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Question 1
Correct
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A mother brings her 6-month-old baby boy to your general practice, as he was diagnosed with DiGeorge syndrome at birth. She was informed that one of the consequences of this condition is the failure of thymus development, which can impact her baby's blood cells. Specifically, which type of blood cell will be affected?
Your Answer: T lymphocytes
Explanation:The correct answer is T lymphocytes, as the thymus plays a role in their maturation. DiGeorge syndrome is caused by a microdeletion on chromosome 22, resulting in the failure of development of the third and fourth pharyngeal arches. The syndrome is characterized by cardiac abnormalities, abnormal facies, thymus aplasia, cleft palate, and hypoparathyroidism, which can be remembered with the acronym CATCH.
The Thymus Gland: Development, Structure, and Function
The thymus gland is an encapsulated organ that develops from the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches. It descends to the anterior superior mediastinum and is subdivided into lobules, each consisting of a cortex and a medulla. The cortex is made up of tightly packed lymphocytes, while the medulla is mostly composed of epithelial cells. Hassall’s corpuscles, which are concentrically arranged medullary epithelial cells that may surround a keratinized center, are also present.
The inferior parathyroid glands, which also develop from the third pharyngeal pouch, may be located with the thymus gland. The thymus gland’s arterial supply comes from the internal mammary artery or pericardiophrenic arteries, while its venous drainage is to the left brachiocephalic vein. The thymus gland plays a crucial role in the development and maturation of T-cells, which are essential for the immune system’s proper functioning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 55-year-old, ex-smoker, of 25 pack years arrives at the emergency department with central crushing chest pain that spreads down his left arm. His ECG reveals ST elevation in leads V1, V2 and V3. He has a medical history of asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and type II diabetes. The patient's complete blood count indicates a haemoglobin level of 17.1 g/dL. What is the probable cause of this patient's elevated haemoglobin level?
Your Answer: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Explanation:Chronic hypoxia caused by COPD is a secondary factor leading to polycythaemia in this patient. While an anterior ST elevation MI is likely the acute issue, it would not explain the polycythaemia. Asthma is not a cause of polycythaemia and would not be responsible for the ECG changes. An inferior MI would not be associated with polycythaemia and would only cause ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF.
Polycythaemia is a condition that can be classified as relative, primary (polycythaemia rubra vera), or secondary. Relative polycythaemia can be caused by dehydration or stress, such as in Gaisbock syndrome. Primary polycythaemia rubra vera is a rare blood disorder that causes the bone marrow to produce too many red blood cells. Secondary polycythaemia can be caused by conditions such as COPD, altitude, obstructive sleep apnoea, or excessive erythropoietin production due to certain tumors or growths. To distinguish between true polycythaemia and relative polycythaemia, red cell mass studies may be used. In true polycythaemia, the total red cell mass in males is greater than 35 ml/kg and in women is greater than 32 ml/kg. Uterine fibroids may also cause polycythaemia indirectly by causing menorrhagia, but this is rarely a clinical problem.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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What characteristic could serve as a reliable indicator of prognosis for a patient who has recently been diagnosed with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)?
Your Answer: WCC >50 ×106/ml at presentation
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Prognostic Factors in Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia
Younger patients with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) have a better prognosis than older patients. In fact, the cure rate in children is around 90%, while it is less than 40% in adults. Additionally, male patients tend to fare worse than females, and they require a longer maintenance dose of chemotherapy (3 years versus 2 years). Interestingly, the Philadelphia chromosome, which is an effective treatment target in chronic myeloid leukemia, is actually a poor prognostic marker in ALL. Finally, higher white cell counts are associated with adverse outcomes, particularly if the count exceeds 100 ×106/ml.
Overall, these prognostic factors can help clinicians predict the likelihood of a successful outcome in patients with ALL. By taking these factors into account, healthcare providers can tailor treatment plans to each patient’s individual needs and improve their chances of a positive outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 67-year-old woman complains of feeling tired and dizzy. During the examination, she appears pale and has an enlarged spleen and liver. She has been consuming a bottle of wine daily for the past 25 years.
Her blood work reveals:
Hemoglobin (Hb) level of 72 g/L (normal range for females: 115 - 160)
Mean Cell Volume (MCV) of 73 fL (normal range: 80 - 100)
Ferritin level of 410 ng/mL (normal range: 10 - 300)
Blood film shows basophilic stippling of red blood cells
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Sideroblastic anaemia
Explanation:The correct answer is sideroblastic anaemia, which is characterized by hypochromic microcytic anaemia, high levels of ferritin iron and transferrin saturation, and the presence of basophilic stippling in red blood cells. This condition occurs when haem formation is incomplete, leading to the accumulation of iron in the mitochondria and the formation of a ring sideroblast around the nucleus. Alcohol consumption is a common cause, and treatment is supportive.
B12 deficiency is a type of megaloblastic anaemia, which results in a high mean corpuscular volume (MCV). It is typically caused by conditions that lead to vitamin B12 malabsorption, such as autoimmune gastritis.
Iron deficiency is a type of microcytic anaemia, which is characterized by a low MCV. However, in iron deficiency, the ferritin level is typically low, and pencil-shaped cells may be present in the blood film.
Sickle cell anaemia is a normochromic-normocytic haemolytic disorder, so the MCV should be normal. Patients often have a positive family history, and the blood film may show sickle cells and features of hyposplenism, such as target cells and Howell-Jolly bodies.
Understanding Sideroblastic Anaemia
Sideroblastic anaemia is a medical condition that occurs when red blood cells fail to produce enough haem, which is partly synthesized in the mitochondria. This results in the accumulation of iron in the mitochondria, forming a ring around the nucleus known as a ring sideroblast. The condition can be either congenital or acquired.
The congenital cause of sideroblastic anaemia is delta-aminolevulinate synthase-2 deficiency. On the other hand, acquired causes include myelodysplasia, alcohol, lead, and anti-TB medications.
To diagnose sideroblastic anaemia, doctors may conduct a full blood count, iron studies, and a blood film. The results may show hypochromic microcytic anaemia, high ferritin, high iron, high transferrin saturation, and basophilic stippling of red blood cells. A bone marrow test may also be done, and Prussian blue staining can reveal ringed sideroblasts.
Management of sideroblastic anaemia is mainly supportive, and treatment focuses on addressing any underlying cause. Pyridoxine may also be prescribed to help manage the condition.
In summary, sideroblastic anaemia is a condition that affects the production of haem in red blood cells, leading to the accumulation of iron in the mitochondria. It can be congenital or acquired, and diagnosis involves various tests. Treatment is mainly supportive, and addressing any underlying cause is crucial.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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An eager nursing student comes to you with a set of inquiries regarding blood transfusion reactions. Which of her subsequent statements is inaccurate?
Your Answer: Thrombocytopaenia may occur in women with a prior pregnancy
Correct Answer: Graft versus host disease involves neutrophil proliferation
Explanation:A helpful mnemonic for remembering transfusion reactions is Got a bad unit. Each letter represents a potential complication:
G – Graft vs. Host disease
O – Overload
T – Thrombocytopenia
A – Alloimmunization
B – Blood pressure unstable
A – Acute hemolytic reaction
D – Delayed hemolytic reaction
U – Urticaria
N – Neutrophilia
I – Infection
T – Transfusion-associated lung injuryGraft vs. Host disease occurs when the patient’s own lymphocytes are similar to the donor’s lymphocytes, causing severe complications. Thrombocytopenia may occur a few days after transfusion and may resolve on its own. Patients with IGA antibodies require IgA deficient blood transfusions.
Blood product transfusion complications can be categorized into immunological, infective, and other complications. Immunological complications include acute haemolytic reactions, non-haemolytic febrile reactions, and allergic/anaphylaxis reactions. Infective complications may arise due to transmission of vCJD, although measures have been taken to minimize this risk. Other complications include transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI), transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO), hyperkalaemia, iron overload, and clotting.
Non-haemolytic febrile reactions are thought to be caused by antibodies reacting with white cell fragments in the blood product and cytokines that have leaked from the blood cell during storage. These reactions may occur in 1-2% of red cell transfusions and 10-30% of platelet transfusions. Minor allergic reactions may also occur due to foreign plasma proteins, while anaphylaxis may be caused by patients with IgA deficiency who have anti-IgA antibodies.
Acute haemolytic transfusion reaction is a serious complication that results from a mismatch of blood group (ABO) which causes massive intravascular haemolysis. Symptoms begin minutes after the transfusion is started and include a fever, abdominal and chest pain, agitation, and hypotension. Treatment should include immediate transfusion termination, generous fluid resuscitation with saline solution, and informing the lab. Complications include disseminated intravascular coagulation and renal failure.
TRALI is a rare but potentially fatal complication of blood transfusion that is characterized by the development of hypoxaemia/acute respiratory distress syndrome within 6 hours of transfusion. On the other hand, TACO is a relatively common reaction due to fluid overload resulting in pulmonary oedema. As well as features of pulmonary oedema, the patient may also be hypertensive, a key difference from patients with TRALI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old male visits his doctor with complaints of abdominal pain, weight loss, and fatigue that have been ongoing for three weeks. Upon further examination, the patient is diagnosed with hepatic angiosarcoma, an uncommon form of cancer. What is the probable cause of the patient's condition, based on his past exposure?
Your Answer: Asbestos
Correct Answer: Vinyl chloride
Explanation:Vinyl chloride is linked to the development of hepatic angiosarcoma, while asbestos is associated with mesotheliomas and bronchial carcinoma. Aflatoxin is known to cause hepatocellular carcinoma, and aniline dyes have been linked to bladder cancer.
Understanding Carcinogens and Their Link to Cancer
Carcinogens are substances that have the potential to cause cancer. These substances can be found in various forms, including chemicals, radiation, and viruses. Aflatoxin, which is produced by Aspergillus, is a carcinogen that can cause liver cancer. Aniline dyes, on the other hand, can lead to bladder cancer, while asbestos is known to cause mesothelioma and bronchial carcinoma. Nitrosamines are another type of carcinogen that can cause oesophageal and gastric cancer, while vinyl chloride can lead to hepatic angiosarcoma.
It is important to understand the link between carcinogens and cancer, as exposure to these substances can increase the risk of developing the disease. By identifying and avoiding potential carcinogens, individuals can take steps to reduce their risk of cancer. Additionally, researchers continue to study the effects of various substances on the body, in order to better understand the mechanisms behind cancer development and to develop new treatments and prevention strategies. With continued research and education, it is possible to reduce the impact of carcinogens on human health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman presents with symptoms of fatigue, palpitations, and shortness of breath on exertion. She has recently been ill with an upper respiratory tract infection. During the examination, you observe that she has conjunctival pallor, and her sclera are icteric.
After conducting investigations, a positive Coombs test leads to a diagnosis of autoimmune haemolytic anaemia. This condition results in the breakdown of red blood cells, causing an increase in free haemoglobin levels in the blood.
What mechanisms will be involved in recycling the elevated levels of this substance?Your Answer: Lactate dehydrogenase
Correct Answer: Haptoglobins
Explanation:Haptoglobins are responsible for binding free haemoglobin within the circulation, allowing for the complex to be removed from the circulation by the reticuloendothelial system. Therefore, the correct answer is 2 – haptoglobins. LDH, albumin, and bilirubin do not play a role in recycling free haemoglobin.
Understanding Haemolytic Anaemias by Site
Haemolytic anaemias can be classified by the site of haemolysis, either intravascular or extravascular. In intravascular haemolysis, free haemoglobin is released and binds to haptoglobin. As haptoglobin becomes saturated, haemoglobin binds to albumin forming methaemalbumin, which can be detected by Schumm’s test. Free haemoglobin is then excreted in the urine as haemoglobinuria and haemosiderinuria. Causes of intravascular haemolysis include mismatched blood transfusion, red cell fragmentation due to heart valves, TTP, DIC, HUS, paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria, and cold autoimmune haemolytic anaemia.
On the other hand, extravascular haemolysis occurs when red blood cells are destroyed by macrophages in the spleen or liver. This type of haemolysis is commonly seen in haemoglobinopathies such as sickle cell anaemia and thalassaemia, hereditary spherocytosis, haemolytic disease of the newborn, and warm autoimmune haemolytic anaemia.
It is important to understand the site of haemolysis in order to properly diagnose and treat haemolytic anaemias. While both intravascular and extravascular haemolysis can lead to anaemia, the underlying causes and treatment approaches may differ.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 63-year-old woman is referred to haematology clinic by her GP due to complaints of fatigue, night sweats and fevers. Upon completion of all the required tests, she revisits the clinic to receive her results and is informed that she has the most prevalent type of adult leukemia.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
Explanation:Leukaemia is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. There are two main types of leukaemia: acute and chronic. Acute leukaemia progresses quickly and requires immediate treatment, while chronic leukaemia progresses more slowly and may not require treatment for some time.
There are also different subtypes of leukaemia based on the type of blood cell affected. Acute lymphocytic leukaemia is the most common type of leukaemia in children, while acute myeloid leukaemia is less common. In adults, chronic lymphocytic leukaemia is the most common type, followed by chronic myeloid leukaemia and acute myeloid leukaemia.
Understanding Chronic Lymphocytic Leukaemia: Symptoms and Diagnosis
Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. It is caused by the abnormal growth of B-cells, a type of white blood cell. CLL is the most common form of leukaemia in adults and is often asymptomatic, meaning it may be discovered incidentally during routine blood tests. However, some patients may experience symptoms such as weight loss, anorexia, bleeding, infections, and lymphadenopathy.
To diagnose CLL, doctors typically perform a full blood count to check for lymphocytosis, a condition where there is an abnormally high number of lymphocytes in the blood. Patients may also have anaemia or thrombocytopenia, which can occur due to bone marrow replacement or autoimmune hemolytic anaemia. A blood film may also be taken to look for smudge cells, which are abnormal lymphocytes that appear broken or fragmented.
The key investigation for CLL diagnosis is immunophenotyping, which involves using a panel of antibodies specific for CD5, CD19, CD20, and CD23. This test helps to identify the type of lymphocyte involved in the cancer and can confirm the diagnosis of CLL. With early detection and proper treatment, patients with CLL can manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man complains of low back pain that has been bothering him for the past three months. He also experiences shortness of breath with minimal exertion. Upon examination, his ESR is found to be elevated at 100 mm/hr. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Hypothyroidism
Correct Answer: Multiple myeloma
Explanation:ESR and its association with diseases
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a laboratory test that measures the rate at which red blood cells settle in a tube over a period of time. Elevated ESR levels are often associated with inflammatory diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, and polymyalgia rheumatica. In these conditions, the body’s immune system is activated, leading to inflammation and tissue damage. Malignancies such as myeloma can also cause an increase in ESR levels, particularly in females and with increasing age.
On the other hand, low ESR levels are seen in conditions such as polycythaemia, where there is an excess of red blood cells in the body. It is important to note that ESR is not a specific diagnostic test and must be interpreted in conjunction with other clinical findings. Multiple myeloma, a type of plasma cell neoplasm, is the most common haematological malignancy and can lead to a range of symptoms such as hypercalcaemia, renal failure, anaemia, and bone pain. While it is not curable, advances in treatment have significantly improved the median survival of patients. the association between ESR and various diseases can aid in the diagnosis and management of these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old male with a history of sickle cell disease is admitted to the haematology ward due to fatigue and jaundice after a recent weather change. Upon reviewing his medical records, you observe that his typical haemoglobin levels range from 80-90g/L, but his latest blood test indicates a decrease to 53g/L. Based on this information, you suspect that he is experiencing a haemolytic crisis. What other blood parameter would you anticipate to be low in this patient's situation?
Your Answer: Conjugated bilirubin
Correct Answer: Haptoglobin
Explanation:Haptoglobin is responsible for binding to free haemoglobin in the blood. Patients with sickle cell disease often experience anaemia, but can also suffer from a sudden drop in Hb levels known as a haemolytic crisis. This can be triggered by various factors such as infection, cold weather, and hypoxia. During a haemolytic crisis, red blood cells break down rapidly, releasing haemoglobin which haptoglobin binds to, leading to a decrease in haptoglobin levels in the blood. Reticulocytes, immature red blood cells, are released into the blood in response to haemolysis and haemorrhage, causing their levels to increase during a haemolytic crisis. Jaundice, a condition characterized by yellowing of the skin and eyes, is caused by hyperbilirubinaemia. Haemolysis leads to high levels of unconjugated bilirubin, while conditions such as pancreatic cancer or biliary tree strictures can cause high levels of conjugated bilirubin.
Laboratory Findings in Haematological Disease
Haptoglobin is a laboratory test that measures the level of a protein that binds to free haemoglobin. A decrease in haptoglobin levels is often associated with intravascular haemolysis, a condition where red blood cells are destroyed within blood vessels. On the other hand, an increase in mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration (MCHC) is commonly seen in hereditary spherocytosis and autoimmune haemolytic anemia. In contrast, a decrease in MCHC is often observed in microcytic anaemia, which is commonly caused by iron deficiency. It is important to note that autoimmune haemolytic anemia is often associated with spherocytosis. These laboratory findings are commonly tested in haematological disease exams.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 25-year-old male is experiencing abdominal pain and is undergoing an abdominal ultrasound scan. During the scan, the radiologist observes signs of splenic atrophy. What could be the probable cause of this condition?
Your Answer: Coeliac disease
Explanation:In coeliac disease, the spleen may undergo atrophy and Howell-Jolly bodies may be observed in red blood cells. Histiocytosis X includes Letterer-Siwe disease, which involves the excessive growth of macrophages.
The Anatomy and Function of the Spleen
The spleen is an organ located in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen. Its size can vary depending on the amount of blood it contains, but the typical adult spleen is 12.5cm long and 7.5cm wide, with a weight of 150g. The spleen is almost entirely covered by peritoneum and is separated from the 9th, 10th, and 11th ribs by both diaphragm and pleural cavity. Its shape is influenced by the state of the colon and stomach, with gastric distension causing it to resemble an orange segment and colonic distension causing it to become more tetrahedral.
The spleen has two folds of peritoneum that connect it to the posterior abdominal wall and stomach: the lienorenal ligament and gastrosplenic ligament. The lienorenal ligament contains the splenic vessels, while the short gastric and left gastroepiploic branches of the splenic artery pass through the layers of the gastrosplenic ligament. The spleen is in contact with the phrenicocolic ligament laterally.
The spleen has two main functions: filtration and immunity. It filters abnormal blood cells and foreign bodies such as bacteria, and produces properdin and tuftsin, which help target fungi and bacteria for phagocytosis. The spleen also stores 40% of platelets, reutilizes iron, and stores monocytes. Disorders of the spleen include massive splenomegaly, myelofibrosis, chronic myeloid leukemia, visceral leishmaniasis, malaria, Gaucher’s syndrome, portal hypertension, lymphoproliferative disease, haemolytic anaemia, infection, infective endocarditis, sickle-cell, thalassaemia, and rheumatoid arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 29-year-old man newly diagnosed with epilepsy visits his GP with complaints of fatigue. He has no significant medical history except for taking oral phenytoin and loratadine seasonally. He works as a construction site worker and has been experiencing a lot of stress at work due to the need to work extra shifts. During the consultation, he appears anxious and has a slim build. His blood test reveals macrocytic anaemia.
What could be the probable reason for his symptoms and blood results?Your Answer: Side effect of phenytoin
Explanation:The most probable reason for the patient’s fatigue and abnormal blood results is the side effect of phenytoin. Phenytoin is an antifolate medication that can lead to folate deficiency, resulting in macrocytic anaemia, which is evident in the patient’s blood test. Fatigue is a common symptom of anaemia, which the patient has reported.
Although lack of sleep may contribute to the patient’s tiredness, it alone cannot cause macrocytic anaemia.
Hypothyroidism can cause macrocytic anaemia and lethargy, but it is less likely to be the cause of the patient’s symptoms. The patient has no history of thyroid disorders, and his slim build and anxiety are more typical of hyperthyroidism.
Loratadine is a second-generation antihistamine that does not usually cause drowsiness.
Understanding Macrocytic Anaemia
Macrocytic anaemia is a type of anaemia that can be classified into two categories: megaloblastic and normoblastic. Megaloblastic anaemia is caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12 or folate, which leads to the production of abnormally large red blood cells in the bone marrow. This type of anaemia can also be caused by certain medications, alcohol, liver disease, hypothyroidism, pregnancy, and myelodysplasia.
On the other hand, normoblastic anaemia is caused by an increase in the number of immature red blood cells, known as reticulocytes, in the bone marrow. This can occur as a result of certain medications, such as methotrexate, or in response to other underlying medical conditions.
It is important to identify the underlying cause of macrocytic anaemia in order to provide appropriate treatment. This may involve addressing any nutritional deficiencies, managing underlying medical conditions, or adjusting medications. With proper management, most cases of macrocytic anaemia can be successfully treated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 13
Correct
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An 80-year-old male visits his doctor complaining of passing fresh red blood in his stool, tenesmus, and feeling lethargic for the past 2 months. During the digital rectal examination, no abnormalities are detected. However, an urgent flexible sigmoidoscopy reveals a mass in the sigmoid colon. Biopsies of the lesion confirm the presence of adenocarcinoma. In this patient, which lymph node region is most likely to be affected by metastatic spread initially?
Your Answer: Inferior mesenteric nodes
Explanation:The sigmoid colon’s lymphatic drainage flows into the inferior mesenteric nodes. This is due to the embryological development of the vasculature supply in the hindgut region, which includes the transverse colon down to the rectum. From there, lymph eventually passes to the para-aortic nodes. The axillary nodes are not involved in this process, as they drain the upper limb and lateral breast tissue. Similarly, the internal iliac nodes drain different areas, including the inferior rectum, anal canal above the pectinate line, and pelvic viscera.
Lymphatic drainage is the process by which lymphatic vessels carry lymph, a clear fluid containing white blood cells, away from tissues and organs and towards lymph nodes. The lymphatic vessels that drain the skin and follow venous drainage are called superficial lymphatic vessels, while those that drain internal organs and structures follow the arteries and are called deep lymphatic vessels. These vessels eventually lead to lymph nodes, which filter and remove harmful substances from the lymph before it is returned to the bloodstream.
The lymphatic system is divided into two main ducts: the right lymphatic duct and the thoracic duct. The right lymphatic duct drains the right side of the head and right arm, while the thoracic duct drains everything else. Both ducts eventually drain into the venous system.
Different areas of the body have specific primary lymph node drainage sites. For example, the superficial inguinal lymph nodes drain the anal canal below the pectinate line, perineum, skin of the thigh, penis, scrotum, and vagina. The deep inguinal lymph nodes drain the glans penis, while the para-aortic lymph nodes drain the testes, ovaries, kidney, and adrenal gland. The axillary lymph nodes drain the lateral breast and upper limb, while the internal iliac lymph nodes drain the anal canal above the pectinate line, lower part of the rectum, and pelvic structures including the cervix and inferior part of the uterus. The superior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the duodenum and jejunum, while the inferior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the descending colon, sigmoid colon, and upper part of the rectum. Finally, the coeliac lymph nodes drain the stomach.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 47-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with pleuritic chest pain and dyspnoea. Upon examination, an area of painful swelling is found in her right calf, indicating a possible deep vein thrombosis. Her Wells' score is calculated to be 4.2. The patient's vital signs are as follows:
Blood pressure: 105/78 mmHg
Pulse: 118 bpm
Temperature: 37.1ºC
Respiratory rate: 20/min
A CT pulmonary angiography confirms the presence of a right pulmonary embolism. What medication is most likely to be prescribed to this patient?Your Answer: Rivaroxaban
Explanation:Rivaroxaban is a direct inhibitor of factor Xa, which is the correct answer. Pulmonary emboli can be caused by various factors, and symptoms include chest pain, dyspnoea, and haemoptysis. Factor Xa inhibitors, such as rivaroxaban, have replaced warfarin as the first-line treatment for stroke prevention in patients with atrial fibrillation.
Dabigatran is a direct thrombin inhibitor and has a different mechanism of action compared to rivaroxaban. It is commonly used for venous thromboembolism prophylaxis after total knee or hip replacement surgery.
Dalteparin is a type of low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) and has a different mechanism of action compared to factor Xa inhibitors. It is used for prophylaxis against venous thromboembolism in patients who are immobile or have recently had surgery.
Fondaparinux is an indirect inhibitor of factor Xa and is not the correct answer. It is used for the treatment of deep-vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism, and acute coronary syndrome.
Direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) are medications used to prevent stroke in non-valvular atrial fibrillation (AF), as well as for the prevention and treatment of venous thromboembolism (VTE). To be prescribed DOACs for stroke prevention, patients must have certain risk factors, such as a prior stroke or transient ischaemic attack, age 75 or older, hypertension, diabetes mellitus, or heart failure. There are four DOACs available, each with a different mechanism of action and method of excretion. Dabigatran is a direct thrombin inhibitor, while rivaroxaban, apixaban, and edoxaban are direct factor Xa inhibitors. The majority of DOACs are excreted either through the kidneys or the liver, with the exception of apixaban and edoxaban, which are excreted through the feces. Reversal agents are available for dabigatran and rivaroxaban, but not for apixaban or edoxaban.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl experiences vomiting, hypotension, and severe urticaria after consuming a peanut. Which cell line is primarily involved in the development of this condition?
Your Answer: Common lymphoid progenitor
Correct Answer: Common myeloid progenitor
Explanation:Mast cells originate from common myeloid progenitor cells.
Haematopoiesis: The Generation of Immune Cells
Haematopoiesis is the process by which immune cells are produced from haematopoietic stem cells in the bone marrow. These stem cells give rise to two main types of progenitor cells: myeloid and lymphoid progenitor cells. All immune cells are derived from these progenitor cells.
The myeloid progenitor cells generate cells such as macrophages/monocytes, dendritic cells, neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, and mast cells. On the other hand, lymphoid progenitor cells give rise to T cells, NK cells, B cells, and dendritic cells.
This process is essential for the proper functioning of the immune system. Without haematopoiesis, the body would not be able to produce the necessary immune cells to fight off infections and diseases. Understanding haematopoiesis is crucial in developing treatments for diseases that affect the immune system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 78-year-old male visits his doctor complaining of fresh red blood in his stool, tenesmus, and a change in bowel habit that has persisted for 7 weeks. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and takes amlodipine and amlodipine without any allergies. During a digital rectal examination, an irregular mass is detected in the anterior aspect of the rectum. The patient is immediately referred for a flexible sigmoidoscopy, which reveals an adenocarcinoma in the anal canal below the pectinate line.
In this patient, what is the lymph node region where metastatic spread is most likely to occur initially?Your Answer: Superficial inguinal nodes
Explanation:The lymphatic drainage of the anal canal below the pectinate line is provided by the superficial inguinal nodes. These nodes also drain the lower limbs, scrotum/vulva, and the rectum below the pectinate line. The ileocolic nodes primarily drain the ileum and proximal ascending colon, while the inferior mesenteric nodes drain the hindgut structures. The internal iliac nodes drain the inferior rectum, anal canal above the pectinate line, and pelvic viscera. The para-aortic nodes do not directly drain the portion of the rectum below the pectinate line, but they do drain the testes/ovaries.
Lymphatic drainage is the process by which lymphatic vessels carry lymph, a clear fluid containing white blood cells, away from tissues and organs and towards lymph nodes. The lymphatic vessels that drain the skin and follow venous drainage are called superficial lymphatic vessels, while those that drain internal organs and structures follow the arteries and are called deep lymphatic vessels. These vessels eventually lead to lymph nodes, which filter and remove harmful substances from the lymph before it is returned to the bloodstream.
The lymphatic system is divided into two main ducts: the right lymphatic duct and the thoracic duct. The right lymphatic duct drains the right side of the head and right arm, while the thoracic duct drains everything else. Both ducts eventually drain into the venous system.
Different areas of the body have specific primary lymph node drainage sites. For example, the superficial inguinal lymph nodes drain the anal canal below the pectinate line, perineum, skin of the thigh, penis, scrotum, and vagina. The deep inguinal lymph nodes drain the glans penis, while the para-aortic lymph nodes drain the testes, ovaries, kidney, and adrenal gland. The axillary lymph nodes drain the lateral breast and upper limb, while the internal iliac lymph nodes drain the anal canal above the pectinate line, lower part of the rectum, and pelvic structures including the cervix and inferior part of the uterus. The superior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the duodenum and jejunum, while the inferior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the descending colon, sigmoid colon, and upper part of the rectum. Finally, the coeliac lymph nodes drain the stomach.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 58-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 4-week history of abdominal pain, fatigue and bruising. After various investigations, she is diagnosed with chronic myeloid leukaemia. What is the probable pathophysiology responsible for her abdominal pain?
Your Answer: Splenomegaly
Explanation:Massive splenomegaly can be a symptom of chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML), which is the known diagnosis of this woman. Left-sided swelling, increased tendency to bruise or bleed, and abdominal pain may also be present. However, a duodenal ulcer is more likely to cause indigestion and is not commonly associated with CML. While hepatomegaly may occur in CML, it is less common and less marked than splenomegaly. Large bowel obstruction is not typically associated with CML, but may be a presenting symptom of undiagnosed colorectal cancer. Although splenic rupture can cause abdominal pain, it is more likely to lead to an acute presentation due to complications of acute intra-abdominal bleeding.
Understanding Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia and its Management
Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML) is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. It is characterized by the presence of the Philadelphia chromosome in more than 95% of patients. This chromosome is formed due to a translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22, resulting in the fusion of the ABL proto-oncogene and the BCR gene. The resulting BCR-ABL gene produces a fusion protein that has excessive tyrosine kinase activity.
CML typically affects individuals between the ages of 60-70 years and presents with symptoms such as anaemia, weight loss, sweating, and splenomegaly. The condition is also associated with an increase in granulocytes at different stages of maturation and thrombocytosis. In some cases, CML may undergo blast transformation, leading to acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) or acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL).
The management of CML involves various treatment options, including imatinib, which is considered the first-line treatment. Imatinib is an inhibitor of the tyrosine kinase associated with the BCR-ABL defect and has a very high response rate in chronic phase CML. Other treatment options include hydroxyurea, interferon-alpha, and allogeneic bone marrow transplant. With proper management, individuals with CML can lead a normal life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman visits the rheumatology clinic complaining of fatigue that has lasted for 6 weeks. She reports sleeping more than usual and feeling easily tired while walking her dog. The patient has a medical history of rheumatoid arthritis and is currently taking methotrexate. She smokes 2-3 cigarettes per day and drinks half a bottle of wine per week.
The following investigations are ordered:
- Haemoglobin: 88 g/L (normal range: 115 - 160)
- Mean cell volume (MCV): 105 fL (normal range: 80 - 100)
What is the most probable cause of this patient's symptoms?Your Answer: Folate deficiency
Explanation:Methotrexate treatment can lead to megaloblastic macrocytic anemia due to a deficiency of folate.
The patient’s low hemoglobin and high MCV indicate macrocytic anemia, which can be caused by various factors such as alcohol abuse, hypothyroidism, aplastic anemia, and megaloblastic anemia due to a deficiency of vitamin B12 and/or folate. In this case, the patient has a history of rheumatoid arthritis and takes methotrexate weekly, which inhibits dihydrofolate reductase and causes a deficiency of folate. Therefore, folate deficiency is the most probable cause of the patient’s anemia.
Alcohol excess is an incorrect option as it usually requires larger quantities of alcohol to cause macrocytic anemia.
Anaemia of chronic disease is an incorrect option as it typically results in normocytic or microcytic anemia, not macrocytic anemia.
Iron deficiency anemia is an incorrect option as it causes microcytic anemia, and the MCV value would be lower than expected.
Understanding Macrocytic Anaemia
Macrocytic anaemia is a type of anaemia that can be classified into two categories: megaloblastic and normoblastic. Megaloblastic anaemia is caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12 or folate, which leads to the production of abnormally large red blood cells in the bone marrow. This type of anaemia can also be caused by certain medications, alcohol, liver disease, hypothyroidism, pregnancy, and myelodysplasia.
On the other hand, normoblastic anaemia is caused by an increase in the number of immature red blood cells, known as reticulocytes, in the bone marrow. This can occur as a result of certain medications, such as methotrexate, or in response to other underlying medical conditions.
It is important to identify the underlying cause of macrocytic anaemia in order to provide appropriate treatment. This may involve addressing any nutritional deficiencies, managing underlying medical conditions, or adjusting medications. With proper management, most cases of macrocytic anaemia can be successfully treated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 50-year-old female patient complains of feeling weak, exhausted, and fatigued. Upon examination, her full blood count indicates acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL). Among the following options, which is linked to the poorest prognosis in ALL?
Your Answer: Age
Explanation:Factors Associated with Positive Long-Term Outcome in Leukemia Patients
Leukemia patients who are younger than 30 years old, have a white blood cell count of less than 30 ×109/L, and have a mediastinal mass are more likely to have a favorable long-term outcome. Additionally, those with a T cell or TMy immunophenotype and do not have the Philadelphia (Ph) chromosome also have a better prognosis. These clinical and biologic features are important factors to consider when assessing the potential outcome for leukemia patients. Proper identification and monitoring of these factors can aid in the development of effective treatment plans and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 56-year-old man is sent home following an uneventful left total hip replacement. He has been prescribed a direct factor Xa inhibitor for thromboprophylaxis.
What is the probable medication that the patient has been prescribed?Your Answer: Apixaban
Explanation:Apixaban directly inhibits factor Xa, while bivalirudin and dabigatran directly inhibit thrombin. On the other hand, enoxaparin is a type of low molecular weight heparin that indirectly inhibits factor Xa by forming a complex with antithrombin III, leading to irreversible inactivation of factor Xa.
Direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) are medications used to prevent stroke in non-valvular atrial fibrillation (AF), as well as for the prevention and treatment of venous thromboembolism (VTE). To be prescribed DOACs for stroke prevention, patients must have certain risk factors, such as a prior stroke or transient ischaemic attack, age 75 or older, hypertension, diabetes mellitus, or heart failure. There are four DOACs available, each with a different mechanism of action and method of excretion. Dabigatran is a direct thrombin inhibitor, while rivaroxaban, apixaban, and edoxaban are direct factor Xa inhibitors. The majority of DOACs are excreted either through the kidneys or the liver, with the exception of apixaban and edoxaban, which are excreted through the feces. Reversal agents are available for dabigatran and rivaroxaban, but not for apixaban or edoxaban.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 21
Correct
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You are evaluating a 43-year-old female patient at the breast cancer clinic who is undergoing chemotherapy treatment after a mastectomy. One of the medications she is taking is doxorubicin. What is the mechanism of action of this drug?
Your Answer: Stabilises DNA-topoisomerase II complex, inhibits DNA & RNA synthesis
Explanation:Doxorubicin is an anthracycline that works by stabilizing the DNA-topoisomerase II complex and inhibiting DNA and RNA synthesis. It is used to treat acute leukemias, Hodgkin’s and non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, and some solid tumors such as breast and sarcoma. However, it can cause cardiomyopathy as a potential complication. Ondansetron is a 5-HT3 antagonist that is used to manage chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. Beta-blockers like bisoprolol and atenolol, on the other hand, inhibit beta-1 receptors and are used to treat hypertension, angina, heart failure, and atrial fibrillation. They are not cytotoxic medications. Cisplatin is a cytotoxic agent that inhibits cell division by causing cross-linking of DNA. It is used to treat various cancers such as testicular, lung, cervical, bladder, head and neck, and ovarian cancer. Methotrexate, another cytotoxic agent, inhibits dihydrofolate reductase and is commonly used to treat rheumatoid arthritis. However, it can cause gastrointestinal disturbance as a side effect.
Cytotoxic agents are drugs that are used to kill cancer cells. There are several types of cytotoxic agents, each with their own mechanism of action and potential adverse effects. Alkylating agents, such as cyclophosphamide, work by causing cross-linking in DNA. However, they can also cause haemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression, and transitional cell carcinoma. Cytotoxic antibiotics, like bleomycin and anthracyclines, degrade preformed DNA and stabilize DNA-topoisomerase II complex, respectively. However, they can also cause lung fibrosis and cardiomyopathy. Antimetabolites, such as methotrexate and fluorouracil, inhibit dihydrofolate reductase and thymidylate synthesis, respectively. However, they can also cause myelosuppression, mucositis, and liver or lung fibrosis. Drugs that act on microtubules, like vincristine and docetaxel, inhibit the formation of microtubules and prevent microtubule depolymerisation & disassembly, respectively. However, they can also cause peripheral neuropathy, myelosuppression, and paralytic ileus. Topoisomerase inhibitors, like irinotecan, inhibit topoisomerase I, which prevents relaxation of supercoiled DNA. However, they can also cause myelosuppression. Other cytotoxic drugs, such as cisplatin and hydroxyurea, cause cross-linking in DNA and inhibit ribonucleotide reductase, respectively. However, they can also cause ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, hypomagnesaemia, and myelosuppression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man is diagnosed with a DVT in his right leg, which is determined to be caused by a genetic disorder. What is the most prevalent hereditary factor leading to DVT?
Your Answer: Antithrombin deficiency
Correct Answer: Factor V Leiden
Explanation:Deep vein thrombosis is a condition that occurs more frequently in Caucasians than in people of black African, Far East Asian, native Australian, and native American origin. The most common heritable causes of DVT, in descending order, are Factor V Leiden, Prothrombin G20210A variant, Protein C deficiency, Protein S deficiency, and Antithrombin deficiency. However, Von Willebrand disease and thalassaemia are not associated with DVT.
Understanding Factor V Leiden
Factor V Leiden is a common inherited thrombophilia, affecting around 5% of the UK population. It is caused by a mutation in the Factor V Leiden protein, resulting in activated factor V being inactivated 10 times more slowly by activated protein C than normal. This leads to activated protein C resistance, which increases the risk of venous thrombosis. Heterozygotes have a 4-5 fold risk of venous thrombosis, while homozygotes have a 10 fold risk, although the prevalence of homozygotes is much lower at 0.05%.
Despite its prevalence, screening for Factor V Leiden is not recommended, even after a venous thromboembolism. This is because a previous thromboembolism itself is a risk factor for further events, and specific management should be based on this rather than the particular thrombophilia identified.
Other inherited thrombophilias include Prothrombin gene mutation, Protein C deficiency, Protein S deficiency, and Antithrombin III deficiency. The table below shows the prevalence and relative risk of venous thromboembolism for each of these conditions.
Overall, understanding Factor V Leiden and other inherited thrombophilias can help healthcare professionals identify individuals at higher risk of venous thrombosis and provide appropriate management to prevent future events.
Condition | Prevalence | Relative risk of VTE
— | — | —
Factor V Leiden (heterozygous) | 5% | 4
Factor V Leiden (homozygous) | 0.05% | 10
Prothrombin gene mutation (heterozygous) | 1.5% | 3
Protein C deficiency | 0.3% | 10
Protein S deficiency | 0.1% | 5-10
Antithrombin III deficiency | 0.02% | 10-20 -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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An asymptomatic 75-year-old patient is scheduled for an elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy and undergoes routine pre-operative blood tests. The results show a white cell count of 25 ×109/ml, with lymphocytes at 22 ×109/ml. What would be an unfavorable prognostic indicator for this patient?
Your Answer: His age
Correct Answer: Trisomy 12
Explanation:Chronic Lymphocytic Leukaemia (CLL) Prognostic Indicators
Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. Patients with CLL often have genetic mutations, with trisomy 12 being a bad prognostic indicator. ZAP-70, a tyrosine kinase involved in cell signalling, is also measured in CLL patients, and high expression is associated with a poor prognosis. On the other hand, lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) is a marker of tumour burden, and a normal level suggests less tumour bulk, which is a good prognostic marker.
Many patients with CLL may not require treatment and may die with the disease rather than from it. It is often diagnosed in asymptomatic patients who undergo blood tests for other reasons. Treating the disease too early may actually lead to a worse outcome than monitoring the patient initially. Therefore, patients who do not need to start treatment immediately have a more favourable outlook.
B cells in secondary lymphoid tissue undergo somatic hypermutation when they recognise an antigen. This process fine-tunes antibody specificity, and cells that have undergone somatic hypermutation are more mature. If CLL arises from one of these cells, it is associated with a more favourable prognosis. these prognostic indicators can help healthcare professionals determine the best course of treatment for patients with CLL.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old man presents with a widespread maculopapular rash and fever after undergoing haematopoietic cell transplantation for multiple myeloma. The diagnosis is GVHD. What cell type is primarily responsible for the patient's symptoms?
Your Answer: Mast cells
Correct Answer: Donor T cells
Explanation:GVHD is a condition where T cells from the donor tissue (the graft) attack healthy cells in the recipient (the host). This can occur after a haematopoietic cell transplantation and is diagnosed based on symptoms such as fever, rash, and gastrointestinal issues. Antigen-presenting cells activate the donor T cells, but do not attack host cells. B cells, host T cells, and mast cells do not contribute to the attack on host tissue in GVHD.
Understanding Graft Versus Host Disease
Graft versus host disease (GVHD) is a complication that can occur after bone marrow or solid organ transplantation. It happens when the T cells in the donor tissue attack the recipient’s cells. This is different from transplant rejection, where the recipient’s immune cells attack the donor tissue. GVHD is diagnosed using the Billingham criteria, which require that the transplanted tissue contains functioning immune cells, the donor and recipient are immunologically different, and the recipient is immunocompromised.
The incidence of GVHD varies, but it can occur in up to 50% of patients who receive allogeneic bone marrow transplants. Risk factors include poorly matched donor and recipient, the type of conditioning used before transplantation, gender disparity between donor and recipient, and the source of the graft.
Acute and chronic GVHD are considered separate syndromes. Acute GVHD typically occurs within 100 days of transplantation and affects the skin, liver, and gastrointestinal tract. Chronic GVHD may occur after acute disease or arise de novo and has a more varied clinical picture.
Diagnosis of GVHD is largely clinical and based on the exclusion of other pathology. Signs and symptoms of acute GVHD include a painful rash, jaundice, diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, and fever. Chronic GVHD can affect the skin, eyes, gastrointestinal tract, and lungs.
Treatment of GVHD involves immunosuppression and supportive measures. Intravenous steroids are the mainstay of treatment for severe cases of acute GVHD, while extended courses of steroid therapy are often needed in chronic GVHD. Second-line therapies include anti-TNF, mTOR inhibitors, and extracorporeal photopheresis. Topical steroid therapy may be sufficient in mild disease with limited cutaneous involvement. However, excessive immunosuppression may increase the risk of infection and limit the beneficial graft-versus-tumor effect of the transplant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements relating to blood transfusions is not true?
Your Answer: Clotting factor activity in whole blood decreases in samples stored for longer than 7 days
Correct Answer: Patients should be transfused to achieve a target haemoglobin of 10 g/dl and a haematocrit of 30%
Explanation:As long as the patient’s Hb level is 7 or higher, transfusion may not be necessary for their management. However, this threshold may vary depending on individual factors such as co-existing medical conditions. It is important to avoid using old blood during massive transfusions as its effectiveness may be compromised.
Blood Products and Cell Saver Devices
Blood products are essential in various medical procedures, especially in cases where patients require transfusions due to anaemia or bleeding. Packed red cells, platelet-rich plasma, platelet concentrate, fresh frozen plasma, and cryoprecipitate are some of the commonly used whole blood fractions. Fresh frozen plasma is usually administered to patients with clotting deficiencies, while cryoprecipitate is a rich source of Factor VIII and fibrinogen. Cross-matching is necessary for all blood products, and cell saver devices are used to collect and re-infuse a patient’s own blood lost during surgery.
Cell saver devices come in two types, those that wash the blood cells before re-infusion and those that do not. The former is more expensive and complicated to operate but reduces the risk of re-infusing contaminated blood. The latter avoids the use of donor blood and may be acceptable to Jehovah’s witnesses. However, it is contraindicated in malignant diseases due to the risk of facilitating disease dissemination.
In some surgical patients, the use of warfarin can pose specific problems and may require the use of specialised blood products. Warfarin reversal can be achieved through the administration of vitamin K, fresh frozen plasma, or human prothrombin complex. Fresh frozen plasma is used less commonly now as a first-line warfarin reversal, and human prothrombin complex is preferred due to its rapid action. However, it should be given with vitamin K as factor 6 has a short half-life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 26
Correct
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A 16-year-old boy has been diagnosed with aplastic anaemia. He hails from a family of farmers and used to play hide and seek in the barns where pesticides and other chemicals were stored. He visited his GP complaining of fatigue, dyspnoea, and headaches. Further blood tests revealed a significant leucopenia. Aplastic anaemia is a condition where haematopoietic stem cells that produce immune cell precursors fail. Where in the body are these cells primarily located?
Your Answer: Bone marrow
Explanation:Aplastic anemia is a condition where there is a shortage of blood cells from all types of progenitor lines. It is most commonly seen in individuals between the ages of 15 to 25 and those over 60.
The causes of aplastic anemia can be attributed to various factors such as infections (including Epstein-Barr), toxic exposure (such as benzene and radiation), idiopathic, and rarely hereditary.
Haematopoietic stem cells in the bone marrow generate immune cells. These cells produce two main types of progenitors, myeloid and lymphoid progenitor cells, which give rise to all immune cells.
Myeloid progenitor cells give rise to cells such as macrophages/monocytes, dendritic cells, neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, and mast cells. On the other hand, lymphoid progenitor cells give rise to T cells, NK cells, B cells, and dendritic cells.
Aplastic anaemia is a condition characterized by a decrease in the number of blood cells due to a poorly functioning bone marrow. It is most commonly seen in individuals around the age of 30 and is marked by a reduction in red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. While lymphocytes may be relatively spared, the overall effect is a condition known as pancytopenia. In some cases, aplastic anaemia may be the first sign of acute lymphoblastic or myeloid leukaemia. A small number of patients may later develop paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria or myelodysplasia.
The causes of aplastic anaemia can be idiopathic, meaning that they are unknown, or they can be linked to congenital conditions such as Fanconi anaemia or dyskeratosis congenita. Certain drugs, such as cytotoxics, chloramphenicol, sulphonamides, phenytoin, and gold, as well as toxins like benzene, can also cause aplastic anaemia. Infections such as parvovirus and hepatitis, as well as exposure to radiation, can also contribute to the development of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 27
Correct
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A 70-year-old man has just undergone an emergency repair for a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm. Preoperatively, he was taking aspirin, clopidogrel, and warfarin. Intraoperatively, he received 5000 units of unfractionated heparin before the application of the aortic cross clamp. Upon admission to the critical care unit, his blood results are as follows:
Full blood count
Hb 8 g/dl
Platelets 40 * 109/l
WBC 7.1 * 109/l
His fibrin degradation products are measured and found to be markedly elevated. What is the likely cause of these results?Your Answer: Disseminated intravascular coagulation
Explanation:DIC is the most probable diagnosis due to the presence of low platelet counts and elevated FDP in this scenario.
Understanding Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation
Under normal conditions, the coagulation and fibrinolysis processes work together to maintain hemostasis. However, in cases of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), these processes become dysregulated, leading to widespread clotting and bleeding. One of the critical factors in the development of DIC is the release of tissue factor (TF), a glycoprotein found on the surface of various cell types. TF is normally not in contact with the circulation but is exposed after vascular damage or in response to cytokines and endotoxins. Once activated, TF triggers the extrinsic pathway of coagulation, leading to the activation of the intrinsic pathway and the formation of clots.
DIC can be caused by various factors, including sepsis, trauma, obstetric complications, and malignancy. Diagnosis of DIC typically involves a blood test that shows decreased platelet count and fibrinogen levels, prolonged prothrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time, and increased fibrinogen degradation products. Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia may also be present, leading to the formation of schistocytes.
Overall, understanding the pathophysiology and diagnosis of DIC is crucial for prompt and effective management of this potentially life-threatening condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 28
Correct
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A 35-year-old man with a 3 year history of poorly controlled Crohn's disease presents to the gastroenterology clinic for review. Despite trials of multiple agents, he was referred for an ileocaecal resection 12 months ago, which he reports 'went well', and his symptoms have now largely subsided.
However, he is now reporting new symptoms of fatigue and decreased ability to exercise.
What is the most probable reason for these symptoms?Your Answer: B12 deficiency
Explanation:Vitamin deficiency may occur after an ileocaecal resection.
Vitamin B12 is essential for the development of red blood cells and the maintenance of the nervous system. It is absorbed through the binding of intrinsic factor, which is secreted by parietal cells in the stomach, and actively absorbed in the terminal ileum. A deficiency in vitamin B12 can be caused by pernicious anaemia, post gastrectomy, a vegan or poor diet, disorders or surgery of the terminal ileum, Crohn’s disease, or metformin use.
Symptoms of vitamin B12 deficiency include macrocytic anaemia, a sore tongue and mouth, neurological symptoms, and neuropsychiatric symptoms such as mood disturbances. The dorsal column is usually affected first, leading to joint position and vibration issues before distal paraesthesia.
Management of vitamin B12 deficiency involves administering 1 mg of IM hydroxocobalamin three times a week for two weeks, followed by once every three months if there is no neurological involvement. If a patient is also deficient in folic acid, it is important to treat the B12 deficiency first to avoid subacute combined degeneration of the cord.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman visits the oncology clinic after being diagnosed with non-metastatic breast cancer. She is started on neoadjuvant chemotherapy using docetaxel.
What is the mechanism of action for this form of chemotherapy?Your Answer: Inhibits formation of microtubules
Correct Answer: Prevents microtubule depolymerisation and disassembly
Explanation:Docetaxel, a taxane chemotherapy agent, works by reducing the amount of free tubulin through the prevention of microtubule depolymerisation and disassembly during the metaphase stage of cell division, ultimately hindering mitosis.
Cytotoxic agents are drugs that are used to kill cancer cells. There are several types of cytotoxic agents, each with their own mechanism of action and potential adverse effects. Alkylating agents, such as cyclophosphamide, work by causing cross-linking in DNA. However, they can also cause haemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression, and transitional cell carcinoma. Cytotoxic antibiotics, like bleomycin and anthracyclines, degrade preformed DNA and stabilize DNA-topoisomerase II complex, respectively. However, they can also cause lung fibrosis and cardiomyopathy. Antimetabolites, such as methotrexate and fluorouracil, inhibit dihydrofolate reductase and thymidylate synthesis, respectively. However, they can also cause myelosuppression, mucositis, and liver or lung fibrosis. Drugs that act on microtubules, like vincristine and docetaxel, inhibit the formation of microtubules and prevent microtubule depolymerisation & disassembly, respectively. However, they can also cause peripheral neuropathy, myelosuppression, and paralytic ileus. Topoisomerase inhibitors, like irinotecan, inhibit topoisomerase I, which prevents relaxation of supercoiled DNA. However, they can also cause myelosuppression. Other cytotoxic drugs, such as cisplatin and hydroxyurea, cause cross-linking in DNA and inhibit ribonucleotide reductase, respectively. However, they can also cause ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, hypomagnesaemia, and myelosuppression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old female presents with abnormal vaginal bleeding and dyspareunia. After an abnormal smear test, she receives her colposcopy results indicating cervical malignancy. The gynaecologist refers her for a PET scan to determine if the cancer has spread to her lymph nodes. Which lymph nodes are typically the first to be affected if the cancer has spread?
Your Answer: Para-aortic lymph nodes
Correct Answer: Internal and external iliac lymph nodes
Explanation:The lymphatic drainage of the cervix is important to consider in cases of cervical cancer. The cervix drains into three main channels: the external and internal iliac lymph nodes, the obturator and presacral lymph nodes, and the nodes along the uterine arteries. The initial nodes to be involved in cervical cancer would be the internal and external iliac lymph nodes. The caval lymph nodes, cisterna chyli, inferior inguinal lymph nodes, and para-aortic lymph nodes are not the initial sites of spread for cervical cancer.
Lymphatic Drainage of Female Reproductive Organs
The lymphatic drainage of the female reproductive organs is a complex system that involves multiple nodal stations. The ovaries drain to the para-aortic lymphatics via the gonadal vessels. The uterine fundus has a lymphatic drainage that runs with the ovarian vessels and may thus drain to the para-aortic nodes. Some drainage may also pass along the round ligament to the inguinal nodes. The body of the uterus drains through lymphatics contained within the broad ligament to the iliac lymph nodes. The cervix drains into three potential nodal stations; laterally through the broad ligament to the external iliac nodes, along the lymphatics of the uterosacral fold to the presacral nodes and posterolaterally along lymphatics lying alongside the uterine vessels to the internal iliac nodes. Understanding the lymphatic drainage of the female reproductive organs is important for the diagnosis and treatment of gynecological cancers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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