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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old woman was recently diagnosed with atrial fibrillation during a routine pulse check. She has a medical history of fatty liver disease and well-managed hypertension, which is treated with amlodipine. Her weekly alcohol consumption is 14 units.
Her blood test results are as follows:
- Hb 110 g/L (115 - 160)
- Creatinine 108 µmol/L (55 - 120)
- Estimated GFR (eGFR) 57 mL/min/1.73 m² (>90)
- ALT 50 u/L (3 - 40)
To evaluate her bleeding risk before initiating anticoagulation therapy, her ORBIT score is computed.
What factors would increase this patient's ORBIT score?Your Answer: Age
Correct Answer:
Explanation:The ORBIT score includes anaemia and renal impairment as factors that indicate a higher risk of bleeding in patients with atrial fibrillation who are receiving anticoagulation treatment. This scoring tool is now recommended by NICE guidelines for assessing bleeding risk. The ORBIT score consists of five parameters, including age (75+ years), anaemia (haemoglobin <130 g/L in males, <120 g/L in females), bleeding history, and renal impairment (eGFR <60 mL/min/1.73 m²). In this patient's case, her anaemia and renal function would meet the criteria for scoring. Age is not a relevant factor as she is under 75 years old. Alcohol intake is not a criterion used in the ORBIT score, and hypertension is not included in this scoring tool but would be considered in the CHA2DS2-VASc scoring tool for assessing stroke risk. Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management, including the use of anticoagulation therapy. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend assessing the need for anticoagulation in all patients with a history of AF, regardless of whether they are currently experiencing symptoms. The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy, with a score of 2 or more indicating the need for anticoagulation. However, it is important to ensure a transthoracic echocardiogram has been done to exclude valvular heart disease, which is an absolute indication for anticoagulation. When considering anticoagulation therapy, doctors must also assess the patient’s bleeding risk. NICE recommends using the ORBIT scoring system to formalize this risk assessment, taking into account factors such as haemoglobin levels, age, bleeding history, renal impairment, and treatment with antiplatelet agents. While there are no formal rules on how to act on the ORBIT score, individual patient factors should be considered. The risk of bleeding increases with a higher ORBIT score, with a score of 4-7 indicating a high risk of bleeding. For many years, warfarin was the anticoagulant of choice for AF. However, the development of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) has changed this. DOACs have the advantage of not requiring regular blood tests to check the INR and are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF. The recommended DOACs for reducing stroke risk in AF are apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban. Warfarin is now used second-line, in patients where a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man has a mid-diastolic murmur best heard at the apex. There is no previous history of any abnormal cardiac findings.
Select from the list the single most likely explanation of this murmur.Your Answer: Ventricular septal defect
Correct Answer: Physiological
Explanation:Systolic Murmurs in Pregnancy: Causes and Characteristics
During pregnancy, the increased blood volume and flow through the heart can result in the appearance of innocent murmurs. In fact, a study found that 93.2% of healthy pregnant women had a systolic murmur at some point during pregnancy. These murmurs are typically systolic, may have a diastolic component, and can occur at any stage of pregnancy. They are often located at the second left intercostal space or along the left sternal border, but can radiate widely. If there is any doubt, referral for cardiological assessment is recommended.
Aortic stenosis produces a specific type of systolic murmur that begins shortly after the first heart sound and ends just before the second heart sound. It is best heard in the second right intercostal space. Mitral murmurs, on the other hand, are best heard at the apex and can radiate to the axilla. Mitral incompetence produces a pansystolic murmur of even intensity throughout systole, while mitral valve prolapse produces a mid-systolic click. A ventricular septal defect produces a harsh systolic murmur that is best heard along the left sternal edge.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents for follow-up at the hypertension clinic. He is currently on a regimen of amlodipine and ramipril and has no significant medical history. He regularly checks his blood pressure at home and brings in a printed spreadsheet of his readings. What is the recommended target blood pressure for these home measurements?
Your Answer: <= 130/80 mmHg
Correct Answer:
Explanation:The threshold for stage 1 hypertension, as measured by ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) or home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM), is a reading of 135/85 mmHg.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man has been diagnosed with hypertension and has a history of chronic heart failure due to alcoholic cardiomyopathy (NYHA class I). Which medication should be avoided due to contraindication?
Your Answer: Indapamide
Correct Answer: Verapamil
Explanation:Medications to Avoid in Patients with Heart Failure
Patients with heart failure need to be cautious when taking certain medications as they may exacerbate their condition. Thiazolidinediones, such as pioglitazone, are contraindicated as they cause fluid retention. Verapamil should also be avoided due to its negative inotropic effect. NSAIDs and glucocorticoids should be used with caution as they can also cause fluid retention. However, low-dose aspirin is an exception as many patients with heart failure also have coexistent cardiovascular disease and the benefits of taking aspirin outweigh the risks. Class I antiarrhythmics, such as flecainide, should also be avoided as they have a negative inotropic and proarrhythmic effect. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these medications and their potential effects on patients with heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 5
Incorrect
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You start a patient on atorvastatin after their cholesterol was found to be raised in the context of a QRISK of 15%. You repeat the blood tests 6 months after starting treatment.
Which of the following blood results does NICE recommend using to determine the next course of action?Your Answer: High-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol
Correct Answer: Non-HDL cholesterol
Explanation:Monitoring Statin Treatment for Primary Prevention
Following the initiation of statin treatment for primary prevention, it is recommended to have a repeat blood test after 3 months. The non-HDL cholesterol level should be interpreted to guide the next steps in management. The goal of treatment is to reduce non-HDL levels by 40% of the patient’s baseline. If adherence, timing of the dose, and lifestyle measures are in place, an increase in dose may be necessary.
It is not routine to investigate creatine kinase in this context, but it would be helpful to investigate unexplained muscle symptoms. Liver function tests are not an option, but NICE advises testing these 3 months and 12 months following statin initiation. If stable, no further monitoring for LFTs is required after this.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a 75-year-old man with longstanding varicose veins. He presents to you with a small painful ulcer near one of them. The pain improves when he elevates his leg.
During the examination, you observe normal distal pulses and warm feet. The ulcer is well-defined and shallow, with a small amount of slough and granulation tissue at the base.
The patient has never smoked, has no significant past medical history, and recent blood tests, including an HbA1c, were normal.
You suspect a venous ulcer and plan to perform an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) to initiate compression bandaging.
As per current NICE guidelines, what is the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer: Prescribe class 2 compression stockings
Correct Answer: Refer to vascular team
Explanation:Referral to secondary care for treatment is recommended for patients with varicose veins and an active or healed venous leg ulcer. In this case, the woman should be referred to the vascular team. Venous leg ulcers can be painful and are associated with venous stasis. Class 2 compression stockings are used for the treatment of uncomplicated varicose veins. Small amounts of slough and granulation tissue are common with venous ulcers and do not necessarily indicate an infection requiring antibiotics. Exercise is encouraged to help venous return in these patients. Duplex sonography is usually performed in secondary care, but the specialist team will request this, not primary care.
Understanding Varicose Veins
Varicose veins are enlarged and twisted veins that occur when the valves in the veins become weak or damaged, causing blood to flow backward and pool in the veins. They are most commonly found in the legs and can be caused by various factors such as age, gender, pregnancy, obesity, and genetics. While many people seek treatment for cosmetic reasons, others may experience symptoms such as aching, throbbing, and itching. In severe cases, varicose veins can lead to skin changes, bleeding, superficial thrombophlebitis, and venous ulceration.
To diagnose varicose veins, a venous duplex ultrasound is typically performed to detect retrograde venous flow. Treatment options vary depending on the severity of the condition. Conservative treatments such as leg elevation, weight loss, regular exercise, and compression stockings may be recommended for mild cases. However, patients with significant or troublesome symptoms, skin changes, or a history of bleeding or ulcers may require referral to a specialist for further evaluation and treatment. Possible treatments include endothermal ablation, foam sclerotherapy, or surgery.
In summary, varicose veins are a common condition that can cause discomfort and cosmetic concerns. While many cases do not require intervention, it is important to seek medical attention if symptoms or complications arise. With proper diagnosis and treatment, patients can manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 7
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man comes in for a medication review. He has a history of ischaemic heart disease, cerebrovascular disease, and heart failure. Which of the following medications should be prescribed using brand names only?
Your Answer: Bumetanide
Correct Answer: Modified-release verapamil
Explanation:To ensure effective symptom control, it is important to prescribe modified release calcium channel blockers by their specific brand names, as their release characteristics can vary. Therefore, it is necessary to maintain consistency in the brand prescribed.
Prescribing Guidance for Healthcare Professionals
Prescribing medication is a crucial aspect of healthcare practice, and it is essential to follow good practice guidelines to ensure patient safety and effective treatment. The British National Formulary (BNF) provides guidance on prescribing medication, including the recommendation to prescribe drugs by their generic name, except for specific preparations where the clinical effect may differ. It is also important to avoid unnecessary decimal points when writing numbers, such as prescribing 250 ml instead of 0.25 l. Additionally, it is a legal requirement to specify the age of children under 12 on their prescription.
However, there are certain drugs that should be prescribed by their brand name, including modified release calcium channel blockers, antiepileptics, ciclosporin and tacrolimus, mesalazine, lithium, aminophylline and theophylline, methylphenidate, CFC-free formulations of beclomethasone, and dry powder inhaler devices. By following these prescribing guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure safe and effective medication management for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department following a fall. He recalled rushing for the train before feeling dizzy. His father recently died suddenly because of a heart problem. On examination, he has a ‘jerky’ pulse, a thrusting apex beat with double impulse and a late ejection systolic murmur which diminishes on squatting.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Explanation:Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is a genetic heart condition that is the leading cause of sudden cardiac death in young people. It is characterized by an enlarged left ventricle, which can cause obstruction of blood flow. A jerky pulse and an intensifying systolic murmur during activities that decrease blood volume in the left ventricle are common examination findings. Aortic stenosis, Brugada syndrome, mitral regurgitation, and mitral valve prolapse are other heart conditions that have different symptoms and examination findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents after experiencing a panic attack at work. He reports feeling extremely hot and unable to concentrate, with a sensation of the world closing in on him. Although his symptoms have mostly subsided, he seeks medical attention. Upon examination, his pulse is 78 beats per minute, blood pressure is 188/112 mmHg, and respiratory rate is 14 breaths per minute. Fundoscopy reveals small retinal hemorrhages, but cardiovascular examination is otherwise unremarkable. The patient's PHQ-9 score is 15 out of 27. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Admit for a same day assessment of his blood pressure
Explanation:This individual is experiencing severe hypertension, according to NICE guidelines, and is also exhibiting retinal haemorrhages. In such cases, NICE advises immediate referral and assessment. While the reported panic attack may be unrelated, it is important to rule out the possibility of an underlying phaeochromocytoma.
NICE released updated guidelines in 2019 for the management of hypertension, building on previous guidelines from 2011. These guidelines recommend classifying hypertension into stages and using ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) and home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) to confirm the diagnosis of hypertension. This is because some patients experience white coat hypertension, where their blood pressure rises in a clinical setting, leading to potential overdiagnosis of hypertension. ABPM and HBPM provide a more accurate assessment of a patient’s overall blood pressure and can help prevent overdiagnosis.
To diagnose hypertension, NICE recommends measuring blood pressure in both arms and repeating the measurements if there is a difference of more than 20 mmHg. If the difference remains, subsequent blood pressures should be recorded from the arm with the higher reading. NICE also recommends taking a second reading during the consultation if the first reading is above 140/90 mmHg. ABPM or HBPM should be offered to any patient with a blood pressure above this level.
If the blood pressure is above 180/120 mmHg, NICE recommends admitting the patient for specialist assessment if there are signs of retinal haemorrhage or papilloedema or life-threatening symptoms such as new-onset confusion, chest pain, signs of heart failure, or acute kidney injury. Referral is also recommended if a phaeochromocytoma is suspected. If none of these apply, urgent investigations for end-organ damage should be arranged. If target organ damage is identified, antihypertensive drug treatment may be started immediately. If no target organ damage is identified, clinic blood pressure measurement should be repeated within 7 days.
ABPM should involve at least 2 measurements per hour during the person’s usual waking hours, with the average value of at least 14 measurements used. If ABPM is not tolerated or declined, HBPM should be offered. For HBPM, two consecutive measurements need to be taken for each blood pressure recording, at least 1 minute apart and with the person seated. Blood pressure should be recorded twice daily, ideally in the morning and evening, for at least 4 days, ideally for 7 days. The measurements taken on the first day should be discarded, and the average value of all the remaining measurements used.
Interpreting the results, ABPM/HBPM above 135/85 mmHg (stage 1 hypertension) should be
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man presents for follow-up of his atrial fibrillation. He recently underwent catheter ablation for atrial fibrillation and it was successful.
The patient has a medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes. His most recent blood pressure reading was 150/92 mmHg.
What is the optimal approach for managing his anticoagulation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue anticoagulation long-term
Explanation:Patients who have undergone catheter ablation for atrial fibrillation must continue with long-term anticoagulation based on their CHA2DS2-VASc score. According to the guidelines of the American College of Cardiology, the decision to discontinue anticoagulation after two months of catheter ablation should be based on the patient’s stroke risk profile, not on the outcome of the procedure. There is no published evidence that it is safe to stop anticoagulation after ablation if the CHA2DS2-Vasc score is equal to or greater than 1. Therefore, in the given scenario, since the CHA2DS2-VASc score indicates moderate to high risk (3 points), anticoagulation should be continued.
Although monitoring heart rhythm is crucial due to the risk of recurrence, anticoagulation should still be continued even if the patient remains in sinus rhythm. Blood pressure readings do not provide any indication to stop anticoagulation.
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a heart condition that requires prompt management. The management of AF depends on the patient’s haemodynamic stability and the duration of the AF. For haemodynamically unstable patients, electrical cardioversion is recommended. For haemodynamically stable patients, rate control is the first-line treatment strategy, except in certain cases. Medications such as beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, and digoxin are commonly used to control the heart rate. Rhythm control is another treatment option that involves the use of medications such as beta-blockers, dronedarone, and amiodarone. Catheter ablation is recommended for patients who have not responded to or wish to avoid antiarrhythmic medication. The procedure involves the use of radiofrequency or cryotherapy to ablate the faulty electrical pathways that cause AF. Anticoagulation is necessary before and during the procedure to reduce the risk of stroke. The success rate of catheter ablation varies, with around 50% of patients experiencing an early recurrence of AF within three months. However, after three years, around 55% of patients who have undergone a single procedure remain in sinus rhythm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 11
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man presents with persistent atrial fibrillation. He has a past medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes, both of which are being treated with oral agents. He has no contraindications to any antithrombotic treatments and has come to discuss his risk of stroke and the need for antithrombotic treatment. What is the first-line antithrombotic treatment that should be considered in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Warfarin
Explanation:Understanding the CHA2DS2-VASc Score for Atrial Fibrillation Treatment
The CHA2DS2-VASc score is a validated scoring system used by clinicians to determine the most appropriate antithrombotic treatment for patients with atrial fibrillation. It takes into account various risk factors, including congestive heart failure, hypertension, age, diabetes mellitus, prior stroke or TIA, vascular disease, and sex category. Patients scoring two or more should be considered for warfarinisation, provided there are no contraindications.
In this case, the patient scores one point for hypertension and one point for diabetes, making him eligible for warfarinisation. However, it is also important to assess his bleeding risk using the HAS BLED score, as newer anticoagulants like Dabigatran and rivoroxiban may be more appropriate. The CHA2DS2-VASc score is recommended over the CHADS2 score, as it provides a more detailed assessment of risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old gentleman has uncontrolled hypertension. He is currently taking a calcium antagonist and an ACE inhibitor.
His U&Es are shown below. You would like to start a diuretic.
Serum sodium 140 mmol/L (137-144)
Serum potassium 4.1 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
Urea 5.0 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
Creatinine 60 µmol/L (60-110)
According to the latest NICE guidance, which one would be your first choice?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hydrochlorothiazide
Explanation:Navigating NICE Guidelines on Hypertension
The management of hypertension is a crucial topic for general practitioners, and it is likely to be tested in various areas of the MRCGP exam, including the AKT. The most recent NICE guidelines on hypertension (NG136) recommend thiazide-like diuretics as the clear third-line choice, whereas they used to be an option first line in Afro-Caribbeans and the over 55s. However, it is important to note that this guidance has attracted criticism from some clinicians who argue that it is overcomplicated and insufficiently evidence-based, particularly regarding the use of ambulatory and home blood pressure monitoring.
It is essential to have an awareness of this and maintain a balanced view, not just in hypertension but also in other areas of medicine. While NICE guidance is significant, there are other guidelines, and it is not without its criticism. It is unlikely that AKT questions will contradict NICE guidance, but it is crucial to bear in mind the bigger picture and remember that the college tests your knowledge of national guidance and consensus opinion, not just the latest NICE guidance.
It is worth noting that if a patient is already taking bendroflumethiazide or hydrochlorothiazide, these agents should not be routinely changed. Indapamide and chlorthalidone are now recognized as the first-line agents over the latter two agents. All these medications are diuretics, and this man is already taking a calcium channel blocker and an ACE inhibitor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old man has recently started taking a new medication for his hypertension. He has noticed swelling in his ankles and wonders if it could be a side effect of the medication. Which drug is most likely responsible for his symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amlodipine
Explanation:Understanding Amlodipine: A Calcium-Channel Blocker and its Side-Effects
Amlodipine is a medication that belongs to the class of calcium-channel blockers. It works by inhibiting the inward displacement of calcium ions through the slow channels of active cell membranes. The primary effect of amlodipine is to relax vascular smooth muscle and dilate peripheral and coronary arteries. However, this medication is also associated with some side-effects due to its vasodilatory properties.
Common side-effects of amlodipine include flushing and headache, which usually subside after a few days. Another common side-effect is ankle swelling, which only partially responds to diuretics. In some cases, ankle swelling may be severe enough to warrant discontinuation of the drug. On the other hand, oedema is uncommon with losartan and not reported for any of the other options.
If you experience oedema due to calcium-channel blockers, it is important to manage it properly. Please refer to the external links for more information on how to manage this side-effect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man who experiences Stokes-Adams attacks has received a pacemaker that is functioning properly. What guidance should he be provided regarding driving?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cannot drive for 1 week
Explanation:If you have had a pacemaker inserted or the box has been changed, it is important to inform the DVLA. It is also necessary to refrain from driving for a minimum of one week.
DVLA Guidelines for Cardiovascular Disorders and Driving
The DVLA has specific guidelines for individuals with cardiovascular disorders who wish to drive a car or motorcycle. For those with hypertension, driving is permitted unless the treatment causes unacceptable side effects, and there is no need to notify the DVLA. However, if the individual has Group 2 Entitlement, they will be disqualified from driving if their resting blood pressure consistently measures 180 mmHg systolic or more and/or 100 mm Hg diastolic or more.
Individuals who have undergone elective angioplasty must refrain from driving for one week, while those who have undergone CABG or acute coronary syndrome must wait four weeks before driving. If an individual experiences angina symptoms at rest or while driving, they must cease driving altogether. Pacemaker insertion requires a one-week break from driving, while implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) implantation results in a six-month driving ban if implanted for sustained ventricular arrhythmia. If implanted prophylactically, the individual must cease driving for one month, and Group 2 drivers are permanently barred from driving with an ICD.
Successful catheter ablation for an arrhythmia requires a two-day break from driving, while an aortic aneurysm of 6 cm or more must be reported to the DVLA. Licensing will be permitted subject to annual review, but an aortic diameter of 6.5 cm or more disqualifies patients from driving. Finally, individuals who have undergone a heart transplant must refrain from driving for six weeks, but there is no need to notify the DVLA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old woman is prescribed amlodipine 5mg once daily for hypertension. She has no significant medical history and her routine blood tests (including fasting glucose) and ECG were unremarkable.
What is the recommended target blood pressure for her while on amlodipine treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:The recommended blood pressure target for individuals under 80 years old during a clinic reading is 140/90 mmHg. However, the Quality and Outcomes Framework (QOF) indicator for GPs practicing in England specifies a slightly higher target of below 150/90 mmHg.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man presents with a recent diagnosis of angina pectoris. He is currently on aspirin, simvastatin, atenolol, and nifedipine, but is still experiencing frequent use of his GTN spray. What would be the most suitable course of action for further management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add isosorbide mononitrate MR and refer to cardiology for consideration of PCI or CABG
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines, if a patient needs a third anti-anginal medication, they should be referred for evaluation of a more permanent solution such as PCI or CABG. Although ACE inhibitors may be beneficial for certain patients with stable angina, they would not alleviate his angina symptoms.
Angina pectoris can be managed through lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. NICE recommends using either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker as first-line treatment, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker like amlodipine or modified-release nifedipine should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If initial treatment is ineffective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, long-acting nitrate, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.
Nitrate tolerance is a common issue for patients who take nitrates, leading to reduced efficacy. NICE advises patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate to use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. However, this effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A patient is at highest risk of developing venous thromboembolism due to which of the following options? Please select only one.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hip fracture
Explanation:Predisposing Factors for Pulmonary Embolism
Pulmonary embolism is a serious medical condition that occurs when a blood clot travels to the lungs and blocks blood flow. Certain factors can increase the risk of developing pulmonary embolism.
Strong predisposing factors, with an odds ratio greater than 10, include fractures (hip or leg), hip or knee replacement, major general surgery, major trauma, and spinal cord injury.
Moderate predisposing factors, with an odds ratio between 2 and 9, include arthroscopic knee surgery, central venous lines, chemotherapy, chronic heart or respiratory failure, hormone replacement therapy, malignancy, oral contraceptive therapy, paralytic stroke, pregnancy/postpartum, previous venous thromboembolism, and thrombophilia.
Weak predisposing factors, with an odds ratio of 2 or less, include bed rest for more than 3 days, immobility due to sitting (such as prolonged car or air travel), increasing age, laparoscopic surgery (such as cholecystectomy), obesity, pregnancy/antepartum, and varicose veins.
It is important to be aware of these predisposing factors and take appropriate measures to prevent pulmonary embolism, especially in high-risk individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 38 year old, asymptomatic man is incidentally found to have a clinic blood pressure reading of 148/92 mmHg. His GP requests ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) to confirm a diagnosis of hypertension. The average ABPM is found to be 144/90 mmHg. He has no significant past medical history and takes no regular medication. Urine dip is negative. His BMI is 35 kg/m². Appropriate further management in this case would be to:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to secondary care
Explanation:For individuals under the age of 40 who have stage 1 hypertension and no signs of target organ damage, NICE suggests referring them to rule out secondary causes of hypertension. It is recommended to conduct a thorough evaluation of potential target organ damage in this age group as risk assessments may not accurately predict the lifetime risk of cardiovascular events.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old man is currently on lisinopril, nifedipine and chlorthalidone for his high blood pressure. During his clinic visit, his blood pressure is measured at 142/88 mmHg and you believe that he requires a higher level of treatment. The patient's blood test results are as follows: Serum Sodium 135 mmol/L (137-144), Serum Potassium 3.6 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), Urea 8 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), and Creatinine 75 µmol/L (60-110). Based on the most recent NICE guidelines on hypertension (NG136), what would be your next course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add spironolactone
Explanation:Understanding NICE Guidelines on Hypertension
Managing hypertension is a crucial aspect of a general practitioner’s role, and it is essential to have a good understanding of the latest NICE guidelines on hypertension (NG136). Step 4 of the guidelines recommends seeking expert advice or adding low-dose spironolactone if the blood potassium level is ≤4.5 mmol/l, and an alpha-blocker or beta-blocker if the blood potassium level is >4.5 mmol/l. If blood pressure remains uncontrolled on optimal tolerated doses of four drugs, expert advice should be sought.
It is important to note that hypertension management is a topic that may be tested in various areas of the MRCGP exam, including the AKT. Therefore, it is crucial to have a good understanding of the NICE guidelines on hypertension to perform well in the exam. By following the guidelines, general practitioners can provide optimal care to their patients with hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which statement accurately describes chest pain?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pleuritic pain is sharp and localised and aggravated by coughing
Explanation:Pain and Innervation in the Diaphragm, Lungs, and Pericardium
The diaphragm is innervated by the phrenic nerve, which only supplies the central portion of the muscle. Therefore, pain originating in the outer diaphragm will not be referred to the tip of the shoulder. Additionally, the lung parenchyma and visceral pleura are insensitive to pain, meaning that any discomfort felt in these areas is likely due to surrounding structures.
Pericarditis, inflammation of the pericardium surrounding the heart, can cause chest pain. However, this pain is typically relieved by sitting forward. This is because the pericardium is attached to the diaphragm and sternum, and sitting forward can reduce pressure on these structures, alleviating the pain. Understanding the innervation and sensitivity of these structures can aid in the diagnosis and management of chest pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 21
Incorrect
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After sending several invitations, 58-year-old Mrs. Johnson attends the clinic for her medication review. She has not been to the clinic for over a year due to her busy work schedule. Mrs. Johnson is currently taking allopurinol 200 mg, candesartan 8mg, indapamide 2.5mg, omeprazole 20 mg, and salbutamol inhaler as required.
During her visit, her blood pressure is measured several times and is found to be 168/96 mmHg. Mrs. Johnson reports taking her medications almost every day, but her blood pressure is still high. As per NICE guidelines, which class of antihypertensive medication should be added to her current treatment plan?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Calcium channel blocker
Explanation:For a patient with poorly controlled hypertension who is already taking an ACE inhibitor and a thiazide diuretic, the recommended next step would be to add a calcium channel blocker. This is because adding another ACE inhibitor would not be appropriate, and beta-blockers may be contraindicated if the patient has asthma. Loop diuretics are not typically used as a treatment for hypertension.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman suffers from angina and fibromyalgia. She finds ibuprofen more effective than simple analgesics for her fibromyalgia pain.
Select from the list the single true statement regarding the use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) in patients with cardiovascular disease.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Low-dose ibuprofen and naproxen appear to be associated with a lower cardiovascular risk compared with diclofenac
Explanation:Risks Associated with Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs (NSAIDs)
Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) have the potential to increase the risk of thrombotic cardiovascular disease, even with short-term use. This risk applies to all NSAID users, regardless of their baseline risk, and is particularly high in patients with risk factors for cardiovascular events. Observational data suggests that high doses of diclofenac and ibuprofen pose the greatest risk, while naproxen and lower doses of ibuprofen do not have significant cardiovascular risk.
It is recommended to avoid NSAIDs in patients with cardiovascular disease, and if necessary, to use the lowest effective dose for the shortest possible time. NSAIDs may also counteract the antiplatelet effects of aspirin and increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeds. Therefore, it is advised to avoid concomitant use and consider prescribing gastroprotection with a proton pump inhibitor if necessary.
For more information on the risks associated with NSAIDs, please refer to the following link: http://cks.nice.org.uk/nsaids-prescribing-issues#!scenario
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl has coarctation of the aorta. She was diagnosed six weeks ago. She needs to have a dental filling.
Which one of the following is correct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Antibiotic prophylaxis is not necessary
Explanation:NICE Guidance on Antibiotic Prophylaxis for High-Risk Patients
NICE has released new guidance regarding the use of antibiotic prophylaxis for high-risk patients. The guidance acknowledges that patients with pre-existing cardiac lesions are at risk of developing bacterial endocarditis (IE). However, NICE has concluded that clinical and cost-effectiveness evidence supports the recommendation that at-risk patients undergoing interventional procedures should no longer be given antibiotic prophylaxis against IE.
It is important to note that antibiotic therapy is still necessary to treat active or potential infections. The current antibiotic prophylaxis regimens may even result in a net loss of life. Therefore, it is crucial to identify patient groups who may be most at risk of developing bacterial endocarditis so that prompt investigation and treatment can be undertaken. However, offering antibiotic prophylaxis for these patients during dental procedures is not considered effective. This new guidance marks a paradigm shift from current accepted practice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 24
Incorrect
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What is the correct option for measuring blood pressure using either an automated machine or a manual method?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Patients should rest for 5 minutes before the measurement is taken
Explanation:Guidelines for Measuring Blood Pressure
When measuring blood pressure, it is important to follow certain guidelines to ensure accurate readings. The patient should be seated for at least five minutes, in a relaxed state without moving or speaking. Blood pressure should be recorded three times, initially testing in both arms. If there is a sustained difference of more than 20 mmHg, use the arm with the higher reading for subsequent measurements. The arm must be supported at the level of the heart.
If the blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg or higher, up to three readings should be taken, and the lower of the last two recorded as the blood pressure. It is important to note that automated devices may not measure blood pressure accurately if there is pulse irregularity, such as atrial fibrillation. In such cases, blood pressure should be measured manually using direct auscultation over the brachial artery. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure accurate blood pressure readings for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 25
Incorrect
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You are conducting a medication review for a 65-year-old man who has a history of cerebrovascular disease (having suffered a stroke 2 years ago), depression, and knee osteoarthritis. He is currently taking the following medications:
- Clopidogrel 75 mg once daily
- Simvastatin 20 mg once daily
- Amlodipine 5mg once daily
- Ramipril 10 mg once daily
- Diclofenac 50 mg as needed
- Sertraline 50 mg once daily
What changes would you recommend to his medication regimen?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Switch diclofenac for an alternative NSAID
Explanation:The use of diclofenac is now prohibited for individuals with any type of cardiovascular ailment.
Diclofenac and Cardiovascular Risk
The MHRA has updated its guidance on diclofenac, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), due to a Europe-wide review of cardiovascular safety. While it has been known for some time that NSAIDs may increase the risk of cardiovascular events, the evidence base has become clearer. Diclofenac is associated with a significantly higher risk of cardiovascular events compared to other NSAIDs. Therefore, diclofenac is contraindicated in patients with ischaemic heart disease, peripheral arterial disease, cerebrovascular disease, and congestive heart failure (New York Heart Association classification II-IV). Patients should switch from diclofenac to other NSAIDs, such as naproxen or ibuprofen, except for topical diclofenac. Studies have shown that naproxen and low-dose ibuprofen have the best cardiovascular risk profiles of the NSAIDs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Mrs. Lee attends for her annual medication review. She is on tamsulosin and finasteride for benign prostatic hypertrophy, and paracetamol with topical ibuprofen for osteoarthritis. She says that she was offered treatment for her high cholesterol level at her previous medication review which she declined, but she has decided she would like to start one now after doing some reading about it. It had been offered for primary prevention as her estimated 10-year cardiovascular risk was 22%.
Her blood results are as below.
eGFR 62 mmol/L (>90 mmol/L)
Total Cholesterol 6.6 mmol/L (3.1 - 5.0)
Bilirubin 10 µmol/L (3 - 17)
ALP 42 u/L (30 - 100)
ALT 32 u/L (3 - 40)
γGT 55 u/L (8 - 60)
Albumin 45 g/L (35 - 50)
What medication should be prescribed for Mrs. Lee?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atorvastatin 20 mg
Explanation:For primary prevention of cardiovascular disease, the recommended treatment is atorvastatin 20 mg, while for secondary prevention, atorvastatin 80 mg is recommended. Simvastatin used to be the first-line option, but atorvastatin is now preferred due to its higher intensity and lower risk of myopathy at high doses. Before starting statin treatment, it is important to check liver function tests, which in this case were normal. According to the BNF, atorvastatin 20 mg is appropriate for patients with chronic kidney disease. It is not recommended to use ezetimibe or fenofibrate as first-line options for managing cholesterol.
Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of HMG-CoA reductase, which is the enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis in the liver. However, they can cause adverse effects such as myopathy, liver impairment, and an increased risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients with a history of stroke. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy or in combination with macrolides. NICE recommends statins for patients with established cardiovascular disease, a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or higher, type 2 diabetes mellitus, or type 1 diabetes mellitus with certain criteria. It is recommended to take statins at night, especially simvastatin, which has a shorter half-life than other statins. NICE recommends atorvastatin 20 mg for primary prevention and atorvastatin 80 mg for secondary prevention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man presents for an insurance medical. He has no significant medical history. During the examination, his BMI is 23 kg/m2, blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, and auscultation of the heart reveals a mid-systolic click and a late systolic murmur (which are more pronounced when he stands up).
What is the most likely diagnosis based on these findings?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mitral valve prolapse
Explanation:Understanding Mitral Valve Prolapse: Symptoms, Causes, and Associated Conditions
Mitral valve prolapse is a condition where the leaflets of the mitral valve bulge in systole, affecting around 2-3% of the population. It can occur as an isolated entity or with heritable disorders of connective tissue. While most people are asymptomatic, some may experience symptoms such as anxiety, panic attacks, palpitations, syncope, or presyncope. The condition is also a risk factor for mitral regurgitation and carries a small risk of cerebral emboli and sudden death. Diagnosis is made through auscultation, with a mid-to-late systolic click and a late systolic murmur heard at the apex. Other heart conditions, such as atrial septal defect, aortic stenosis, mitral regurgitation, and mitral stenosis, have distinct murmurs that aid in diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of erectile dysfunction. He has a history of angina and takes isosorbide mononitrate. What is the most suitable initial treatment option in this scenario? Choose ONE answer only.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alprostadil
Explanation:Treatment Options for Erectile Dysfunction: Alprostadil, Tadalafil, Penile Prosthesis, and Psychosexual Counselling
Erectile dysfunction affects a significant percentage of men, with prevalence increasing with age. The condition shares the same risk factors as cardiovascular disease. The usual first-line treatment with a phosphodiesterase-5 (PDE5) inhibitor is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates, as concurrent use can lead to severe hypotension or even death. Therefore, alternative treatment options are available.
Alprostadil is an effective treatment for erectile dysfunction, either topically or in the form of an intracavernosal injection. It is the most appropriate treatment to offer where PDE5 inhibitors are ineffective or for people who find PDE5 inhibitors ineffective.
Tadalafil, a PDE5 inhibitor, is a first-line treatment for erectile dysfunction. It lasts longer than sildenafil, which can help improve spontaneity. However, it is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates, and a second-line treatment, such as alprostadil, should be used.
A penile prosthesis is a rare third-line option if both PDE5 inhibitors and alprostadil are either ineffective or inappropriate. It involves the insertion of a fluid-filled reservoir under the abdominal wall, with a pump and a release valve in the scrotum, that are used to inflate two implanted cylinders in the penis.
Psychosexual counselling is recommended for treatment of psychogenic erectile dysfunction or in those men with severe psychological distress. It is not recommended for routine treatment, but studies have shown that psychotherapy is just as effective as vacuum devices and penile prosthesis.
In summary, treatment options for erectile dysfunction include alprostadil, tadalafil, penile prosthesis, and psychosexual counselling, depending on the individual’s needs and contraindications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 29
Incorrect
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What is the most suitable amount of adrenaline to administer during a heart attack?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 10ml 1:10,000 IV
Explanation:Here are the recommended doses of adrenaline for Adult Life Support (ALS):
– Anaphylaxis: Administer 0.5mg or 0.5ml of 1:1,000 adrenaline via intramuscular injection.
– Cardiac arrest: Administer 1 mg of adrenaline.Understanding Adrenaline and Its Effects on the Body
Adrenaline is a hormone that is responsible for the body’s fight or flight response. It is released by the adrenal glands and acts on both alpha and beta adrenergic receptors. Adrenaline has various effects on the body, including increasing cardiac output and total peripheral resistance, causing vasoconstriction in the skin and kidneys, and stimulating glycogenolysis and glycolysis in the liver and muscle.
Adrenaline also has different actions on alpha and beta adrenergic receptors. It inhibits insulin secretion by the pancreas and stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver and muscle through alpha receptors. On the other hand, it stimulates glucagon secretion in the pancreas, ACTH, and lipolysis by adipose tissue through beta receptors. Adrenaline also acts on beta 2 receptors in skeletal muscle vessels, causing vasodilation.
Adrenaline is used in emergency situations such as anaphylaxis and cardiac arrest. The recommended adult life support adrenaline doses for anaphylaxis are 0.5ml 1:1,000 IM, while for cardiac arrest, it is 10ml 1:10,000 IV or 1 ml of 1:1000 IV. However, accidental injection of adrenaline can occur, and in such cases, local infiltration of phentolamine is recommended.
In conclusion, adrenaline is a hormone that plays a crucial role in the body’s response to stress. It has various effects on the body, including increasing cardiac output and total peripheral resistance, causing vasoconstriction in the skin and kidneys, and stimulating glycogenolysis and glycolysis in the liver and muscle. Adrenaline is used in emergency situations such as anaphylaxis and cardiac arrest, and accidental injection can be managed through local infiltration of phentolamine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man has been diagnosed with heart failure and his cardiologist recommends starting a beta-blocker along with other medications. He is currently stable hemodynamically. What is the most suitable beta-blocker to use in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bisoprolol
Explanation:Beta-Blockers for Heart Failure: Medications and Contraindications
Heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management to reduce mortality. Beta-blockers are a class of medications that have been shown to be effective in treating heart failure. Despite some relative contraindications, beta-blockers can be safely initiated in general practice. However, there are still absolute contraindications that should be considered before prescribing beta-blockers, such as asthma, second or third-degree heart block, sick sinus syndrome (without pacemaker), and sinus bradycardia (<50 bpm). Bisoprolol, carvedilol, and nebivolol are all licensed for the treatment of heart failure in the United Kingdom. Among these medications, bisoprolol is the recommended choice and should be started at a low dose of 1.25 mg daily and gradually increased to the maximum tolerated dose (up to 10 mg). Other beta-blockers such as labetalol, atenolol, propranolol, and sotalol have different indications and are not licensed for the treatment of heart failure. Labetalol is mainly used for hypertension in pregnancy, while atenolol is used for arrhythmias, angina, and hypertension. Propranolol is indicated for tachycardia linked to thyrotoxicosis, anxiety, migraine prophylaxis, and benign essential tremor. Sotalol is commonly used to treat atrial and ventricular arrhythmias, particularly atrial fibrillation. In summary, beta-blockers are an important class of medications for the treatment of heart failure. However, careful consideration of contraindications and appropriate medication selection is crucial for optimal patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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