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Question 1
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A 46-year-old patient with multiple health problems has undergone a medication review at his GP surgery. He has a history of asthma and hypertension. He presents to the Emergency department with an episode of bronchospasm.
Which one of the following medications is most likely to be responsible?Your Answer: Propranolol
Explanation:Most Likely Cause of Bronchospasm in a Patient with Asthma
Examiners often use terms like most likely to test a candidate’s ability to reason. In primary care, where there may be multiple causes, prioritizing treatment options is crucial. In a patient with a history of asthma experiencing bronchospasm, propranolol is the most likely cause, and its use should be avoided. While bronchospasm is reported in aspirin-sensitive patients and paradoxical bronchospasm in some patients treated with salmeterol, beta-blockers like propranolol can precipitate bronchospasm and should be avoided in patients with asthma.
According to the British National Formulary, beta-blockers should be avoided in patients with a history of asthma. However, in some cases, a cardioselective beta-blocker may be necessary for a co-existing condition like heart failure or following a myocardial infarction. In such situations, a specialist should initiate treatment with a low dose of a cardioselective beta-blocker like atenolol, bisoprolol fumarate, metoprolol tartrate, nebivolol, or acebutolol. These drugs have a lesser effect on airways resistance but are not free of this side-effect.
ACE inhibitors like ramipril are inhibitors of the metabolism of bradykinin and can cause cough. Bronchospasm is also reported as an adverse event associated with ACE inhibition, although it is very rare.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old male patient mentions to you, in passing, that he is worried he might have a stroke. Which of the following is the single, strongest risk factor for developing a stroke?
Your Answer: Diabetes mellitus
Correct Answer: Hypertension
Explanation:Diabetes, hypertension, hypercholesterolaemia, and smoking are all factors that increase the risk of developing a stroke. However, among these options, hypertension is the most significant risk factor for stroke. High blood pressure can damage the blood vessels in the brain, leading to a stroke. Therefore, it is crucial to manage hypertension through lifestyle changes and medication to reduce the risk of stroke. By controlling hypertension, individuals can significantly reduce their risk of stroke.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female presents with a six month history of heavy menstrual flow for which she has used at least 12 sanitary towels daily.
She has had generally heavy periods but has found that her condition has deteriorated in the last six months.
Which of the following therapies would be your next step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Mefenamic acid
Correct Answer: Diclofenac
Explanation:Medical Management of Menorrhagia
Menorrhagia is a condition where menstrual loss exceeds 80 ml. While cyclic progestins have been used to treat menorrhagia, they have not been adequately tested in randomized controlled trials. On the other hand, tranexamic acid is considered the most effective medical intervention for menorrhagia.
According to NICE guidelines, if pharmaceutical treatment is appropriate for menorrhagia, hormonal or non-hormonal treatments should be considered in a specific order. The first option is the levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system, which provides long-term relief for at least 12 months. The second option is tranexamic acid, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), or combined oral contraceptives. The third option is norethisterone (15 mg) daily from days 5 to 26 of the menstrual cycle or injected long-acting progestogens.
If hormonal treatments are not acceptable to the woman, then either tranexamic acid or NSAIDs can be used. It is important to note that a randomized trial of high-dose, longer-term cyclic norethisterone compared with a progestin-releasing IUD showed that flow was reduced by 87%. However, the current consensus of opinion favors tranexamic acid as the most effective medical intervention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 4
Correct
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A 5-year-old girl has a history of constipation and is diagnosed with faecal impaction. Despite receiving lactulose therapy, there has been no improvement. What is the best course of treatment?
Your Answer: Macrogol
Explanation:The primary treatment for faecal impaction and loading is macrogols.
Understanding Constipation in Children
Constipation is a common problem in children, and its frequency varies with age. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the diagnosis and management of constipation in children. A diagnosis of constipation is suggested by two or more symptoms, including infrequent bowel movements, hard stools, and symptoms associated with defecation. The vast majority of children have no identifiable cause, but other causes include dehydration, low-fiber diet, medications, anal fissure, over-enthusiastic potty training, hypothyroidism, Hirschsprung’s disease, hypercalcemia, and learning disabilities.
After making a diagnosis of constipation, NICE suggests excluding secondary causes. If no red or amber flags are present, a diagnosis of idiopathic constipation can be made. Prior to starting treatment, the child needs to be assessed for fecal impaction. NICE guidelines recommend using polyethylene glycol 3350 + electrolytes as the first-line treatment for faecal impaction. Maintenance therapy is also recommended, with adjustments to the starting dose.
It is important to note that dietary interventions alone should not be used as first-line treatment. Regular toileting and non-punitive behavioral interventions should also be considered. For infants not yet weaned, gentle abdominal massage and bicycling the infant’s legs can be helpful. For weaned infants, extra water, diluted fruit juice, and fruits can be offered, and lactulose can be added if necessary.
In conclusion, constipation in children can be effectively managed with proper diagnosis and treatment. It is important to follow NICE guidelines and consider the individual needs of each child. Parents can also seek support from Health Visitors or Paediatric Continence Advisors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 51-year-old teacher comes to her General Practitioner complaining of tiredness and fatigue that has been persisting for 10 months. She is unable to perform even minimal activities due to extreme fatigue and has been absent from work. She reports experiencing difficulty swallowing, frequent headaches, and sore throats with myalgia. She has been researching chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS) and believes her symptoms are consistent with this condition.
What is the most pressing investigation to conduct next?Your Answer: Thyroid function tests
Correct Answer: Oesophago-gastro-duodenoscopy (OGD)
Explanation:Investigations for Chronic Fatigue Syndrome: When to Consider Urgent Investigation
Chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS) is a diagnosis of exclusion, requiring the presence of unexplained chronic fatigue for more than six months, along with other symptoms such as impaired memory or concentration, sore throats, myalgia, arthralgia, headaches, unrefreshing sleep, and post-exertion malaise. However, certain symptoms may indicate the need for urgent investigation to rule out underlying organic or psychiatric problems.
Dysphagia, or difficulty swallowing, is a red flag symptom that may indicate an underlying oesophageal cancer and should be investigated urgently with an oesophago-gastro-duodenoscopy (OGD) under the 2-week wait rule. Thyroid function tests should also be carried out to rule out hypothyroidism, which can present similarly to CFS, but the presence of dysphagia is atypical and prompts urgent investigation for underlying malignancy.
Myalgia, or muscle pain, is a commonly reported symptom of CFS, but it can also be a feature of rhabdomyolysis, which would cause high creatine kinase levels. However, this is a rarer diagnosis and would usually be associated with a history of trauma or long lie causing muscle damage.
Headache and chronic pain are recognised associations of CFS, although they are not exclusive. A magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) brain is not usually indicated unless there are neurological signs or signs that may indicate raised intracranial pressure.
Flu-like symptoms, including sore throat, tender glands, nausea, chills, or muscle aches, are often reported as a feature of CFS. However, Group A streptococcus can cause an acute sore throat rather than the recurrent symptoms described in this patient, so swabbing should be considered if there is diagnostic uncertainty or if there is a history of immunocompromise putting the patient at increased risk of complications.
In summary, while CFS is a diagnosis of exclusion, certain symptoms such as dysphagia may indicate the need for urgent investigation to rule out underlying organic or psychiatric problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 26-year-old woman presents with an eight month history of amenorrhoea. She started her periods aged 14.
Over the last three years she tells you that she has had irregular infrequent periods. She has gone three to four months between periods in the past but never more than this until now. She was last sexually active four months ago and tells you she has done three pregnancy tests over the last four weeks, which have all been negative. She is not currently in a relationship and has no desire for contraception at present.
She is not taking any prescribed medication but uses over-the-counter acne treatments. Her body mass index is 31 kg/m2, she has a small amount of hair growth on her chin, abdominal and pelvic examinations are normal.
She is investigated further and her blood results show:
LH 11.8 (0.5-14.5)
FSH 4.2 (1-11)
Testosterone 3.5 (0.8-3.1)
Prolactin 512 (90-520)
Fasting glucose 6.3 (<6.0)
HbA1c 37 mmol/mol -
TSH and T4 are within normal limits.
She has no desire for pregnancy at present and has only attended as she was concerned with regard to the frequency of her periods. Which of the following should you advise?Your Answer: There is no need to refer for ultrasound scanning if the diagnosis of PCOS is obvious on clinical and biochemical grounds
Explanation:Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is diagnosed based on the Rotterdam criteria, which requires the presence of at least two of the following: oligo/anovulation, clinical and/or biochemical hyperandrogenism, and polycystic ovaries on ultrasound scanning. Patients may be asymptomatic or present with menstrual disturbance, infertility, obesity, male pattern hair loss, hirsutism, and acne. Blood tests can support the diagnosis, with elevated LH and testosterone levels being common findings. Mild prolactinaemia and insulin resistance may also be present. Ultrasound scanning is not necessary if the diagnosis is obvious on clinical and biochemical grounds. Confirming the diagnosis is important to rule out other potential causes and to monitor for associated health problems such as diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and endometrial cancer. Women with PCOS should have regular periods or progesterone-induced withdrawal bleeds to reduce the risk of endometrial hyperplasia and cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents to the General Practice Surgery with multiple skin lesions that she has noticed over the past few weeks. She is a single mother and works as a waitress, and has a long history of smoking and poor engagement with health and social services.
On examination, she is overweight with a body mass index (BMI) of 30 kg/m2 (normal range: 20-25 kg/m2), with obvious cigarette burns on her arms. She has multiple small (ranging from 2-12 mm in diameter), flat, purple bruise-like lesions across her chest, back and arms.
What causative agent is associated with the most likely underlying diagnosis?Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
Correct Answer: Human herpesvirus-8 (HHV-8)
Explanation:The patient in this case has Kaposi’s sarcoma, a common tumor found in individuals with HIV infection. The tumor presents as dark purple/brown intradermal lesions that resemble bruises and can appear anywhere on the skin or oropharynx. Since HIV often goes undiagnosed, it is important to consider this diagnosis in patients with risk factors. This patient has a history of IV drug use and poor engagement with services, making it possible that they have never been tested for HIV. The patient is underweight with a low BMI, which could be a sign of HIV infection. Kaposi’s sarcoma is caused by the human herpesvirus-8 (HHV-8), also known as Kaposi’s Sarcoma-associated herpesvirus (KSHV).
Shingles, caused by the varicella-zoster virus, is not related to Kaposi’s sarcoma. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is a herpesvirus that can cause serious infections in immunocompromised individuals, but it is not associated with Kaposi’s sarcoma. Human papillomavirus (HPV) is linked to cervical cancer and is not a herpesvirus. Herpes simplex virus (HSV) causes oral and genital herpes, but it is not responsible for Kaposi’s sarcoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 8
Correct
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One of your receptionists has tested positive for pertussis. Her GP has given her clarithromycin today.
She feels well enough to work, but with regard to her infectivity, when could she start back at work?Your Answer: When her cough subsides
Explanation:Pertussis Guidance for Healthcare Workers
According to the latest guidance from Public Health England (PHE), healthcare workers (HCWs) suspected of having pertussis should be excluded from work until 48 hours of appropriate antibiotic treatment is completed or for 21 days from onset if not treated. This is a change from earlier advice to exclude for 5 days. Hospitalized patients with pertussis should be placed in respiratory isolation until 48 hours of treatment is completed or for 21 days from onset if not treated. HCWs looking after patients with pertussis should wear appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE).
It is important for GPs to understand and implement key national guidelines that influence healthcare provision for respiratory problems, as stated in the RCGP Curriculum Statement 3.19. Public Health England has published comprehensive guidelines on the symptoms, diagnosis, management, surveillance, and epidemiology of pertussis, including updated sub-documents. Staying up to date with the latest guidance is crucial for providing safe and effective care to patients and protecting the health of healthcare workers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 9
Correct
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A 57-year-old woman comes to see her GP after a year. Her husband is currently receiving treatment for bladder cancer. She expresses feeling very distressed about his condition and treatment. They live together in a house which they own. Since her husband's illness, they have not had a regular income and she is unable to seek employment as she needs to care for her husband and take him to appointments. They have no children. She is distressed and confides in you that she 'did not know where else to turn'.
What is the most appropriate initial course of action for this patient? Choose ONE option only.Your Answer: Offer ongoing GP support and follow-up
Explanation:Appropriate Management for a Patient Dealing with a Major Life Event
When a patient approaches their GP seeking advice and support for a major life event, it is important to provide appropriate management. Starting the patient on night sedatives or an SSRI antidepressant without an assessment for insomnia or depression would not be appropriate at this stage. Referring the patient to a Macmillan Cancer Care Nurse or community mental health services may be required in addition to providing ongoing GP support, but it would not be the initial next step. The initial management should focus on exploring the patient’s needs and offering ongoing GP support and follow-up, upon which later care strategies can be constructed. The GP is uniquely placed to provide medical and supportive care to the patient and possibly their wider family.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 10
Correct
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You encounter a 41-year-old male patient complaining of lower back pain. He cannot recall a specific injury but reports that the pain has been worsening for the past 2 months. He has experienced muscle spasms in his lower back over the last 48 hours, causing him significant discomfort and preventing him from working. He works in a warehouse and frequently engages in heavy lifting. He is overweight but has no other relevant medical history. There are no red flag symptoms of back pain.
What is a true statement about nonspecific lower back pain?Your Answer: 'StarT BACK' is an online risk stratification tool which can be used to assess a person with lower back pain
Explanation:The online tool ‘StarT BACK’ can be utilized to evaluate individuals with lower back pain who do not exhibit any red flags and determine modifiable risk factors.
When it comes to analgesia, NSAIDs are the preferred first-line treatment unless there are any contraindications. Diazepam may be prescribed for a brief period if muscle spasms are present.
It is not necessary for the patient to be completely pain-free before returning to work or normal activities. The NICE CKS guidelines suggest encouraging the individual to stay active, gradually resuming normal activities, and returning to work as soon as possible. Prolonged bed rest is not recommended, and some pain may be experienced during movement, which should not be harmful if activities are resumed gradually and as tolerated. Occupational Health departments may assist in arranging work adjustments to facilitate an early return to work.
To reduce the risk of recurrence, it is essential to remain as active as possible and engage in regular exercise. Unfortunately, individuals who have experienced low back pain may experience repeated episodes of recurrence and develop acute on chronic symptoms.
Understanding Lower Back Pain and its Possible Causes
Lower back pain is a common complaint among patients seeking medical attention. Although most cases are due to nonspecific muscular issues, it is important to consider possible underlying causes that may require specific treatment. Some red flags to watch out for include age below 20 or above 50 years, a history of previous malignancy, night pain, history of trauma, and systemic symptoms such as weight loss and fever.
There are several specific causes of lower back pain that healthcare providers should be aware of. Facet joint pain may be acute or chronic, with pain typically worse in the morning and on standing. On examination, there may be pain over the facets, which is typically worse on extension of the back. Spinal stenosis, on the other hand, usually has a gradual onset and presents with unilateral or bilateral leg pain (with or without back pain), numbness, and weakness that worsens with walking and resolves when sitting down. Ankylosing spondylitis is typically seen in young men who present with lower back pain and stiffness that is worse in the morning and improves with activity. Peripheral arthritis is also common in this condition. Finally, peripheral arterial disease presents with pain on walking that is relieved by rest, and may be accompanied by absent or weak foot pulses and other signs of limb ischaemia. A past history of smoking and other vascular diseases may also be present.
In summary, lower back pain is a common presentation in clinical practice, and healthcare providers should be aware of the possible underlying causes that may require specific treatment. By identifying red flags and conducting a thorough examination, providers can help ensure that patients receive appropriate care and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 11
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) complaining of widespread muscular pain that has persisted for several months and was previously diagnosed as osteoarthritis by another GP. She also experiences fatigue, sleep disturbance, and constipation. Despite undergoing routine tests, thyroid function tests, and rheumatological investigations, all results have been normal. Her joint examination is also normal. What is the most appropriate treatment to alleviate her symptoms?
Your Answer: Amitriptyline
Explanation:Treatment Options for Fibromyalgia: Choosing the Right Medication
Fibromyalgia is a chronic condition characterized by widespread pain, fatigue, and sleep disturbances. While there is no cure for fibromyalgia, there are several treatment options available to manage its symptoms.
One medication commonly prescribed for fibromyalgia is amitriptyline, an antidepressant that can improve pain, mood, and sleep quality. Aerobic exercise and cognitive behavior therapy can also be effective in improving overall wellbeing.
However, medications such as methotrexate and prednisolone are not recommended for fibromyalgia as they are used for inflammatory conditions and lack evidence of benefit for this condition. Strong opioids like slow-release morphine sulfate are also not recommended due to their potential for addiction and tolerance. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs like naproxen may provide short-term relief for acute pain, but are not typically used for chronic pain management in fibromyalgia.
It is important for patients with fibromyalgia to work closely with their healthcare provider to determine the best treatment plan for their individual needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 12
Correct
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A 60-year-old patient schedules a visit to discuss their yearly flu shot. They have come across a research study that compared the vaccine to a placebo. The study found that among those who received the vaccine, 10% tested positive for the flu, while 30% in the placebo group did. The authors of the study conducted a statistical analysis to evaluate the relationship between the vaccine and getting the flu.
Which statistical test would be appropriate for analyzing these findings?Your Answer: Chi-squared test
Explanation:The appropriate statistical test for comparing proportions or percentages is the chi-squared test. For example, it can be used to compare the percentage of patients who improved following two different interventions. The Mann-Whitney U test is not applicable in this case as it is used for non-parametric data and compares ordinal, interval, or ratio scales of unpaired data. Similarly, Pearson’s product-moment coefficient is not suitable as it is a parametric test that assesses correlation. The choice of significance test depends on whether the data is parametric or non-parametric.
Types of Significance Tests
Significance tests are used to determine whether the results of a study are statistically significant or simply due to chance. The type of significance test used depends on the type of data being analyzed. Parametric tests are used for data that can be measured and are usually normally distributed, while non-parametric tests are used for data that cannot be measured in this way.
Parametric tests include the Student’s t-test, which can be paired or unpaired, and Pearson’s product-moment coefficient, which is used for correlation analysis. Non-parametric tests include the Mann-Whitney U test, which compares ordinal, interval, or ratio scales of unpaired data, and the Wilcoxon signed-rank test, which compares two sets of observations on a single sample. The chi-squared test is used to compare proportions or percentages, while Spearman and Kendall rank are used for correlation analysis.
It is important to choose the appropriate significance test for the type of data being analyzed in order to obtain accurate and reliable results. By understanding the different types of significance tests available, researchers can make informed decisions about which test to use for their particular study.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 13
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman comes to your clinic with a pustular/vesicular rash on her left cheek in the maxillary area that has been present for two days. What would be the most appropriate next step in treating her condition?
Your Answer: Start the patient on oral aciclovir
Explanation:Left Trigeminal Shingles in the Maxillary Region
The scenario above depicts a case of left trigeminal shingles in the V2 dermatome region, which is the maxillary region. It is important to note that V1 is the ophthalmic region that supplies the cornea, but it is not affected in this case. Therefore, the recommended treatment for this condition is a course of oral aciclovir, which is a systemic medication. Additionally, adequate analgesia may be necessary to manage any associated pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 14
Correct
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A 4-year-old boy is brought to his General Practitioner (GP) by his mother, who has concerns about his mobility. He is having progressive difficulty with standing from the floor. He was able to sit unaided at 12 months and walk at 22 months. He has not been able to run, tending to ‘waddle’ if he tries.
On examination, he has wasting to the quadriceps and calves, and a positive Gowers sign.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD)
Explanation:The case involves a boy with DMD, a common childhood-onset muscular dystrophy with X-linked recessive inheritance. Symptoms include developmental delay, inability to run, waddling gait, and wasting of leg muscles. DDH, BMD, cerebral palsy, and T1DM are ruled out as possible causes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 15
Correct
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Which of the following statements about the cause of venous thromboembolism (VTE) is accurate?
Your Answer: Tamoxifen therapy increases the risk of VTE
Explanation:Risk Factors for Venous Thromboembolism
Venous thromboembolism (VTE) is a condition where blood clots form in the veins, which can lead to serious complications such as pulmonary embolism (PE). While some common predisposing factors include malignancy, pregnancy, and the period following an operation, there are many other factors that can increase the risk of VTE. These include underlying conditions such as heart failure, thrombophilia, and nephrotic syndrome, as well as medication use such as the combined oral contraceptive pill and antipsychotics. It is important to note that around 40% of patients diagnosed with a PE have no major risk factors. Therefore, it is crucial to be aware of all potential risk factors and take appropriate measures to prevent VTE.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 16
Correct
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You diagnose a middle-aged man with a left-sided sudden-onset sensorineural hearing loss that started 12 hours ago during your joint clinic with a medical student and refer directly to ENT who diagnose an idiopathic sudden-onset sensorineural hearing loss and begin treatment. Your medical student asks what will happen next for the patient.
What is the most suitable medication for treatment?Your Answer: Oral prednisolone for 7 days
Explanation:Patients with sudden-onset sensorineural hearing loss who are referred to ENT are typically prescribed high-dose oral corticosteroids as treatment. The recommended dosage, according to ENT UK’s guideline, is oral prednisolone at a maximum of 60mg/day or 1 mg/kg/day for 7 days, followed by a tapering off period over the next week. Dexamethasone, another type of corticosteroid, doesn’t require intravenous or intramuscular administration. Intravenous immunoglobulin is not a recommended treatment for idiopathic sudden-onset sensorineural hearing loss. While oral acyclovir has been considered for treating Bell’s palsy, the evidence supporting its effectiveness is weak.
When a patient experiences a sudden loss of hearing, it is crucial to conduct a thorough examination to determine whether it is conductive or sensorineural hearing loss. If it is the latter, known as sudden-onset sensorineural hearing loss (SSNHL), it is imperative to refer the patient to an ear, nose, and throat (ENT) specialist immediately. The majority of SSNHL cases have no identifiable cause, making them idiopathic. To rule out the possibility of a vestibular schwannoma, an MRI scan is typically performed. ENT specialists administer high-dose oral corticosteroids to all patients with SSNHL.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 17
Correct
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A 29-year-old female comes to her GP complaining of severe pain and swelling around her vagina, making it difficult for her to sit, walk or have sexual intercourse. Upon examination, the left side of the labia majora appears red and inflamed, and a 4 cm tender, warm, tense mass is present at the four o'clock position in the vulvar vestibule. The patient is treated with marsupialisation.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Bartholin's abscess
Explanation:Marsupialisation is the definitive treatment for Bartholin’s abscess, which presents with sudden pain and difficulty urinating. On examination, a hard mass with surrounding cellulitis is found at the site of the Bartholin’s glands in the vulvar vestibule. The abscess is caused by infection of the Bartholin’s cyst. Bartholin’s cyst, on the other hand, is caused by a buildup of mucous secretions from the Bartholin’s glands and is typically asymptomatic unless it grows larger. Inclusion cysts, which are caused by vaginal wall trauma, are usually small and found on the posterior vaginal wall. Skene’s gland cysts, which form when the duct is obstructed, may cause dyspareunia or urinary tract infection symptoms. Vesicovaginal fistulas, which allow urine to continuously discharge into the vaginal tract, require surgical treatment.
Understanding Bartholin’s Abscess
Bartholin’s glands are two small glands situated near the opening of the vagina. They are typically the size of a pea, but they can become infected and swell, resulting in a Bartholin’s abscess. This condition can be treated in a variety of ways, including antibiotics, the insertion of a word catheter, or a surgical procedure called marsupialization.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 18
Correct
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A 67-year-old man with metastatic squamous cell lung cancer visits the surgery with a complaint of sudden pain in his right arm, where a skeletal metastasis is known to exist. He is currently on slow-release morphine sulphate (MST) 90mg bd, along with regular naproxen and paracetamol, to manage his pain. What medication would be the best choice to alleviate his acute pain?
Your Answer: Oral morphine solution 30 mg
Explanation:The patient is experiencing break-through pain and bisphosphonates are not appropriate for acute pain relief. The recommended break-through dose is 30 mg, which is 1/6th of their total daily morphine dose of 180mg.
Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects include nausea, drowsiness, and constipation, which are usually transient but may persist. Denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain in addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Among the given options, which disorder exhibits a polygenic mode of inheritance?
Your Answer: Friedreich’s ataxia
Correct Answer: Manic depressive psychosis
Explanation:Inherited Conditions: Types and Patterns of Inheritance
Inherited conditions can be classified based on their patterns of inheritance. Polygenic traits, such as height, are affected by multiple genes and do not follow Mendelian inheritance. Mental health conditions are often polygenic. Huntington’s chorea is an autosomal-dominant condition that presents in adulthood with involuntary movements, behavioral changes, and memory problems. Friedreich’s ataxia is an autosomal-recessive condition that typically presents before age 25. Fragile X syndrome is an X-linked-dominant condition and the most common inherited cause of learning disability. Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal-recessive condition that can be detected through newborn screening or present with respiratory and/or gastrointestinal symptoms. Understanding the patterns of inheritance can aid in diagnosis and genetic counseling.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old female patient visits her GP with concerns about her interpersonal relationships at work and in her personal life. She reports that this has been an ongoing issue since her teenage years. The patient finds it challenging to collaborate with others and describes herself as a perfectionist. Additionally, others have described her as rigid. What personality disorder is indicated by these symptoms?
Your Answer: Borderline personality disorder
Correct Answer: Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
Explanation:The correct diagnosis for individuals who exhibit rigidity in their morals, ethics, and values and are hesitant to delegate work to others is obsessive-compulsive personality disorder. These individuals are often described as perfectionists who adhere to strict rules and have difficulty adapting to different ways of doing things. Avoidant personality disorder, borderline personality disorder, paranoid personality disorder, and schizotypal personality disorder are incorrect diagnoses as they present with different symptoms such as low self-esteem, unstable relationships, paranoia, and eccentric behavior.
Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 21
Correct
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A 27-year-old male presents with irregular skin discoloration on his upper back after returning from a 2-week vacation in Ibiza. Although he applied sunscreen intermittently, he did experience mild sunburn in the area, which has since healed. He doesn't experience any pain or itching, but he is self-conscious about the appearance of his skin. During the examination, there are scattered pale pink macules covered with fine scales visible over his upper back, despite having a suntan. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pityriasis versicolor
Explanation:The patient has pityriasis Versicolor, a fungal infection that affects sebum-rich areas of skin. It presents as multiple round or oval macules that may coalesce, with light pink, red or brown colour and fine scale. Itching is mild. It is not vitiligo, sunburn or pityriasis rosea, nor tinea corporis.
Understanding Pityriasis Versicolor
Pityriasis versicolor, also known as tinea versicolor, is a fungal infection that affects the skin’s surface. It is caused by Malassezia furfur, which was previously known as Pityrosporum ovale. This condition is characterized by patches that are commonly found on the trunk area. These patches may appear hypopigmented, pink, or brown, and may become more noticeable after sun exposure. Scaling is also a common feature, and mild itching may occur.
Pityriasis versicolor can affect healthy individuals, but it may also occur in people with weakened immune systems, malnutrition, or Cushing’s syndrome. Treatment for this condition typically involves the use of topical antifungal agents. According to NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries, ketoconazole shampoo is a cost-effective option for treating large areas. If topical treatment fails, alternative diagnoses should be considered, and oral itraconazole may be prescribed.
In summary, pityriasis versicolor is a fungal infection that affects the skin’s surface. It is characterized by patches that may appear hypopigmented, pink, or brown, and scaling is a common feature. Treatment typically involves the use of topical antifungal agents, and oral itraconazole may be prescribed if topical treatment fails.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 22
Correct
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Which trait is passed down in an autosomal dominant manner?
Your Answer: Cystic fibrosis
Explanation:Genetic Disorders
Neurofibromatosis is an autosomal dominant disorder caused by a single gene. Beta thalassaemia, on the other hand, is recessively inherited. If an individual has one copy of the abnormal gene, it is called ‘thalassaemia minor’, while having two copies of the abnormal gene results in ‘thalassaemia major’. Prader-Willi syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that is characterised by insatiable appetite, hyperglycaemia, and short stature. Lastly, Down’s syndrome is also a chromosomal disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl comes to your clinic after her mother notices a lump in her abdomen while getting her dressed. During the examination, you find a mass in her left upper quadrant. You collect a urine sample, which shows positive results for blood on dipstick testing. Other than that, she appears to be healthy.
What is the probable diagnosis? Choose ONE answer only.Your Answer: Hodgkin’s lymphoma
Correct Answer: Wilms’ tumour
Explanation:Distinguishing Childhood Abdominal Malignancies: Wilms’ Tumour, Hodgkin’s Lymphoma, and More
Wilms’ tumour, also known as nephroblastoma, is the most common abdominal malignancy in children. It arises from undifferentiated mesodermal cells and typically presents as an asymptomatic abdominal mass in children under five years old. However, it can also occur in adults. Other symptoms may include abdominal pain, haematuria, urinary infection, hypertension, or pyrexia. With treatment, over 90% of children with Wilms’ tumour survive into adulthood.
Hodgkin’s lymphoma, on the other hand, is a rare malignancy in children. It typically presents with lymphadenopathy, most commonly in the cervical region, but hepatosplenomegaly may also occur.
Constipation, hepatoblastoma, and splenomegaly are not likely diagnoses in this scenario. Constipated children typically have infrequent stools and a palpable faecal mass in the lower left abdomen. Hepatoblastoma is a rare malignancy that presents with a mass on the right side of the abdomen, and splenomegaly is not typically associated with haematuria.
In summary, distinguishing between childhood abdominal malignancies such as Wilms’ tumour and Hodgkin’s lymphoma requires careful consideration of the presenting symptoms and physical examination findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 24
Correct
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A 50-year-old man is seen in the diabetes clinic and presents with the following results:
- Urinalysis NAD
- HbA1c 69 mmol/mol
The patient is currently taking metformin and gliclazide is added to his treatment regimen. What is the earliest time frame for repeating the HbA1c test?Your Answer: 3 months
Explanation:NICE recommends regular monitoring of HbA1c every 2-6 months, based on individual requirements, until the patient is stable on a consistent therapy.
Understanding Glycosylated Haemoglobin (HbA1c) in Diabetes Mellitus
Glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) is a commonly used measure of long-term blood sugar control in diabetes mellitus. It is produced when glucose attaches to haemoglobin in red blood cells at a rate proportional to the concentration of glucose in the blood. The level of HbA1c is influenced by the lifespan of red blood cells and the average blood glucose concentration. However, certain conditions such as sickle-cell anaemia, GP6D deficiency, and haemodialysis can interfere with accurate interpretation of HbA1c levels.
HbA1c is believed to reflect blood glucose levels over the past 2-4 weeks, although it is generally thought to represent the previous three months. It is recommended that HbA1c be checked every 3-6 months until stable, and then every 6 months. The Diabetes Control and Complications Trial (DCCT) has studied the complex relationship between HbA1c and average blood glucose levels.
The International Federation of Clinical Chemistry (IFCC) has developed a new standardised method for reporting HbA1c, which reports HbA1c in mmol per mol of haemoglobin without glucose attached. The table above shows the relationship between HbA1c, average plasma glucose, and IFCC-HbA1c. By using this table, one can calculate the average plasma glucose level by using the formula: average plasma glucose = (2 * HbA1c) – 4.5.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 25
Correct
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What is true about jugular venous pulsation (JVP)?
Your Answer: Is paradoxical in constrictive pericarditis
Explanation:Impedance of Ventricular Contraction in Constrictive Pericarditis and Cardiac Tamponade
Both constrictive pericarditis and cardiac tamponade can cause impedance of ventricular contraction, which becomes more severe as the diaphragm descends. This results in an increase in venous pressure during inspiration, known as Kussmaul’s sign.
To assess the jugular venous pressure (JVP), the patient should be lying at a 45-degree angle. Normally, the JVP is not palpable except in severe tricuspid regurgitation, and the pressure is assessed relative to the manubrium sterni. In early left ventricular failure, the JVP may be normal, but as fluid retention increases, the veins become congested, leading to congestive cardiac failure (CCF).
In summary, both constrictive pericarditis and cardiac tamponade can lead to impedance of ventricular contraction and an increase in venous pressure during inspiration, which can be assessed through the JVP. Congestion of the veins can also occur in CCF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman who has never undergone a cervical smear test complains of post-coital bleeding. What is not considered a known risk factor for cervical cancer?
Your Answer: Human papillomavirus 16
Correct Answer: Obesity
Explanation:Endometrial cancer is associated with obesity, while cervical cancer is not.
Understanding Cervical Cancer and its Risk Factors
Cervical cancer is a type of cancer that affects the cervix, which is the lower part of the uterus. It is most commonly diagnosed in women under the age of 45, with the highest incidence rates occurring in those aged 25-29. The cancer can be divided into two types: squamous cell cancer and adenocarcinoma. Symptoms of cervical cancer may include abnormal vaginal bleeding, such as postcoital, intermenstrual, or postmenopausal bleeding, as well as vaginal discharge.
The most significant risk factor for cervical cancer is infection with the human papillomavirus (HPV), particularly serotypes 16, 18, and 33. Other risk factors include smoking, human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), early first intercourse, many sexual partners, high parity, and lower socioeconomic status. The mechanism by which HPV causes cervical cancer involves the production of oncogenes E6 and E7 by HPV 16 and 18, respectively. E6 inhibits the p53 tumour suppressor gene, while E7 inhibits the RB suppressor gene.
While the strength of the association between combined oral contraceptive pill use and cervical cancer is sometimes debated, a large study published in the Lancet in 2007 confirmed the link. It is important for women to undergo routine cervical cancer screening to detect any abnormalities early on and to discuss any potential risk factors with their healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A twelve-year-old girl is presented by her mother with a one-year history of low back pain related to physical activity. During sports activities at school, she sometimes has to take a break but can usually continue after a few minutes of rest. There are no red flag symptoms, and her neurological examination of the lower limbs is normal.
During the examination, you observe a curvature of her spine and diagnose scoliosis. You plan to refer her to the local pediatric orthopedic department. What diagnostic investigation would confirm her condition?Your Answer: X-ray lumbosacral spine
Correct Answer: No investigation necessary
Explanation:Scoliosis can be diagnosed through clinical examination alone and doesn’t require further imaging or investigations. While X-rays and MRIs can assist in managing the condition, they are not essential for diagnosis. Therefore, no investigations are necessary.
CT scans are not recommended for young people as they expose them to high levels of radiation.
MRI is not the best imaging tool for examining bones, but it may be necessary for young people experiencing back pain if nerve or spinal cord issues are suspected.
While an X-ray of the entire spine can provide valuable information, it exposes the patient to significant levels of radiation. A targeted X-ray of the lumbosacral spine may be more appropriate, but it is still not necessary for diagnosis.
Diseases Affecting the Vertebral Column
Ankylosing spondylitis is a chronic inflammatory disorder that affects the axial skeleton, with sacro-ilitis being visible in plain films. Scheuermann’s disease is an epiphysitis of the vertebral joints that predominantly affects adolescents, with symptoms including back pain and stiffness. Scoliosis consists of curvature of the spine in the coronal plane, with structural scoliosis affecting more than one vertebral body and being the most common type. Spina bifida is a non-fusion of the vertebral arches during embryonic development, with myelomeningocele being the most severe type. Spondylolysis is a congenital or acquired deficiency of the pars interarticularis of a particular vertebral body, while spondylolisthesis occurs when one vertebra is displaced relative to its immediate inferior vertebral body.
Overview of Diseases Affecting the Vertebral Column
The vertebral column is susceptible to various diseases that can affect its structure and function. Ankylosing spondylitis is a chronic inflammatory disorder that affects the axial skeleton, while Scheuermann’s disease predominantly affects adolescents and causes back pain and stiffness. Scoliosis is a curvature of the spine that can be structural or non-structural, with idiopathic being the most common type. Spina bifida is a non-fusion of the vertebral arches during embryonic development, and spondylolysis is a deficiency of the pars interarticularis of a particular vertebral body. Spondylolisthesis occurs when one vertebra is displaced relative to its immediate inferior vertebral body. Understanding these diseases can aid in their diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding the management of elderly, non-sensitised Rhesus negative women is inaccurate?
Your Answer: Around 15% of mothers are Rhesus negative
Correct Answer: External cephalic version doesn't require prophylaxis
Explanation:Rhesus negative mothers can develop anti-D IgG antibodies if they deliver a Rh +ve child, which can cause haemolysis in future pregnancies. Prevention involves testing for D antibodies and giving anti-D prophylaxis at 28 and 34 weeks. Anti-D should also be given in various situations, such as delivery of a Rh +ve infant or amniocentesis. Tests include cord blood FBC, blood group, direct Coombs test, and Kleihauer test. Affected fetuses may experience oedema, jaundice, anaemia, hepatosplenomegaly, heart failure, and kernicterus, and may require transfusions and UV phototherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 29
Incorrect
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What is the correct statement about infection with Epstein-Barr virus (infectious mononucleosis)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Deranged liver function is common in infectious mononucleosis
Explanation:Infectious Mononucleosis: Symptoms, Transmission, and Complications
Infectious mononucleosis, commonly known as mono, is a viral infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). While many patients may not show any symptoms, studies suggest that 90% of people over the age of 25 have antibodies to EBV. The virus is transmitted through droplet exchange and can continue to be excreted for several months.
Symptoms of mono include deranged liver function, mild hepatomegaly, and splenomegaly, which can cause tenderness over the spleen. Jaundice is rare in young adults but can occur in up to 30% of infected elderly patients. It is important for patients to avoid contact sports for at least a month after infection to prevent the risk of splenic rupture.
It is crucial to note that ampicillin and amoxicillin should not be given to any patient who may have infectious mononucleosis, as they can cause an itchy maculopapular rash. The illness is typically self-limiting and of short duration, but fatigue and myalgia may persist for several months after the acute infection has resolved.
In conclusion, infectious mononucleosis is a viral infection that can cause various symptoms and complications. It is important to take precautions to prevent transmission and seek medical attention if symptoms persist.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A mother brings her 10 week old baby to your morning GP clinic with a three day history of noisy breathing, coryza, reduced feeding, and increased fussiness. What signs would prompt you to consider admitting the infant?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Feeding less than 50% of normal
Explanation:If a child with bronchiolitis displays any high risk signs, it is important to admit them for support with feeding to prevent dehydration. The NICE CKS provides a comprehensive list of these signs, which include a respiratory rate exceeding 60 per minute, intermittent apnoea, grunting, moderate or severe chest in-drawing, cyanosis, pale, ashen, mottled or blue skin color, lack of response to social cues, inability to be roused or stay awake, and appearing ill. Reduced skin turgor is also a sign of dehydration to watch out for.
Understanding Bronchiolitis
Bronchiolitis is a condition that is characterized by inflammation of the bronchioles. It is a serious lower respiratory tract infection that is most common in children under the age of one year. The pathogen responsible for 75-80% of cases is respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), while other causes include mycoplasma and adenoviruses. Bronchiolitis is more serious in children with bronchopulmonary dysplasia, congenital heart disease, or cystic fibrosis.
The symptoms of bronchiolitis include coryzal symptoms, dry cough, increasing breathlessness, and wheezing. Fine inspiratory crackles may also be present. Children with bronchiolitis may experience feeding difficulties associated with increasing dyspnoea, which is often the reason for hospital admission.
Immediate referral to hospital is recommended if the child has apnoea, looks seriously unwell to a healthcare professional, has severe respiratory distress, central cyanosis, or persistent oxygen saturation of less than 92% when breathing air. Clinicians should consider referring to hospital if the child has a respiratory rate of over 60 breaths/minute, difficulty with breastfeeding or inadequate oral fluid intake, or clinical dehydration.
The investigation for bronchiolitis involves immunofluorescence of nasopharyngeal secretions, which may show RSV. Management of bronchiolitis is largely supportive, with humidified oxygen given via a head box if oxygen saturations are persistently < 92%. Nasogastric feeding may be needed if children cannot take enough fluid/feed by mouth, and suction is sometimes used for excessive upper airway secretions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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