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  • Question 1 - A 28-year-old woman who is 12 weeks pregnant comes in with vaginal bleeding....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman who is 12 weeks pregnant comes in with vaginal bleeding. What is the least indicative feature of a hydatidiform mole diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Symptoms of thyrotoxicosis

      Correct Answer: Crampy lower abdominal pains

      Explanation:

      A hydatidiform mole is characterized by painless vaginal bleeding. High levels of hCG may cause symptoms of thyrotoxicosis, which can mimic thyroid stimulating hormone.

      Gestational trophoblastic disorders refer to a range of conditions that originate from the placental trophoblast. These disorders include complete hydatidiform mole, partial hydatidiform mole, and choriocarcinoma. Complete hydatidiform mole is a benign tumor of trophoblastic material that occurs when an empty egg is fertilized by a single sperm that duplicates its own DNA, resulting in all 46 chromosomes being of paternal origin. Symptoms of this disorder include bleeding in the first or early second trimester, exaggerated pregnancy symptoms, a large uterus for dates, and high levels of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in the blood. Hypertension and hyperthyroidism may also be present. Urgent referral to a specialist center is necessary, and evacuation of the uterus is performed. Effective contraception is recommended to avoid pregnancy in the next 12 months. About 2-3% of cases may progress to choriocarcinoma. In partial mole, a normal haploid egg may be fertilized by two sperms or one sperm with duplication of paternal chromosomes, resulting in DNA that is both maternal and paternal in origin. Fetal parts may be visible, and the condition is usually triploid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      25.1
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  • Question 2 - A soon-to-be mother is curious about medications during pregnancy, particularly folic acid supplements....

    Correct

    • A soon-to-be mother is curious about medications during pregnancy, particularly folic acid supplements. What factors increase the likelihood of a couple having a baby with a neural tube defect (NTD)?

      Your Answer: Maternal coeliac disease

      Explanation:

      If a couple has a history of neural tube defects (NTDs), either partner has a NTD, or they have a family history of NTDs, they are at high risk of conceiving a child with this condition. Additionally, if the woman has coeliac disease, diabetes, thalassaemia trait, or is taking antiepileptic drugs, the risk is also increased. However, being obese (with a BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) is not a risk factor for NTDs and may actually be protective. On the other hand, advancing maternal age is a known risk factor for Down’s syndrome, while maternal rubella can lead to multiple congenital malformations and mental retardation in the child.

      Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention

      Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. THF plays a crucial role in transferring 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in DNA and RNA synthesis. Green, leafy vegetables are a good source of folic acid. However, certain medications like phenytoin and methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause folic acid deficiency. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.

      To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, all women should take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if either partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with antiepileptic drugs or coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, and those who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also at higher risk and should take the higher dose of folic acid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      23.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Sophie, who is interested in starting the copper coil for contraception, approaches you....

    Correct

    • Sophie, who is interested in starting the copper coil for contraception, approaches you. She is on day 12 of her menstrual cycle and is currently relying on condoms for protection. Sophie assures you that there is no possibility of her being pregnant. She wants to know if she needs to use additional protection if she gets the copper coil inserted today, and if so, for how long?

      Your Answer: No extra protection needed

      Explanation:

      As the copper coil provides immediate effectiveness, there is no need for additional protection.

      New intrauterine contraceptive devices include the Jaydess® IUS and Kyleena® IUS. The Jaydess® IUS is licensed for 3 years and has a smaller frame, narrower inserter tube, and less levonorgestrel than the Mirena® coil. The Kyleena® IUS has 19.5mg LNG, is smaller than the Mirena®, and is licensed for 5 years. Both result in lower serum levels of LNG, but the rate of amenorrhoea is less with Kyleena® compared to Mirena®.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      24.2
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  • Question 4 - A 50-year-old man comes to his GP complaining of gradual onset back pain...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man comes to his GP complaining of gradual onset back pain for the past 10 months. The pain worsens with activity and causes bilateral pain and weakness in his calves when walking. Leaning forward or sitting relieves the back pain.

      Upon examination, no neurological findings are observed. The patient has no significant medical history, smokes socially, and drinks a glass of wine with dinner every night. He works as a builder and is worried that his back pain will affect his ability to work.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Spinal stenosis

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Lumbar Spinal Stenosis

      Laminectomy is a surgical procedure that is commonly used to treat lumbar spinal stenosis. It involves the removal of the lamina, which is the bony arch that covers the spinal canal. This procedure is done to relieve pressure on the spinal cord and nerves, which can help to alleviate the symptoms of lumbar spinal stenosis.

      Laminectomy is typically reserved for patients who have severe symptoms that do not respond to conservative treatments such as physical therapy, medication, and epidural injections. The procedure is performed under general anesthesia and involves making an incision in the back to access the affected area of the spine. The lamina is then removed, and any other structures that are compressing the spinal cord or nerves are also removed.

      After the procedure, patients may need to stay in the hospital for a few days to recover. They will be given pain medication and will be encouraged to walk as soon as possible to prevent blood clots and promote healing. Physical therapy may also be recommended to help patients regain strength and mobility.

      Overall, laminectomy is a safe and effective treatment for lumbar spinal stenosis. However, as with any surgery, there are risks involved, including infection, bleeding, and nerve damage. Patients should discuss the risks and benefits of the procedure with their doctor before making a decision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      312.4
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  • Question 5 - You are a healthcare professional working in a general practice. Your next patient...

    Correct

    • You are a healthcare professional working in a general practice. Your next patient is a 70-year-old man who has come for a follow-up appointment to review his recent blood test results. During his last visit, you had expressed concern about his elevated plasma glucose levels and advised him to make some lifestyle changes. He informs you that he has made some dietary modifications and has started walking to the nearby stores instead of driving.

      The patient has a medical history of coeliac disease, osteoarthritis, and chronic kidney disease. His fasting blood test results are as follows:

      - Hemoglobin (Hb): 146 g/L (normal range for males: 135-180; females: 115-160)
      - Platelets: 235 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400)
      - White blood cells (WBC): 7.0 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0)
      - Sodium (Na+): 139 mmol/L (normal range: 135-145)
      - Potassium (K+): 4.4 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-5.0)
      - Urea: 10.4 mmol/L (normal range: 2.0-7.0)
      - Creatinine: 216 µmol/L (normal range: 55-120)
      - Estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR): 28 ml/minute
      - C-reactive protein (CRP): <5 mg/L (normal range: <5)
      - Plasma glucose: 7.3 mmol/L (normal range: <6 mmol/L)
      - Hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c): 54 mmol/mol

      What would be the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's HbA1c levels?

      Your Answer: Sitagliptin

      Explanation:

      This individual has been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus, as evidenced by elevated blood glucose levels on two separate occasions and an HbA1c measurement of >48 mmol/mol. Despite receiving lifestyle advice, medication is necessary for treatment.

      Due to an eGFR of <30ml/minute, metformin is not a suitable treatment option. Instead, sitagliptin, a DPP-4 inhibitor, is the most appropriate choice. While DESMOND, an NHS course aimed at educating individuals with type 2 diabetes and their families, may be beneficial for ongoing management, it doesn’t replace the need for medication in this case. Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus, as well as polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. Unlike other medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin doesn’t cause hypoglycaemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. Its mechanism of action involves activating the AMP-activated protein kinase, increasing insulin sensitivity, decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis, and potentially reducing gastrointestinal absorption of carbohydrates. However, metformin can cause gastrointestinal upsets, reduced vitamin B12 absorption, and in rare cases, lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. It is contraindicated in patients with chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and those undergoing iodine-containing x-ray contrast media procedures. When starting metformin, it should be titrated up slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side-effects, and modified-release metformin can be considered for patients who experience unacceptable side-effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      118.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - You are taking the family history of an adult whom you suspect may...

    Correct

    • You are taking the family history of an adult whom you suspect may have a cancer.
      Which of the following conditions would alert you to an increased risk of cancer?

      Your Answer: Neurofibromatosis

      Explanation:

      Syndromes and their Association with Cancer

      There are certain syndromes that have been linked to an increased risk of developing certain types of cancer. Down’s syndrome, for example, has been associated with leukaemia, while neurofibromatosis, which is inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion, has been linked to CNS tumours. Other rare syndromes have also been linked to certain cancers.

      It is important for primary healthcare professionals to be aware of these associations and to be vigilant for any unexplained symptoms in children or young people with these syndromes. Early detection and treatment can greatly improve outcomes for these patients. Therefore, it is crucial for healthcare professionals to stay informed and up-to-date on the latest research and recommendations regarding these syndromes and their potential links to cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      163.9
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  • Question 7 - A 70-year-old lady has a limited superficial thrombophlebitis around her left ankle.

    She describes...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old lady has a limited superficial thrombophlebitis around her left ankle.

      She describes pain and tenderness of the superficial veins.

      There is no fever or malaise and no evidence of arterial insufficiency (her ankle brachial pressure index is 1).

      She is allergic to penicillin.

      What are the two most appropriate treatments for this patient?

      Your Answer: Class 1 compression stockings

      Correct Answer: Topical non-steroidal

      Explanation:

      Management of Limited Superficial Thrombophlebitis

      In the management of limited superficial thrombophlebitis, the most appropriate treatment option is the use of class 1 compression stockings. This is because most patients find class 2 compression stockings too painful. Additionally, an ankle brachial pressure index of between 0.8 and 1.3 means that arterial disease is unlikely, and compression stockings are generally safe to wear. Antibiotics are not indicated unless there are signs of infection, and the patient’s allergy to penicillin precludes the use of antibiotics as a treatment option. Topical non-steroidals can be used for mild and limited superficial thrombophlebitis, such as is presented here. Although an oral non-steroidal or paracetamol may be suggested, it is not presented as an option. As this condition is relatively common in primary care, it is important to be familiar with the most appropriate treatment options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      27.6
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  • Question 8 - A 70-year-old patient with rheumatoid arthritis presents with symptoms consistent with membranous glomerulonephritis.
    Which...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old patient with rheumatoid arthritis presents with symptoms consistent with membranous glomerulonephritis.
      Which of the following drugs is most likely be responsible?

      Your Answer: Paracetamol

      Correct Answer: Gold

      Explanation:

      Renal Complications in Rheumatoid Arthritis Treatment

      Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the joints and can lead to disability. The use of gold, penicillamine, and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents as disease-modifying drugs in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis can result in renal complications. Membranous glomerulonephritis is a common complication that occurs due to the widespread thickening of the glomerular basement membrane. Immunofluorescence reveals granular deposits of immunoglobulin and complement. Methotrexate, another drug used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis, can also be toxic to the kidney in large doses. However, such doses are unlikely in patients with rheumatoid arthritis. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor renal function in patients receiving these medications to prevent renal complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      68.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 3-year-old male presents with fever, nausea, and painful urination at the clinic....

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old male presents with fever, nausea, and painful urination at the clinic. What is the best method to collect a urine sample?

      Your Answer: Refer for suprapubic aspiration

      Correct Answer: Clean-catch urine

      Explanation:

      The advice given in the NICE guidelines regarding urine collection has been criticised for being impractical.

      Urinary Tract Infection in Children: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are more common in boys until 3 months of age, after which the incidence is substantially higher in girls. At least 8% of girls and 2% of boys will have a UTI in childhood. The presentation of UTIs in childhood depends on age. Infants may experience poor feeding, vomiting, and irritability, while younger children may have abdominal pain, fever, and dysuria. Older children may experience dysuria, frequency, and haematuria. Features that may suggest an upper UTI include a temperature of over 38ºC and loin pain or tenderness.

      According to NICE guidelines, a urine sample should be checked in a child if there are any symptoms or signs suggestive of a UTI, with unexplained fever of 38°C or higher (test urine after 24 hours at the latest), or with an alternative site of infection but who remain unwell (consider urine test after 24 hours at the latest). A clean catch is the preferable method for urine collection. If not possible, urine collection pads should be used. Invasive methods such as suprapubic aspiration should only be used if non-invasive methods are not possible.

      Infants less than 3 months old should be referred immediately to a paediatrician. Children aged more than 3 months old with an upper UTI should be considered for admission to the hospital. If not admitted, oral antibiotics such as cephalosporin or co-amoxiclav should be given for 7-10 days. Children aged more than 3 months old with a lower UTI should be treated with oral antibiotics for 3 days according to local guidelines, usually trimethoprim, nitrofurantoin, cephalosporin, or amoxicillin. Parents should be asked to bring the children back if they remain unwell after 24-48 hours. Antibiotic prophylaxis is not given after the first UTI but should be considered with recurrent UTIs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      122.7
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  • Question 10 - A 32-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of severe pain around his...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of severe pain around his right eye. He has been experiencing these episodes once or twice a day for the past week, with each episode lasting around 30 minutes. Although the pain is severe, it has not been getting worse. His girlfriend reports that during an attack, his eye becomes red and starts to water. Upon examination, his eye appears normal, and his visual acuity is intact. He is currently pain-free, with his last episode occurring about 3 hours ago. What would be the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Advise him to take paracetamol and ibuprofen if he has any further attacks

      Correct Answer: Discuss with a neurologist the need for neuroimaging

      Explanation:

      These headaches are classified as cluster headaches. It is recommended to consult with a specialist and consider neuroimaging as this is the first occurrence. Simple pain relief medication is not effective for treating cluster headaches.

      Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is known to be extremely painful. They are called cluster headaches because they tend to occur in clusters that last for several weeks, usually once a year. These headaches are more common in men and smokers, and alcohol and sleep patterns may trigger an attack. The pain is typically sharp and stabbing, and it occurs around one eye. Patients may experience redness, lacrimation, lid swelling, nasal stuffiness, and miosis and ptosis in some cases.

      To manage cluster headaches, acute treatment options include 100% oxygen or subcutaneous triptan. Prophylaxis involves using verapamil as the drug of choice, and a tapering dose of prednisolone may also be effective. It is recommended to seek specialist advice from a neurologist if a patient develops cluster headaches with respect to neuroimaging. Some neurologists use the term trigeminal autonomic cephalgia to group a number of conditions including cluster headache, paroxysmal hemicrania, and short-lived unilateral neuralgiform headache with conjunctival injection and tearing (SUNCT). Patients with these conditions should be referred for specialist assessment as specific treatment may be required, such as indomethacin for paroxysmal hemicrania.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      40.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A retrospective study looked at data from the General Practice Research Database comparing...

    Incorrect

    • A retrospective study looked at data from the General Practice Research Database comparing the incidence of myocardial infarction in patients who were prescribed a new inhaler licensed for Chronic Obstructive Airways Disease with the incidence of myocardial infarction in patients who were matched for age and sex only and of course were not prescribed this medication. They found a relative risk of 1.35 (confidence intervals 1.12 to 1.51) for patients taking the drug.
      Select from the list the single valid conclusion from the study.

      Input: rewrite this question keeping the same paragraph structure and changing the medical condition slightly
      Output: A retrospective study looked at data from the General Practice Research Database comparing the incidence of myocardial infarction in patients who were prescribed a new inhaler licensed for Asthma with the incidence of myocardial infarction in patients who were matched for age and sex only and of course were not prescribed this medication. They found a relative risk of 1.35 (confidence intervals 1.12 to 1.51) for patients taking the drug.
      Select from the list the single valid conclusion from the study.

      Your Answer: A review should be undertaken of drug company data to ensure that adverse outcome data was not suppressed prior to drug licensing

      Correct Answer: Further studies are indicated comparing patients taking the inhaler with matched COAD patients not taking the inhaler

      Explanation:

      Proper Use of Anonymised Patient Record Data from Primary Care

      The General Practice Research Database (GPRD) is a valuable resource for conducting epidemiological studies. However, it is important to use the dataset properly to avoid biased results. For instance, comparing patients taking a drug with those not taking the drug may lead to biased conclusions, as patients with certain conditions may be more likely to take the drug. In the case of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COAD), which is associated with smoking and increased cardiovascular mortality, an appropriate strategy would be to compare matched controls with COAD who do not use inhalers with those who do. This approach can help reduce inclusion bias, which is a common issue in observational studies that use patient record data. By using the GPRD appropriately, researchers can obtain reliable and informative insights into various health conditions and treatments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      40.1
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  • Question 12 - A 62-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of a new headache...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of a new headache that has been bothering her for about a week. She has been feeling more tired than usual and has been experiencing muscle aches and pains. She has also noticed pain when chewing. Apart from these symptoms, she is in good health.
      During the physical examination, an unusual finding is observed.
      Which component of the physical examination is most likely to be abnormal?

      Your Answer: Examination of the neck for muscle tenderness and stiffness

      Correct Answer: Palpation of the scalp/temporal arteries

      Explanation:

      Clinical Examination for Temporal Arteritis

      Temporal arteritis is a condition that should be suspected in patients over 50 years of age who present with a new headache. The headache is often persistent, severe, and worse at night. Palpation of the scalp and temporal arteries may reveal marked tenderness and signs of inflammation, such as erythema, nodularity, and reduced pulsation. Jaw claudication when chewing is also a common feature. Here are some clinical examination techniques that can help diagnose temporal arteritis:

      1. Palpation of the scalp/temporal arteries: Marked scalp tenderness is common in patients with temporal arteritis. Approximately half of patients exhibit signs of superficial temporal artery inflammation, which can be detected by palpation.

      2. Examination of the neck for muscle tenderness and stiffness: Neck examination may reveal a limitation in the range of movement of the neck and crepitation, especially in tension-type headaches. However, the history in this patient, including generalised muscle aches, jaw claudication and temporal headache are more suggestive of temporal arteritis.

      3. Blood pressure (BP) measurement: Raised BP is very rarely a cause of headache. However, patients often think it is and may expect their BP to be measured. Nevertheless, this would neither confirm nor refute a diagnosis of temporal arteritis, the likely diagnosis here.

      4. Examination of the jaw and bite: Routine examination of the jaw and bite is unlikely to contribute to the diagnosis here. The jaw pain here is suggestive of claudication, which is a feature associated with temporal arteritis.

      5. Examination of the optic fundi: The optic fundi should always be examined in patients presenting with headache. However, this patient is not exhibiting any features that suggest a raised intracranial pressure.

      In conclusion, a combination of clinical examination techniques can help diagnose temporal arteritis in patients presenting with a new headache, especially in those over 50 years of age. Palpation of the scalp and temporal arteries, examination of the neck for muscle tenderness and stiffness, and assessment of jaw claudication are particularly useful in this regard.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      28.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Among the following groups, which one is most likely to have the highest...

    Incorrect

    • Among the following groups, which one is most likely to have the highest prevalence of depression in your practice population?

      Your Answer: Widowed females

      Correct Answer: Separated females

      Explanation:

      Prevalence of Depression in Different Groups

      The prevalence rate of depression varies among different groups. According to research, separated males have the highest rate of depression, with 111 per 1000. This rate is even higher for those who are unemployed, homeless, or going through separation. Separated females have a lower rate of 56 per 1000.

      Widowed males and females have rates of 70 and 46 respectively, while married men and women have the lowest rates of 17 and 14 respectively. Interestingly, unemployment affects men and women differently, with the rate increasing to 27 for men and 56 per 1000 for women. These findings highlight the importance of considering different demographic factors when assessing the prevalence of depression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      33.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - You assess a 52-year-old patient with hypertension who has been taking 2.5mg of...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 52-year-old patient with hypertension who has been taking 2.5mg of ramipril for a month. He reports experiencing a persistent tickly cough that is causing him to lose sleep at night. Despite this, his blood pressure is now under control.

      What recommendations would you provide to him?

      Your Answer: The cough is unlikely to be caused by the ramipril, continue the medication and review in a month

      Correct Answer: Stop the ramipril and prescribe candesartan

      Explanation:

      When patients are unable to tolerate ACE inhibitors due to the common side effect of a dry, persistent cough, angiotensin-receptor blockers (ARBs) should be considered as an alternative. For individuals under the age of 55 who experience intolerance to ACE inhibitors, prescribing medications such as candesartan, an ARB, may be the next appropriate step.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      44.8
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  • Question 15 - A 29-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of headaches, nausea and vomiting,...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of headaches, nausea and vomiting, and blurred vision that have been going on for two days.

      She has been wearing glasses since she was a child due to her long-sightedness. She has a history of severe migraines and was recently prescribed a prophylactic medication by her GP.

      During the examination, both of her eyes appear red, and her pupils are mid-dilated and unreactive in both eyes.

      What is the probable medication responsible for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Aspirin

      Correct Answer: Topiramate

      Explanation:

      Topiramate: Mechanisms of Action and Contraceptive Considerations

      Topiramate is a medication primarily used to treat seizures. It can be used alone or in combination with other drugs. The drug has multiple mechanisms of action, including blocking voltage-gated Na+ channels, increasing GABA action, and inhibiting carbonic anhydrase. The latter effect results in a decrease in urinary citrate excretion and the formation of alkaline urine, which favors the creation of calcium phosphate stones.

      Topiramate is known to induce the P450 enzyme CYP3A4, which can reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. Therefore, the Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Health (FSRH) recommends that patients taking topiramate consider alternative forms of contraception. For example, the combined oral contraceptive pill and progestogen-only pill are not recommended, while the implant is generally considered safe.

      Topiramate can cause several side effects, including reduced appetite and weight loss, dizziness, paraesthesia, lethargy, and poor concentration. However, the most significant risk associated with topiramate is the potential for fetal malformations. Additionally, rare but important side effects include acute myopia and secondary angle-closure glaucoma. Overall, topiramate is a useful medication for treating seizures, but patients should be aware of its potential side effects and contraceptive considerations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      178.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - You see a 3-year-old boy who has presented with a high fever.

    He was...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 3-year-old boy who has presented with a high fever.

      He was first seen almost two weeks ago by a colleague and diagnosed with a viral upper respiratory tract infection and given simple advice. His parents have brought him back today as his fever doesn't seem to be settling and they have noticed that his eyes have become irritated and his lips are very red and have cracked.

      On examination, the child has a temperature of 38.1°C and has dry fissured lips. There is an obvious widespread polymorphous skin rash present. Examination of the mouth reveals pharyngeal injection and a prominent red tongue. Significant cervical lymphadenopathy and conjunctival inflammation is noted. There is palmar erythema bilaterally and his hands and feet appear puffy with peeling of the skin of the fingers and toes.

      Which of the following is a complication of this condition?

      Your Answer: Orchitis

      Correct Answer: Coronary artery aneurysms

      Explanation:

      Kawasaki’s Disease: A Rare but Serious Condition in Children

      Kawasaki’s disease (KD) is a rare but serious condition that primarily affects children between 6 months to 4 years old. The exact cause of KD is unknown, but it is believed to be caused by a bacterial toxin acting as a superantigen similar to staphylococcal and streptococcal toxic shock syndromes.

      The hallmark symptom of KD is a sustained fever lasting more than five days, accompanied by cervical lymphadenopathy, conjunctival infection, rash, mucous membrane signs (such as dry fissured lips, red ‘strawberry’ tongue, and pharyngeal injection), and erythematous and oedematous hands and feet with subsequent peeling of the fingers and toes.

      It is crucial to make a clinical diagnosis of KD as about a third of those affected may develop coronary artery involvement, which can lead to the formation of coronary artery aneurysms. Early treatment with intravenous immunoglobulin within the first 10 days can help reduce the risk of this complication. Aspirin is also an important treatment in this condition, used to reduce the risk of thrombosis.

      In conclusion, KD is a rare but serious condition that can have severe consequences if not diagnosed and treated promptly. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the symptoms and to consider KD in children presenting with a prolonged fever and other associated symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 32-year-old man comes to the clinic after getting cement in his eye...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man comes to the clinic after getting cement in his eye while working on a construction site. He is experiencing severe pain in the eye, sensitivity to light, and is having difficulty with examination due to intense blepharospasm. What is the most suitable initial course of action in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Administer chloramphenicol ointment and review the following day when the pain has settled

      Correct Answer: Irrigate the eye with saline for 15–20 minutes

      Explanation:

      First Aid Treatment for Chemical Eye Burns

      Chemical eye burns require immediate first aid treatment before history-taking or examination. The priority is to remove the substance causing the burn. Copious irrigation with normal saline or non-sterile water is crucial for 15-30 minutes, checking the pH every five minutes if possible. If a topical anaesthetic is needed, add a drop every five minutes. Contact lenses should be removed, and the patient’s head tilted back over the sink. Referral to the nearest eye hospital should be made after initial management due to the high risk of corneal scarring.

      Alkali substances are particularly dangerous as they penetrate rapidly and can cause irreversible damage at a pH value above 11.5. There is no need to use a burr to remove any foreign body, as this may cause further damage.

      Administering chloramphenicol ointment is not indicated for chemical eye burns. Instead, the patient should be advised to attend the local Ophthalmology Department for review.

      If only water is available, it should be used to irrigate the eye. However, if saline is an option, it would be the preferred choice as it helps to neutralize the acid. Remember, prompt first aid treatment is crucial to prevent long-term damage to the eye.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      35.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 50-year-old man with type 2 diabetes has observed an increase in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with type 2 diabetes has observed an increase in his blood glucose levels after starting a new medication for his lipids. Despite maintaining his usual diet and exercise routine, his HbA1c has worsened by approximately 0.5%. Which of the following drugs is the probable culprit?

      Your Answer: Cholestyramine

      Correct Answer: Ezetimibe

      Explanation:

      Effects of Cholesterol-Lowering Medications on Glucose Control

      The mechanism by which nicotinic acid affects glucose levels is not fully understood, but it may increase blood glucose in some patients by stimulating hepatic glucose output or blocking glucose uptake by skeletal muscle. However, for most patients with diabetes, nicotinic acid has minimal effect. A meta-analysis in 2011 suggested an increased risk of inducing diabetes in patients treated with intensive statin therapy, but this did not examine whether statins worsened glucose control in established diabetics. Cholestyramine may interact with oral hypoglycemics, but it doesn’t typically worsen diabetic control and may even improve it. Fenofibrate and ezetimibe have not been shown to worsen diabetic control. Overall, the effects of cholesterol-lowering medications on glucose control vary and should be monitored closely in patients with diabetes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 72-year-old woman who is increasingly short of breath on exertion is found...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman who is increasingly short of breath on exertion is found to have a 4/6 systolic murmur heard best on her right sternal edge.
      What is the single most appropriate investigation?

      Your Answer: Chest X-ray

      Correct Answer: Echocardiogram

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Aortic Stenosis

      Aortic stenosis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. One of the most important diagnostic tests for aortic stenosis is an echocardiogram, which can provide valuable information about the extent of the stenosis and whether surgery is necessary. In addition, an angiogram may be performed to assess the presence of ischaemic heart disease, which often occurs alongside aortic stenosis.

      Other diagnostic tests that may be used to evaluate aortic stenosis include a chest X-ray, which can reveal cardiac enlargement or calcification of the aortic ring, and an electrocardiogram, which may show evidence of left ventricular hypertrophy. Exercise testing is not recommended for symptomatic patients, but may be useful for unmasking symptoms in physically active patients or for risk stratification in asymptomatic patients with severe disease.

      While lung function testing is not typically part of the routine workup for aortic stenosis, it is important for patients to be aware of the risks associated with rigorous exercise, as sudden death can occur in those with severe disease. Overall, a comprehensive diagnostic approach is essential for accurately assessing the extent of aortic stenosis and determining the most appropriate course of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      45.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 50-year-old woman has been experiencing hot flashes for the past 3 years...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman has been experiencing hot flashes for the past 3 years and has been on hormone replacement therapy (HRT). During her visit to your clinic, she reports discomfort during intercourse due to vaginal dryness. Upon examination, you observe atrophic genitalia without any other abnormalities. The patient and her partner have attempted to use over-the-counter lubricants, but they have not been effective.

      What would be the most suitable course of action for you to take next?

      Your Answer: Switch to combined HRT transdermal patch

      Correct Answer: Continue with HRT and prescribe low-dose vaginal oestrogen

      Explanation:

      To alleviate vaginal symptoms, vaginal topical oestrogen can be used alongside HRT. Compared to systemic treatment, low-dose vaginal topical oestrogen is more effective in providing relief for vaginal symptoms. Patients should be reviewed after 3 months of treatment. It is recommended to consider stopping treatment at least once a year, but in some cases, long-term treatment may be necessary for persistent symptoms. If symptoms persist, increasing the dose or seeking specialist referral may be necessary. Testosterone supplementation is only recommended for sexual dysfunction and should be initiated after consulting a specialist. Sildenafil is not effective in treating menopausal symptoms.

      Managing Menopause: Lifestyle Modifications, HRT, and Non-HRT Options

      Menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. It is diagnosed when a woman has not had a period for 12 months. Menopausal symptoms are common and can last for several years. The management of menopause can be divided into three categories: lifestyle modifications, hormone replacement therapy (HRT), and non-hormone replacement therapy.

      Lifestyle modifications can help manage symptoms such as hot flashes, sleep disturbance, mood changes, and cognitive symptoms. Regular exercise, weight loss, stress reduction, and good sleep hygiene are recommended.

      HRT is an effective treatment for menopausal symptoms, but it is not suitable for everyone. Women with current or past breast cancer, any oestrogen-sensitive cancer, undiagnosed vaginal bleeding, or untreated endometrial hyperplasia should not take HRT. HRT brings certain risks, including an increased risk of venous thromboembolism, stroke, coronary heart disease, breast cancer, and ovarian cancer.

      Non-HRT options include fluoxetine, citalopram, or venlafaxine for vasomotor symptoms, vaginal lubricants or moisturisers for vaginal dryness, self-help groups, cognitive behaviour therapy, or antidepressants for psychological symptoms, and vaginal oestrogen for urogenital symptoms.

      When stopping HRT, it is important to gradually reduce the dosage to limit recurrence in the short term. Women should be referred to secondary care if treatment has been ineffective, if there are ongoing side effects, or if there is unexplained bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A trial of a new cancer drug is taking place: 500 participants over...

    Incorrect

    • A trial of a new cancer drug is taking place: 500 participants over the age of 50 took part in the control arm and another 500 participants over the age of 50 took part in the experimental arm. The mortality in the control arm was 12.5% and the relative risk for patients receiving the new treatment was 0.8.
      What number of patients over the age of 50 must be treated with the new drug to save one life?

      Your Answer: 125

      Correct Answer: 40

      Explanation:

      Understanding Absolute Risk Reduction and Number Needed to Treat

      Absolute risk reduction and number needed to treat are important concepts in clinical trials and medical research. Absolute risk reduction refers to the difference in the risk of an event occurring between two groups, such as a control group and an experimental group. The number needed to treat is the number of patients who need to be treated with a new intervention in order to prevent one adverse outcome compared to a control intervention.

      To calculate absolute risk reduction, one must first determine the mortality rate in each group and subtract the mortality rate in the experimental group from the mortality rate in the control group. The resulting number represents the absolute risk reduction. The number needed to treat can then be calculated by dividing 1 by the absolute risk reduction.

      It is important to understand these concepts in order to properly interpret the results of clinical trials and make informed decisions about medical interventions. By understanding absolute risk reduction and number needed to treat, healthcare professionals can make more informed decisions about the best course of treatment for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      71.5
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 32-year-old patient presents to you seeking pre-pregnancy advice and inquiring about folic...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old patient presents to you seeking pre-pregnancy advice and inquiring about folic acid intake. The patient has a medical history of insulin-treated type 1 diabetes. What recommendations would you make regarding the duration and dosage of folic acid supplementation?

      Your Answer: 400 micrograms daily, to be taken before conception and until week 12 of pregnancy

      Correct Answer: 400 micrograms daily, to be taken after conception and until week 12 of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Folic Acid Requirements for Women During Pregnancy

      Most women are advised to take 400 mcg of folic acid daily from before conception until week 12 of pregnancy. However, there are exceptions to this rule. Women who are at a higher risk of neural tube defects, such as those with a history of bearing children with NTDs, or women with diabetes or taking anticonvulsants, should take a higher dose of 5 mg daily from before conception until week 12 of pregnancy.

      Another group of women who require a higher dose of folic acid are those with sickle cell disease. They need to take 5 mg of folic acid daily throughout pregnancy, and even when not pregnant, they’ll usually be taking folic acid 5mg every 1 to 7 days, depending on the severity of their disease. It’s important for women to consult with their healthcare provider to determine the appropriate dose of folic acid for their individual needs during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 6-month-old girl has poorly demarcated erythematous patches, with scale and crusting on...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old girl has poorly demarcated erythematous patches, with scale and crusting on both cheeks. Milder patches are also to be found on the limbs and trunk. The limbs are predominantly affected in the flexures. The child has been scratching and has disturbed sleep because of the itch.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Scabies

      Correct Answer: Atopic eczema

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Skin Conditions: Atopic Eczema, Impetigo, Acute Urticaria, Psoriasis, and Scabies

      When examining a child with skin complaints, it is important to distinguish between different skin conditions. Atopic eczema is a common cause of skin complaints in young children, presenting with poorly demarcated erythematous lesions, scale, and crusting. It typically affects the face in young children and only starts to predominate in the flexures at an older age.

      Impetigo, on the other hand, would cause lesions in a less widespread area and present with a yellow/golden crust. Acute urticaria would cause several raised smooth lesions that appear rapidly, without crust or scale. Psoriasis produces well-demarcated lesions, which are not seen in atopic eczema.

      Scabies would normally produce a more widespread rash with papules and excoriation, and sometimes visible burrows. It would not produce the scaled crusted lesions described in atopic eczema. By understanding the unique characteristics of each skin condition, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      55.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - An 80-year-old male presented with cough, dyspnoea and fever.

    He has a mild early...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old male presented with cough, dyspnoea and fever.

      He has a mild early Alzheimer's dementia and type 2 diabetes mellitus for which he takes metformin 500 mg tds. On examination, he has sats of 96% on air, has a pulse of 90 bpm, blood pressure of 110/50 mmHg, a temperature of 37.6°C and a respiration rate of 32/min. There is no neck stiffness nor abnormal neurology.

      Chest examination reveals bibasal crackles and decreased breath sounds in the left lung base.

      Blood samples were taken that morning and a call to the lab reveals the following:

      Haemoglobin 129 g/L (115-165)
      White cell count 16.6 ×109/L (4-11)
      93% neutrophils -
      5% band forms -
      2% lymphocytes -
      Platelets 420 ×109/L (150-400)
      Urea 8.2 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)

      Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Oral amoxicillin

      Correct Answer: Oral ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Scoring Systems for Decision Making in Pneumonia Treatment

      When it comes to deciding whether to treat or admit a patient with pneumonia, scoring systems can be helpful. The CURB-65 severity score and the CRB-65 score are two commonly used systems. The CRB-65 score is recommended for use in primary care and assigns one point for each of confusion, respiratory rate of 30/min or more, systolic blood pressure below 90 mmHg (or diastolic below 60 mmHg), and age 65 years or older. Patients with a score of 0 are at low risk of death and do not require hospitalization, while those with a score of 1 or 2 are at increased risk and should be considered for referral and assessment. Patients with a score of 3 or more are at high risk and require urgent hospital admission. The CURB-65 score is used for patients with a score of 2 or more to be admitted, while those with a score of 0-1 may be admitted if there are other issues. While an experienced GP may admit a patient regardless of the score, understanding these systems is important for medical exams.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 50-year-old woman who is currently 4 weeks into a course of postoperative...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman who is currently 4 weeks into a course of postoperative radiotherapy for locally advanced cervical carcinoma has abdominal pain and diarrhoea.
      Select the single most likely cause.

      Your Answer: Bowel perforation

      Correct Answer: Radiation enteritis

      Explanation:

      Radiation Enteritis: Understanding the Inflammation of the Bowel

      Radiation enteritis is a condition that occurs as a result of radiation-induced inflammation of the bowel. The severity of the condition is dependent on the volume of bowel that has been irradiated and the radiation dose. During therapy, patients may experience acute radiation enteritis, which manifests as ileitis, colitis, or proctitis, with symptoms such as abdominal pain and diarrhea.

      In virtually all patients undergoing radiation therapy, acute radiation-induced injury to the GI mucosa occurs when the bowel is irradiated. Delayed effects may occur after three months or more, and they are due to mucosal atrophy, vascular sclerosis, and intestinal wall fibrosis. These effects can lead to malabsorption or dysmotility, causing further complications.

      It is important to note that the clinical picture of radiation enteritis is unlikely to be due to a surgical complication, given the time frame. Additionally, it is less suggestive of bowel obstruction or perforation. Local malignant infiltration into the bowel is most likely to present with obstruction. Understanding the symptoms and causes of radiation enteritis can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment and management for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A new rapid diagnostic test is developed to diagnose Alzheimer's disease. The test...

    Correct

    • A new rapid diagnostic test is developed to diagnose Alzheimer's disease. The test is based on measurement of certain biomarkers in the blood that are associated with the disease. The sensitivity and specificity of the test is 80% and 85%, respectively. What is the likelihood ratio for a negative test result?

      Your Answer: 0.235

      Explanation:
      • Sensitivity (Sens): The probability that the test is positive given that the disease is present. In this case, it is 80% or 0.80.
      • Specificity (Spec): The probability that the test is negative given that the disease is not present. In this case, it is 85% or 0.85.
      • Likelihood Ratio for a Negative Test Result (LR): The ratio of the probability of a negative test result in patients with the disease to the probability of a negative test result in patients without the disease. It is calculated as:

        LR−=(1−Sensitivity)/Specificity

      Calculation

      Using the provided sensitivity and specificity:

      • Sensitivity = 0.80
      • Specificity = 0.85

      Substitute these values into the formula for the negative likelihood ratio:

      LR=(1−Sensitivity)/Specificity

      LR=(1−0.80)/0.85

      LR=0.20/0.85

       

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which renal disorder is most likely to occur in elderly patients with gouty...

    Incorrect

    • Which renal disorder is most likely to occur in elderly patients with gouty arthritis?

      Your Answer: End-stage chronic renal failure

      Correct Answer: Urolithiasis

      Explanation:

      Gout and Kidney Disease: Prevalence and Risks

      Gout, a type of arthritis caused by the buildup of uric acid crystals in the joints, is associated with an increased risk of kidney disease. The prevalence of nephrolithiasis (kidney stones) in people with gout is higher than in the general population, and chronic urate nephropathy can lead to inflammation and fibrosis in the kidneys. Screening for kidney disease is important for patients with gout, as the prevalence of CKD stage ≥3 is 24%. However, end-stage CKD is less common in gout patients. It is important to note that glomerulosclerosis is associated with diabetes mellitus, while glomerulonephritis is an acute inflammation of the kidney caused by an immune response, and pyelonephritis is due to bacterial infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      211.3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 23-year-old man with a history of bipolar disorder is scheduled for a...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old man with a history of bipolar disorder is scheduled for a medication review. When inquiring about his current state, he starts discussing the vast array of emotions that exist and wonders if everyone has experienced all of them. Eventually, he spontaneously mentions that he is feeling quite good.

      What is the patient exhibiting in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Circumstantiality

      Explanation:

      The patient’s lengthy response to the question suggests circumstantiality, which can be a symptom of anxiety disorders or hypomania.

      It is important to note that the patient has not derailed from the topic at hand, indicating that this is not an example of derailment. Incoherence would involve the patient providing nonsensical responses, which is not the case here.

      While it is difficult to determine from a text-based question, pressured speech would involve the patient speaking rapidly and producing an excessive amount of spontaneous speech. Therefore, it may not be the most appropriate answer in this scenario.

      Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing psychiatric disorders such as anxiety. Hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety are important alternative causes. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.

      NICE recommends a stepwise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). The first step is education about GAD and active monitoring. The second step involves low-intensity psychological interventions such as individual non-facilitated self-help, individual guided self-help, or psychoeducational groups. The third step includes high-intensity psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioural therapy or applied relaxation, or drug treatment. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI recommended by NICE. If sertraline is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin–noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the person cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under the age of 30 years, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.

      The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach. The first step is recognition and diagnosis, followed by treatment in primary care. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment. SSRIs are the first-line treatment. If contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered. The third step involves reviewing and considering alternative treatments, followed by review and referral to specialist mental health services in the fourth and fifth steps, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      33.6
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 42-year-old male has recently been diagnosed with prostate cancer and is considering...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old male has recently been diagnosed with prostate cancer and is considering a new chemotherapeutic agent that is currently in a trial phase. However, there are concerns that the drug may increase the risk of developing thrombocytopenia. The patient wants to know his risk of developing thrombocytopenia if he decides to take this new drug.

      In a randomized study of age and sex-matched prostate cancer patients, 245 patients out of 800 patients who were taking the new agent did not develop thrombocytopenia. In the 1,500 patients who did not take the new agent, 1,100 developed thrombocytopenia.

      What is the relative risk of developing thrombocytopenia following treatment with this new chemotherapeutic agent?

      Your Answer: 0.8

      Correct Answer: 1.3

      Explanation:

      The relative risk is the ratio of the proportion of individuals who develop the disease in the exposed group compared to those who develop the disease in the non-exposed group. In this case, the exposed group consists of 1,026 individuals and the non-exposed group consists of 2,017 individuals. Out of the exposed group, 710 individuals developed the disease, while in the non-exposed group, 1,059 individuals developed the disease.

      The calculation for the relative risk is (710/1,026)/(1,059/2,017), which equals 1.3. This means that individuals who were exposed to the new agent have a 1.3 times higher chance of developing aplastic anaemia compared to those who were not exposed.

      It is important to note that if the calculation was done as the ratio of the proportion of individuals who develop the disease in the non-exposed group compared to those who develop the disease in the exposed group, the result would be the reciprocal of the relative risk. Additionally, calculating the odds ratio would provide a different measure of the association between exposure and disease outcome.

      Understanding Relative Risk in Clinical Trials

      Relative risk (RR) is a measure used in clinical trials to compare the risk of an event occurring in the experimental group to the risk in the control group. It is calculated by dividing the experimental event rate (EER) by the control event rate (CER). If the resulting ratio is greater than 1, it means that the event is more likely to occur in the experimental group than in the control group. Conversely, if the ratio is less than 1, the event is less likely to occur in the experimental group.

      To calculate the relative risk reduction (RRR) or relative risk increase (RRI), the absolute risk change is divided by the control event rate. This provides a percentage that indicates the magnitude of the difference between the two groups. Understanding relative risk is important in evaluating the effectiveness of interventions and treatments in clinical trials. By comparing the risk of an event in the experimental group to the control group, researchers can determine whether the intervention is beneficial or not.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      21.4
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the following side-effects is often overlooked in individuals undergoing ciclosporin treatment?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following side-effects is often overlooked in individuals undergoing ciclosporin treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Ciclosporin usage leads to an increase in various bodily functions such as fluid retention, blood pressure, potassium levels, hair growth, gum health, and glucose levels. Interestingly, hyperkalaemia is more commonly observed than hypokalaemia with the use of ciclosporin.

      Understanding Ciclosporin: An Immunosuppressant Drug

      Ciclosporin is a medication that is used as an immunosuppressant. It works by reducing the clonal proliferation of T cells by decreasing the release of IL-2. The drug binds to cyclophilin, forming a complex that inhibits calcineurin, a phosphatase that activates various transcription factors in T cells.

      Despite its effectiveness, Ciclosporin has several adverse effects. It can cause nephrotoxicity, hepatotoxicity, fluid retention, hypertension, hyperkalaemia, hypertrichosis, gingival hyperplasia, tremors, impaired glucose tolerance, hyperlipidaemia, and increased susceptibility to severe infection. However, it is interesting to note that Ciclosporin is virtually non-myelotoxic, which means it doesn’t affect the bone marrow.

      Ciclosporin is used to treat various conditions such as following organ transplantation, rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, ulcerative colitis, and pure red cell aplasia. It has a direct effect on keratinocytes and modulates T cell function, making it an effective treatment for psoriasis.

      In conclusion, Ciclosporin is a potent immunosuppressant drug that can effectively treat various conditions. However, it is essential to monitor patients for adverse effects and adjust the dosage accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      0
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Maternity And Reproductive Health (2/3) 67%
Musculoskeletal Health (1/1) 100%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (1/2) 50%
Children And Young People (1/2) 50%
Kidney And Urology (2/2) 100%
Neurology (1/2) 50%
Population Health (0/3) 0%
Mental Health (1/2) 50%
Cardiovascular Health (2/2) 100%
Eyes And Vision (1/2) 50%
Dermatology (2/2) 100%
Gynaecology And Breast (1/1) 100%
Older Adults (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge (1/2) 50%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (0/1) 0%
Passmed