00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 32-year-old man presents with visual issues. He has recently developed a blind...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents with visual issues. He has recently developed a blind spot in the visual field of his left eye. The problem appeared overnight and has worsened slightly since then. He has also experienced mild pain behind his left eye, which intensifies when he moves it. He has noticed that colors, particularly red, appear washed-out. When he covers his left eye, his right eye's vision seems normal. He has been feeling generally lethargic for the past few days but is otherwise healthy. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Retinal detachment

      Correct Answer: Optic neuritis

      Explanation:

      Optic neuritis, characterized by visual loss, eye pain, and red desaturation, is a typical indication of multiple sclerosis (MS) and is often the first symptom. Early MS may also cause lethargy, which is a nonspecific symptom.

      It is highly unlikely for a 34-year-old to have temporal arteritis.

      Understanding Optic Neuritis: Causes, Features, Investigation, Management, and Prognosis

      Optic neuritis is a condition that causes a decrease in visual acuity in one eye over a period of hours or days. It is often associated with multiple sclerosis, diabetes, or syphilis. Other features of optic neuritis include poor discrimination of colors, pain that worsens with eye movement, relative afferent pupillary defect, and central scotoma.

      To diagnose optic neuritis, an MRI of the brain and orbits with gadolinium contrast is usually performed. High-dose steroids are the primary treatment for optic neuritis, and recovery typically takes 4-6 weeks.

      The prognosis for optic neuritis is dependent on the number of white-matter lesions found on an MRI. If there are more than three lesions, the five-year risk of developing multiple sclerosis is approximately 50%. Understanding the causes, features, investigation, management, and prognosis of optic neuritis is crucial for early diagnosis and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      179.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 20-year-old female comes in for a follow-up appointment. She had a Nexplanon...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old female comes in for a follow-up appointment. She had a Nexplanon implanted six months ago but has been experiencing light spotting on approximately 50% of days. Her medical history includes a first trimester abortion two years ago, but otherwise, she has no significant medical issues. A vaginal examination reveals no abnormalities, and she recently tested negative for sexually transmitted infections. What is the best course of action to take?

      Your Answer: Prescribe a 3 month course of a progesterone-only pill

      Correct Answer: Prescribe a 3 month course of a combined oral contraceptive pill

      Explanation:

      A cervical smear is not a diagnostic test and should only be conducted as a part of a screening program. An 18-year-old’s risk of cervical cancer is already low, and a normal vaginal examination can further reduce it.

      If controlling bleeding is the goal, the combined oral contraceptive pill is more effective than the progesterone-only pill.

      Implanon and Nexplanon are both subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucous. Nexplanon is an updated version of Implanon with a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It doesn’t contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a history of thromboembolism or migraines. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraception is required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1-5 of the menstrual cycle.

      The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a different method or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment. Contraindications include ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, meaning it represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      69.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 68-year-old man with stable chronic renal impairment has routine blood tests and...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man with stable chronic renal impairment has routine blood tests and urine testing for proteinuria. The results show an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) of 42 ml/min/1.73m2 and an albumin : creatinine ratio (ACR) of 1.3 mg/mmol.
      According to NICE guidance, select the optimal clinical blood pressure in this patient.

      Your Answer: < 130/80 mmHg

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Managing Blood Pressure in Chronic Kidney Disease Patients

      According to NICE guidance, patients with chronic kidney disease should aim for a target blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg or less if they do not have proteinuria. However, if they have an albumin : creatinine ratio (ACR) of 70 mg/mmol or more, the target should be 130/80 mmHg or less.

      For those with chronic kidney disease and diabetes with an ACR of 3 mg/mmol or more, or hypertension with an ACR of 30 mg/mmol or more, or an ACR of 70 mg/mmol or more (regardless of hypertension or cardiovascular disease), an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor or angiotensin-II receptor antagonist should be used.

      It is important to note that microalbuminuria is defined as an ACR > 2.5 mg/mmol (men) or > 3.5 mg/mmol (women), while proteinuria is defined as an ACR > 30 mg/mmol. Without knowing if the patient is hypertensive, it is unclear if they meet the criteria for medication use. Proper management of blood pressure is crucial in the care of patients with chronic kidney disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      47.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What is the correct information about oseltamivir? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct information about oseltamivir?

      Your Answer: It is a haemaglutinase inhibitor

      Correct Answer: It is administered via an inhaler

      Explanation:

      Oseltamivir (Tamiflu) as an Antiviral for influenza Treatment

      Oseltamivir (Tamiflu) is an antiviral medication that works by inhibiting the enzyme neuraminidase, which slows down viral replication instead of directly killing the virus particle. This mechanism is crucial in allowing the body’s immune system to combat the virus effectively. Unlike zanamivir (Relenza), which is inhaled, oseltamivir is administered orally. However, the drug must be given as early as possible after the development of flu symptoms, preferably within 48 hours, as viral replication is rapid.

      In summary, oseltamivir is an effective treatment for influenza, but it must be administered within 48 hours of symptom onset to be effective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      24.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 42-year-old man with a diagnosis of hypogonadotropic hypogonadism doesn't wish to undergo...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man with a diagnosis of hypogonadotropic hypogonadism doesn't wish to undergo fertility treatment currently. What is the most suitable course of treatment in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Regular testosterone injections

      Explanation:

      Options for Testosterone Replacement Therapy

      Testosterone replacement therapy is a common treatment for men with low testosterone levels. There are several options available, including testosterone undecanoate for oral use, injections, implants, patches, and gels. However, intramuscular depot preparations of testosterone esters are preferred for replacement therapy, according to the British National Formulary. One long-acting injectable formulation of testosterone undecanoate needs to be used only every 10–14 weeks.

      Regular injections of human chorionic gonadotrophin and pulsatile subcutaneous administration of gonadotrophin-releasing hormone (GnRH) are not recommended for testosterone replacement therapy. While chorionic gonadotrophin has been used in delayed puberty in males, it has little advantage over testosterone. GnRH stimulates the release of FSH and LH from the anterior pituitary in normal subjects and is used to check whether the pituitary gland can produce LH and FSH in the correct levels.

      Cyproterone acetate is an anti-androgen and is not used for testosterone replacement therapy. Regular injections of human menopausal gonadotrophin (HMG) have been replaced by recombinant gonadotrophins in fertility treatments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      43
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following conditions is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner?

      Your Answer: Adult polycystic disease

      Correct Answer: Friedreich's ataxia

      Explanation:

      Metabolic conditions are typically inherited in an autosomal recessive manner, with the exception of inherited ataxias. On the other hand, structural conditions are often inherited in an autosomal dominant manner, although there are exceptions such as Gilbert’s syndrome and hyperlipidemia type II.

      Autosomal recessive conditions are often referred to as metabolic conditions, while autosomal dominant conditions are considered structural. However, there are notable exceptions to this rule. For example, some metabolic conditions like Hunter’s and G6PD are X-linked recessive, while some structural conditions like ataxia telangiectasia and Friedreich’s ataxia are autosomal recessive.

      Autosomal recessive conditions occur when an individual inherits two copies of a mutated gene, one from each parent. Some examples of autosomal recessive conditions include albinism, cystic fibrosis, sickle cell anemia, and Wilson’s disease. These conditions can affect various systems in the body, including metabolism, blood, and the nervous system. It is important to note that some conditions, such as Gilbert’s syndrome, are still a matter of debate and may be listed as autosomal dominant in some textbooks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 72-year-old man with end-stage lung cancer is being evaluated. He is presently...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man with end-stage lung cancer is being evaluated. He is presently on MST 60 mg bd to manage his pain. Due to his inability to take oral medications, it has been decided to initiate a syringe driver. What would be the appropriate dosage of diamorphine to prescribe for the syringe driver?

      Your Answer: 40 mg

      Explanation:

      Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects include nausea, drowsiness, and constipation, which are usually transient but may persist. Denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain in addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      32
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - You are requested to evaluate an elderly patient with advanced esophageal cancer. The...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to evaluate an elderly patient with advanced esophageal cancer. The patient has metastatic cancer and is receiving palliative care with home visits. The patient reports increasing trouble in swallowing over the past few weeks, which is now hindering their ability to consume food properly. The patient describes the feeling of food getting stuck while swallowing. There is no pain while swallowing. What is the most suitable treatment to alleviate these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Dexamethasone

      Correct Answer: Nifedipine

      Explanation:

      Managing Dysphagia in Palliative Care

      When managing dysphagia in a palliative care setting, it is crucial to identify the underlying cause of the condition. Depending on the cause, different treatments may be necessary. For instance, a physical obstruction caused by a tumour may require a corticosteroid such as dexamethasone, while oesophageal spasm may respond to a muscle relaxant like nifedipine or baclofen.

      In the case of a patient with oesophageal cancer who experiences progressive difficulty in swallowing and food getting stuck on the way down, the most likely cause is a gradually enlarging tumour mass causing obstruction and progressive dysphagia. In this scenario, dexamethasone is the most appropriate treatment to prescribe.

      It is worth noting that oesophageal spasm typically causes odynophagia in addition to dysphagia. Therefore, a careful assessment of the patient’s symptoms and medical history is necessary to determine the most effective treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      25.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old female patient visits your GP clinic with a history of psoriasis...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female patient visits your GP clinic with a history of psoriasis and an abnormality in her nails. Although it is not causing her any discomfort, she wants to know if any treatment is necessary. Upon examination, you diagnose her with mild nail psoriasis. What is your plan for managing this condition?

      Your Answer: Prescribe a low dose topical steroid to use

      Correct Answer: No treatment required

      Explanation:

      If nail psoriasis is mild and not causing any distress or cosmetic concerns for the patient, NICE recommends that treatment is not necessary. Topical treatments such as tar, emollients, or low dose steroids are not effective for nail disease. Urgent referral to dermatology is not needed for mild cases that do not cause distress. The best course of action is to monitor the condition and offer the patient the option to return if it worsens. Therefore, no treatment is required in this case.

      Psoriasis can cause changes in the nails of both fingers and toes. These changes do not necessarily indicate the severity of psoriasis, but they are often associated with psoriatic arthropathy. In fact, around 80-90% of patients with psoriatic arthropathy experience nail changes. Some of the nail changes that may occur in psoriasis include pitting, onycholysis (separation of the nail from the nail bed), subungual hyperkeratosis, and even loss of the nail. It is important to note that these changes can be distressing for patients and may require medical attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - You are evaluating a 32-year-old woman who has been experiencing recurrent issues with...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 32-year-old woman who has been experiencing recurrent issues with hand dermatitis for the past few years. Despite trying various topical treatments, she has not found relief and has been referred to the dermatologists by a colleague. During your conversation, you discover that she has been washing her hands frequently since she was a teenager, and if she doesn't wash them, she feels anxious and uptight. Although washing her hands reduces her anxiety, she finds the need to do so distressing and unpleasant. She can spend up to two hours each day washing her hands. Despite attempting to resist hand-washing in the past, she has been unable to do so. She acknowledges that her behavior is excessive and unnecessary but cannot seem to stop. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Psychotic disorder

      Correct Answer: Phobic disorder

      Explanation:

      Understanding Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)

      Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is a mental health condition characterized by obsessions and compulsions. Obsessions are repetitive, intrusive, and distressing thoughts, images, or impulses that the patient knows are their own but cannot resist. Compulsions are repetitive behaviors that the patient recognizes as unnecessary but feels compelled to perform to relieve the anxiety associated with their obsessions. The most common obsession in OCD is contamination, while the most common compulsion is handwashing.

      Body dysmorphic syndrome is another condition that causes preoccupation and distress over minor or imagined physical defects. Depression and anxiety often coexist with OCD, but in some cases, OCD can be the primary diagnosis.

      Phobias, on the other hand, are specific fears that cause anxiety and avoidance of situations where the feared stimulus may be encountered. Phobias related to germs and illness are not uncommon.

      It is important to note that OCD is different from psychotic disorders, as patients with OCD recognize that the drive to perform their compulsions is their own and not due to an external force. Delusions of control and other psychotic phenomena are not typically present in OCD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      6.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Eyes And Vision (0/1) 0%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (0/1) 0%
Kidney And Urology (0/1) 0%
Population Health (0/1) 0%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Children And Young People (0/1) 0%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (1/1) 100%
End Of Life (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Mental Health (0/1) 0%
Passmed