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  • Question 1 - What is a true statement about migraines? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about migraines?

      Your Answer: They can be precipitated by stress

      Explanation:

      Migraine

      Migraine is a common condition that affects 5-10% of the population, with a higher prevalence in women than men (2-3:1). It typically starts in childhood of adolescence and has a strong familial association, with 2/3 of cases reporting a family history of migraine.

      The most prominent symptom of migraine is headache, which is usually unilateral but can occur on both sides. Other symptoms include anorexia, nausea and vomiting, photophobia, and intolerance of noise.

      In about 1/3 of cases, migraines are preceded by a visual aura (known as classic migraine). The most common form of visual aura is the ‘fortification spectra’ (semicircle of zigzag lights), but other disturbances such as micropsia, macropsia, zoom vision, mosaic vision, scotomas, and even hallucinations can occur.

      Basilar migraines are a subtype of migraine where headache and aura are accompanied by difficulty speaking, vertigo, ringing in ears, of other brainstem-related symptoms, but not motor weakness.

      Migraine can be triggered by various factors, including alcohol, cheese, chocolate, skipping meals, missing sleep, and oral contraceptives. Stress is also a common precipitant of migraine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which antipsychotic is most commonly associated with contact sensitization? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which antipsychotic is most commonly associated with contact sensitization?

      Your Answer: Haloperidol

      Correct Answer: Chlorpromazine

      Explanation:

      Direct contact with chlorpromazine should be avoided by pharmacists and nurses due to its association with contact dermatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old male patient with schizophrenia has a routine ECG showing a QTc...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old male patient with schizophrenia has a routine ECG showing a QTc of 480. He has no symptoms. Which psychotropic medication is most likely causing the prolonged QTc interval?

      Your Answer: Haloperidol

      Explanation:

      According to the Maudsley Guidelines, haloperidol causes the greatest increase in QTc interval among antipsychotic medications. It is important for men to have a QTc interval below 440 ms and women below 470 ms. While aripiprazole and paliperidone have not been proven to cause an increase in QTc interval, other antipsychotics, including atypical drugs like quetiapine, can have moderate to significant effects. A prolonged QTc interval, especially above 500ms, is associated with sudden cardiac death. Diazepam and other benzodiazepines have no effect on QTc interval, while amisulpride has a low effect. Citalopram is the only SSRI that has a low effect on QTc interval. Although erythromycin and other antibiotics can have an effect on QTc interval, the question specifically asks about psychotropic medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the options experiences the lowest level of metabolism in the liver?...

    Correct

    • Which of the options experiences the lowest level of metabolism in the liver?

      Your Answer: Gabapentin

      Explanation:

      Gabapentin, lithium, and topiramate require minimal of no hepatic metabolism, allowing them to be excreted without undergoing significant liver alteration.

      Drug Clearance: Understanding the Rate of Drug Removal from the Body

      Drug clearance refers to the efficiency of drug removal from the plasma, and is measured as the volume of plasma cleared of a drug over a specific time period. The unit of measurement for drug clearance is volume per time. Clearance of a drug involves both metabolism and excretion. When drug intake equals clearance, it is referred to as a steady state, which is usually achieved by 4.5 half-lives. The time taken to reach steady state depends on the half-life of the drug.

      There are two main types of clearance: hepatic and renal. Hepatic clearance involves the conversion of the parent drug into a different chemical entity by the liver enzymes, while renal clearance involves the removal of the drug from the plasma into the urine. The clearance of a drug can take one of two forms: zero and first-order kinetics. In zero-order reactions, the clearance of a drug is constant and not related to the concentration of the drug in the plasma. This type of reaction is typically found when the material needed for the reaction to proceed (e.g. enzyme) is saturated. Ethanol and Phenytoin are good examples of this.

      Most drugs tend to follow first-order reactions, where the clearance is related to the concentration of the drug in the plasma. The half-life of a drug is the time taken for its concentration to fall by half. In first-order reactions, this is constant. In zero-order reactions, it gets progressively shorter.

      It is important to note that elimination and clearance are not the same. Elimination is the irreversible removal of the drug from the body, while clearance is a theoretical volume of blood that is cleared of the drug per unit of time, which is independent of the drug dose of concentration. Understanding drug clearance is crucial in determining the appropriate dosing regimen for a drug.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      18
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  • Question 5 - What is the typical emotional response observed in children with 'secure attachment' when...

    Correct

    • What is the typical emotional response observed in children with 'secure attachment' when their primary caregiver exits the room during the strange situation procedure?

      Your Answer: Distress

      Explanation:

      Attachment (Ainsworth)

      Psychologist Mary Ainsworth developed the ‘Strange Situation procedure’ to study and categorize attachment in children aged 12 to 18 months. The procedure involves seven steps, including two separations and two reunions, and takes place in one room. The child’s attachment is classified into one of three styles: secure, anxious-resistant, and anxious-avoidant. A fourth category, disorganized, is sometimes observed. Ainsworth suggested that the child’s attachment style is determined by the primary caregiver’s behavior.

      Mary Main later developed the Adult Attachment Interview and identified four categories of attachment in adults that correspond to those observed in the strange situation. The distribution of adult attachment styles correlates with those of the strange situation, with 70% of children and adults having secure attachment. Attachment styles also seem to be passed on to subsequent generations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      18.5
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  • Question 6 - An older gentleman says that 'my intestines are blocked and the blood has...

    Correct

    • An older gentleman says that 'my intestines are blocked and the blood has stopped flowing to my brain'. Which of the following phenomenon is he describing?

      (No changes to paragraph spacing needed)

      Your Answer: Nihilistic delusions

      Explanation:

      Types of Delusions

      Delusions come in many different forms. It is important to familiarize oneself with these types as they may be tested in an exam. Some of the most common types of delusions include:

      – Folie a deux: a shared delusion between two or more people
      – Grandiose: belief that one has special powers, beliefs, of purpose
      – Hypochondriacal: belief that something is physically wrong with the patient
      – Ekbom’s syndrome: belief that one has been infested with insects
      – Othello syndrome: belief that a sexual partner is cheating on them
      – Capgras delusion: belief that a person close to them has been replaced by a double
      – Fregoli delusion: patient identifies a familiar person (usually suspected to be a persecutor) in other people they meet
      – Syndrome of subjective doubles: belief that doubles of him/her exist
      – Lycanthropy: belief that one has been transformed into an animal
      – De Clérambault’s syndrome: false belief that a person is in love with them
      – Cotard’s syndrome/nihilistic delusions: belief that they are dead of do not exist
      – Referential: belief that others/TV/radio are speaking directly to of about the patient
      – Delusional perception: belief that a normal percept (product of perception) has a special meaning
      – Pseudocyesis: a condition whereby a woman believes herself to be pregnant when she is not. Objective signs accompany the belief such as abdominal enlargement, menstrual disturbance, apparent foetal movements, nausea, breast changes, and labour pains.

      Remembering these types of delusions can be helpful in understanding and diagnosing patients with delusional disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 7 - What is a requirement for managing personal information under the provisions of the...

    Correct

    • What is a requirement for managing personal information under the provisions of the Data Protection Act?

      Your Answer: Data must be kept for only as long as they are needed

      Explanation:

      The Data Protection Act mandates that organisations should not retain personal of sensitive information beyond the purpose for which it was collected. Furthermore, data must only be used for the intended purpose and cannot be transferred outside the EU. While encryption of sensitive information is not mandatory, appropriate technical and organisational measures must be implemented to prevent unauthorised of unlawful access to personal data.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Ethics And Philosophy Of Psychiatry
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the subsequent options is not classified as a personality disorder in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the subsequent options is not classified as a personality disorder in the ICD-10?

      Your Answer: Dependent

      Correct Answer: Schizotypal

      Explanation:

      While schizotypal personality disorder is included in the DSM, it is not listed as a separate diagnosis in the ICD-10. Instead, it is classified under the umbrella of schizophrenia. However, all of the other personality disorders mentioned are recognized in both the ICD-10 and DSM.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Diagnosis
      17.8
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  • Question 9 - Which medication has been associated with the occurrence of extrapyramidal side effects? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which medication has been associated with the occurrence of extrapyramidal side effects?

      Your Answer: Clonidine

      Correct Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      EPSEs have been linked to the use of fluoxetine, and all of the treatment options are utilized to address them.

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      65.4
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  • Question 10 - What is a medication that acts as a partial agonist for 5HT1A receptors?...

    Correct

    • What is a medication that acts as a partial agonist for 5HT1A receptors?

      Your Answer: Buspirone

      Explanation:

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      19.3
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  • Question 11 - A 28-year-old female with a history of seizures is prescribed an anticonvulsant but...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old female with a history of seizures is prescribed an anticonvulsant but experiences pain in her left flank after 10 months. An ultrasound reveals the presence of a kidney stone.
      Which anticonvulsant is the most probable cause of this adverse effect?

      Your Answer: Topiramate

      Explanation:

      Long-term use of topiramate for approximately one year can result in systemic metabolic acidosis due to the inhibition of carbonic anhydrase, leading to distal tubular acidification and impaired acid excretion by the kidneys. Additionally, topiramate use can elevate urine pH and decreased urine citrate, which is a crucial inhibitor of kidney stone formation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What is a true statement about GABA? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about GABA?

      Your Answer: GABA-A is a metabotropic receptor

      Correct Answer: Flumazenil is a GABA-A antagonist

      Explanation:

      Neurotransmitters are substances used by neurons to communicate with each other and with target tissues. They are synthesized and released from nerve endings into the synaptic cleft, where they bind to receptor proteins in the cellular membrane of the target tissue. Neurotransmitters can be classified into different types, including small molecules (such as acetylcholine, dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, and GABA) and large molecules (such as neuropeptides). They can also be classified as excitatory or inhibitory. Receptors can be ionotropic or metabotropic, and the effects of neurotransmitters can be fast of slow. Some important neurotransmitters include acetylcholine, dopamine, GABA, norepinephrine, and serotonin. Each neurotransmitter has a specific synthesis, breakdown, and receptor type. Understanding neurotransmitters is important for understanding the function of the nervous system and for developing treatments for neurological and psychiatric disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      28.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - For what purpose is the Gudjonsson Scale primarily used in assessment? ...

    Incorrect

    • For what purpose is the Gudjonsson Scale primarily used in assessment?

      Your Answer: Self-esteem

      Correct Answer: Suggestibility

      Explanation:

      The Gudjonsson Suggestibility Scale

      The Gudjonsson Suggestibility Scale is a tool used to measure suggestibility in individuals. It involves reading a story to participants, who are then asked to recall as much as they can remember. Afterward, participants are asked 20 questions related to the story, 15 of which are misleading. Once the questions have been answered, participants are given negative feedback on their performance and told that they made several errors. They are then asked to repeat the questions to obtain more accurate answers. Based on the participants’ responses to the misleading questions, a total suggestibility score can be calculated. This scale is useful in understanding how easily individuals can be influenced of manipulated by external factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      12.3
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  • Question 14 - A 25-year-old male patient when asked by the psychiatrist to sit down in...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old male patient when asked by the psychiatrist to sit down in the consultation room takes three steps back from the chair. He eventually sits down when the psychiatrist insists.
      Which of the following symptoms of schizophrenia is he displaying?

      Your Answer: Negativism

      Explanation:

      Motor and Behavioural Disturbances in Schizophrenia

      Schizophrenia is often characterized by a range of motor and behavioural disturbances, which can be difficult to distinguish from one another. These disturbances can manifest in various ways, and may be arbitrary in nature.

      One common behavioural motor disorder seen in schizophrenia is negativism, which involves actively resisting attempts to make contact with the patient. This can make it challenging to communicate with and treat individuals with this condition.

      Another disturbance is in advertence, where the patient may turn towards the examiner in a bizarre, exaggerated, and inflexible manner when addressed. This can make it difficult to establish a rapport with the patient and understand their needs.

      Ambitendency is another common disturbance, where the patient alternates between cooperation and opposition, leading to unpredictable and diffident behaviour. This can make it challenging to establish a consistent treatment plan and maintain progress.

      Finally, satyriasis is a specific type of motor and behavioural disturbance seen in males with schizophrenia, characterized by excessive sexual activity. This can be a challenging symptom to manage and may require specialized treatment approaches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
      84.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What is the experience that the lady in A&E is going through when...

    Correct

    • What is the experience that the lady in A&E is going through when she covers her head with cloth and claims that people can hear her thoughts?

      Your Answer: Thought broadcast

      Explanation:

      First Rank Symptoms: Their Significance in Identifying Schizophrenia

      First rank symptoms were introduced by Kurt Schneider in 1938 as a practical tool for non-psychiatrists to identify schizophrenia. While they are highly suggestive of schizophrenia, they are not pathognomonic and can also be seen in affective and personality disorders. Additionally, there is no evidence to support their prognostic significance.

      A systematic review in 2015 found that first rank symptoms differentiated schizophrenia from nonpsychotic mental health disorders with a sensitivity of 61.8% and a specificity of 94.1%. They also differentiated schizophrenia from other types of psychosis with a sensitivity of 58% and a specificity of 74.7%.

      The first rank symptoms include running commentary, thought echo, voices heard arguing, thought insertion, thought withdrawal, thought broadcast, delusional perception, somatic passivity, made affect, and made volition. While they can be helpful in identifying schizophrenia, they should not be relied upon as the sole diagnostic criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      24.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which statement accurately describes late onset Alzheimer's disease? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately describes late onset Alzheimer's disease?

      Your Answer: Each APOE4 allele decreases the age of onset by 1 year

      Correct Answer: The APOE3 variant is considered the neutral variant

      Explanation:

      Genetics plays a role in the development of Alzheimer’s disease, with different genes being associated with early onset and late onset cases. Early onset Alzheimer’s, which is rare, is linked to three genes: amyloid precursor protein (APP), presenilin one (PSEN-1), and presenilin two (PSEN-2). The APP gene, located on chromosome 21, produces a protein that is a precursor to amyloid. The presenilins are enzymes that cleave APP to produce amyloid beta fragments, and alterations in the ratios of these fragments can lead to plaque formation. Late onset Alzheimer’s is associated with the apolipoprotein E (APOE) gene on chromosome 19, with the E4 variant increasing the risk of developing the disease. People with Down’s syndrome are also at high risk of developing Alzheimer’s due to inheriting an extra copy of the APP gene.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      22.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Select the most important statement concerning the mental state examination: ...

    Incorrect

    • Select the most important statement concerning the mental state examination:

      Your Answer: The cooperation of the patient is essential in the mental state examination

      Correct Answer: In the mental state examination, facial appearance provides information about affect

      Explanation:

      The mental state examination involves evaluating and documenting characteristics of mental illness in order to diagnose a clinical syndrome. It includes observing and describing the significant aspects of a person’s mental state at a specific moment in time. This assessment can be conducted before obtaining a patient’s medical history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • History And Mental State
      27.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - In what stage of the cell cycle does the process of DNA replication...

    Correct

    • In what stage of the cell cycle does the process of DNA replication occur?

      Your Answer: S phase

      Explanation:

      Cytokinesis: The Final Stage of Cell Division

      Cytokinesis is the final stage of cell division, where the cell splits into two daughter cells, each with a nucleus. This process is essential for the growth and repair of tissues in multicellular organisms. In mitosis, cytokinesis occurs after telophase, while in meiosis, it occurs after telophase I and telophase II.

      During cytokinesis, a contractile ring made of actin and myosin filaments forms around the cell’s equator, constricting it like a belt. This ring gradually tightens, pulling the cell membrane inward and creating a furrow that deepens until it reaches the center of the cell. Eventually, the furrow meets in the middle, dividing the cell into two daughter cells.

      In animal cells, cytokinesis is achieved by the formation of a cleavage furrow, while in plant cells, a cell plate forms between the two daughter nuclei, which eventually develops into a new cell wall. The timing and mechanism of cytokinesis are tightly regulated by a complex network of proteins and signaling pathways, ensuring that each daughter cell receives the correct amount of cytoplasm and organelles.

      Overall, cytokinesis is a crucial step in the cell cycle, ensuring that genetic material is equally distributed between daughter cells and allowing for the growth and development of multicellular organisms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      8.2
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  • Question 19 - The catharsis hypothesis proposes which of the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • The catharsis hypothesis proposes which of the following?

      Your Answer: That engaging in violent fantasies can cause a person to become violent

      Correct Answer: That participating in violent sports such as boxing can provide a means of discharging feelings of anger

      Explanation:

      The Catharsis Hypothesis and Its Effectiveness in Reducing Aggressive Feelings

      The catharsis hypothesis proposes that individuals can release their feelings of frustration and aggression through indirect means, such as engaging in aggressive activities like boxing of venting their emotions through talking. However, there is ongoing debate regarding the effectiveness of these methods in reducing aggressive feelings over the long term.

      Some individuals believe that engaging in physical activities like boxing can help release pent-up aggression and reduce the likelihood of future aggressive behavior. Others argue that this approach may actually reinforce aggressive tendencies and lead to an increase in violent behavior.

      Similarly, some individuals believe that venting one’s emotions through talking can be an effective way to reduce feelings of frustration and aggression. However, others argue that this approach may actually intensify negative emotions and lead to further aggression.

      Overall, the effectiveness of the catharsis hypothesis in reducing aggressive feelings remains a topic of debate. While some individuals may find these methods helpful in managing their emotions, others may require alternative approaches to address their aggressive tendencies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      34.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which researcher proved that the capacity of short-term memory is restricted to seven...

    Incorrect

    • Which researcher proved that the capacity of short-term memory is restricted to seven chunks of data?

      Your Answer: Atkinson and Shiffrin

      Correct Answer: Ebbinghaus

      Explanation:

      In 1913, Ebbinghaus found that short-term memory had a limit of seven (+/- two) ‘chunks’ of information, which was later supported by George Miller in 1956 and is now known as Miller’s law. Atkinson and Shiffrin proposed a two-part memory store, one for current information and one for long-term storage. Baddely and Hitch suggested replacing short-term memory with working memory, which includes central executive, articulatory (phonological) loop, and visuospatial scratch pad functions. According to Lloyd, less than one hundredth of the information sensed by humans reaches the short-term memory store. Solso proposed passive decay theory to explain the forgetting of long-term memory.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Psychological Processes
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  • Question 21 - Who coined the term 'dementia praecox' in the field of psychiatry? ...

    Correct

    • Who coined the term 'dementia praecox' in the field of psychiatry?

      Your Answer: Emil Kraepelin

      Explanation:

      Emil Kraepelin is credited with establishing modern scientific psychiatry and coining the term dementia praecox, while Aaron Beck is known as the pioneer of cognitive therapy. Carl Jung founded analytical psychotherapy, and Eugen Bleuler is recognized for introducing the term schizophrenia to replace dementia praecox. Additionally, Karl Jaspers was a psychiatrist and existential philosopher.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • History Of Psychiatry
      4.3
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  • Question 22 - As per Sigmund Freud's structural model of the mind, which component is responsible...

    Correct

    • As per Sigmund Freud's structural model of the mind, which component is responsible for developing and upholding a person's ethical principles?

      Your Answer: The superego

      Explanation:

      According to Freud, the mind can be divided into three parts: the id, the ego, and the superego. The id is a collection of instinctual drives that are not organized and are controlled by the primary process. The id lacks the ability to delay of modify these instinctual drives that an infant is born with. The ego operates in all three dimensions of the mind: conscious, preconscious, and unconscious. The ego is responsible for logical and abstract thinking, as well as verbal expression in the conscious and preconscious parts of the mind. The superego is responsible for creating and maintaining an individual’s moral conscience based on a complex system of values and ideals that are internalized from parents. The terms unconscious and preconscious refer to Freud’s model of the mind, which includes the unconscious, preconscious, and conscious parts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      10.9
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  • Question 23 - What is a true statement about Bion's theory of group dynamics? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about Bion's theory of group dynamics?

      Your Answer: A group that is functioning well is referred to as a basic assumption group

      Correct Answer: Basic assumption groups reflect a subconscious process that operates within the group

      Explanation:

      The underlying process of basic assumption groups operates at a subconscious level within the group, serving to shield the group as a whole from distressing anxiety rather than focusing on individual members. In contrast, work groups prioritize productivity and shared responsibility for achieving goals, distinguishing them from basic assumption groups. Work groups are primarily focused on accomplishing the task at hand.

      Bion, a psychoanalyst, was fascinated by group dynamics and believed that groups had a collective unconscious that functioned similarly to that of an individual. He argued that this unconsciousness protected the group from the pain of reality. Bion identified two types of groups: the ‘working group’ that functioned well and achieved its goals, and the ‘basic assumption group’ that acted out primitive fantasies and prevented progress. Bion then described different types of basic assumption groups, including ‘dependency,’ where the group turns to a leader to alleviate anxiety, ‘fight-flight,’ where the group perceives an enemy and either attacks of avoids them, and ‘pairing,’ where the group believes that the solution lies in the pairing of two members. These dynamics can be observed in various settings, such as when strangers come together for the first time of when doctors in different specialties criticize one another.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      141
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  • Question 24 - What is the most frequently observed side effect of clozapine? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most frequently observed side effect of clozapine?

      Your Answer: Hypersalivation

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic drug that acts as an antagonist at various receptors, including dopamine, histamine, serotonin, adrenergic, and cholinergic receptors. It is mainly metabolized by CYP1A2, and its plasma levels can be affected by inducers and inhibitors of this enzyme. Clozapine is associated with several side effects, including drowsiness, constipation, weight gain, and hypersalivation. Hypersalivation is a paradoxical side effect, and its mechanism is not fully understood, but it may involve clozapine agonist activity at the muscarinic M4 receptor and antagonist activity at the alpha-2 adrenoceptor. Clozapine is also associated with several potentially dangerous adverse events, including agranulocytosis, myocarditis, seizures, severe orthostatic hypotension, increased mortality in elderly patients with dementia-related psychosis, colitis, pancreatitis, thrombocytopenia, thromboembolism, and insulin resistance and diabetes mellitus. The BNF advises caution in using clozapine in patients with prostatic hypertrophy, susceptibility to angle-closure glaucoma, and adults over 60 years. Valproate should be considered when using high doses of clozapine, plasma levels > 0.5 mg/l, of when the patient experiences seizures. Myocarditis is a rare but potentially fatal adverse event associated with clozapine use, and its diagnosis is based on biomarkers and clinical features. The mortality rate of clozapine-induced myocarditis is high, and subsequent use of clozapine in such cases leads to recurrence of myocarditis in most cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 25 - Which SSRI is commonly linked to withdrawal symptoms upon discontinuation? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which SSRI is commonly linked to withdrawal symptoms upon discontinuation?

      Your Answer: Citalopram

      Correct Answer: Paroxetine

      Explanation:

      Antidepressants can cause discontinuation symptoms when patients stop taking them, regardless of the type of antidepressant. These symptoms usually occur within 5 days of stopping the medication and can last up to 3 weeks. Symptoms include flu-like symptoms, dizziness, insomnia, vivid dreams, irritability, crying spells, and sensory symptoms. SSRIs and related drugs with short half-lives, such as paroxetine and venlafaxine, are particularly associated with discontinuation symptoms. Tapering antidepressants at the end of treatment is recommended to prevent these symptoms. TCAs and MAOIs are also associated with discontinuation symptoms, with amitriptyline and imipramine being the most common TCAs and all MAOIs being associated with prominent discontinuation symptoms. Patients at highest risk for discontinuation symptoms include those on antidepressants with shorter half-lives, those who have been taking antidepressants for 8 weeks of longer, those using higher doses, younger people, and those who have experienced discontinuation symptoms before. Agomelatine is not associated with any discontinuation syndrome. If a discontinuation reaction occurs, restarting the antidepressant of switching to an alternative with a longer half-life and tapering more slowly may be necessary. Explanation and reassurance are often sufficient for mild symptoms. These guidelines are based on the Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition and a study by Tint (2008).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 26 - What components could potentially be included in the MMSE assessment? ...

    Incorrect

    • What components could potentially be included in the MMSE assessment?

      Your Answer: Recollection of own date of birth

      Correct Answer: Spelling WORLD backwards

      Explanation:

      The MMSE assesses various cognitive functions, including orientation to time and place, recall of three objects, attention, naming objects, repeating a phrase, following instructions, writing a sentence, and copying intersecting pentagons. The CLOX test involves drawing a clock both independently and after observing an examiner complete the task. The AMT includes recalling an address and date of birth. The verbal fluency test evaluates frontal lobe function by asking subjects to generate as many words as possible in a given category within a minute. These tests are all components of the MOCA (Montreal Cognitive Assessment).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cognitive Assessment
      26.6
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  • Question 27 - In which sensory modality does formication occur? ...

    Correct

    • In which sensory modality does formication occur?

      Your Answer: Tactile

      Explanation:

      The feeling of insects crawling on the skin, also known as tactile hallucination, is referred to as formication. This symptom has been extensively studied and can be caused by various factors.

      Altered Perceptual Experiences

      Disorders of perception can be categorized into sensory distortions and sensory deceptions. Sensory distortions involve changes in the intensity, spatial form, of quality of a perception. Examples include hyperaesthesia, hyperacusis, and micropsia. Sensory deceptions, on the other hand, involve new perceptions that are not based on any external stimulus. These include illusions and hallucinations.

      Illusions are altered perceptions of a stimulus, while hallucinations are perceptions in the absence of a stimulus. Completion illusions, affect illusions, and pareidolic illusions are examples of illusions. Auditory, visual, gustatory, olfactory, and tactile hallucinations are different types of hallucinations. Pseudohallucinations are involuntary and vivid sensory experiences that are interpreted in a non-morbid way. They are different from true hallucinations in that the individual is able to recognize that the experience is an internally generated event.

      Understanding the different types of altered perceptual experiences is important in the diagnosis and treatment of various mental health conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which category does utilitarianism belong to? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which category does utilitarianism belong to?

      Your Answer: Deontology

      Correct Answer: Teleology

      Explanation:

      Teleology, derived from the Greek words for goal and theory, is a moral philosophy that emphasizes the outcomes of actions as the initial consideration in evaluating ethical behavior. This category of theories is also known as consequentialism, as it focuses on the consequences of an action as the basis for determining its morality. Consequentialism evaluates the morality of an action based on the balance of its positive and negative outcomes. Utilitarianism of social consequentialism is the most prevalent form of consequentialism, although it is not the only one.

      Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.

      More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - What brain region has been identified as a target for deep brain stimulation...

    Correct

    • What brain region has been identified as a target for deep brain stimulation (DBS) in individuals with treatment-resistant depression?

      Your Answer: Nucleus accumbens

      Explanation:

      Deep brain stimulation (DBS) for treatment resistant depression targets specific brain regions based on their known involvement in pleasure, reward, and mood regulation. The nucleus accumbens is targeted due to its role in pleasure and reward processing. The inferior thalamic peduncle is targeted based on PET studies showing hyperactivity in depression. The lateral habenula is chosen due to observed hypermetabolism in depressed patients. The subgenual cingulate gyrus is targeted due to its hyperactivity in depression. The ventral capsule/ventral striatum is chosen based on its association with improved mood and reduced depressive symptoms following ablation treatments for OCD and depression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      23.8
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - What percentage of children would be classified as 'slow to warm up' based...

    Incorrect

    • What percentage of children would be classified as 'slow to warm up' based on Thomas and Chess's research?

      Your Answer: 50%

      Correct Answer: 15%

      Explanation:

      Temperament is the innate aspect of an individual’s personality that is believed to be influenced by genetics, while character is shaped by learned experiences. Thomas and Chess developed a classification system that assesses children’s behavior based on nine traits, including activity level, adaptability, and emotional response. They found that 65% of children fall into one of three temperament types: easy, difficult, of slow to warm up. Thomas and Chess also introduced the concept of goodness of fit, which refers to the compatibility between a child’s temperament and their environment. When there is a good fit, children are more likely to reach their potential. For example, teachers can provide active learning experiences for children with high activity levels instead of seat work.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      10.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Classification And Assessment (4/4) 100%
Psychopharmacology (5/8) 63%
Psychological Development (1/1) 100%
Basic Ethics And Philosophy Of Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Diagnosis (0/1) 0%
Neurosciences (1/2) 50%
Social Psychology (1/6) 17%
Descriptive Psychopathology (1/1) 100%
Genetics (1/2) 50%
History And Mental State (0/1) 0%
Basic Psychological Processes (0/1) 0%
History Of Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Cognitive Assessment (0/1) 0%
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