is also available as a catch-up campaign for those who missed out on their vaccinations in the previous two years of the program. However, the shingles vaccine is not available on the NHS to anyone aged 80 and over because it seems to be less effective in this age group.
The main contraindication for both vaccines is immunosuppression. Side effects of the vaccines include injection site reactions, and less than 1 in 10,000 individuals may develop Chickenpox. It is important to note that vaccination is the most effective way to prevent varicella-zoster infections and their complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 196
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner for a consultation. She has just been diagnosed with Herpes Simplex Virus Type 1 and has developed a rash that is consistent with erythema multiforme.
What is the most probable finding in this patient?Your Answer: Absent rash from the the palms and soles
Correct Answer: Target lesions with a central blister
Explanation:Understanding Erythema Multiforme: Symptoms and Characteristics
Erythema multiforme is a self-limiting skin condition that is characterized by sharply demarcated, round, red or pink macules that evolve into papular plaques. The lesions typically develop a central blister or crust and a surrounding paler pink ring that is raised due to oedema, creating the classic target appearance. However, atypical targets may also occur, with just two zones and/or an indistinct border. Mucous membranes may also be involved.
The most common cause of erythema multiforme is Herpes Simplex Virus Type 1, followed by Mycoplasma, although many other viruses have been reported to cause the eruption. Drugs are an infrequent cause, and conditions such as Stevens-Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis are now considered distinct from erythema multiforme.
Unlike monomorphic eruptions, the lesions in erythema multiforme are polymorphous, meaning they take on many forms. The rash may also involve the palms and soles, although this is not always the case. While there may be a mild itch associated with the condition, intense itching is more commonly seen in Chickenpox in children.
Lesions in erythema multiforme typically start on the dorsal surfaces of the hands and feet and spread along the limbs towards the trunk. The condition usually resolves without complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 197
Incorrect
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Which of the following side-effects is the least acknowledged by patients who are prescribed isotretinoin?
Your Answer: Teratogenicity
Correct Answer: Hypertension
Explanation:Isotretinoin can cause various adverse effects, including teratogenicity, which requires females to take contraception. Other side effects may include low mood, dry eyes and lips, raised triglycerides, hair thinning, and nosebleeds. However, hypertension is not listed as a side effect in the British National Formulary.
Understanding Isotretinoin and its Adverse Effects
Isotretinoin is a type of oral retinoid that is commonly used to treat severe acne. It has been found to be effective in providing long-term remission or cure for two-thirds of patients who undergo a course of treatment. However, it is important to note that isotretinoin also comes with several adverse effects that patients should be aware of.
One of the most significant adverse effects of isotretinoin is its teratogenicity, which means that it can cause birth defects in fetuses if taken during pregnancy. For this reason, females who are taking isotretinoin should ideally be using two forms of contraception to prevent pregnancy. Other common adverse effects of isotretinoin include dry skin, eyes, and lips/mouth, low mood, raised triglycerides, hair thinning, nosebleeds, and photosensitivity.
It is also worth noting that there is some controversy surrounding the potential link between isotretinoin and depression or other psychiatric problems. While these adverse effects are listed in the British National Formulary (BNF), further research is needed to fully understand the relationship between isotretinoin and mental health.
Overall, while isotretinoin can be an effective treatment for severe acne, patients should be aware of its potential adverse effects and discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 198
Correct
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You see a 49-year-old man in your afternoon clinic who has a history of flexural psoriasis. He reports a recent flare-up over the past 2 weeks, with both axillae and groin involvement. The patient is not currently on any treatment and has no known drug allergies.
What would be the most suitable initial therapy for this patient's psoriasis?Your Answer: Mild or moderate potency topical corticosteroid applied once or twice daily
Explanation:For the treatment of flexural psoriasis, the correct option is to use a mild or moderate potency topical corticosteroid applied once or twice daily. This is because the skin in flexural areas is thinner and more sensitive to steroids compared to other areas. The affected areas in flexural psoriasis are the groin, genital region, axillae, inframammary folds, abdominal folds, sacral and gluteal cleft. In this case, the patient has axillary psoriasis, and the treatment should begin with a mild or moderate potency corticosteroid for up to two weeks. If there is a good response, repeated short courses of topical corticosteroids may be used to maintain disease control. Potent topical corticosteroids are not advisable for flexural regions, and the use of Vitamin D preparations is not supported by evidence. If there is ongoing treatment failure, we should consider an alternative diagnosis and refer the patient to a dermatologist who may consider calcineurin inhibitors as a second-line treatment. We should also advise our patients to use emollients regularly and provide appropriate lifestyle advice.
Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can also affect the joints. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released guidelines for managing psoriasis and psoriatic arthropathy. For chronic plaque psoriasis, NICE recommends a stepwise approach starting with regular use of emollients to reduce scale loss and itching. First-line treatment involves applying a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, once daily in the morning and evening, for up to 4 weeks. If there is no improvement after 8 weeks, a vitamin D analogue twice daily can be used as second-line treatment. Third-line options include a potent corticosteroid applied twice daily for up to 4 weeks or a coal tar preparation applied once or twice daily. Phototherapy and systemic therapy are also options for managing psoriasis.
For scalp psoriasis, NICE recommends using a potent topical corticosteroid once daily for 4 weeks. If there is no improvement, a different formulation of the corticosteroid or a topical agent to remove adherent scale can be used before applying the corticosteroid. For face, flexural, and genital psoriasis, a mild or moderate potency corticosteroid applied once or twice daily for a maximum of 2 weeks is recommended.
When using topical steroids, it is important to be aware of potential side effects such as skin atrophy, striae, and rebound symptoms. The scalp, face, and flexures are particularly prone to steroid atrophy, so topical steroids should not be used for more than 1-2 weeks per month. Systemic side effects may occur when potent corticosteroids are used on large areas of the body. NICE recommends a 4-week break before starting another course of topical corticosteroids and using potent corticosteroids for no longer than 8 weeks at a time and very potent corticosteroids for no longer than 4 weeks at a time. Vitamin D analogues, such as calcipotriol, can be used long-term and tend to reduce the scale and thickness of plaques but not the redness. Dithranol and coal tar are other treatment options with their own unique mechanisms of action and potential adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 199
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old female has just come back from a year overseas. She volunteered in a school in South America for 4 months and then went on a backpacking trip. She has recently noticed numerous itchy bumps all over her body, including her arms, legs, and torso. Despite the itchiness, she is in good health.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Schistosomiasis
Correct Answer: Bed bugs
Explanation:If someone has intensely itchy bumps on their arms, torso, or legs, it could be a sign of a bed bug infestation. This is especially true if the person has recently traveled and may have brought the bed bugs back with them. Dealing with a bed bug infestation can be challenging and may require the services of a pest control professional.
While scabies can also cause itching, it typically presents differently with less discrete bumps and is more likely to occur in specific areas such as the burrows of fingers. Schistosomiasis is more likely to cause gut or urinary symptoms, and while skin symptoms can occur, they are typically in the form of a papular rash and accompanied by other symptoms. Leishmaniasis can cause skin manifestations, but it is more likely to present as a single ulcer and is not typically associated with intense itching. There are no other indications to suggest dermatitis herpetiformis.
Dealing with Bed Bugs: Symptoms, Treatment, and Prevention
Bed bugs are a type of insect that can cause a range of clinical problems, including itchy skin rashes, bites, and allergic reactions. Infestation with Cimex hemipterus is the primary cause of these symptoms. In recent years, bed bug infestations have become increasingly common in the UK, and they can be challenging to eradicate. These insects thrive in mattresses and fabrics, making them difficult to detect and eliminate.
Topical hydrocortisone can help control the itch. However, the definitive treatment for bed bugs is through a pest management company that can fumigate your home. This process can be costly, but it is the most effective way to eliminate bed bugs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 200
Incorrect
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A 25 year old woman presents to you with worries about a lesion on the dorsal side of her left hand that has grown in size over the last six months. She reports that it disappeared during the summer but has now reappeared. The lesion is asymptomatic. On examination, you observe an annular plaque without any scaling. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Erythema chronic migrans
Correct Answer: Granuloma annulare
Explanation:A common presentation of granuloma annulare involves the development of circular lesions on the skin. In contrast, tinea often presents as a rash with scales.
Understanding Granuloma Annulare
Granuloma annulare is a skin condition characterized by papular lesions that are slightly hyperpigmented and depressed in the center. These lesions typically appear on the dorsal surfaces of the hands and feet, as well as on the extensor aspects of the arms and legs. While there have been associations proposed between granuloma annulare and conditions such as diabetes mellitus, the evidence for these links is weak.
Despite the lack of clear associations with other conditions, granuloma annulare can still be a frustrating and uncomfortable condition for those who experience it. The lesions can be unsightly and may cause itching or discomfort. Treatment options for granuloma annulare include topical or oral medications, as well as light therapy in some cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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