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  • Question 1 - A 64-year-old male with a history of mitral regurgitation is scheduled for dental...

    Correct

    • A 64-year-old male with a history of mitral regurgitation is scheduled for dental polishing. He has a documented penicillin allergy. What is the recommended prophylaxis for preventing infective endocarditis?

      Your Answer: No antibiotic prophylaxis needed

      Explanation:

      In the UK, it is no longer standard practice to use antibiotics as a preventative measure against infective endocarditis during dental or other procedures, as per the 2008 NICE guidelines which have brought about a significant shift in approach.

      Infective endocarditis is a serious infection of the heart lining and valves. The 2008 guidelines from NICE have changed the list of procedures for which antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended. According to NICE, dental procedures, gastrointestinal, genitourinary, and respiratory tract procedures do not require prophylaxis. However, if a person at risk of infective endocarditis is receiving antimicrobial therapy because they are undergoing a gastrointestinal or genitourinary procedure at a site where there is a suspected infection, they should be given an antibiotic that covers organisms that cause infective endocarditis. It is important to note that these recommendations differ from the American Heart Association/European Society of Cardiology guidelines, which still advocate antibiotic prophylaxis for high-risk patients undergoing dental procedures.

      The guidelines suggest that any episodes of infection in people at risk of infective endocarditis should be investigated and treated promptly to reduce the risk of endocarditis developing. It is crucial to follow these guidelines to prevent the development of infective endocarditis, which can lead to severe complications and even death. It is also important to note that these guidelines may change over time as new research and evidence become available. Therefore, healthcare professionals should stay up-to-date with the latest recommendations to provide the best possible care for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a sudden onset of...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a sudden onset of central abdominal pain. He claims this is radiating to his back and that it started this afternoon. He is currently still in pain and has been started on some analgesia. His blood pressure is 135/80 mmHg and his heart rate is 100 bpm.
      His past medical history includes amputation of the big toe on the left lower limb and femoral-popliteal bypass on the right. He smokes around 20 cigarettes daily.
      Which of the following tests should be done urgently to determine the underlying cause of his symptomatology?

      Your Answer: Bedside abdominal ultrasound (US)

      Explanation:

      Bedside Abdominal Ultrasound for Ruptured Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm: Diagnosis and Management

      This patient is likely experiencing a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA), a life-threatening medical emergency. Bedside abdominal ultrasound (US) is the best initial diagnostic test for ruling out AAA as a cause of abdominal or back pain, as it provides an instant, objective measurement of aortic diameter. An AAA is a dilatation of the abdominal aorta greater than 3 cm in diameter, with a significant risk of rupture at diameters greater than 5 cm. Risk factors for AAA include smoking and co-existing vascular disease. Symptoms of a ruptured AAA include pain, cardiovascular failure, and distal ischemia. Once diagnosed, a CT angiogram is the gold-standard imaging for planning surgery to repair the aneurysm. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography and liver function tests are not indicated in this case, while serum amylase or lipase should be measured in all patients presenting with acute abdominal or upper back pain to exclude acute pancreatitis as a differential diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 82-year-old man is admitted to the stroke unit with a left sided...

    Incorrect

    • A 82-year-old man is admitted to the stroke unit with a left sided infarct. After receiving thrombolysis, he is now stable on the ward. The medical team wants to initiate regular antiplatelet therapy, but the patient has allergies to both aspirin and clopidogrel. What alternative medication can be prescribed for him?

      Your Answer: Rivaroxaban

      Correct Answer: Dipyridamole

      Explanation:

      If aspirin and clopidogrel cannot be used after an ischaemic stroke, MR dipyridamole may be administered as the sole antiplatelet option. Warfarin and rivaroxaban may be considered, but are more suitable for patients with AF. Bisoprolol and enoxaparin are not antiplatelet medications.

      The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The management of acute stroke includes maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage. Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends thrombectomy for people who have acute ischaemic stroke and confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation demonstrated by computed tomographic angiography or magnetic resonance angiography. Secondary prevention includes the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      25.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 63-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden-onset chest pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden-onset chest pain and nausea. He is not taking any regular medications. An ECG reveals ST depression and T wave inversion in leads V2-V4, and troponin levels are elevated. The patient receives a STAT 300mg aspirin, and there are no immediate plans for primary PCI. According to the GRACE score, the 6-month mortality risk is 8.0%. The patient is stable. What is the best course of treatment going forward?

      Your Answer: Fibrinolysis with antithrombin and ticagrelor

      Correct Answer: Fondaparinux, prasugrel or ticagrelor, and refer for coronary angiography within 72 hours

      Explanation:

      The current treatment plan of prescribing fondaparinux, clopidogrel, and scheduling a coronary angiography in 3 months is incorrect. Clopidogrel is typically prescribed for patients with a higher risk of bleeding or those taking an oral anticoagulant. Additionally, delaying definitive treatment for a high-risk patient by scheduling a coronary angiography in 3 months could lead to increased mortality. Instead, a more appropriate treatment plan would involve prescribing prasugrel, unfractionated heparin, and a glycoprotein IIB/IIIA inhibitor, and referring the patient for urgent PCI within 2 hours. However, it should be noted that this treatment plan is specific to patients with STEMI and access to PCI facilities.

      Managing Acute Coronary Syndrome: A Summary of NICE Guidelines

      Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a common and serious medical condition that requires prompt management. The management of ACS has evolved over the years, with the development of new drugs and procedures such as percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of ACS in 2020.

      ACS can be classified into three subtypes: ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina. The management of ACS depends on the subtype. However, there are common initial drug therapies for all patients with ACS, such as aspirin and nitrates. Oxygen should only be given if the patient has oxygen saturations below 94%, and morphine should only be given for severe pain.

      For patients with STEMI, the first step is to assess eligibility for coronary reperfusion therapy, which can be either PCI or fibrinolysis. Patients with NSTEMI/unstable angina require a risk assessment using the Global Registry of Acute Coronary Events (GRACE) tool to determine whether they need coronary angiography (with follow-on PCI if necessary) or conservative management.

      This summary provides an overview of the NICE guidelines for managing ACS. The guidelines are complex and depend on individual patient factors, so healthcare professionals should review the full guidelines for further details. Proper management of ACS can improve patient outcomes and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      48.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - You are requested to evaluate a 65-year-old woman who has been admitted to...

    Correct

    • You are requested to evaluate a 65-year-old woman who has been admitted to your ward with a lower respiratory tract infection. She has a medical history of hypertension and gout and is currently taking amlodipine 10mg once daily and allopurinol 100mg once daily. You observe that her blood pressure has been consistently high over the past three days, with readings of 149/76 mmHg, 158/88 mmHg, and 150/82 mmHg. Which antihypertensive medication would be the most suitable to initiate?

      Your Answer: Lisinopril

      Explanation:

      For a patient with poorly controlled hypertension who is already taking a calcium channel blocker, the addition of an ACE inhibitor, angiotensin receptor blocker, or thiazide-like diuretic is recommended. In this case, since the patient’s hypertension remains uncontrolled, it is appropriate to start them on an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, such as lisinopril. Atenolol would be a suitable option if the patient was already taking a calcium channel blocker, ACE inhibitor/ARB, and thiazide-like diuretic with a potassium level above 4.5 mmol/L. However, since the patient has a history of gout, thiazide-like diuretics like bendroflumethiazide and indapamide should be avoided as they can exacerbate gout symptoms.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      32.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 45-year-old woman is recuperating in the hospital after a coronary angiogram for...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman is recuperating in the hospital after a coronary angiogram for unstable angina. Two days after the procedure, she reports experiencing intense pain in her left foot. Upon examination, her left lower limb peripheral pulses are normal. There is tissue loss on the medial three toes on the left foot and an area of livedo reticularis on the same foot.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cholesterol embolisation

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Vascular Conditions: Causes and Symptoms

      Cholesterol embolisation occurs when cholesterol crystals from a ruptured atherosclerotic plaque block small or medium arteries, often following an intervention like coronary angiography. This results in microvascular ischemia, which typically does not affect blood pressure or larger vessels, explaining the normal peripheral pulses in affected patients. Livedo reticularis, a purplish discoloration, may also occur due to microvascular ischemia.

      Arterial thromboembolism is a common condition, especially in patients with established cardiovascular disease or risk factors like hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and smoking. It tends to affect larger vessels than cholesterol embolism, leading to the absence of peripheral pulses and gangrenous toes.

      Buerger’s disease, also known as thromboangiitis obliterans, is a vasculitis that mainly affects young men who smoke. It presents with claudication of the arms or legs, with or without ulcers or gangrene. However, the acute onset of symptoms following an intervention makes cholesterol embolism a more likely diagnosis.

      Deep vein thrombosis typically presents with a swollen, painful calf and does not display signs of arterial insufficiency like gangrene and livedo reticularis.

      Takayasu’s arteritis is a rare form of large vessel vasculitis that mainly affects the aorta. It is more common in women and tends to present below the age of 30 years old with pulseless arms. However, this patient’s history is not typical for Takayasu’s arteritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      45.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - The medical emergency team is called to an 85-year-old man who has fainted...

    Incorrect

    • The medical emergency team is called to an 85-year-old man who has fainted in the cardiology ward whilst visiting a relative. He has been moved to a trolley, where he appears confused and is complaining of dizziness. An A-E examination is performed:

      A: Is the airway patent?
      B: Is there any respiratory distress? Sats are 98% on air.
      C: Is the radial pulse regular? The patient has cool peripheries, blood pressure of 85/55 mmHg, and heart sounds of 1 + 2 + 0.
      D: What is the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score? Are the pupils equal and reactive to light?
      E: Is the temperature normal? No other findings are noted.

      An ECG shows sinus bradycardia with a rate of 42 beats per minute. What is the immediate treatment for his bradycardia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give 500 micrograms atropine

      Explanation:

      For patients with bradycardia and signs of shock, the immediate treatment is 500 micrograms of atropine, which can be repeated up to a maximum of 3mg. This is in line with the Resuscitation Council Guidelines. It is important to identify the cause of the bradycardia and check for reversible causes, while also managing the bradycardia to prevent further deterioration and possible cardiac arrest.

      It should be noted that 3mg of atropine is the maximum amount that can be given, not the starting dose. If there is an insufficient response to 500 micrograms of atropine, further doses can be given until a total of 3mg has been administered.

      Administering 500ml of intravenous fluid stat may temporarily increase cardiac output, but it will not treat the bradycardia causing the patient’s shock.

      Transcutaneous pacing is a method of temporarily pacing the heart in an emergency by delivering pulses of electric current through the chest. It may be used as an interim measure if treatment with atropine is unsuccessful, while awaiting the establishment of more permanent measures such as transvenous pacing or permanent pacemaker insertion.

      Management of Bradycardia in Peri-Arrest Rhythms

      The 2015 Resuscitation Council (UK) guidelines highlight the importance of identifying adverse signs and potential risk of asystole in the management of bradycardia in peri-arrest rhythms. Adverse signs indicating haemodynamic compromise include shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, and heart failure. Atropine (500 mcg IV) is the first line treatment in this situation. If there is an unsatisfactory response, interventions such as atropine (up to a maximum of 3mg), transcutaneous pacing, and isoprenaline/adrenaline infusion titrated to response may be used. Specialist help should be sought for consideration of transvenous pacing if there is no response to the above measures.

      Furthermore, the presence of risk factors for asystole such as complete heart block with broad complex QRS, recent asystole, Mobitz type II AV block, and ventricular pause > 3 seconds should be considered. Even if there is a satisfactory response to atropine, specialist help is indicated to consider the need for transvenous pacing. Effective management of bradycardia in peri-arrest rhythms is crucial in preventing further deterioration and improving patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 55-year-old man comes to see his GP complaining of a dry cough...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man comes to see his GP complaining of a dry cough that has been going on for 3 weeks. He reports no chest pain or shortness of breath, and has not experienced any unexplained weight loss. The patient has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus that is managed through lifestyle and diet, and was recently diagnosed with hypertension and started on lisinopril. He is a non-smoker and drinks 6 units of alcohol per week. What is the best course of action for his treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop lisinopril and start irbesartan

      Explanation:

      When a patient cannot tolerate taking ACE inhibitors, such as lisinopril, an angiotensin-receptor blocker (ARB) should be offered as an alternative, according to NICE guidelines. This is particularly relevant for patients with a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, as an ACE inhibitor is preferred due to its renal protective and antihypertensive properties. In this case, the patient is likely experiencing a dry cough as a side effect of lisinopril use, which is a common issue with ACE inhibitors. To address this, stopping lisinopril and starting irbesartan is the correct course of action. Unlike ACE inhibitors, ARBs do not cause a buildup of bradykinin in the lungs, which is responsible for the dry cough. It is important to note that reassurance alone is not sufficient, as the dry cough will not settle with time. Additionally, arranging a skin prick allergy test is unnecessary, as the patient is not allergic to lisinopril. While amlodipine may be considered as a second-line treatment option, NICE recommends switching to an ARB first.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 55-year-old Caucasian man comes to his GP for a routine check-up. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old Caucasian man comes to his GP for a routine check-up. He works as a lawyer and reports feeling healthy with no recent illnesses. He has a history of hypertension and is currently taking 10mg of ramipril daily. He has no known allergies.
      During his ambulatory blood pressure monitoring, his readings were consistently high at 158/92 mmHg, 162/94mmHg, and 159/93mmHg.
      What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Indapamide

      Explanation:

      For a patient with poorly controlled hypertension who is already taking an ACE inhibitor, the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a thiazide-like diuretic is recommended. In individuals under the age of 55 and of Caucasian ethnicity, the first-line treatment for hypertension is an ACE inhibitor such as ramipril. If the blood pressure remains elevated despite maximum dose of ramipril, a second medication should be added. A calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic is the preferred choice for second-line therapy in this scenario.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 68-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of central chest pain that...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of central chest pain that started 8 hours ago. The pain is spreading to his left jaw. He has a medical history of hypertension and hyperlipidaemia.

      Upon conducting an ECG, it shows ST elevation in leads II, III and aVF. Troponin levels are significantly elevated. The patient is given 300mg of aspirin and sublingual glyceryl trinitrate.

      Unfortunately, the nearest hospital that can provide primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) is 4 hours away. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Administer fibrinolysis

      Explanation:

      For the management of STEMI, guidelines recommend primary PCI within 120 minutes of presentation or within 12 hours of symptom onset. As this patient presented with 10 hours of pain and transfer to the nearest hospital for PCI would take 3 hours, fibrinolysis should be offered instead. Giving unfractionated heparin and a glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitor is inappropriate in this case. The patient should not be immediately transferred for PCI, but if the ST elevation is not resolved on a repeat ECG taken 90 minutes after fibrinolysis, then transfer for PCI should be considered. Rechecking troponin in 120 minutes is not necessary, and repeating an ECG in 120 minutes is not the next most important step. Administering fibrinolysis and taking a repeat ECG at the 90-minute mark are the appropriate next steps.

      Managing Acute Coronary Syndrome: A Summary of NICE Guidelines

      Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a common and serious medical condition that requires prompt management. The management of ACS has evolved over the years, with the development of new drugs and procedures such as percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of ACS in 2020.

      ACS can be classified into three subtypes: ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina. The management of ACS depends on the subtype. However, there are common initial drug therapies for all patients with ACS, such as aspirin and nitrates. Oxygen should only be given if the patient has oxygen saturations below 94%, and morphine should only be given for severe pain.

      For patients with STEMI, the first step is to assess eligibility for coronary reperfusion therapy, which can be either PCI or fibrinolysis. Patients with NSTEMI/unstable angina require a risk assessment using the Global Registry of Acute Coronary Events (GRACE) tool to determine whether they need coronary angiography (with follow-on PCI if necessary) or conservative management.

      This summary provides an overview of the NICE guidelines for managing ACS. The guidelines are complex and depend on individual patient factors, so healthcare professionals should review the full guidelines for further details. Proper management of ACS can improve patient outcomes and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular (4/6) 67%
Passmed