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Question 1
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A 67-year-old Indian woman presents to the Emergency Department with vomiting and central abdominal pain. She has vomited eight times over the last 24 hours. The vomit is non-bilious and non-bloody. She also reports that she has not moved her bowels for the last four days and is not passing flatus. She reports that she had some form of radiation therapy to her abdomen ten years ago in India for ‘stomach cancer’. There is no urinary urgency or burning on urination. She migrated from India to England two months ago. She reports no other past medical or surgical history.
Her observations and blood tests results are shown below:
Investigation Result Normal value
Temperature 36.9 °C
Blood pressure 155/59 mmHg
Heart rate 85 beats per minute
Respiratory rate 19 breaths per minute
Sp(O2) 96% (room air)
White cell count 8.9 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
C-reactive protein 36 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
The patient’s urine dipstick is negative for leukocytes and nitrites. Physical examination reveals a soft but distended abdomen. No abdominal scars are visible. There is mild tenderness throughout the abdomen. Bowel sounds are hyperactive. Rectal examination reveals no stool in the rectal vault, and no blood or melaena.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Small bowel obstruction
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Abdominal Pain: Small Bowel Obstruction, Acute Mesenteric Ischaemia, Diverticulitis, Pyelonephritis, and Viral Gastroenteritis
Abdominal pain can have various causes, and it is important to consider different possibilities to provide appropriate management. Here are some differential diagnoses for abdominal pain:
Small bowel obstruction (SBO) is characterized by vomiting, lack of bowel movements, and hyperactive bowel sounds. Patients who have had radiation therapy to their abdomen are at risk for SBO. Urgent management includes abdominal plain film, intravenous fluids, nasogastric tube placement, analgesia, and surgical review.
Acute mesenteric ischaemia is caused by reduced arterial blood flow to the small intestine. Patients with vascular risk factors such as hypertension, smoking, and diabetes mellitus are at risk. Acute-onset abdominal pain that is out of proportion to examination findings is a common symptom.
Diverticulitis presents with left iliac fossa pain, pyrexia, and leukocytosis. Vital signs are usually stable.
Pyelonephritis is characterized by fevers or chills, flank pain, and lower urinary tract symptoms.
Viral gastroenteritis typically presents with fast-onset diarrhea and vomiting after ingestion of contaminated food. However, the patient in this case has not had bowel movements for four days.
In summary, abdominal pain can have various causes, and it is important to consider the patient’s history, physical examination, and laboratory findings to arrive at an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 45-year-old man with dyspepsia and a history of recurrent peptic ulcer disease presents with intractable watery diarrhoea and weight loss. He has multiple gastric and duodenal peptic ulcers, which are poorly responding to medications such as antacids and omeprazole. Gastric acid output and serum gastrin level are elevated. Serum gastrin level fails to decrease following a test meal. On abdominal computerised tomography (CT) scan, no masses are found in the pancreas or duodenum.
Which one of the following drugs is useful for this patient?Your Answer: Octreotide
Explanation:Treatment Options for Gastrinoma: Octreotide, Somatostatin Antagonist, Bromocriptine, Pergolide, and Leuprolide
Gastrinoma is a rare condition characterized by multiple, recurrent, and refractory peptic ulcer disease, along with watery diarrhea and weight loss. The diagnosis is supported by an elevated serum gastrin level that is not suppressed by the test meal. While neoplastic masses of gastrinoma may or may not be localized by abdominal imaging, treatment options are available.
Octreotide, a synthetic somatostatin, is useful in the treatment of gastrinoma, acromegaly, carcinoid tumor, and glucagonoma. Somatostatin is an inhibitory hormone in several endocrine systems, and a somatostatin antagonist would increase gastrin, growth hormone, and glucagon secretion. However, it has no role in the treatment of gastrinoma.
Bromocriptine, a dopamine agonist, is used in the treatment of Parkinson’s disease, hyperprolactinemia, and pituitary tumors. Pergolide, another dopamine receptor agonist, was formerly used in the treatment of Parkinson’s disease but is no longer administered due to its association with valvular heart disease. Neither medication has a role in the treatment of gastrinoma.
Leuprolide, a gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) receptor agonist, is used in the treatment of sex hormone-sensitive tumors such as prostate or breast cancer. It also has no role in the treatment of gastrinoma. Overall, octreotide remains the primary treatment option for gastrinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 65-year-old man presents with symptoms of early satiety, nausea and abdominal fullness. He has lost 6 kg in weight over the past 3 months. There is no other past medical history of note. On examination, he looks very thin and there is a palpable epigastric mass.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 101 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 5.9 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 140 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 141 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.3 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 170 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 35 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
Alkaline phosphatase 68 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy reveals a smooth mass in the body of the stomach with normal-looking mucosa overlying it. Multiple biopsies: spindle cell tissue, cells undergoing multiple mitoses.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Gastrointestinal stromal tumour (GIST)
Explanation:Gastrointestinal Stromal Tumours (GISTs) vs Other Gastric Conditions
Gastrointestinal stromal tumours (GISTs) are the most common tumours of mesenchymal origin in the gastrointestinal tract, with approximately 50-70% occurring in the stomach. They are histologically characterized by spindle cells, epithelioid-like cells, or mixed spindle-epithelioid cells. GISTs tend to occur in individuals above the age of 40 and are equally common in men and women. Biopsy specimens are stained with DOG1 for identification, and surgical resection is the preferred treatment option. Systemic chemotherapy with imatinib is an alternative for patients who cannot undergo complete surgical resection. Disease survival rates at the 5-year stage range from 30-60%.
Other gastric conditions, such as gastric carcinoma, Helicobacter pylori gastritis, gastric leiomyosarcoma, and gastric lipoma, may present with similar symptoms but have different endoscopic and histological findings. Gastric carcinomas are most often adenocarcinomas, while Helicobacter pylori gastritis is the most common cause of gastritis worldwide. Gastric leiomyosarcoma is a differential diagnosis for GISTs, but GISTs are more common. Gastric lipomas would not present with the same combination of findings seen in GISTs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 50-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis attends the Gastroenterology Clinic for review. Over the past few months, his bowel symptoms have been generally quiescent, but he has suffered from tiredness and itching.
On examination, you notice that he has jaundiced sclerae and there are some scratch marks on his abdomen consistent with the itching.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.0 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Urea 5.6 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 90 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Haemoglobin 110 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 6.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 290 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 45 mm/hour 0–10mm in the 1st hour
Autoantibody screen ANCA +, anti-cardiolipin +, ANA +
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 75 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
Alkaline phosphatase 290 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
Bilirubin 85 μmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC)
Explanation:Differentiating Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis from Other Liver Conditions
Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is a condition that affects around 4% of patients with a history of inflammatory bowel disease. It is characterized by an obstructive liver function test (LFT) picture and autoantibody results consistent with PSC. While endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) has been considered the gold standard for diagnosis, magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) is now equally useful. Imaging typically shows a beaded appearance of biliary ducts, and liver biopsy may be useful in determining prognosis. Median survival from diagnosis to death or liver transplantation is around 10-15 years, with a disease recurrence rate of at least 30% in transplanted patients.
Cholelithiasis, on the other hand, typically presents with colicky abdominal pain and does not usually cause jaundice unless there is obstruction of the biliary system. Hepatocellular carcinoma risk is increased in patients with inflammatory bowel disease, but the clinical picture above is more in keeping with PSC. Primary biliary cholangitis would show positive anti-mitochondrial antibodies and mainly affect intrahepatic ducts, while ascending cholangitis would usually present with features of Charcot’s triad (jaundice, abdominal pain, and fever).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman presents to the Surgical Assessment Unit with mild abdominal pain that has been occurring on and off for several weeks. However, the pain has now worsened, causing her to feel nauseated and lose her appetite. She has not had a bowel movement in 3 days and has not noticed any blood in her stool. Upon examination, her temperature is 38.2 °C, heart rate 110 bpm, and blood pressure 124/82 mmHg. Her abdomen is soft, but she experiences tenderness in the left lower quadrant. Bowel sounds are present but reduced. During rectal examination, tenderness is the only finding. The patient has no history of gastrointestinal issues and only sees her general practitioner for osteoarthritis. She has not had a sexual partner since her husband passed away 2 years ago. Based on the information provided, what is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Inflammatory bowel disease
Correct Answer: Diverticulitis
Explanation:Understanding Diverticulitis: Symptoms, Risk Factors, and Differential Diagnoses
Diverticulitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of diverticula, which are mucosal herniations through the muscle of the colon. While most people over 50 have diverticula, only 25% of them become symptomatic, experiencing left lower quadrant abdominal pain that worsens after eating and improves after bowel emptying. Low dietary fiber, obesity, and smoking are risk factors for diverticular disease, which can lead to complications such as perforation, obstruction, or abscess formation.
Bowel perforation is a potential complication of diverticulitis, but it is rare and usually accompanied by peritonitis. Pelvic inflammatory disease is a possible differential diagnosis in women, but it is unlikely in this case due to the lack of sexual partners for two years. Inflammatory bowel disease is more common in young adults, while diverticulosis is more prevalent in people over 50. Colorectal cancer is another differential diagnosis to consider, especially in older patients with a change in bowel habit and fever or tachycardia.
In summary, understanding the symptoms, risk factors, and differential diagnoses of diverticulitis is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents to his gastroenterologist with complaints of recurrent diarrhoea, sweating episodes, and intermittent shortness of breath. During physical examination, a murmur is detected in the pulmonary valve. Urine testing reveals a high level of 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid content. What substance is likely responsible for these findings?
Your Answer: Nitric oxide
Correct Answer: Serotonin
Explanation:Neuroendocrine Tumors and Hormones: Understanding Carcinoid Syndrome and Related Hormones
Carcinoid syndrome is a condition caused by a neuroendocrine tumor, typically found in the gastrointestinal tract, that releases serotonin. Symptoms include flushing, diarrhea, and bronchospasm, and in some cases, carcinoid heart disease. Diagnosis is made by finding high levels of urine 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid. Somatostatin, an inhibitory hormone, is used to treat VIPomas and carcinoid tumors. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) can cause copious diarrhea but does not cause valvular heart disease. Nitric oxide does not play a role in carcinoid syndrome, while ghrelin regulates hunger and is associated with Prader-Willi syndrome. Understanding these hormones can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of neuroendocrine tumors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old stockbroker has been experiencing difficulty swallowing solids for the past few months, while having no trouble swallowing liquids. He does not smoke and denies any alcohol consumption. His medical history is unremarkable except for the fact that he has been using antacids and H2-receptor blockers for gastro-oesophageal reflux disease for the past 5 years, with little relief from symptoms. Upon examination, there are no notable findings.
What is the probable reason for this man's dysphagia?Your Answer: Diffuse oesophageal spasm
Correct Answer: Benign oesophageal stricture
Explanation:Causes of dysphagia: differential diagnosis based on patient history
Dysphagia, or difficulty swallowing, can have various causes, including structural abnormalities, functional disorders, and neoplastic conditions. Based on the patient’s history, several possibilities can be considered. For example, a benign oesophageal stricture may develop in patients with acid gastro-oesophageal reflux disease and can be treated with endoscopic dilation and reflux management. Diffuse oesophageal spasm, on the other hand, may cause dysphagia for both solids and liquids and be accompanied by chest pain. A lower oesophageal web can produce episodic dysphagia when food gets stuck in the distal oesophagus. Oesophageal squamous carcinoma is less likely in a young non-smoking patient, but should not be ruled out entirely. Scleroderma, a connective tissue disorder, may also cause dysphagia along with Raynaud’s phenomenon and skin changes. Therefore, a thorough evaluation and appropriate diagnostic tests are necessary to determine the underlying cause of dysphagia and guide the treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 8
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A 45-year-old woman with a known tumour in the superior (first) part of the duodenum complains of right upper quadrant pain and jaundice. A CT scan of the abdomen reveals that the tumour is causing obstruction of the biliary tree by pressing against it. Which segment of the biliary tree is most likely to be impacted?
Your Answer: Common bile duct
Explanation:Anatomy of the Biliary Tree: Location and Function of the Common Bile Duct, Common Hepatic Duct, Left Hepatic Duct, Cystic Duct, and Right Hepatic Duct
The biliary tree is a network of ducts that transport bile from the liver and gallbladder to the small intestine. Understanding the anatomy of the biliary tree is important for diagnosing and treating conditions that affect the liver, gallbladder, and pancreas. Here is a breakdown of the location and function of the common bile duct, common hepatic duct, left hepatic duct, cystic duct, and right hepatic duct:
Common Bile Duct: The common bile duct is the most likely to be occluded in cases of biliary obstruction. It descends posteriorly to the superior part of the duodenum before meeting the pancreatic duct at the ampulla of Vater in the descending part of the duodenum. The gastroduodenal artery, portal vein, and inferior vena cava are also located in this area.
Common Hepatic Duct: The common hepatic duct is formed by the junction of the left and right main hepatic ducts and is located in the free margin of the lesser omentum. It is found at a further superior location than the duodenum.
Left Hepatic Duct: The left hepatic duct drains the left lobe of the liver and is found above the superior part of the duodenum.
Cystic Duct: The cystic duct extends from the gallbladder to the common hepatic duct, which it joins to form the common bile duct. It lies further superior than the superior part of the duodenum.
Right Hepatic Duct: The right hepatic duct drains the right functional lobe of the liver. It joins the left hepatic duct to form the common hepatic duct. It is found superior to the level of the superior part of the duodenum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 54-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department complaining of right upper quadrant and epigastric pain and associated vomiting. This is his third attack in the past 9 months. He has a past history of obesity, hypertension and hypertriglyceridaemia. Medications include ramipril, amlodipine, fenofibrate, aspirin and indapamide. On examination, he is obese with a body mass index (BMI) of 31; his blood pressure is 145/85 mmHg, and he has jaundiced sclerae. There is right upper quadrant tenderness.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 3.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 140 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Haemoglobin 139 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 10.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 239 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Alanine aminotransferase 75 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
Bilirubin 99 μmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
Alkaline phosphatase 285 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
Ultrasound of abdomen: gallstones clearly visualised within a thick-walled gallbladder, dilated duct consistent with further stones.
Which of his medications is most likely to be responsible for his condition?Your Answer: Fenofibrate
Explanation:Drugs and their association with gallstone formation
Explanation:
Gallstones are a common medical condition that can cause severe pain and discomfort. Certain drugs have been found to increase the risk of gallstone formation, while others do not have any association.
Fenofibrate, a drug used to increase cholesterol excretion by the liver, is known to increase the risk of cholesterol gallstone formation. Oestrogens are also known to increase the risk of gallstones. Somatostatin analogues, which decrease gallbladder emptying, can contribute to stone formation. Pigment gallstones are associated with high haem turnover, such as in sickle-cell anaemia.
On the other hand, drugs like indapamide, ramipril, amlodipine, and aspirin are not associated with increased gallstone formation. It is important to be aware of the potential risks associated with certain medications and to discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old child is brought to the paediatrician by his parents for a follow-up examination after diagnosis of a genetically inherited disease. During the examination, the paediatrician observes a yellow-brown discoloration around the iris.
Which type of renal dysfunction is typically treated as the first-line approach for this child's condition?Your Answer: Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
Correct Answer: Membranous nephropathy
Explanation:Common Glomerular Diseases and Their Associations
Glomerular diseases are a group of conditions that affect the glomeruli, the tiny blood vessels in the kidneys that filter waste and excess fluids from the blood. Here are some common glomerular diseases and their associations:
1. Membranous nephropathy: This disease is associated with Wilson’s disease, an inherited disorder of copper metabolism. Treatment involves the use of penicillamine, which is associated with membranous nephropathy.
2. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis: This disease is associated with intravenous drug abuse, HIV, being of African origin, and obesity.
3. Minimal change disease: This nephrotic syndrome is associated with Hodgkin’s lymphoma and recent upper respiratory tract infection or routine immunisation.
4. Type II membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis: This disease is associated with C3 nephritic factor, an antibody that stabilises C3 convertase and causes alternative complement activation.
5. Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis: This nephritic syndrome is associated with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE).
Understanding the associations between glomerular diseases and their underlying causes can help in the diagnosis and management of these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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