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  • Question 1 - An 80-year-old man comes in after a fall and reports feeling constantly cold....

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man comes in after a fall and reports feeling constantly cold. Thyroid function tests are ordered and the results are as follows:
      Free T4 7.1 pmol/l
      TSH 14.3 mu/l
      What should be done next?

      Your Answer: Start levothyroxine 25mcg od

      Explanation:

      The patient exhibits hypothyroidism, indicated by low free T4 and elevated TSH levels. Considering her age, it is recommended to gradually introduce levothyroxine at a starting dose of 25mcg once daily.

      Managing Hypothyroidism: Dosage, Monitoring, and Side-Effects

      Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormone. The main treatment for hypothyroidism is levothyroxine, a synthetic form of thyroid hormone. When managing hypothyroidism, it is important to consider the patient’s age, cardiac history, and initial starting dose. Elderly patients and those with ischaemic heart disease should start with a lower dose of 25mcg od, while other patients can start with 50-100mcg od. After a change in dosage, thyroid function tests should be checked after 8-12 weeks to ensure the therapeutic goal of normalising the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level is achieved. The target TSH range is 0.5-2.5 mU/l.

      Women with hypothyroidism who become pregnant should have their dose increased by at least 25-50 micrograms levothyroxine due to the increased demands of pregnancy. The TSH should be monitored carefully, aiming for a low-normal value. It is important to note that there is no evidence to support combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine.

      While levothyroxine is generally well-tolerated, there are some potential side-effects to be aware of. Over-treatment can lead to hyperthyroidism, while long-term use can reduce bone mineral density. In patients with cardiac disease, levothyroxine can worsen angina and lead to atrial fibrillation. It is also important to be aware of drug interactions, particularly with iron and calcium carbonate, which can reduce the absorption of levothyroxine. These medications should be given at least 4 hours apart.

      In summary, managing hypothyroidism involves careful consideration of dosage, monitoring of TSH levels, and awareness of potential side-effects and drug interactions. With appropriate management, patients with hypothyroidism can achieve normal thyroid function and improve their overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      28.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department in the middle of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department in the middle of the night with worsening pain in his left leg. The pain began at rest approximately 2 hours ago and has now become severe. The patient has a history of peripheral arterial disease and continues to smoke 10 cigarettes per day. Upon examination, the left lower limb appears pale and feels cold with no signs of edema or trauma. The dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses are absent on palpation and inaudible on a doppler exam, while the right lower limb pulses are palpable. The patient has received IV morphine. What is the most appropriate initial management for this individual?

      Your Answer: Low molecular weight heparin, ankle-brachial pressure index, and lower limb arterial Doppler ultrasound scan

      Correct Answer: IV unfractionated heparin and urgent vascular review

      Explanation:

      The appropriate initial management for acute limb ischaemia involves urgent vascular review and administration of IV unfractionated heparin for anticoagulation. The patient’s sudden onset of symptoms and absence of pulses on Doppler examination suggest arterial thrombosis, which is a surgical emergency. Low molecular weight heparin and a lower limb venous ultrasound scan are not indicated, as the thrombus is likely arterial. Similarly, ankle-brachial pressure index and imaging studies such as CT or lower limb arterial Doppler ultrasound should not delay urgent vascular review in this critical situation.

      Peripheral arterial disease can present in three main ways: intermittent claudication, critical limb ischaemia, and acute limb-threatening ischaemia. The latter is characterized by one or more of the 6 P’s: pale, pulseless, painful, paralysed, paraesthetic, and perishing with cold. Initial investigations include a handheld arterial Doppler examination and an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABI) if Doppler signals are present. It is important to determine whether the ischaemia is due to a thrombus or embolus, as this will guide management. Thrombus is suggested by pre-existing claudication with sudden deterioration, reduced or absent pulses in the contralateral limb, and evidence of widespread vascular disease. Embolus is suggested by a sudden onset of painful leg (<24 hours), no history of claudication, clinically obvious source of embolus, and no evidence of peripheral vascular disease. Initial management includes an ABC approach, analgesia, intravenous unfractionated heparin, and vascular review. Definitive management options include intra-arterial thrombolysis, surgical embolectomy, angioplasty, bypass surgery, or amputation for irreversible ischaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      78.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 30-year-old homeless woman with drug addiction presents with fever, rash and progressive...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old homeless woman with drug addiction presents with fever, rash and progressive swelling of the left side of her face, which began with an itchy scab on her left cheek 24 hours ago. Her temperature is 38.5 °C, and she is unable to open her left eye because of the swelling.
      Which of the following is the most likely causal organism?

      Your Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae

      Correct Answer: Group A Streptococcus

      Explanation:

      Bacterial Skin Infections: Understanding the Causes and Symptoms

      Erysipelas, a bacterial skin infection, is characterized by a tender, intensely erythematous, indurated plaque with a sharply demarcated border. It is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes, which is often sourced from the host’s nasopharynx. Prodromal symptoms such as malaise, chills, and high fever often precede the onset of skin lesions. Haemophilus influenzae can also cause cellulitis, but the skin lesion described in erysipelas is more consistent with this condition. Herpes simplex viruses cause a wide variety of disease states, including oropharyngeal infections and cold sores. Meningococcaemia, caused by Neisseria meningitidis, presents with a characteristic petechial skin rash on the trunk and legs. Understanding the causes and symptoms of these bacterial skin infections is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      28.8
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  • Question 4 - A 57-year-old male patient with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old male patient with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension is admitted to a surgical ward for a routine cholecystectomy. He is currently taking metformin 500mg BD, gliclazide 120 mg BD, ramipril 5mg, and atorvastatin 20 mg. The nurse on the morning drug round asks the doctor if they should administer the morning dose of gliclazide, as the surgery is scheduled for 9 am. What should the doctor advise the nurse?

      Your Answer: Gliclazide should be withheld 24 hours prior to surgery

      Correct Answer: The morning dose of gliclazide should be held but the afternoon dose can be given

      Explanation:

      On the day of surgery, sulfonylureas should be omitted, except for patients who take them twice a day. In this case, the morning dose should be withheld, and the afternoon dose given after the surgery. This is because there is a risk of hypoglycemia in the fasted state before surgery. Withholding both doses or withholding for 24 or 48 hours is incorrect. The BNF website provides a comprehensive guide for managing diabetic patients on insulin and anti-diabetic drugs during surgery, including information on when to introduce variable rate insulin infusions and withholding anti-diabetic medications.

      Preparation for surgery varies depending on whether the patient is undergoing an elective or emergency procedure. For elective cases, it is important to address any medical issues beforehand through a pre-admission clinic. Blood tests, urine analysis, and other diagnostic tests may be necessary depending on the proposed procedure and patient fitness. Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis should also be assessed, and a plan for thromboprophylaxis formulated. Patients are advised to fast from non-clear liquids and food for at least 6 hours before surgery, and those with diabetes require special management to avoid potential complications. Emergency cases require stabilization and resuscitation as needed, and antibiotics may be necessary. Special preparation may also be required for certain procedures, such as vocal cord checks for thyroid surgery or bowel preparation for colorectal cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      37.7
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  • Question 5 - A 79-year-old man with a medical history of prostate cancer, asthma, and COPD...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old man with a medical history of prostate cancer, asthma, and COPD presents to the emergency department with complaints of abdominal pain, bone pain, and general weakness. During investigations, a shortened QT interval is noted on his ECG. What is the initial management approach for this complication in this patient?

      Your Answer: Bisphosphonates

      Correct Answer: IV 0.9% N saline

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Causes of Hypercalcaemia

      Hypercalcaemia is a medical condition characterized by high levels of calcium in the blood. In most cases, two conditions account for 90% of hypercalcaemia cases. The first is primary hyperparathyroidism, which is the most common cause in non-hospitalized patients. The second is malignancy, which is the most common cause in hospitalized patients. Malignancy-related hypercalcaemia may be due to various processes, including PTHrP from the tumor, bone metastases, and myeloma. For this reason, measuring parathyroid hormone levels is crucial when investigating patients with hypercalcaemia.

      Other causes of hypercalcaemia include sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, histoplasmosis, vitamin D intoxication, acromegaly, thyrotoxicosis, milk-alkali syndrome, drugs such as thiazides and calcium-containing antacids, dehydration, Addison’s disease, and Paget’s disease of the bone. It is important to note that hypercalcaemia may occur with prolonged immobilization in patients with Paget’s disease of the bone, although this condition is usually normal.

      In summary, hypercalcaemia can be caused by various medical conditions, with primary hyperparathyroidism and malignancy being the most common. Measuring parathyroid hormone levels is essential in investigating patients with hypercalcaemia. Other causes of hypercalcaemia include sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, histoplasmosis, vitamin D intoxication, acromegaly, thyrotoxicosis, milk-alkali syndrome, drugs, dehydration, Addison’s disease, and Paget’s disease of the bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      35
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 32-year-old woman presents to the gynaecology clinic with her partner, reporting 2...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to the gynaecology clinic with her partner, reporting 2 years of unsuccessful attempts at conceiving. Neither she nor her partner have any children from previous relationships. The patient has a medical history of polycystic ovarian syndrome. On examination, her vital signs are within normal limits and her BMI is 24 kg/mÂČ. What is the recommended initial approach to enhance fertility?

      Your Answer: Metformin

      Correct Answer: Clomifene

      Explanation:

      Clomifene is the recommended first-line treatment for infertility in patients with PCOS. This patient has been diagnosed with PCOS, which can cause infertility and other symptoms such as hirsutism. Clomifene works by inducing ovulation and has been shown to improve fertility outcomes in these patients.

      Goserelin is not a suitable treatment for infertility in PCOS patients. It is a gonadotrophin-releasing hormone agonist used for conditions such as prostate carcinoma, endometriosis, and dysfunctional uterine bleeding. In-vitro fertilisation is not typically the first option for improving fertility in PCOS patients and is usually considered later on.

      While metformin is an important drug in the management of PCOS, it is not the primary treatment for improving fertility. It is often prescribed in combination with clomifene to address metabolic issues associated with PCOS. However, clomifene is the key drug for improving overall fertility outcomes in these patients.

      Managing Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome

      Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is a condition that affects a significant percentage of women of reproductive age. The exact cause of PCOS is not fully understood, but it is associated with high levels of luteinizing hormone and hyperinsulinemia. Management of PCOS is complex and varies depending on the individual’s symptoms. Weight reduction is often recommended, and a combined oral contraceptive pill may be used to regulate menstrual cycles and manage hirsutism and acne. If these symptoms do not respond to the pill, topical eflornithine or medications like spironolactone, flutamide, and finasteride may be used under specialist supervision.

      Infertility is another common issue associated with PCOS. Weight reduction is recommended, and the management of infertility should be supervised by a specialist. There is ongoing debate about the most effective treatment for infertility in patients with PCOS. Clomifene is often used, but there is a potential risk of multiple pregnancies with anti-oestrogen therapies like clomifene. Metformin is also used, either alone or in combination with clomifene, particularly in patients who are obese. Gonadotrophins may also be used to stimulate ovulation. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) published an opinion paper in 2008 and concluded that on current evidence, metformin is not a first-line treatment of choice in the management of PCOS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      22.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Warfarin can be described as which of the following statements? ...

    Incorrect

    • Warfarin can be described as which of the following statements?

      Your Answer: An initial loading dose is given because it has a short half-life (3 hours)

      Correct Answer: It reduces protein C levels in the blood

      Explanation:

      Facts about Warfarin: Uses, Effects, and Precautions

      Warfarin is a medication used to reduce blood clotting and prevent thrombosis. It works by blocking an enzyme that reactivates vitamin K1, which is necessary for the production of clotting factors. However, there are several important facts to consider when using warfarin.

      Firstly, warfarin reduces protein C levels in the blood, which can affect its anticoagulant properties. Additionally, warfarin is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its ability to pass through the placenta and cause bleeding in the fetus. It is also a teratogen, which means it can cause congenital abnormalities if exposure occurs during pregnancy.

      Furthermore, heparin is more associated with a prothrombotic reaction, heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, and an antibody-mediated decrease in platelet levels. Warfarin, on the other hand, has a short half-life of 3 hours and requires an initial loading dose to reach therapeutic effect.

      Lastly, warfarin can be safely used in breastfeeding mothers as the amount of warfarin in breast milk is not significant enough to affect the baby. However, caution should be exercised in lactating women.

      In conclusion, warfarin is a useful medication for preventing thrombosis, but it should be used with caution and under medical supervision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      17.6
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  • Question 8 - A mother brings in her 4-week old male baby who was born at...

    Correct

    • A mother brings in her 4-week old male baby who was born at 30 weeks. He was discharged from neonatal intensive care unit 2 weeks ago. She reports that for the last 4 days, he has been refusing feed. This morning she noticed that he passed some bloody stools. On examination, the baby has a distended abdomen.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Necrotising enterocolitis

      Explanation:

      Feeding intolerance, abdominal distension, and bloody stools are among the early signs of necrotising enterocolitis, which is a high risk for preterm babies. Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GORD) does not cause abdominal distension and bloody stools, while duodenal atresia typically presents with bilious vomiting within the first day of life and does not cause bloody stools. Although hospital-acquired infection is a possibility, given the clinical picture and preterm status, ruling out necrotising enterocolitis should be the priority.

      Understanding Necrotising Enterocolitis

      Necrotising enterocolitis is a serious condition that is responsible for a significant number of premature infant deaths. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as feeding intolerance, abdominal distension, and bloody stools. If left untreated, these symptoms can quickly progress to more severe symptoms such as abdominal discolouration, perforation, and peritonitis.

      To diagnose necrotising enterocolitis, doctors often use abdominal x-rays. These x-rays can reveal a number of important indicators of the condition, including dilated bowel loops, bowel wall oedema, and intramural gas. Other signs that may be visible on an x-ray include portal venous gas, pneumoperitoneum resulting from perforation, and air both inside and outside of the bowel wall. In some cases, an x-ray may also reveal air outlining the falciform ligament, which is known as the football sign.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms and diagnostic indicators of necrotising enterocolitis is crucial for early detection and treatment of this serious condition. By working closely with healthcare professionals and following recommended screening protocols, parents and caregivers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for premature infants at risk for this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      40.2
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  • Question 9 - A teenager returns from a backpacking holiday in South America, having developed abdominal...

    Correct

    • A teenager returns from a backpacking holiday in South America, having developed abdominal pain, diarrhoea and fevers one week before his return. On examination, he has a fever of 38.5 °C and diffuse abdominal pain. Stool microscopy shows pus and red blood cells; culture is awaited.
      Which of the following is the most likely organism?

      Your Answer: Salmonella species

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Gastroenteritis in Travellers

      Travellers are at risk of contracting various infections that can cause gastroenteritis. Salmonella species, transmitted through contaminated food or beverages, can cause non-typhoidal enterocolitis, non-typhoidal focal disease, or typhoid fever. Rotavirus, which causes self-limited gastroenteritis, typically presents with anorexia, low-grade fever, and watery, bloodless diarrhea. Plasmodium falciparum, a parasite that causes malaria, can be detected through blood films. Norovirus, the most common cause of epidemic non-bacterial gastroenteritis, presents with nausea, vomiting, watery non-bloody/non-purulent diarrhea, and low-grade fever. Vibrio cholerae, which causes cholera, is transmitted through contaminated water or food and can cause severe watery diarrhea, vomiting, and dehydration. It is important to consider these potential causes when diagnosing gastroenteritis in returning travellers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      51.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 25-year-old man has recurrent, persistent, intrusive, distressing thoughts and images of his...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man has recurrent, persistent, intrusive, distressing thoughts and images of his friends getting hurt. He reports that these thoughts seem to originate from his own mind, but he considers them to be irrational.
      Which symptom is he reporting?

      Your Answer: Delusions

      Correct Answer: Obsessions

      Explanation:

      Understanding Psychiatric Symptoms: Obsessions, Compulsions, Delusions, Hallucinations, and Thought Interference

      Psychiatric symptoms can be complex and difficult to understand. Here are some explanations of common symptoms:

      Obsessions are intrusive thoughts, images, or impulses that repetitively and stereotypically enter a person’s mind. They are often distressing and patients try unsuccessfully to resist them. Common themes include aggression, dirt and contamination, fear of causing harm, religion, and sex.

      Compulsions are repetitive and stereotyped acts or rituals that are often carried out as an attempt to neutralize distressing obsessional thoughts. Patients typically recognize these behaviors as pointless and ineffective, and try to resist them, often unsuccessfully.

      Delusions are false, fixed, and firmly held beliefs that are not in keeping with a person’s social, cultural, and religious background. Patients typically do not recognize them as false or irrational and do not try to resist them, even if they find them distressing.

      Hallucinations are sensory experiences that occur without an external stimulus that could produce such perception. They can be perceptions in any sensory modality, such as hearing a voice in the absence of anyone actually talking.

      Thought interference consists of a patient’s firm belief that an external entity is interfering with their thoughts, usually by introducing thoughts in their mind, stealing thoughts from them, or being able to access their thoughts. Patients usually lack insight into these pathological experiences.

      Understanding these symptoms can help individuals and their loved ones seek appropriate treatment and support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      28.9
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  • Question 11 - A 30-year-old woman visits her GP to inquire about preconception care as she...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman visits her GP to inquire about preconception care as she is eager to conceive. She has a BMI of 36 kg/m2 and a family history of T2DM and epilepsy, but no other significant medical history. What is the primary complication her baby may be at risk of?

      Your Answer: Neural tube defects

      Explanation:

      Maternal obesity with a BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more increases the risk of neural tube defects in babies. There is no strong evidence linking obesity to hyper- or hypothyroidism in neonates, an increased risk of Down syndrome, or cystic fibrosis.

      Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention

      Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. It is found in green, leafy vegetables and plays a crucial role in the transfer of 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA. However, certain factors such as phenytoin, methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause a deficiency in folic acid. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.

      To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, it is recommended that all women take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if they or their partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with certain medical conditions such as coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, or those taking antiepileptic drugs, or who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also considered higher risk.

      In summary, folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in DNA and RNA synthesis. Deficiency in folic acid can lead to serious health consequences, including neural tube defects. However, taking folic acid supplements during pregnancy can prevent these defects and ensure a healthy pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      114.4
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  • Question 12 - A 54-year-old man comes to his GP for a diabetes check-up. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man comes to his GP for a diabetes check-up. He has a past medical history of type 2 diabetes and is currently on one diabetes medication (500mg metformin BD). He reports no adverse effects from this treatment. His most recent retinopathy screening was unremarkable. You draw blood to assess his HbA1c levels.
      What is the recommended target HbA1c for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 48 mmol/mol

      Explanation:

      The recommended HbA1c goal for individuals with type 2 diabetes mellitus is 48 mmol/mol. According to NICE guidelines, this target is appropriate for patients who are managing their condition through lifestyle changes or a single antidiabetic medication. However, if a patient is prescribed a second medication or is taking a medication that increases the risk of hypoglycaemia (such as a sulphonylurea), the target may be adjusted to 53 mmol/mol. It is important to note that the HbA1c threshold for changing medications may differ from the target HbA1c level.

      NICE updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022, reflecting advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. The first-line drug of choice remains metformin, which should be titrated up slowly to minimize gastrointestinal upset. HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients and checked every 3-6 months until stable, with consideration for relaxing targets on a case-by-case basis. Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates and controlling intake of foods containing saturated fats and trans fatty acids. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease. Only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin, with atorvastatin 20mg as the first-line choice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 13 - A 50-year old-man comes to see you saying that his father recently passed...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year old-man comes to see you saying that his father recently passed away due to an abdominal aortic aneurysm. He inquires if he will be screened for this condition and when should he start screening?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Single abdominal ultrasound at 65

      Explanation:

      Understanding Abdominal Aortic Aneurysms

      Abdominal aortic aneurysms occur when the elastic proteins within the extracellular matrix fail, causing dilation of all layers of the arterial wall. This degenerative disease is most commonly seen in individuals over the age of 50, with diameters of 3 cm or greater considered aneurysmal. The development of aneurysms is a complex process involving the loss of the intima and elastic fibers from the media, which is associated with increased proteolytic activity and lymphocytic infiltration.

      Smoking and hypertension are major risk factors for the development of aneurysms, while rare causes include syphilis and connective tissue diseases such as Ehlers Danlos type 1 and Marfan’s syndrome. It is important to understand the pathophysiology of abdominal aortic aneurysms in order to identify and manage risk factors, as well as to provide appropriate treatment for those affected. By recognizing the underlying causes and risk factors, healthcare professionals can work to prevent the development of aneurysms and improve outcomes for those affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      0
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  • Question 14 - A 45-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 3-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 3-day history of increased urinary frequency, urgency, nocturia and mild, lower abdominal discomfort.
      On examination, she looks well. She is afebrile, while her abdomen is soft and nontender. A urine dipstick is performed. Her estimated glomerular filtration rate was normal: > 90 ml/minute per 1.73 m2 three months ago.
      Urinalysis reveals the following:
      Investigation Result
      Leukocytes +++
      Nitrates +
      Blood +
      What is the most appropriate initial treatment option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nitrofurantoin 100 mg twice a day for seven days

      Explanation:

      The recommended first-line treatment for uncomplicated UTIs is nitrofurantoin, with trimethoprim as an alternative if resistance is low. Painless haematuria warrants investigation of the renal tract, and this should also be considered in men with confirmed UTIs. Amoxicillin is not typically recommended for UTIs due to its inactivation by penicillinase produced by E. coli, but it may be appropriate if the causative organism is sensitive to it. While waiting for MSU results, empirical antibiotic treatment should be started immediately if a UTI is suspected. Ciprofloxacin is indicated for acute prostatitis or pyelonephritis, not uncomplicated lower UTIs, and caution is needed when prescribing quinolones to the elderly due to the risk of tendon rupture. Trimethoprim is an appropriate first-line antibiotic for lower UTIs in men, with a 7-day course recommended, while a 3-day course is suitable for non-pregnant women under 65.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 15 - A 45-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 7-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 7-day history of flu-like symptoms, including spiking fevers, headache, rigors, vomiting and diarrhoea.
      On examination, he looks unwell, is febrile and jaundiced. His abdomen is soft, with mild, generalised tenderness and hepatosplenomegaly. He returned from Nigeria six months ago after a 8-week stay with a charity mission. He had all the appropriate travel vaccinations and took mefloquine prophylaxis.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Malaria

      Explanation:

      Travel-Related Illnesses: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Malaria, Yellow Fever, Enteric Fever, Hepatitis A, and Schistosomiasis are some of the common travel-related illnesses that can affect people visiting certain parts of the world.

      Malaria is a potentially life-threatening illness caused by a parasite transmitted by mosquitoes. Symptoms include headache, cough, fatigue, fever with rigors, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Diagnosis is made through thick and thin blood films, and treatment should be guided by an infectious disease specialist.

      Yellow fever is an insect-borne tropical disease with symptoms that may include a flu-like illness, jaundice, and abnormal bleeding. It has a short incubation period of 3-6 days and is transmitted by mosquitoes. Vaccination is recommended for travelers to high-risk areas.

      Enteric fever is caused by salmonella typhoid or paratyphoid and is transmitted orally via contaminated food or drink. Symptoms include severe flu-like symptoms, especially diarrhea and fever. Diagnosis is made through blood cultures, and treatment is with antibiotics.

      Hepatitis A is a viral infection transmitted via contaminated food or water. Symptoms include a flu-like illness, jaundice, and tender hepatomegaly. Diagnosis is made through blood tests, and treatment is supportive.

      Schistosomiasis is a parasitic infection spread by flatworms that live in freshwater. Symptoms can include fever, rash, abdominal pain, and diarrhea. Chronic infection may present as rectal bleeding, hematuria, anemia, or cystitis. Diagnosis is made through blood and stool tests, and treatment is with antiparasitic medication.

      In conclusion, travelers to certain parts of the world should be aware of the risk of these illnesses and take appropriate precautions, including vaccination, prophylaxis, and avoiding contaminated food and water. If symptoms develop, prompt medical attention should be sought.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
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  • Question 16 - A 32-year-old woman at 28 weeks gestation reports decreased fetal movements. Upon ultrasound,...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman at 28 weeks gestation reports decreased fetal movements. Upon ultrasound, it is discovered that the fetus is hydropic. Her 5-year-old child had a fever and redness on the cheeks recently. What is the probable infectious agent responsible for this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Parvovirus B19

      Explanation:

      The symptoms exhibited by the child indicate erythema infectiosum, which is caused by an infection with parvovirus B19. Most pregnant women have immunity to this virus and it typically does not pose a risk. However, in rare cases, infection during the first trimester has been associated with hydrops fetalis, which can lead to miscarriage.

      Parvovirus B19: A Virus with Various Clinical Presentations

      Parvovirus B19 is a DNA virus that can cause different clinical presentations. One of the most common is erythema infectiosum, also known as fifth disease or slapped-cheek syndrome. This illness may manifest as a mild feverish condition or a noticeable rash that appears after a few days. The rash is characterized by rose-red cheeks, which is why it is called slapped-cheek syndrome. It may spread to the rest of the body but rarely involves the palms and soles. The rash usually peaks after a week and then fades, but for some months afterwards, a warm bath, sunlight, heat, or fever may trigger a recurrence of the bright red cheeks and rash. Most children recover without specific treatment, and school exclusion is unnecessary as the child is not infectious once the rash emerges. However, in adults, the virus may cause acute arthritis.

      Aside from erythema infectiosum, parvovirus B19 can also present as asymptomatic, pancytopenia in immunosuppressed patients, aplastic crises in sickle-cell disease, and hydrops fetalis. The virus suppresses erythropoiesis for about a week, so aplastic anemia is rare unless there is a chronic hemolytic anemia. In pregnant women, the virus can cross the placenta and cause severe anemia due to viral suppression of fetal erythropoiesis, which can lead to heart failure secondary to severe anemia and the accumulation of fluid in fetal serous cavities (e.g. ascites, pleural and pericardial effusions). This condition is treated with intrauterine blood transfusions.

      It is important to note that the virus can affect an unborn baby in the first 20 weeks of pregnancy. If a woman is exposed early in pregnancy (before 20 weeks), she should seek prompt advice from her antenatal care provider as maternal IgM and IgG will need to be checked. The virus is spread by the respiratory route, and a person is infectious 3 to 5 days before the appearance of the rash. Children are no longer infectious once the rash appears, and there is no specific treatment. Therefore, the child need not be excluded from school as they are no longer infectious by the time the rash occurs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 17 - A 45-year-old woman has been using diphenhydramine (Benadryl) for allergy relief. She reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman has been using diphenhydramine (Benadryl) for allergy relief. She reports using it frequently and her doctor suspects she may be experiencing symptoms of the anticholinergic syndrome (ACS).
      Which of the following statements accurately describes the anticholinergic syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hot, dry skin occurs

      Explanation:

      Understanding Anticholinergic Syndrome: Symptoms and Treatment

      Anticholinergic syndrome is a condition that occurs when there is an inhibition of cholinergic neurotransmission at muscarinic receptor sites. It can be caused by the ingestion of various medications, intentional overdose, inadvertent ingestion, medical non-compliance, or geriatric polypharmacy. The syndrome produces central nervous system effects, peripheral nervous system effects, or both, resulting in a range of symptoms.

      Symptoms of anticholinergic syndrome include flushing, dry skin and mucous membranes, mydriasis with loss of accommodation, altered mental status, fever, sinus tachycardia, decreased bowel sounds, functional ileus, urinary retention, hypertension, tremulousness, and myoclonic jerking. Hot, dry skin and constricted pupils are also common manifestations.

      Treatment for anticholinergic syndrome involves stabilizing the patient in A&E and removing the toxin from the gastrointestinal tract. This can be done with a single dose of activated charcoal by mouth or nasogastric tube. Gastric lavage, followed by activated charcoal administration, is acceptable for patients presenting with altered mental state and within 1 hour of ingestion.

      Physostigmine salicylate is the classic antidote for anticholinergic toxicity. While most patients can be safely treated without it, it is recommended when tachydysrhythmia is present. However, physostigmine is contraindicated in patients with cardiac conduction disturbances on ECG.

      In conclusion, understanding the symptoms and treatment of anticholinergic syndrome is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care for patients who may present with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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  • Question 18 - A 62-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 6-month history of chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 6-month history of chest pain that occurs during physical activity and is relieved with rest. She has a medical history of hypercholesterolemia and asthma, drinks 8 units of alcohol per week, and has never smoked. Her vital signs are within normal limits and an ECG shows sinus rhythm. What is the most suitable medication to prescribe for preventing future episodes, considering the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Verapamil

      Explanation:

      To prevent angina attacks, the first-line treatment is either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker. If a person experiences chest pain that feels like squeezing during physical activity but goes away with rest, it is likely stable angina. Having high cholesterol levels increases the risk of developing this condition. A normal electrocardiogram (ECG) indicates that there is no ongoing heart attack.

      Angina pectoris is a condition that can be managed through various methods, including lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. The first-line medication should be either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If the initial treatment is not effective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, other drugs such as long-acting nitrates, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. Nitrate tolerance is a common issue, and patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate should use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. This effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 19 - A 55-year-old woman presents to urogynaecology with symptoms of urge incontinence. Despite attempting...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents to urogynaecology with symptoms of urge incontinence. Despite attempting bladder retraining, her symptoms persist. The decision is made to prescribe a muscarinic antagonist. Can you identify an example of a medication that falls under this category?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tolterodine

      Explanation:

      Oxybutynin and solifenacin are other examples of muscarinic antagonists used for urinary incontinence. Muscarinic antagonists used for different conditions include ipratropium for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and procyclidine for Parkinson’s disease.

      Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management

      Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.

      In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 20 - A 50-year-old woman presents to you with her husband. Her husband complains of...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents to you with her husband. Her husband complains of frequently waking up in the middle of the night and experiencing difficulty in breathing. She also notes that he feels excessively tired during the day and often dozes off while reading the newspaper. You suspect moderate sleep apnoea and decide to refer him for further evaluation. The patient is curious about the treatment options available. What is the primary treatment for moderate sleep apnoea?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Obstructive Sleep Apnoea/Hypopnoea Syndrome

      Obstructive sleep apnoea/hypopnoea syndrome (OSAHS) is a condition where the upper airway becomes partially or completely blocked during sleep, leading to interrupted breathing and reduced oxygen levels in the body. There are several predisposing factors for OSAHS, including obesity, macroglossia, large tonsils, and Marfan’s syndrome. The condition is often characterized by excessive snoring and periods of apnoea, which can be reported by the patient’s partner.

      OSAHS can have several consequences, including daytime somnolence, compensated respiratory acidosis, and hypertension. To assess sleepiness, healthcare professionals may use tools such as the Epworth Sleepiness Scale or the Multiple Sleep Latency Test. Diagnostic tests for OSAHS include sleep studies, ranging from monitoring pulse oximetry to full polysomnography.

      Management of OSAHS typically involves weight loss and continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) as the first line of treatment for moderate or severe cases. Intra-oral devices may be used if CPAP is not tolerated or for patients with mild OSAHS. It is important to inform the DVLA if OSAHS is causing excessive daytime sleepiness. While there is limited evidence to support the use of pharmacological agents, healthcare professionals may consider them in certain cases.

      Overall, understanding OSAHS and its management is crucial for improving the quality of life for patients with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 21 - Crohn's disease is characterized by which of the following features? Please select the...

    Incorrect

    • Crohn's disease is characterized by which of the following features? Please select the ONE most characteristic feature from the list provided.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Skip lesions

      Explanation:

      Comparison of Crohn’s Disease and Ulcerative Colitis

      Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis are two types of inflammatory bowel disease that affect the gastrointestinal tract. Crohn’s disease can occur anywhere along the GI tract, while ulcerative colitis typically only affects the large intestine.

      One characteristic of Crohn’s disease is the presence of skip lesions, or areas of inflammation discontinuity. The colon wall may also appear thickened and have a cobblestone appearance. In contrast, ulcerative colitis shows continuous inflammation in affected areas, with a thinner colon wall and ulcers limited to the mucous lining of the large intestine.

      Both diseases can cause rectal bleeding, but it is more common in ulcerative colitis. Other symptoms of ulcerative colitis include frequent stools and mucus discharge from the rectum, while Crohn’s disease often presents with prolonged diarrhea and abdominal pain.

      Pseudopolyps, or benign lesions originating from the mucosa, can occur in both diseases but are more prevalent in ulcerative colitis. Crypt abscess formation, characterized by intense infiltration of the mucosa and submucosa with neutrophils and crypt abscesses, is a hallmark of ulcerative colitis.

      Management of these diseases includes medical therapy, endoscopy, and surgery for complications such as bleeding or obstruction. Understanding the differences between Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 22 - A 45-year-old man with a chronic history of back pain visits his GP...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man with a chronic history of back pain visits his GP with complaints of left eye pain and sensitivity to light. Upon examination, the pupil appears small and oval-shaped, accompanied by ciliary congestion. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anterior uveitis

      Explanation:

      It is possible that his chronic back pain is related to HLA-B27, which is often associated with anterior uveitis. As for his red eye, it could be indicative of either glaucoma or uveitis. Glaucoma typically presents with severe pain, haloes, and a semi-dilated pupil, while uveitis is characterized by a small, fixed oval pupil and ciliary flush.

      Understanding the Causes of Red Eye

      Red eye is a common condition that can be caused by various factors. It is important to identify the underlying cause of red eye to determine the appropriate treatment. In some cases, urgent referral to an ophthalmologist may be necessary. Here are some of the key distinguishing features of the different causes of red eye:

      Acute angle closure glaucoma is characterized by severe pain, decreased visual acuity, and haloes. The pupil may also be semi-dilated and the cornea hazy.

      Anterior uveitis presents with acute onset, pain, blurred vision, and photophobia. The pupil is small and fixed, and there may be ciliary flush.

      Scleritis is characterized by severe pain and tenderness, which may worsen with movement. It may also be associated with underlying autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis.

      Conjunctivitis may be bacterial or viral, with purulent or clear discharge, respectively.

      Subconjunctival haemorrhage may be caused by trauma or coughing bouts.

      Endophthalmitis typically occurs after intraocular surgery and presents with red eye, pain, and visual loss.

      By understanding the different causes of red eye and their distinguishing features, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate management and referral when necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 23 - A 32-year-old man visits the general practice surgery as he is experiencing sudden-onset...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man visits the general practice surgery as he is experiencing sudden-onset vertigo when standing up from a seated position. Episodes last about 30 seconds and he denies any ear pain or hearing loss. His examination is unremarkable.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Epley’s manoeuvre

      Explanation:

      Understanding BPPV and Treatment Options

      Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is a common condition that causes dizziness and vertigo. The Epley manoeuvre is a recommended treatment option for BPPV, involving repositioning the patient’s head and neck to remove calcium crystals from the semicircular canals. However, it should not be performed in patients with certain medical conditions. Symptomatic drug treatment is not recommended for BPPV, and patients should seek further medical advice if symptoms persist. The Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre is a diagnostic test for BPPV, while Brandt-Daroff exercises can be considered as an alternative treatment option. Understanding these options can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate care for patients with BPPV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
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  • Question 24 - You are conducting a medication review on an 80-year-old man who is taking...

    Incorrect

    • You are conducting a medication review on an 80-year-old man who is taking aspirin, verapamil, allopurinol, and co-codamol. Which medication should be avoided if prescribed concurrently with the current medications?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atenolol

      Explanation:

      The combination of beta-blockers and verapamil has the potential to cause severe bradycardia and asystole.

      Beta-blockers are a class of drugs that are primarily used to manage cardiovascular disorders. They have a wide range of indications, including angina, post-myocardial infarction, heart failure, arrhythmias, hypertension, thyrotoxicosis, migraine prophylaxis, and anxiety. Beta-blockers were previously avoided in heart failure, but recent evidence suggests that certain beta-blockers can improve both symptoms and mortality. They have also replaced digoxin as the rate-control drug of choice in atrial fibrillation. However, their role in reducing stroke and myocardial infarction has diminished in recent years due to a lack of evidence. Examples of beta-blockers include atenolol and propranolol, which was one of the first beta-blockers to be developed and is lipid soluble, allowing it to cross the blood-brain barrier.

      Like all drugs, beta-blockers have side-effects, including bronchospasm, cold peripheries, fatigue, sleep disturbances (including nightmares), and erectile dysfunction. They are contraindicated in uncontrolled heart failure, asthma, sick sinus syndrome, and concurrent use with verapamil, which may precipitate severe bradycardia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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  • Question 25 - A 32-year-old woman presents to the endocrine clinic with thyroid function test results...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to the endocrine clinic with thyroid function test results indicating palpitations, excessive sweating, unintentional weight loss, and a notable thyroid goitre that is tender upon palpation. The test results show a TSH level of 9.4 mU/L (normal range: 0.5-5.5) and a free T4 level of 6.4 pmol/L (normal range: 9.0-18). What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Subacute (De Quervain's) thyroiditis

      Explanation:

      Subacute Thyroiditis: A Self-Limiting Condition with Four Phases

      Subacute thyroiditis, also known as De Quervain’s thyroiditis or subacute granulomatous thyroiditis, is a condition that is believed to occur after a viral infection. It is characterized by hyperthyroidism, a painful goitre, and raised ESR during the first phase, which lasts for 3-6 weeks. The second phase, which lasts for 1-3 weeks, is characterized by euthyroidism. The third phase, which can last for weeks to months, is characterized by hypothyroidism. Finally, in the fourth phase, the thyroid structure and function return to normal.

      To diagnose subacute thyroiditis, thyroid scintigraphy is used to show a globally reduced uptake of iodine-131. However, most patients do not require treatment as the condition is self-limiting. Thyroid pain may respond to aspirin or other NSAIDs, but in more severe cases, steroids may be used, particularly if hypothyroidism develops.

      It is important to note that subacute thyroiditis is just one of the many causes of thyroid dysfunction. A Venn diagram can be used to show how different causes of thyroid dysfunction may manifest. It is interesting to note that many causes of hypothyroidism may have an initial thyrotoxic phase. Proper diagnosis and management of thyroid dysfunction are crucial to ensure optimal patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 26 - A patient with a history of heart failure is experiencing discomfort even at...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with a history of heart failure is experiencing discomfort even at rest and is unable to engage in any physical activity without symptoms. What is the New York Heart Association classification that best describes the severity of their condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: NYHA Class IV

      Explanation:

      NYHA Classification for Chronic Heart Failure

      The NYHA classification is a widely used system for categorizing the severity of chronic heart failure. It is based on the symptoms experienced by the patient during physical activity. NYHA Class I indicates no symptoms and no limitations on physical activity. NYHA Class II indicates mild symptoms and slight limitations on physical activity. NYHA Class III indicates moderate symptoms and marked limitations on physical activity. Finally, NYHA Class IV indicates severe symptoms and an inability to carry out any physical activity without discomfort. This classification system is helpful in determining the appropriate treatment and management plan for patients with chronic heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 27 - An 80-year-old woman is under palliative care for glioblastoma and is currently managing...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman is under palliative care for glioblastoma and is currently managing her pain with regular paracetamol. However, she has been experiencing nausea. What would be the most suitable initial anti-emetic medication to prescribe for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cyclizine

      Explanation:

      Cyclizine is a recommended first choice anti-emetic for nausea and vomiting caused by intracranial or intra-vestibular issues. It is also useful in palliative care for managing gastrointestinal obstruction and vagally-mediated nausea or vomiting caused by mechanical bowel obstruction, movement disorders, or raised intracranial pressure. Domperidone is effective for gastro-intestinal pain in palliative care, while metoclopramide is used for acute migraine, chemotherapy or radiotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. Ondansetron is indicated for chemotherapy-related nausea and vomiting. Dexamethasone is a steroid that may be used in palliative care for treating nausea, anorexia, spinal cord compression, and liver capsule pain. If the cause of nausea is suspected to be raised intracranial pressure, cyclizine should be the first-line option, and dexamethasone may be considered as an additional treatment.

      Managing Nausea and Vomiting in Palliative Care: A Mechanistic Approach

      Nausea and vomiting are common symptoms in palliative care, often caused by multiple factors. Identifying the primary cause is crucial in selecting the appropriate anti-emetic therapy. Six broad syndromes have been identified, with gastric stasis and chemical disturbance being the most common. In palliative care, pharmacological therapy is the first-line method for treating nausea and vomiting. Two approaches can be used in selecting drug therapy: empirical or mechanistic. The mechanistic approach matches the choice of anti-emetic drug to the likely cause of the patient’s symptoms.

      The mechanistic approach involves selecting medication based on the underlying cause of the nausea and vomiting. For example, pro-kinetic agents are useful in scenarios where reduced gastric motility is the primary cause. First-line medications for this syndrome include metoclopramide and domperidone. However, metoclopramide should not be used in certain situations, such as complete bowel obstruction or gastrointestinal perforation. If the cause is chemically mediated, correcting the chemical disturbance should be the first step. Key treatment options include ondansetron, haloperidol, and levomepromazine. Cyclizine and levomepromazine are first-line for visceral/serosal causes, while cyclizine is recommended for nausea and vomiting due to intracranial disease. If the oral route is not possible, the parenteral route of administration is preferred, with the intravenous route used if access is already established.

      In summary, a mechanistic approach to managing nausea and vomiting in palliative care involves selecting medication based on the underlying cause of the symptoms. This approach can improve the effectiveness of anti-emetic therapy and reduce the risk of adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 28 - A 28-year-old man comes to your clinic seeking advice on how to improve...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man comes to your clinic seeking advice on how to improve his health after his uncle passed away from a heart attack at the age of 50. He mentions that he has already begun going to the gym three times a week and has increased his consumption of fruits and vegetables. However, he works in finance and is finding it difficult to reduce his alcohol consumption. What is the highest recommended weekly alcohol limit for men in the UK?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 14 units

      Explanation:

      The latest recommendations state that individuals should limit their alcohol consumption to no more than 14 units per week, regardless of gender. Additionally, it is suggested that individuals should spread out their drinking over a minimum of three days if they regularly consume 14 units per week.

      Alcohol consumption guidelines were revised in 2016 by the Chief Medical Officer, based on recommendations from an expert group report. The most significant change was a reduction in the recommended maximum number of units of alcohol for men from 21 to 14, aligning with the guidelines for women. The government now advises that both men and women should not exceed 14 units of alcohol per week, and if they do, it is best to spread it evenly over three or more days. Pregnant women are advised not to drink alcohol at all, as it can cause long-term harm to the baby. One unit of alcohol is equivalent to 10 mL of pure ethanol, and the strength of a drink is determined by its alcohol by volume (ABV). Examples of one unit of alcohol include a 25ml single measure of spirits with an ABV of 40%, a third of a pint of beer with an ABV of 5-6%, and half a 175ml standard glass of red wine with an ABV of 12%. To calculate the number of units in a drink, multiply the number of millilitres by the ABV and divide by 1,000.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 29 - A 35-year-old man presents to his family doctor after a trip to Southeast...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents to his family doctor after a trip to Southeast Asia. He and his colleagues frequently ate at street food stalls during their trip, often consuming seafood. He complains of feeling unwell, loss of appetite, yellowing of the skin and dark urine. He had a fever initially, but it disappeared once the jaundice appeared. During the examination, he has an enlarged liver and tenderness in the upper right quadrant. His ALT and AST levels are ten times the upper limit of normal, while his bilirubin level is six times the upper limit of normal, but his ALP is only slightly elevated. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis A

      Explanation:

      The patient’s history of foreign travel suggests that the most likely diagnosis is Hepatitis A. This virus is typically contracted through ingestion of contaminated food, particularly undercooked shellfish. While rare, outbreaks of Hepatitis A can occur worldwide, especially in resource-poor regions. Symptoms usually appear 2-6 weeks after exposure and can be more severe in older patients. Liver function tests often show elevated levels of ALT and AST. Diagnosis is confirmed through serologic testing for IgM antibody to HAV. Treatment involves supportive care and management of complications. Salmonella infection, Hepatitis B, gallstones, and pancreatic carcinoma are less likely diagnoses based on the patient’s symptoms and clinical presentation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 30 - A 53-year-old male smoker presents to the emergency department with a sore throat...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year-old male smoker presents to the emergency department with a sore throat that has been bothering him for a day. He reports feeling generally unwell and has a hoarse voice, but no cough. He has been unable to swallow for the past three hours and is spitting out saliva. During examination, he has a temperature of 38ÂșC and trismus. There are no obvious abnormalities in his oropharynx, and his tonsils appear normal. Additionally, he has bilateral cervical lymphadenopathy.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Immediate ENT evaluation

      Explanation:

      If a patient presents with acute sore throat but no visible signs in the oropharynx, and experiences severe symptoms such as difficulty swallowing, sepsis, or trismus, it is crucial to seek urgent evaluation from an ENT specialist. This is because these symptoms may indicate a deeper airway infection, such as supraglottitis, which can be life-threatening. Therefore, the patient should not be discharged without a thorough examination, including flexible nasendoscopy. If supraglottitis is diagnosed, treatment should involve IV antibiotics, IV dexamethasone, and adrenaline nebulizers. The patient should be closely monitored in an airway monitored bed, such as in an ENT ward or ICU if necessary.

      Sore throat is a term used to describe various conditions such as pharyngitis, tonsillitis, and laryngitis. According to Clinical Knowledge Summaries, throat swabs and rapid antigen tests should not be routinely carried out for patients with a sore throat. Pain relief can be managed with paracetamol or ibuprofen, and antibiotics are not typically necessary. However, in cases where there is marked systemic upset, unilateral peritonsillitis, a history of rheumatic fever, an increased risk from acute infection, or when three or more Centor criteria are present, antibiotics may be indicated. The Centor and FeverPAIN scoring systems can be used to determine the likelihood of isolating Streptococci. If antibiotics are necessary, phenoxymethylpenicillin or clarithromycin (for penicillin-allergic patients) can be given for a 7 or 10 day course. It is worth noting that a single dose of oral corticosteroid may reduce the severity and duration of pain, although this has not yet been incorporated into UK guidelines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease (1/3) 33%
Cardiovascular (0/1) 0%
Infectious Diseases (1/2) 50%
Reproductive Medicine (1/2) 50%
Pharmacology/Therapeutics (0/1) 0%
Paediatrics (1/1) 100%
Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Passmed