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Question 1
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A 12-year-old boy with a history of eczema and asthma suddenly experiences breathlessness, nausea, and swelling of the face after eating a chicken skewer at a party. A 999 call is made, and his friends report that his skin is covered in raised red bumps and his lips are turning blue. What is the most appropriate immediate management for this patient?
Your Answer: Intramuscular (IM) adrenaline 0.5 mg (1 : 1000)
Explanation:Emergency Management of Anaphylaxis: Medications and Interventions
Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that requires immediate intervention. The following medications and interventions are commonly used in the emergency management of anaphylaxis:
Intramuscular (IM) adrenaline 0.5 mg (1 : 1000): This is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis and should be administered immediately. It can be repeated every 5 minutes as needed, guided by vital signs, until the patient is stable.
Intravenous (IV) adrenaline 0.5 ml of 1 : 10 000: This is used in severe cases of anaphylaxis that do not respond to initial treatment. It should only be administered by experienced specialists and titrated carefully.
IV chlorphenamine in 0.9% saline (500 ml): Chlorphenamine is no longer recommended for initial emergency anaphylaxis management.
Reassurance and breathing exercises: These may be appropriate for a panic attack, but anaphylaxis requires immediate medical intervention.
Salbutamol: While bronchodilator therapy may be considered after initial resuscitation, the most important treatment for anaphylaxis is oxygen administration and IM adrenaline.
It is important to recognize the signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis and to act quickly to administer appropriate medications and interventions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old student presents to his General Practitioner with symptoms of tingling and irritation in his mouth and throat on two or three occasions in the past year. Most recently, he suffered from swelling of his throat and difficulty breathing after receiving a local anaesthetic for tooth extraction at the dentist. He reports that his father died of a suspected allergic reaction when he was 42 years old.
Investigations reveal the following:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 129 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 6.8 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
Platelets (PLT) 341 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 5 mm/hour 1–20 mm/hour
Patch testing Mild reaction to grass pollens
C4 Low
C3 Normal
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case?Your Answer: Acquired angio-oedema
Correct Answer: Hereditary angio-oedema
Explanation:The correct diagnosis for this patient is hereditary angio-oedema, also known as hereditary angioneurotic oedema. This is an autosomal dominant disorder caused by a congenital deficiency of the C1 inhibitor protein, which is mapped to chromosome 11. In some cases, C1 inhibitor levels are normal but have reduced function. Symptoms typically appear during adolescence and include recurrent attacks of pain, tingling, or itching, particularly around the mouth and pharynx, which may be triggered by increased circulating sex steroids or dental anaesthesia using lidocaine. Diagnosis is made by measuring complement levels, with C4 always low during attacks and often low in between, while C3 and C1q are always normal. Treatment involves using C1 inhibitor concentrate during acute attacks and danazol to increase C4 levels and reduce the frequency and severity of attacks. ACE inhibitors are contraindicated due to the risk of bradykinin accumulation. Acquired angio-oedema, which is caused by an acquired C1 inhibitor deficiency and is associated with lymphoproliferative disorders, is a different condition. Protein C deficiency is a genetic prothrombotic condition that does not explain this patient’s symptoms, and somatisation disorder is unlikely given the clear test abnormalities related to the patient’s symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 3
Correct
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A child is admitted with wheeze and an urticarial rash, which began 10 minutes after ingestion of amoxicillin for a chest infection.
Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is this?Your Answer: Type 1
Explanation:Types of Hypersensitivity Reactions and Their Mechanisms
Hypersensitivity reactions are exaggerated immune responses that can cause tissue damage and disease. There are five types of hypersensitivity reactions, each with a different mechanism and clinical presentation.
Type 1 hypersensitivity reactions are mediated by immunoglobulin E (IgE) and mast cell degranulation, leading to the release of histamine and other mediators. This type of reaction is responsible for allergies and anaphylaxis and is treated with antihistamines, epinephrine, and steroids.
Type 2 hypersensitivity reactions are antibody-mediated and involve the interaction of antibodies with antigens on target cells. Examples include haemolytic anaemia of the newborn and Goodpasture Syndrome.
Type 3 hypersensitivity reactions are immune complex-mediated and occur when immune complexes are deposited in tissues, leading to inflammation. Examples include rheumatoid arthritis and systemic lupus erythematosus.
Type 4 hypersensitivity reactions are delayed and involve the activation of sensitised T-helper cells, leading to the accumulation of macrophages and cytotoxic T-cells. Examples include chronic transplant rejection and contact dermatitis.
Type 5 hypersensitivity reactions are receptor-mediated or autoimmune and occur when antibodies bind to cell surface receptors. Examples include Grave’s disease and myasthenia gravis.
Understanding the mechanisms of hypersensitivity reactions is important for diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 4
Correct
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At what age can people receive the shingles vaccine?
Your Answer: 70 or 78-years old
Explanation:Shingles Vaccine Availability by Age
The shingles vaccine is available to individuals at different ages depending on their stage of life. Those who are 70 or 78-years old are eligible to receive the vaccine. However, it is not routinely offered to patients who are in their 50’s or 60’s. The vaccine is not part of the routine childhood immunisation schedule and is only available to NHS patients in their 70’s. It is not offered to individuals who are 80 or older, as it appears to be less effective in this age group. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the appropriate age to receive the shingles vaccine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 5
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 4-week history of diarrhoea, opening her bowels up to 2–3 times per day. She also complains of intermittent bloating and abdominal pain mostly prior to opening her bowels. There is no history of fever or vomiting and she has no past medical history of note. She returned from Thailand two weeks ago.
Stool microscopy: trophozoites and cysts are seen.
Given the likely diagnosis, what is the recommended management for this patient?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate management from the list below.
Your Answer: Metronidazole
Explanation:Antibiotics for Diarrhoeal Illnesses: Understanding the Appropriate Treatment
Giardiasis is a diarrhoeal illness caused by the protozoa Giardia lamblia, which is spread through contaminated food, water or faeces. The disease can last up to six weeks and presents with symptoms such as abdominal bloating, flatulence or malabsorption. Metronidazole is the preferred treatment for giardiasis due to its effectiveness and improved compliance.
Doxycycline is used to treat cholera, a severe disease that causes watery diarrhoea and dehydration. However, the chronic duration of symptoms and presence of parasitic organisms make cholera unlikely.
Ciprofloxacin is used to treat urinary-tract infections and some diarrhoeal illnesses such as cholera and Campylobacter jejuni infections. However, Campylobacter is usually self-limiting and has a much shorter duration of illness, making it an unlikely diagnosis.
Clindamycin is not classically used to treat giardiasis and should be used with caution due to the increased risk of developing antibiotic-associated colitis and opportunistic infections such as Clostridium difficile.
Co-amoxiclav may be used to treat intra-abdominal infections such as biliary sepsis, but it is not indicated for giardiasis.
In summary, understanding the appropriate use of antibiotics for diarrhoeal illnesses is crucial in providing effective treatment and avoiding unnecessary risks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 6
Correct
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A 14-year-old adolescent complains of recurring reactions to his nose ring. He remembers experiencing a similar reaction on his wrist when wearing a nickel bracelet. What test is used to confirm a nickel allergy?
Your Answer: Patch test
Explanation:Medical Testing Techniques
Patch Test, Flow Cytometry, HLA Typing, Polymerase Chain Reaction, and Skin Prick Testing are all medical testing techniques used for different purposes.
Patch Test is used to diagnose delayed type IV hypersensitivity reactions. It involves applying various test substances to the skin and examining it for any inflammatory response.
Flow Cytometry is used to differentiate between cell populations and count the number of cells in a given sample. It works by channelling cells through a laser beam one at a time and identifying the size and granularity of the cell.
HLA Typing is used to match patients and donors for cord blood or bone marrow transplants. It tests for proteins or markers used by the immune system to differentiate ‘self’ from ‘non-self’.
Polymerase Chain Reaction is used to amplify a single or multiple copies of a DNA segment. It has medical uses such as functional analysis of genes, diagnosis of hereditary diseases, and detection of infectious diseases.
Skin Prick Testing is used to diagnose type I hypersensitivity reactions, which are mediated by immunoglobulin E. It involves immediate degranulation of mast cells and the release of histamine. Examples of type I hypersensitivity reactions include allergic rhinitis, systemic anaphylaxis, and allergic asthma.
Medical Testing Techniques for Different Purposes
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 7
Correct
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A 27-year-old man presents to the Genitourinary Medicine Clinic with an 8-day history of dysuria and creamy urethral discharge. He has never had urethral discharge before and is very concerned. His past medical history includes childhood asthma and he is otherwise well with no allergies. During the consultation, he discloses that he had unprotected sexual intercourse two weeks ago.
On examination, his observations are within normal limits. His abdomen is soft and nontender with no palpable lymphadenopathy. There are no visible rashes. High urethral swabs are taken which show the presence of Gram-negative diplococci.
Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate management for this patient?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate management from the list below.
Select ONE option only.Your Answer: Ceftriaxone
Explanation:Common Antibiotics Used in the Treatment of Sexually Transmitted Infections
Sexually transmitted infections (STIs) are a common health concern worldwide. Antibiotics are often used in the treatment of STIs, but the choice of antibiotic depends on the specific infection. Here are some common antibiotics used in the treatment of STIs:
Ceftriaxone: This antibiotic is used to treat gonorrhoea, a sexually transmitted disease caused by the bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Symptoms include urethral or vaginal discharge and dysuria. The current British Society for Sexual Health and HIV guidelines recommend a single dose of intramuscular ceftriaxone for the treatment of gonorrhoea.
Azithromycin: This antibiotic is used to treat chlamydia, the most common sexually transmitted disease. Chlamydia may be asymptomatic or cause symptoms such as mucoid or mucopurulent urethral discharge and dysuria.
Benzylpenicillin: This antibiotic is used to treat syphilis, a sexually transmitted infection caused by the spirochaete Treponema pallidum. The disease has three stages of infection – primary, secondary and tertiary.
Doxycycline: This antibiotic is also used to treat chlamydia or syphilis, but it is not used in the treatment of gonorrhoea.
Metronidazole: This antibiotic is used to treat bacterial vaginosis and trichomoniasis. Neither infection is caused by the bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
It is important to seek medical attention if you suspect you have an STI, as early diagnosis and treatment can prevent complications and transmission to others.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 8
Correct
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A 22-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of frequent watery diarrhoea, abdominal pain, flatulence and nausea. Upon stool analysis, an elevated osmotic gap is detected with a pH < 6. The hydrogen breath test is positive.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Lactose intolerance
Explanation:Based on the patient’s symptoms and test results, it is likely that they have lactose intolerance. This diagnosis is supported by an increase in stool osmolality and a positive hydrogen breath test, which can be confirmed through dietary testing. While bowel malignancy is a possibility, additional symptoms such as rectal bleeding and weight loss would typically be present. Cows’ milk protein allergy is unlikely due to the patient’s age and the positive hydrogen breath test. Inflammatory bowel disease may have similar symptoms, but additional indicators such as weight loss, fever, and anemia would be present. Irritable bowel syndrome is not the most likely diagnosis and should only be considered after other possibilities have been ruled out.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 9
Correct
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A 14-month-old baby is presented by his mother who is worried about his persistent eczematous rashes, pruritus, loose stools and colic symptoms for a few weeks. The mother is uncertain about the frequency of occurrence but reports that it is happening daily. Despite using emollients, there has been no improvement. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Non-IgE-mediated cows’ milk protein allergy
Explanation:Understanding Non-IgE-Mediated Cows’ Milk Protein Allergy
When a child presents with a combination of cutaneous and gastrointestinal symptoms, an allergy to cows’ milk protein is the most likely cause. This is especially true for infants who are being weaned onto cows’ milk, as in this case. However, it’s important to note that this type of allergy is often confused with lactose intolerance, which is a different condition altogether.
One key indicator that this is a non-IgE-mediated allergy is the presence of an eczematous rash rather than an immediate reaction following ingestion. This is in contrast to an IgE-mediated reaction, which would result in an urticarial rash and occur immediately after milk was ingested.
It’s also worth noting that this is not likely to be eczema, as the symptoms have not improved with emollients and there are accompanying gastrointestinal symptoms. Similarly, a peanut allergy can be ruled out as the symptoms do not fit the diagnosis of an IgE-mediated reaction.
Overall, understanding the nuances of non-IgE-mediated cows’ milk protein allergy is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 10
Correct
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A 3-year-old boy is brought into accident and emergency by one of the staff at the nursery that he attends. He suddenly developed facial grimacing and carpopedal spasm that morning, after a minor viral gastrointestinal infection over the past few days. On examination he also has abnormal ears, a shortened philtrum, hypertelorism, micrognathia and a heart murmur.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: DiGeorge's syndrome
Explanation:Understanding Rare Genetic Disorders: DiGeorge’s Syndrome and Associated Features
DiGeorge’s syndrome, also known as 22q11.2 deletion syndrome, is a rare genetic disorder that affects the development of various organs in the body. One of the primary features of this syndrome is a decreased production and function of T-cells due to an absent or poorly developed thymus, leading to susceptibility to infections. Additionally, individuals with DiGeorge’s syndrome may experience hypocalcaemic tetany due to a failure of parathyroid development, which can be exacerbated by gastrointestinal infections.
Other features of DiGeorge’s syndrome include congenital cardiac defects, particularly those involving the great vessels, and the absence of a normal thymus. Serum immunoglobulin concentrations are often normal, but antibody responses may be impaired. T-cell levels are reduced, whereas B-cell levels are normal.
In addition to these medical features, individuals with DiGeorge’s syndrome may have characteristic facial features such as retrognathia or micrognathia, a long face, high and broad nasal bridge, narrow palpebral fissures, small teeth, asymmetrical crying face, downturned mouth, short philtrum, low-set and malformed ears, hypertelorism, and a dimple on the tip of the nose.
Overall, understanding the features and implications of rare genetic disorders like DiGeorge’s syndrome is crucial for proper diagnosis and management of affected individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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