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  • Question 1 - Your next patient is a 32-year-old teacher who has come for their annual...

    Incorrect

    • Your next patient is a 32-year-old teacher who has come for their annual review. Until around two years ago they used just a salbutamol inhaler as required. Following a series of exacerbations, they were started on a corticosteroid inhaler and currently takes Clenil (beclomethasone dipropionate) 400mcg bd. The patient reports that their asthma control has been 'good' for the past six months or so. They have had to use their asthma inhaler twice over the past six months, both times after going for a long jog. Their peak flow today is 520 l/min which is 90% of the best value recorded 5 years ago but up from the 510 l/min recorded 12 months ago. Their inhaler technique is good. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Make no changes

      Correct Answer: Decrease the Clenil dose to 200mcg bd

      Explanation:

      If asthma is well controlled, it is advisable to reduce the treatment, as per the guidelines of the British Thoracic Society.

      Stepping Down Asthma Treatment: BTS Guidelines

      The British Thoracic Society (BTS) recommends that asthma treatment should be reviewed every three months to consider stepping down treatment. However, the guidelines do not suggest a strict move from one step to another but rather advise taking into account the duration of treatment, side-effects, and patient preference. When reducing the dose of inhaled steroids, the BTS suggests doing so by 25-50% at a time.

      Patients with stable asthma may only require a formal review once a year. However, if a patient has recently had an escalation of asthma treatment, they are likely to be reviewed more frequently. It is important to follow the BTS guidelines to ensure that patients receive the appropriate level of treatment for their asthma and to avoid unnecessary side-effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      58.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old lady comes back to the clinic four weeks after starting treatment...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old lady comes back to the clinic four weeks after starting treatment with fluoxetine for moderate depressive symptoms. She has no prior experience with antidepressant medication and has no other medical conditions.

      During the assessment, she reports no suicidal thoughts and has a supportive partner at home. Despite taking fluoxetine regularly, she has not noticed any improvement in her symptoms and is considering switching to a different medication. She has not experienced any adverse effects with fluoxetine but has heard positive things about St John's wort from a friend.

      What would be the most appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Stop the fluoxetine and refer for cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT)

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Patients with Minimal Response to SSRIs

      When a patient has been taking a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) for four weeks without benefit, it is important to consider alternative treatment options. Continuing at the current dose is not a satisfactory plan.

      After three to four weeks of minimal or absent response, there are essentially two options in addition to increasing the level of support: increasing the dose of the current antidepressant or changing to an alternative agent if there are side effects or the patient prefers. However, caution is needed when switching from fluoxetine to tricyclics because it inhibits the metabolism. Therefore, after appropriate discontinuation of fluoxetine, a lower than usual starting dose of tricyclic would be required.

      It is not recommended to prescribe or advocate for St John’s wort due to lack of clarity regarding doses, duration of effect, and variation in the nature of preparations. Additionally, there are serious drug interactions, particularly with oral contraceptives and anti-epileptics.

      According to NICE CG90, cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) is recommended in addition to medication for moderate depression. If response is absent or minimal after 3 to 4 weeks of treatment with a therapeutic dose of an antidepressant, increase the level of support (for example, by weekly face-to-face or telephone contact) and consider increasing the dose in line with the SPC if there are no significant side effects or switching to another antidepressant as described in section 1.8 if there are side effects or if the person prefers.

      In summary, it is important to closely monitor patients who are not responding to SSRIs and consider alternative treatment options in consultation with a healthcare professional.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      60
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old man presents to your clinic with a chief complaint of progressive...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man presents to your clinic with a chief complaint of progressive difficulty in swallowing over the past 3 months. Upon further inquiry, he reports a weight loss of approximately 2 kilograms, which he attributes to decreased food intake. He denies any pain with swallowing or regurgitation of food. During the consultation, you observe a change in his voice quality. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Oesophageal carcinoma

      Explanation:

      When a patient experiences progressive dysphagia and weight loss, it is important to investigate for possible oesophageal carcinoma as these are common symptoms. Laryngeal nerve damage can also cause hoarseness in patients with this type of cancer. While achalasia may present with similar symptoms, patients typically have difficulty swallowing both solids and liquids equally, and may experience intermittent regurgitation of food. On the other hand, oesophageal spasm is characterized by pain during swallowing.

      Oesophageal Cancer: Types, Risk Factors, Features, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Oesophageal cancer used to be mostly squamous cell carcinoma, but adenocarcinoma is now becoming more common, especially in patients with a history of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) or Barrett’s. Adenocarcinoma is usually located near the gastroesophageal junction, while squamous cell tumours are found in the upper two-thirds of the oesophagus. The most common presenting symptom is dysphagia, followed by anorexia and weight loss, vomiting, and other possible features such as odynophagia, hoarseness, melaena, and cough.

      To diagnose oesophageal cancer, upper GI endoscopy with biopsy is used, and endoscopic ultrasound is preferred for locoregional staging. CT scanning of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis is used for initial staging, and FDG-PET CT may be used for detecting occult metastases if metastases are not seen on the initial staging CT scans. Laparoscopy is sometimes performed to detect occult peritoneal disease.

      Operable disease is best managed by surgical resection, with the most common procedure being an Ivor-Lewis type oesophagectomy. However, the biggest surgical challenge is anastomotic leak, which can result in mediastinitis. In addition to surgical resection, many patients will be treated with adjuvant chemotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 50-year-old woman has episodes of depression secondary to a heavy consumption of...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman has episodes of depression secondary to a heavy consumption of alcohol. She had never felt her drinking to be a problem.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnostic term to describe this?

      Your Answer: Dependence syndrome

      Correct Answer: Harmful use

      Explanation:

      Understanding Alcohol Use: Categories and Definitions

      Alcohol use can have varying degrees of impact on a person’s health and well-being. To better understand these impacts, different categories and definitions have been established.

      Harmful use refers to a pattern of alcohol consumption that is already causing harm to a person’s health, but doesn’t necessarily involve dependence. This can include acute or chronic damage, such as depression or cirrhosis. Brief interventions may be effective in addressing harmful use.

      Dependence syndrome, on the other hand, involves a compulsion to drink, inability to control drinking, tolerance, withdrawal symptoms, neglect of normal activities, and persistent drinking despite evidence of harm.

      Acute intoxication is a transient condition resulting from the administration of alcohol, causing disturbances in consciousness, cognition, perception, affect, or behavior. It is only diagnosed when intoxication occurs without more persistent alcohol-related problems.

      Binge drinking is defined as drinking more than double the lower risk guidelines for alcohol in one session, and is considered a more risky type of hazardous drinking.

      Hazardous drinking is the regular consumption of a certain amount of ethanol per day, as determined by population studies and the associated risk of harm. It is not a diagnostic term in ICD-10, but is often used to describe drinking that may lead to harm.

      Understanding these categories and definitions can help individuals and healthcare professionals identify and address problematic alcohol use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      102.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 65-year-old woman with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension presents to your clinic. She recently recovered from multiple myeloma and is currently taking diuretics for leg swelling. She reports painless blurring in her right eye that started a few days ago. She denies any redness, itching, or irritation in either eye, and her left eye vision is unchanged.

      During the examination, her blood pressure is 150/94 mmHg, and all other physical findings are unremarkable. Her left eye has a corrected acuity of 6/9, while her right eye can only differentiate light and dark. Due to the primary care setting, you are unable to perform a thorough fundoscopy.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Central retinal vein occlusion

      Explanation:

      Central retinal vein occlusion is characterized by sudden painless loss of vision and severe retinal haemorrhages on fundoscopy. The absence of itching or redness suggests that an infective cause such as conjunctivitis or episcleritis is unlikely, especially since episcleritis is typically painful. The fact that the condition is unilateral and has a relatively sudden onset makes diabetic retinopathy or glaucoma less likely. However, it should be noted that not all patients with CRVO present with a clear history of sudden and complete vision loss, and a thorough fundoscopy examination may not always be possible in a primary care setting. If a fundoscopy examination is performed, the retina may exhibit a typical blood and thunder appearance due to extensive haemorrhages across all four quadrants.

      Understanding Central Retinal Vein Occlusion

      Central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) is a condition that can cause sudden, painless loss of vision. It is often associated with risk factors such as increasing age, hypertension, cardiovascular disease, glaucoma, and polycythemia. When a vein in the central retinal venous system is occluded, it can lead to widespread hyperemia and severe retinal hemorrhages, which are often described as a stormy sunset.

      A key differential diagnosis for CRVO is branch retinal vein occlusion (BRVO), which occurs when a vein in the distal retinal venous system is blocked. This type of occlusion is thought to occur due to blockage of retinal veins at arteriovenous crossings and results in a more limited area of the fundus being affected.

      While the majority of patients with CRVO are managed conservatively, there are indications for treatment in some cases. For example, patients with macular edema may benefit from intravitreal anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) agents, while those with retinal neovascularization may require laser photocoagulation. Overall, understanding the risk factors, features, and management options for CRVO is essential for providing effective care to patients with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      0
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  • Question 6 - Which of the following calcium channel blockers is most likely to cause pulmonary...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following calcium channel blockers is most likely to cause pulmonary edema in a patient with a history of chronic heart failure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Verapamil

      Explanation:

      Verapamil exhibits the strongest negative inotropic effect among calcium channel blockers.

      Calcium channel blockers are a class of drugs commonly used to treat cardiovascular disease. These drugs target voltage-gated calcium channels found in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these areas, making it important to differentiate their uses and actions.

      Verapamil is used to treat angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. It is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Side effects include heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.

      Diltiazem is used to treat angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Side effects include hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.

      Nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are dihydropyridines used to treat hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. They affect peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, which means they do not worsen heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter acting dihydropyridines like nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia. Side effects include flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.

      According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves a flow chart that takes into account various factors such as age, ethnicity, and comorbidities. Calcium channel blockers may be used as part of the treatment plan depending on the individual patient’s needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
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  • Question 7 - A 55-year-old man with type 2 diabetes presents with widespread myalgia and limb...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with type 2 diabetes presents with widespread myalgia and limb weakness that has developed over the past few weeks. His simvastatin dose was recently increased from 40 mg to 80 mg per day. A colleague advised him to stop taking the statin and have blood tests taken due to the severity of his symptoms. Upon review, the patient reports some improvement in his symptoms but they have not completely resolved. Blood tests show normal renal, liver, and thyroid function but a creatine kinase level eight times the upper limit of normal. What is the most appropriate course of action in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He should stay off the statin for now, have creatine kinase levels measured fortnightly, and be advised to monitor his symptoms closely until the creatine kinase levels return to normal and the symptoms resolve

      Explanation:

      Management of Statin-Induced Elevated Creatine Kinase Levels

      When a patient taking statins presents with elevated creatine kinase levels, it is important to consider other potential causes such as underlying muscle disorders or hypothyroidism. If the creatine kinase level is more than five times the upper limit of normal, the statin should be stopped immediately and renal function should be checked. Creatine kinase levels should be monitored every two weeks.

      If symptoms resolve and creatine kinase levels return to normal, the statin can be reintroduced at the lowest dose with close monitoring. If creatine kinase levels are less than five times the upper limit of normal and the patient experiences muscular symptoms, the statin can be continued but closely monitored. If symptoms are severe or creatine kinase levels increase, the statin should be stopped.

      If the patient is asymptomatic despite elevated creatine kinase levels, the statin can be continued with the patient advised to report any muscular symptoms immediately. Creatine kinase levels should be monitored to ensure they do not increase. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can effectively manage statin-induced elevated creatine kinase levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
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  • Question 8 - A 63-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a three day history...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a three day history of feeling unwell, dysuria, and increased frequency of urination. He denies any macroscopic hematuria. Upon further questioning, he reports having long-standing lower urinary tract symptoms such as weakened urinary stream, hesitancy, urgency, and nocturia for the past year, which have slowly worsened. On examination, he appears well with no abdominal or loin tenderness. Urine dipstick shows nitrites positive and leukocytes+++. A diagnosis of urinary tract infection is made, and he is treated with oral antibiotics. The patient expresses interest in having a digital rectal examination and prostate-specific antigen (PSA) blood test to evaluate his lower urinary tract symptoms. A digital rectal examination reveals a smoothly enlarged benign-feeling prostate. When would be the most appropriate time to perform a PSA blood test in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Postpone the test for at least 48 hours

      Explanation:

      Factors Affecting Prostate-Specific Antigen Blood Test

      The prostate-specific antigen (PSA) blood test is a common diagnostic tool used to detect prostate cancer. However, the test results can be influenced by various factors, including benign prostatic hypertrophy, prostatitis, urinary retention, urinary tract infection, old age, urethral or rectal instrumentation/examination, recent vigorous exercise, and recent ejaculation.

      It is important to note that the PSA test should be deferred for at least a month in individuals with a proven urinary tract infection. Additionally, if a man has ejaculated or exercised vigorously in the previous 48 hours, the test should also be deferred. While some sources suggest delaying PSA testing for at least a week after a digital rectal examination, data suggest that rectal examination has minimal effect on PSA levels.

      In summary, it is crucial to consider these factors when interpreting PSA test results to ensure accurate diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
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  • Question 9 - A 72-year-old woman comes in asking for 'her sleeping pills'. Upon reviewing her...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman comes in asking for 'her sleeping pills'. Upon reviewing her records, you find out that she has been taking 40 mg of Temazepam for 20 years. After some questioning, she expresses a desire to discontinue use. How should this situation be handled?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Convert to an equivalent dose of diazepam and then reduce slowly

      Explanation:

      The Risks of Hypnotic Dependence

      Hypnotic dependence remains a significant concern, as benzodiazepines and Z-class drugs have the potential to cause dependence without proven efficacy in treating chronic insomnia. Withdrawal from these drugs can lead to rebound insomnia and even seizures with high doses of benzodiazepines. Additionally, hypnotics have a street value and can be diverted for non-medical use. To mitigate these risks, it is recommended that prescriptions for hypnotics be limited to one week. If a doctor wishes to withdraw a patient from a hypnotic, they should first convert the dosage to an equivalent dose of diazepam, which has a longer half-life, allowing for a slower withdrawal process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - You are evaluating a 65-year-old woman who presented a few months ago with...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 65-year-old woman who presented a few months ago with pain in her left hip. She was evaluated by a colleague who suspected that her symptoms were likely due to osteoarthritis and since then she has had some plain films of her hip which confirm significant changes of osteoarthritis.

      She has been attempting to remain active and has increased her daily exercise to try and help with her symptoms and also lose weight. To manage any pain she experiences, she has been using heat and cold packs which provide some relief when her pain is bothersome.

      What is the most appropriate first-line pharmacological intervention in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral paracetamol

      Explanation:

      Managing Osteoarthritis Symptoms: Core Strategies and Pharmacological Treatments

      In managing osteoarthritis symptoms, core strategies such as weight loss, appropriate exercise, and suitable footwear can be effective. Local application of heat and cold packs or TENS may also be helpful for some patients. Pharmacological treatments can be considered alongside these core strategies and used as adjuncts to manage symptoms.

      Oral paracetamol is a recommended first-line drug as it provides a good balance of efficacy, cost-effectiveness, and tolerability. It can be used as needed or regularly and is available over-the-counter, making it easier for patients to manage their symptoms independently. Topical capsaicin can also be used in some patients with knee and hand osteoarthritis, but its use must be complied with and may cause a burning sensation at the start of treatment.

      If paracetamol is ineffective in managing symptoms, other options such as nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) or opioids may be considered further up the treatment ladder. It is important to note that oral paracetamol is most effective when taken regularly, and the dose may need to be reduced in older patients. Patients should be counseled on the need for regular use and that it may take up to two weeks to feel the analgesic benefit of capsaicin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      0
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  • Question 11 - A 50-year-old woman has been experiencing hot flashes for the past 3 years...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman has been experiencing hot flashes for the past 3 years and has been on hormone replacement therapy (HRT). During her visit to your clinic, she reports discomfort during intercourse due to vaginal dryness. Upon examination, you observe atrophic genitalia without any other abnormalities. The patient and her partner have attempted to use over-the-counter lubricants, but they have not been effective.

      What would be the most suitable course of action for you to take next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue with HRT and prescribe low-dose vaginal oestrogen

      Explanation:

      To alleviate vaginal symptoms, vaginal topical oestrogen can be used alongside HRT. Compared to systemic treatment, low-dose vaginal topical oestrogen is more effective in providing relief for vaginal symptoms. Patients should be reviewed after 3 months of treatment. It is recommended to consider stopping treatment at least once a year, but in some cases, long-term treatment may be necessary for persistent symptoms. If symptoms persist, increasing the dose or seeking specialist referral may be necessary. Testosterone supplementation is only recommended for sexual dysfunction and should be initiated after consulting a specialist. Sildenafil is not effective in treating menopausal symptoms.

      Managing Menopause: Lifestyle Modifications, HRT, and Non-HRT Options

      Menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. It is diagnosed when a woman has not had a period for 12 months. Menopausal symptoms are common and can last for several years. The management of menopause can be divided into three categories: lifestyle modifications, hormone replacement therapy (HRT), and non-hormone replacement therapy.

      Lifestyle modifications can help manage symptoms such as hot flashes, sleep disturbance, mood changes, and cognitive symptoms. Regular exercise, weight loss, stress reduction, and good sleep hygiene are recommended.

      HRT is an effective treatment for menopausal symptoms, but it is not suitable for everyone. Women with current or past breast cancer, any oestrogen-sensitive cancer, undiagnosed vaginal bleeding, or untreated endometrial hyperplasia should not take HRT. HRT brings certain risks, including an increased risk of venous thromboembolism, stroke, coronary heart disease, breast cancer, and ovarian cancer.

      Non-HRT options include fluoxetine, citalopram, or venlafaxine for vasomotor symptoms, vaginal lubricants or moisturisers for vaginal dryness, self-help groups, cognitive behaviour therapy, or antidepressants for psychological symptoms, and vaginal oestrogen for urogenital symptoms.

      When stopping HRT, it is important to gradually reduce the dosage to limit recurrence in the short term. Women should be referred to secondary care if treatment has been ineffective, if there are ongoing side effects, or if there is unexplained bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      0
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  • Question 12 - A 32-year-old patient complains of nausea, headaches, and palpitations. He has been admitted...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old patient complains of nausea, headaches, and palpitations. He has been admitted multiple times in the past 2 years with similar symptoms, but no organic cause has been identified. What type of disorder is likely to be the cause of these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Somatisation disorder

      Explanation:

      Somatisation refers to the manifestation of physical symptoms that cannot be explained by any underlying medical condition. On the other hand, hypochondria is a condition where a person constantly worries about having a serious illness, often believing that minor symptoms are signs of a life-threatening disease such as cancer.

      Unexplained Symptoms in Psychiatry

      In psychiatry, there are several terms used to describe patients who present with physical or psychological symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. Somatisation disorder is characterized by the presence of multiple physical symptoms that persist for at least two years, and the patient refuses to accept reassurance or negative test results. Illness anxiety disorder, also known as hypochondriasis, involves a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results. Conversion disorder typically involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient doesn’t consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Dissociative disorder involves the process of separating off certain memories from normal consciousness, and may present with psychiatric symptoms such as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms, while malingering refers to the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms for financial or other gain. These terms help clinicians to better understand and diagnose patients with unexplained symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 13 - A 50-year-old man with type 2 diabetes presents for review. He reports feeling...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with type 2 diabetes presents for review. He reports feeling well and having recently undergone foot and optometrist checks. He enjoys drinking alcohol on the weekends, limiting himself to 4-5 standard drinks each Saturday. His HbA1c remains stable at 48 mmol/L while taking metformin. However, his liver function tests reveal the following results:

      Bilirubin: 18 µmol/L (3 - 17)
      ALP: 95 u/L (30 - 100)
      ALT: 157 u/L (3 - 40)
      γGT: 40 u/L (8 - 60)
      AST: 74 u/L (3 - 40)
      Albumin: 37 g/L (35 - 50)

      What is the most likely cause of these findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease

      Explanation:

      Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease is the most common cause of abnormal liver function tests (LFT) in patients with type 2 diabetes. This condition is prevalent in developed countries and should be assessed through a reassessment of the patient’s LFTs and an ultrasound if necessary. The patient’s weekend drinking habits are not significant enough to suggest alcoholic liver disease as the cause of the LFT derangement. Drug-induced liver injuries (DILI) are not predictable and can present with various LFT changes, including cholestatic and mixed patterns. Gallstone disease is more common in overweight fertile females and presents with a cholestatic pattern of LFT derangement. Viral hepatitis is a possible cause but not the most likely answer in this case. A liver screen may be necessary if the LFT derangement persists without explanation from an ultrasound.

      Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease: Causes, Features, and Management

      Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is a prevalent liver disease in developed countries, primarily caused by obesity. It is a spectrum of disease that ranges from simple steatosis (fat in the liver) to steatohepatitis (fat with inflammation) and may progress to fibrosis and liver cirrhosis. NAFLD is believed to be the hepatic manifestation of the metabolic syndrome, with insulin resistance as the key mechanism leading to steatosis. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is a term used to describe liver changes similar to those seen in alcoholic hepatitis but without a history of alcohol abuse.

      NAFLD is usually asymptomatic, but patients may present with hepatomegaly, increased echogenicity on ultrasound, and elevated ALT levels. The enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) blood test is recommended by NICE to check for advanced fibrosis in patients with incidental findings of NAFLD. If the ELF blood test is not available, non-invasive tests such as the FIB4 score or NAFLD fibrosis score may be used in combination with a FibroScan to assess the severity of fibrosis. Patients with advanced fibrosis should be referred to a liver specialist for further evaluation, which may include a liver biopsy to stage the disease more accurately.

      The mainstay of treatment for NAFLD is lifestyle changes, particularly weight loss, and monitoring. There is ongoing research into the role of gastric banding and insulin-sensitizing drugs such as metformin and pioglitazone in the management of NAFLD. While there is no evidence to support screening for NAFLD in adults, it is essential to identify and manage incidental findings of NAFLD to prevent disease progression and complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 14 - A town in England had a population of 250,000 and last year 1,500...

    Incorrect

    • A town in England had a population of 250,000 and last year 1,500 deaths occurred among people aged 65 and above. The number of age-specific expected deaths in a population of the same size in England and Wales over the same time period is calculated as 1,000 for this age group. What is the standardized mortality ratio of the town's population aged 65 and above in reference to the rest of England and Wales?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1.5

      Explanation:

      The Standardized Mortality Ratio (SMR) is a measure used to compare the observed mortality in a study population to the expected mortality in a standard population. It is calculated using the following formula:

      SMR=Observed Deaths/Expected Deaths

      Data Given:

      • Observed Deaths in the Town (Age 65 and above): 1,500
      • Expected Deaths in a Similar Population in England and Wales (Age 65 and above): 1,000

      Calculation:

      Substitute the given values into the formula:

      SMR=1,500/1,000

      SMR=1.5

      Interpretation:

      The Standardized Mortality Ratio (SMR) of 1.5 means that the observed mortality rate among people aged 65 and above in the town is 50% higher than the expected mortality rate for this age group in the standard population of England and Wales.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 15 - At what stage of pregnancy is the ideal timing for administering the pertussis...

    Incorrect

    • At what stage of pregnancy is the ideal timing for administering the pertussis vaccine to protect infants prior to their initial primary immunisation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: As soon as the pregnancy is confirmed

      Explanation:

      Pertussis Vaccination for Pregnant Women

      Pregnant women are now recommended to receive a pertussis vaccination during late pregnancy, between 16-32 weeks, to protect their unborn infants against pertussis. Antibody levels in adults reach their peak two weeks after the booster but then significantly decline. Therefore, immunizations given early in pregnancy would likely be less effective and could be falsely associated with any adverse effects identified at the anomaly scan. Additionally, transplacental antibody transfer is minimal after 34 weeks of pregnancy. Immunization after 16 weeks would also provide protection to infants born prematurely who may be particularly vulnerable. The vaccine can be offered up until labor, but just prior to labor is not the optimal time as antibody levels peak at two weeks after the booster. It is important for pregnant women to consider receiving the pertussis vaccine to protect their unborn infants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 16 - A 20-year-old woman has recently returned from a gap-year project in Tanzania. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman has recently returned from a gap-year project in Tanzania. She has been feeling unwell since her return, experiencing shortness of breath and abdominal pain. Upon examination, she appears pale and a blood test reveals iron-deficiency anemia. A stool sample is positive for hookworm and she begins treatment. Her mother is worried that the rest of the family may have contracted the infection.

      Select the only accurate statement regarding the transmission of hookworm.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Walking barefoot is a risk factor for the disease

      Explanation:

      Hookworm Infestation: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Hookworm infestation is a parasitic infection caused by a nematode worm that lives in the small intestine of its host. It is acquired through eating contaminated food or walking barefoot on contaminated ground. The worms migrate through the body to the lungs, where they are coughed up and swallowed, completing their life cycle in the digestive tract and excreted in faeces.

      Most hookworm infections are asymptomatic, but the most significant risk is anaemia due to loss of iron and protein in the gut. The worms suck blood and damage the mucosa, but the blood loss is occult. Larval invasion of the skin can cause intense, local itching, usually on the foot or lower leg, followed by lesions that look like insect bites. They can also cause the serpiginous lesions of cutaneous larva migrans.

      Diagnosis is made by finding characteristic worm eggs on microscopic examination of the stools, and there may also be eosinophilia. Albendazole is the most effective medication for treatment. Relying on adequately cooked food will prevent faeco-oral but not percutaneous transmission.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      0
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  • Question 17 - A 31-year-old man comes to the clinic with a neck lump that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old man comes to the clinic with a neck lump that has been present for four weeks. He first noticed the lump when he was buttoning up his shirt collar. He often entertains clients as part of his job but has been unable to drink alcohol for the past few weeks due to pain in the area of the lump. He also reports recent weight loss and night sweats. During the examination, his vital signs are normal, and a 5cm rubbery, firm supraclavicular lymph node is palpable. The chest is clear, and the abdomen is soft and non-tender. Based on the most probable diagnosis, what is the most appropriate course of action according to NICE guidelines?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Referral (within 2 weeks) for specialist assessment

      Explanation:

      If an adult presents with unexplained lymphadenopathy, it is recommended to consider referral for Hodgkin’s lymphoma within 2 weeks. The decision to refer should take into account any associated symptoms, such as fever, night sweats, shortness of breath, pruritus, weight loss, or alcohol-induced lymph node pain. This referral is specific to Hodgkin’s lymphoma.

      Understanding Hodgkin’s Lymphoma: Symptoms and Risk Factors

      Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a type of cancer that affects the lymphocytes and is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells. It is most commonly seen in people in their third and seventh decades of life. There are certain risk factors that increase the likelihood of developing Hodgkin’s lymphoma, such as HIV and the Epstein-Barr virus.

      The most common symptom of Hodgkin’s lymphoma is lymphadenopathy, which is the enlargement of lymph nodes. This is usually painless, non-tender, and asymmetrical, and is most commonly seen in the neck, followed by the axillary and inguinal regions. In some cases, alcohol-induced lymph node pain may be present, but this is seen in less than 10% of patients. Other symptoms of Hodgkin’s lymphoma include weight loss, pruritus, night sweats, and fever (Pel-Ebstein). A mediastinal mass may also be present, which can cause symptoms such as coughing. In some cases, Hodgkin’s lymphoma may be found incidentally on a chest x-ray.

      When investigating Hodgkin’s lymphoma, normocytic anaemia may be present, which can be caused by factors such as hypersplenism, bone marrow replacement by HL, or Coombs-positive haemolytic anaemia. Eosinophilia may also be present, which is caused by the production of cytokines such as IL-5. LDH levels may also be raised.

      In summary, Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a type of cancer that affects the lymphocytes and is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells. It is most commonly seen in people in their third and seventh decades of life and is associated with risk factors such as HIV and the Epstein-Barr virus. Symptoms of Hodgkin’s lymphoma include lymphadenopathy, weight loss, pruritus, night sweats, and fever. When investigating Hodgkin’s lymphoma, normocytic anaemia, eosinophilia, and raised LDH levels may be present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 18 - Sophie is an 8 month old baby girl who comes to you with...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is an 8 month old baby girl who comes to you with inadequate weight gain (75th to 25th centile), during examination she has a blanching, erythematous rash on her abdomen, colicky abdominal pain and regurgitation after feeds. She has been breastfed with additional 'Cow & Gate' formula. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cows' milk protein intolerance

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis based on the given history is cows’ milk protein intolerance. This is suggested by the involvement of multiple systems, the introduction of top up feeds at 7 months (which coincides with the onset of symptoms), and faltering growth. Charlie’s age also makes pyloric stenosis an unlikely diagnosis, as it typically presents between 2 to 8 weeks and is very rare above 6 months. The presentation is also atypical for eczema, infantile colic, and reflux due to the involvement of multiple systems.

      Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects approximately 3-6% of children and typically presents in formula-fed infants within the first 3 months of life. However, it can also occur in exclusively breastfed infants, although this is rare. Both immediate (IgE mediated) and delayed (non-IgE mediated) reactions can occur, with CMPA usually used to describe immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms of CMPI/CMPA include regurgitation and vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms such as irritability and crying, wheezing, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis.

      Diagnosis of CMPI/CMPA is often based on clinical presentation, such as improvement with cow’s milk protein elimination. However, investigations such as skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein may also be performed. If symptoms are severe, such as failure to thrive, referral to a pediatrician is necessary.

      Management of CMPI/CMPA depends on whether the child is formula-fed or breastfed. For formula-fed infants with mild-moderate symptoms, extensive hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk is the first-line replacement formula, while amino acid-based formula (AAF) is used for infants with severe CMPA or if there is no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants with CMPI/CMPA are also intolerant to soy milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should continue breastfeeding while eliminating cow’s milk protein from their diet. Calcium supplements may be prescribed to prevent deficiency while excluding dairy from the diet. When breastfeeding stops, eHF milk should be used until the child is at least 12 months old and for at least 6 months.

      The prognosis for CMPI/CMPA is generally good, with most children eventually becoming milk tolerant. In children with IgE-mediated intolerance, around 55% will be milk tolerant by the age of 5 years, while in children with non-IgE mediated intolerance, most will be milk tolerant by the age of 3 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 19 - A 70-year-old woman visits the General Practitioner after being discharged from the hospital...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman visits the General Practitioner after being discharged from the hospital three days ago. She underwent a cholecystectomy but had to stay longer due to a chest infection that required treatment. She is now experiencing watery diarrhoea, abdominal cramping pain, and mild lower abdominal tenderness.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clostridioides difficile-associated colitis

      Explanation:

      Clostridioides difficile-Associated Colitis: Symptoms, Risk Factors, and Treatment Options

      Clostridioides difficile-associated colitis is a condition that should be suspected in patients with diarrhoea who have received antibiotics within the previous three months, have recently been in hospital, and/or have an occurrence of diarrhoea 48 hours or more after discharge from the hospital. Although cases can also occur in the community without a history of hospitalisation, the primary risk factor is a disturbance of the normal bacterial flora of the colon by exposure to antibiotics. The release of toxins causes mucosal inflammation and damage, leading to diarrhoea. While most patients develop diarrhoea during or shortly after starting antibiotics, some may not become symptomatic for up to ten weeks after antibiotics.

      Therapy for non-severe infection consists of oral vancomycin or fidaxomcyin as a second-line option. Ceasing the causative antibiotic (if possible) will result in resolution in approximately three days in about 20% of patients. However, more severe diseases will require hospitalisation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 20 - A 55-year-old woman presents to the diabetes clinic following a recent diagnosis of...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents to the diabetes clinic following a recent diagnosis of type 2 diabetes. Her HbA1c levels were 59 mmol/mol and 61 mmol/mol on repeat testing. She has a medical history of stable angina and essential hypertension. Her renal function results show an eGFR of 72 ml/min/1.73m² and a urine ACR of 2.3 mg/mmol.

      What would be the best initial treatment option for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start metformin first and titrate upwards as tolerated, add an SGLT-2 inhibitor regardless of glycaemic control

      Explanation:

      To properly manage a patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) who has a history of angina, it is important to start with metformin and titrate upwards as tolerated. Additionally, an SGLT-2 inhibitor should be added regardless of glycaemic control, as it is indicated for organ protection. Once metformin tolerability is confirmed, the SGLT-2 inhibitor can be added. Starting with an SGLT-2 inhibitor first or starting both medications immediately and titrating metformin upwards as tolerated is incorrect. Adding a DPP 4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea only if adequate glycaemic control is not achieved is also not the recommended approach for this patient.

      NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.

      Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.

      Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 21 - A man attends the surgery for an 'MOT' having just had his 55th...

    Incorrect

    • A man attends the surgery for an 'MOT' having just had his 55th birthday. He is keen to reduce his risk of cardiovascular disease and asks about being started on a 'statin'.

      He has no significant past medical history and takes no medication. His father had a 'heart attack' aged seventy, but his father was obese and a heavy smoker. There is no other family history of note. There is no suggestion of a familial lipid condition.

      What is the most appropriate management approach at this point?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Optimise adherence to diet and lifestyle measures

      Explanation:

      Primary Prevention of Cardiovascular Disease

      This patient has no history of cardiovascular disease (CVD), and therefore, the primary prevention approach is necessary. The first step is to use a CVD risk assessment tool such as QRISK2 to evaluate the patient’s cardiovascular risk. If the patient has a 10% or greater 10-year risk of developing CVD, measuring their lipid profile and offering atorvastatin 20 mg daily would be appropriate. Additionally, providing advice to optimize diet and lifestyle measures is necessary. However, if the patient’s risk is less than 10%, then diet and lifestyle advice/optimization in isolation would be appropriate. At this point, there is no specific indication for lipid clinic input. The use of QRISK2 in this scenario is the best approach as it guides the management, including whether pharmacological treatment with a statin is necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 22 - A 21-year-old man presents in a confused state. He is known to regularly...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old man presents in a confused state. He is known to regularly smoke cannabis.
      Which of the following physical signs is NOT a recognised feature of cannabis intoxication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sweating

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cannabis Intoxication: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Cannabis intoxication refers to the problematic behavioural or psychological changes that occur after recent use of cannabis. These changes may include impaired motor coordination, euphoria, anxiety, a sensation of slowed time, impaired judgment, or social withdrawal. To diagnose cannabis intoxication, at least two physical signs must be present. However, sweating is not considered a recognized sign of cannabis intoxication, as it is more commonly associated with cannabis withdrawal. It is important for doctors to rule out any underlying medical conditions or mental disorders that may be causing the patient’s symptoms. This article provides an overview of the symptoms and diagnosis of cannabis intoxication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 23 - A 28-year-old diabetic woman would like to discuss a copper IUCD device. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old diabetic woman would like to discuss a copper IUCD device. She is a nulliparous lady who has had fertility problems and endometriosis in the past, but would like a reliable form of contraception after a recent divorce.

      One week before seeing you, she mentioned to the nurse that she had been getting some intermenstrual bleeding and it was suggested that she makes an appointment to see you. You note that she had pelvic inflammatory disease when she was 20, but this was successfully treated as an inpatient.

      Which one of the conditions given in the history is a contraindication to having a copper IUCD fitted?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Endometriosis

      Explanation:

      Contraception Contraindications and Cautions

      Contraception questions are commonly featured in the MRCGP exam, and it is essential to have a good understanding of the contraindications and cautions listed in the British National Formulary (BNF). In the BNF, unexplained uterine bleeding is listed as a contraindication, while the other items mentioned in the history are listed as cautions. It is important to note that there are other contraindications not mentioned in the history, such as pregnancy, current sexually transmitted infection, current pelvic inflammatory disease, and distorted uterine cavity. Familiarizing oneself with these contraindications and cautions is crucial in providing safe and effective contraception to patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
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  • Question 24 - A 16-year-old student presents with a three week history of a flu-like illness,...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old student presents with a three week history of a flu-like illness, which progressed after a week to paroxysms of coughing.

      He was previously healthy and believes he received all the recommended childhood vaccinations.

      Upon examination, he has no fever and his chest sounds clear. You suspect he may have pertussis.

      What is the most suitable test to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serology for anti-pertussis IgG antibodies

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Pertussis

      In diagnosing pertussis, the appropriate test depends on the age of the patient and the timing of their symptoms. For children under 12 months old who are hospitalized, PCR testing is recommended. For those who are not hospitalized, a culture of a pernasal swab is preferred.

      For patients over 12 months old and adults, a culture of a pernasal swab is recommended within two weeks of symptom onset or 48 hours of antibiotic therapy. However, if the patient presents more than two weeks after symptom onset or has been on antibiotics for more than 48 hours, serology testing for anti-pertussis IgG antibodies is the most appropriate diagnostic test.

      It is important to note that culture testing for Bordetella pertussis is unlikely to be positive beyond two weeks from symptom onset, and a negative result doesn’t exclude pertussis infection. CXR and FBC testing are not specific or diagnostic for pertussis. PCR testing is useful for young infants or late in the disease after antibiotics have been administered, but it is not the recommended test in this scenario.

      Overall, understanding and implementing national guidelines for respiratory problems is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment of pertussis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 25 - What is an important factor to consider when providing medical services to a...

    Incorrect

    • What is an important factor to consider when providing medical services to a high security prison?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Collusion between medical staff and offenders is very common

      Explanation:

      Clinical Governance Lead in Prisons

      Prison Service Order 3100 mandates the appointment of a clinical governance lead in prisons. Although this order was implemented before the transfer of responsibility for service provision to the PCT, the need for an effective clinical governance structure remains crucial. In 2005, formal responsibility for medical services was transferred, resulting in a well-organized service that includes regular GP surgeries, drug and alcohol support services, and pre-discharge medical appointments. However, in high-security prisons, staffing ratios may result in missed secondary care appointments despite the provision of key services.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 26 - A 62-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with complaints of epigastric pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with complaints of epigastric pain and waterbrash that have lasted for four months. It is not worsening, but neither is it resolving. She has been taking alendronic acid tablets for osteoporosis over a similar timeframe. There is no history of dysphagia or weight loss and an examination of her abdomen is normal. Full blood count, inflammatory markers, urea and electrolytes, and liver function tests are all normal.
      Which of the following is the single most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oesophagitis

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Epigastric Pain: A Case Study

      Epigastric pain is a common complaint among adults, with up to 60% experiencing heartburn and using over-the-counter products to relieve indigestion. However, it can also be a symptom of more serious conditions such as oesophagitis, gastric carcinoma, pancreatic carcinoma, peptic ulcer disease, and oesophageal carcinoma.

      In a case study, a patient presented with stable epigastric pain for four months, accompanied by waterbrash and a history of alendronate use. While gastric and pancreatic carcinomas were deemed unlikely due to the absence of red flag symptoms and deterioration in clinical condition, oesophagitis was considered the most likely diagnosis. Contributing factors such as alcohol, NSAIDs, bisphosphonates, and smoking were identified, and treatment involved eliminating these factors and using proton pump inhibitors like omeprazole.

      Overall, it is important to consider various possible causes of epigastric pain and conduct a thorough evaluation to determine the appropriate diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 27 - A 68-year-old man reports during a routine blood pressure check-up that he has...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man reports during a routine blood pressure check-up that he has been experiencing difficulty urinating. Upon further questioning, he describes urinary hesitancy, a weak stream, occasional dribbling, and a sensation of incomplete emptying. These symptoms are causing him distress to the point where he avoids going out in public. Upon examination, you note a smooth enlarged prostate and decide to send blood for PSA testing and a urine specimen for culture. The results come back clear, and his PSA level is 3.8 ng/ml (normal age-adjusted range 0 - 4 ng/ml).
      What is the most appropriate management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An alpha-blocker is the first-line treatment in this patient group

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia

      Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition in older men that can cause urinary symptoms. Here are some common treatment options and their effectiveness:

      Alpha-blockers: These medications, such as tamsulosin, relax smooth muscle and are the first-line treatment for patients with predominantly voiding symptoms.

      Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP): Surgery is reserved for patients with bladder outflow obstruction or in those in whom medical therapy fails.

      Finasteride: This medication shrinks the prostate, but the benefit is seen over weeks to months.

      Prostate biopsy: This should be considered in the investigation of prostate cancer, but is not necessary in this patient with normal PSA and examination findings.

      Saw palmetto: This herbal remedy is not more effective than placebo and is not recommended by NICE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 28 - Which one of the following statements regarding polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is inaccurate?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is inaccurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Affects between 2-3% of women of reproductive age

      Explanation:

      Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is a condition that affects a significant percentage of women of reproductive age. The exact cause of PCOS is not yet fully understood, but it is believed to be related to both hyperinsulinemia and high levels of luteinizing hormone. Symptoms of PCOS include subfertility and infertility, menstrual disturbances such as oligomenorrhea and amenorrhea, hirsutism, acne, obesity, and acanthosis nigricans.

      To diagnose PCOS, a pelvic ultrasound is typically performed to check for multiple cysts on the ovaries. Other useful investigations include FSH, LH, prolactin, TSH, testosterone, and sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG). A raised LH:FSH ratio was once considered a classical feature, but it is no longer thought to be useful in diagnosis. Prolactin may be normal or mildly elevated, while testosterone may be normal or mildly elevated. However, if testosterone is markedly raised, other causes should be considered. SHBG is typically normal to low in women with PCOS, and impaired glucose tolerance should also be checked.

      To make a formal diagnosis of PCOS, other conditions must first be excluded. The Rotterdam criteria state that a diagnosis of PCOS can be made if two of the following three criteria are present: infrequent or no ovulation, clinical and/or biochemical signs of hyperandrogenism, and polycystic ovaries on ultrasound scan. Polycystic ovaries are defined as the presence of 12 or more follicles measuring 2-9 mm in diameter in one or both ovaries and/or increased ovarian volume greater than 10 cm³.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 29 - A 29-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a three-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a three-day history of foot drop and tingling to his hands. Today he has noticed difficulty rising from a chair and climbing stairs. His past medical history is unremarkable except for a recent respiratory tract infection.

      Upon examination, the patient has normal limb tone, reduced strength in his legs bilaterally (distal muscles worse than proximal), and a loss of his patella and ankle reflexes. Additionally, he has reduced sensation in a glove and stocking distribution.

      What is the most likely diagnosis for this individual?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Guillain-Barré syndrome

      Explanation:

      Guillain-Barre syndrome is suggested by a progressive peripheral polyneuropathy with hyporeflexia. This condition is characterized by symmetrical demyelination caused by an autoimmune response, often triggered by a respiratory or GI infection.

      Lyme disease, on the other hand, is caused by a tick bite and typically presents with vague neurological symptoms such as headaches and joint pain.

      While multiple sclerosis can cause weakness and sensory loss, these symptoms are usually asymmetrical and accompanied by hyperreflexia.

      Myasthenia gravis may also cause limb-girdle weakness, but it is more commonly associated with periocular symptoms such as eyelid drooping. Additionally, myasthenia gravis causes muscle fatigue rather than a progressive polyneuropathy.

      Guillain-Barre Syndrome: A Breakdown of its Features

      Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition that occurs when the immune system attacks the peripheral nervous system, resulting in demyelination. This is often triggered by an infection, with Campylobacter jejuni being a common culprit. In the initial stages of the illness, around 65% of patients experience back or leg pain. However, the characteristic feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is progressive, symmetrical weakness of all limbs, with the legs being affected first in an ascending pattern. Reflexes are reduced or absent, and sensory symptoms tend to be mild. Other features may include a history of gastroenteritis, respiratory muscle weakness, cranial nerve involvement, diplopia, bilateral facial nerve palsy, oropharyngeal weakness, and autonomic involvement, which can lead to urinary retention and diarrhea. Less common findings may include papilloedema, which is thought to be secondary to reduced CSF resorption. To diagnose Guillain-Barre syndrome, a lumbar puncture may be performed, which can reveal a rise in protein with a normal white blood cell count (albuminocytologic dissociation) in 66% of cases. Nerve conduction studies may also be conducted, which can show decreased motor nerve conduction velocity due to demyelination, prolonged distal motor latency, and increased F wave latency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 30 - A 27-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a 1-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a 1-day history of a right red eye, difficulty looking at lights and a sensation of something being stuck in his eye. He has worn contact lenses since he was 18 and occasionally sleeps with them in if he forgets, after a night out. He is urgently referred for same-day ophthalmological casualty.

      On examination, a mucopurulent discharge is present and examination with a penlight reveals a round white spot of infiltrate, enhanced with the application of fluorescein, approximately 0.7mm in size. Examination of the left eye is normal.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bacterial keratitis

      Explanation:

      If a person who wears contact lenses experiences a painful, red eye, they should be referred to an eye casualty to rule out microbial keratitis. Bacterial keratitis is characterized by a foreign body sensation, difficulty keeping the eye open, redness, photophobia, and a round white spot visible on penlight examination that will also stain with fluorescein. Viral keratitis presents with redness, photophobia, foreign body sensation, and watery discharge, and may show a faint branching opacity on penlight examination with fluorescein. Iritis causes a red eye and photophobia, but no foreign body sensation, and examination of the unaffected eye with a penlight will result in photophobia. There is typically no discharge or tearing, and fluorescein staining will reveal nothing. Scleritis causes severe pain that worsens overnight and radiates to the face and periorbital region, and may be accompanied by a headache, watering of the eyes, ocular redness, and photophobia. Fluorescein staining will reveal nothing. A subconjunctival hemorrhage is usually asymptomatic, with the only symptom being eye redness, and can be diagnosed by normal acuity and the absence of discharge, photophobia, or foreign body sensation.

      Understanding Keratitis: Inflammation of the Cornea

      Keratitis is a condition that refers to the inflammation of the cornea, which is the clear, dome-shaped surface that covers the front of the eye. While there are various causes of keratitis, microbial keratitis is a particularly serious form of the condition that can lead to vision loss if left untreated. Bacterial keratitis is often caused by Staphylococcus aureus, while Pseudomonas aeruginosa is commonly seen in contact lens wearers. Fungal and amoebic keratitis are also possible, with acanthamoebic keratitis accounting for around 5% of cases. Other factors that can cause keratitis include viral infections, environmental factors like photokeratitis, and contact lens-related issues like contact lens acute red eye (CLARE).

      Symptoms of keratitis typically include a painful, red eye, photophobia, and a gritty sensation or feeling of a foreign body in the eye. In some cases, hypopyon may be seen. If a person is a contact lens wearer and presents with a painful red eye, an accurate diagnosis can only be made with a slit-lamp, meaning same-day referral to an eye specialist is usually required to rule out microbial keratitis.

      Management of keratitis typically involves stopping the use of contact lenses until symptoms have fully resolved, as well as the use of topical antibiotics like quinolones and cycloplegic agents for pain relief. Complications of keratitis can include corneal scarring, perforation, endophthalmitis, and visual loss. It is important to seek urgent evaluation and treatment for microbial keratitis to prevent these potential complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Respiratory Health (0/1) 0%
Mental Health (1/1) 100%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (1/1) 100%
Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse (0/1) 0%
Passmed