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Question 1
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman, who is receiving endocrine therapy for advanced breast cancer, presents to her General Practitioner complaining of fatigue. Clinical examination reveals no additional information. Sodium, potassium, calcium, magnesium and glucose levels, renal function, C-reactive protein, albumin levels and liver and thyroid function are all normal. A full blood count is also normal. She denies depression or any problem with sleep.
Which of the following is the most appropriate prescription?
Your Answer: Prescribing is not indicated
Explanation:Managing Fatigue in Advanced Chronic Illness: Non-Pharmacological Interventions Recommended
Fatigue is a common symptom in advanced chronic illness, but it is often under-recognised by healthcare professionals. While potentially reversible factors should be treated, the cause of fatigue may remain poorly understood. Non-pharmacological interventions such as pacing activities, graded exercise, stress/anxiety management, and sleep hygiene advice may help reduce the impact of fatigue on daily life. Vitamin supplements are not recommended unless there is a proven deficiency, and dexamfetamine and fluoxetine are not indicated for treating fatigue in this context. Methylphenidate may be an option under specialist supervision, but non-pharmacological interventions should be tried first. Overall, managing fatigue in advanced chronic illness requires awareness, acknowledgement, and a focus on non-pharmacological interventions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 64-year-old man is seen by the District Nurse at home, where he is being looked after by his family as he has advanced prostate cancer with bone metastases. His pain has been well controlled; he has a catheter in situ and can take oral medication. In the last week, he has not been eating and drinking much. His urine output is reduced; hence, his urine looks concentrated.
Over the last two days, he has become very confused, especially in the evening. He has been trying to get out of his bed and he has been pulling his catheter. He has been shouting at the family. His wife is very distressed. She asks for some sedation.
On examination by the District Nurse, his temperature is 37 oC. His pulse is 90 bpm and regular, while his blood pressure is 112/78 mmHg. His oxygen saturation is 96% on air. A urine dipstick is positive for protein.
What is the most appropriate initial management option for this patient's symptoms?Your Answer: 5 mg diazepam orally
Correct Answer: 0.5 mg haloperidol orally
Explanation:Medication Options for Delirium in Palliative Care
When managing delirium in palliative care patients, it is important to consider the appropriate medication options. For a patient experiencing symptoms of delirium, such as confusion and agitation, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends the use of haloperidol. The initial dose should be 0.5-1.0 mg at night and every two hours as needed, with the option to increase the dose in 0.5-1.0 mg increments up to a maximum of 10 mg per day (or 5 mg per day for elderly patients).
While benzodiazepines may be used for delirium management, temazepam and diazepam are not recommended by NICE. Instead, lorazepam would be the preferred benzodiazepine option. Zopiclone, a hypnotic used for insomnia, is not indicated for delirium treatment in palliative care.
It is important to consider the patient’s ability to take medication orally and the availability of a syringe driver when selecting a medication option. Administering subcutaneous medication may delay the management of delirium if the patient is still able to take medication orally.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 76-year-old patient comes to you complaining of intense pain in their right shoulder. After an X-ray examination, it is discovered that they have a pathological fracture in their proximal humerus. Which primary solid tumor cancer groups are most prone to metastasizing to bone?
Your Answer: Breast, colorectal, thyroid, testicular, ovary
Correct Answer: Breast, lung, thyroid, colorectal, cervix
Explanation:Causes of Pathological Fractures in the Elderly
Pathological fractures are fractures that occur due to weakened bones caused by underlying medical conditions. While any type of bone tumour can cause pathological fractures, the majority of cases in the elderly are due to metastatic carcinomas. This is because as people age, their risk of developing cancer increases. Multiple myeloma, a type of cancer that affects the bone marrow, is also common in the elderly and has a high incidence of pathological fractures. Lymphoma, although uncommon, can also cause pathological fractures.
It is important to keep this information in mind when evaluating elderly patients who present with musculoskeletal problems such as shoulder or back pain. A thorough medical history and physical examination can help identify the underlying cause of the fracture and guide appropriate treatment. By understanding the common causes of pathological fractures in the elderly, healthcare providers can provide better care and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer presents with chest wall pain and pain in her left hip. She is under the oncologists and recent imaging revealed diffuse metastatic deposits throughout her pelvis, spine and ribs, some of which appear to account for her present pain.
The patient has come to see you to discuss pain relief as she currently takes only regular paracetamol. You discuss the options and she agrees that the next step is to use a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). Her past medical history includes angina which gives her relatively frequent symptoms and for which she continues to receive medication to treat.
Which is the most appropriate NSAID to prescribe for this patient?Your Answer: Ibuprofen 800 mg TDS
Correct Answer: Ketorolac 10 mg QDS
Explanation:Managing Symptoms in Patients with Metastatic Cancer: Considerations for Prescribing Anti-Inflammatory Medications
When managing symptoms in patients with metastatic cancer, it is important to consider the potential side effects of medications. For example, if a patient has angina, prescribing an anti-inflammatory medication should take into account their cardiac risk to avoid thrombotic complications that could cause additional pain and suffering.
Cyclo-oxygenase-2 selective inhibitors (COX-2 inhibitors) carry an increased risk of myocardial infarction and stroke and should only be used over non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) if specifically indicated. However, even among NSAIDs, there is variation in terms of thrombotic risk. Diclofenac at 150 mg daily and high dose ibuprofen at 2.4 g daily are linked with an increased thrombotic risk, while naproxen 1 g daily and lower doses of ibuprofen (=<1.2 g daily) have not been shown to be associated with an increased risk of myocardial infarction. Therefore, when prescribing anti-inflammatory medications for patients with metastatic cancer, it is important to consider their individual cardiovascular risk and choose the medication with the best safety profile. The lowest effective dose of NSAID should be prescribed for the shortest period of time to control symptoms, and the need for long-term treatment should be reviewed periodically.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 5
Correct
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A 59-year-old man calls for advice regarding persistent hiccups. His medical history shows that he was diagnosed with pancreatic cancer two months ago. He has tried simple remedies like drinking cold water, holding his breath, and the Valsalva manoeuvre, but they have not worked. He is asking if you could prescribe something to help. What is the most suitable initial treatment to suggest?
Your Answer: Antacid
Explanation:Treatment Options for Persistent Hiccups
Persistent hiccups can be troublesome for some patients and are often difficult to treat. However, there are several simple manoeuvres that can be tried, such as sipping cold water, breath-holding, and the Valsalva manoeuvre. If hiccups are due to gastric distention, an antacid may help. If these options fail, metoclopramide or domperidone are usually the next treatment options. Baclofen, nifedipine, and chlorpromazine are third-line options that can be tried if the hiccups persist. Haloperidol may also be effective and better tolerated than chlorpromazine. In this case, trying an antacid and antiflatulent preparation is a suitable first-line option as the symptoms are of recent onset and no pharmacotherapy has been tried so far.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A patient in their late 60s with end stage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease on home oxygen is presenting with intractable cough and breathlessness.
They use regular nebulised salbutamol and ipratropium as well as saline nebulised PRN. They also have a regular inhaled corticosteroid and long acting beta agonist combination inhaler and once daily tiotropium inhaled. They take regular oral theophylline. They keep an emergency pack of prednisolone and amoxicillin at home in case they develop any infective symptoms.
On examination, they are apyrexial and chest auscultation reveals globally reduced air entry, with no focal acute signs. There is no evidence of cardiac failure or peripheral oedema.
What is the most appropriate additional treatment for their cough and breathlessness?Your Answer: Methadone linctus
Correct Answer: Morphine
Explanation:Palliative Care for Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)
It is important to note that palliative care is not just for cancer patients but also for those with chronic conditions that progress to end stage terminal disease, such as Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD). COPD patients may experience intractable cough and breathlessness despite home oxygen, nebulised bronchodilators/saline, and maximal inhaled treatment. Shortness of breath can be due to various factors, including anxiety.
To ensure an acute problem has not developed, it is crucial to examine the patient. Nebulisers and oxygen can be helpful, and non-pharmacological strategies such as relaxation techniques and breathing exercises may be of use. Oral medications, such as opioids and benzodiazepines, can palliate symptoms of breathlessness. Oral morphine is the preferred opioid, starting at a dose of 2.5-5 mg every four to six hours. Morphine reduces respiratory drive and the sensation of breathlessness.
In addition to breathlessness, COPD patients may also experience an intractable cough. Moist inhalations and regular use of oral morphine can help alleviate this symptom. Dexamethasone can be useful in certain situations, such as superior vena caval obstruction and tumour oedema in patients with an underlying malignancy. Diazepam and lorazepam are useful in treating breathlessness, especially if anxiety symptoms are prominent. Hyoscine hydrobromide is useful in treating excessive respiratory secretions. Methadone linctus can treat cough but should be avoided due to its long half-life and tendency to accumulate.
In summary, palliative care for COPD patients involves a comprehensive approach to alleviate symptoms such as breathlessness and cough. Oral morphine is a preferred medication for both symptoms, and non-pharmacological strategies can also be of use.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 7
Incorrect
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For a person with a certain condition, what is the most probable prognostic indicator of nearing end of life (within 12 months)?
Your Answer: Recent hospital admission in someone with heart failure symptoms
Correct Answer: Aspiration pneumonia in a patient with motor neurone disease
Explanation:Clinical Indicators for End-of-Life Care in Various Conditions
The Gold Standards Framework (GSF) Prognostic Indicator Guidance provides specific clinical indicators for various conditions that suggest the patient is approaching the end of life. For motor neurone disease, the indicators include marked rapid decline in physical status, first episode of aspiration pneumonia, increased cognitive difficulties, weight loss, significant complex symptoms and medical complications, low vital capacity, dyskinesia, mobility problems, falls, and communication difficulties. Lack of improvement three months after a stroke is an indicator for someone with severe paralysis. Wheelchair-bound multiple sclerosis patients may have quite a long life. Frail elderly people with co-morbidities may experience significant weight loss, but it needs to be accompanied by deteriorating function or at least two of weakness, slow walking speed, low physical activity, exhaustion, or depression. For patients with heart failure, repeated hospital admissions carry prognostic significance. These indicators can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate end-of-life care for patients with various conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 8
Incorrect
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The guidance produced by the General Medical Council (GMC) pertains to the treatment and care provided during the end of life. Which of the following options aligns best with this guidance?
Your Answer: Information about a terminal prognosis can be withheld if it will upset the patient
Correct Answer: Patients can make advanced requests for treatment that they feel may be denied them
Explanation:Ethical Considerations in End-of-Life Care
End-of-life care can present complex ethical dilemmas for healthcare professionals. Here are some important considerations:
– Advanced Requests: Patients can make advanced requests for treatments they fear may be denied to them. While these requests cannot bind future decisions, they must be given weight by decision-makers if the patient has lost capacity.
– Religious Beliefs: A doctor cannot withdraw from providing care because their religious beliefs conflict with a patient’s refusal of treatment. However, if their beliefs conflict with a decision about overall benefit, arrangements must be made for another doctor to take over.
– Decision-Making: Patients with capacity may devolve decision-making to their doctor if they find it distressing. However, they still need basic information to give consent to any proposed treatment.
– Starting and Withdrawing Treatment: Emotional distress should not override clinical judgement when deciding whether to start or withdraw treatment.
– Withholding Information: Information about a terminal prognosis should not be withheld unless giving it would likely cause the patient serious harm. Serious harm means more than just upsetting the patient or causing them to refuse treatment.Overall, ethical considerations in end-of-life care require a delicate balance between respecting patient autonomy and ensuring that decisions are made in the patient’s best interests.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman with advanced breast cancer is found to have a corrected serum calcium level of 3.2 mmol/L (normal reference range 2.62-2.8 mmol/L). Her presenting symptoms were worsening fatigue and mild confusion.
Which of the following is the most appropriate measure to recommend?Your Answer: Drink 3–4 L of fluid per day
Correct Answer: Admit to hospital or hospice
Explanation:Managing Hypercalcemia in Palliative Care: Admission, Treatment, and Diet Recommendations
Hypercalcemia, a rise in serum calcium levels, can cause a range of symptoms including weakness, anorexia, nausea, and constipation. Severe cases can lead to delirium, seizures, and coma. While some patients may not experience symptoms, hypercalcemia can be an emergency in palliative care. In cases where treatment is not appropriate, fluid replacement and bisphosphonates can alleviate distressing symptoms. However, symptomatic or moderate to severe hypercalcemia requires immediate admission to a hospital or hospice for management with intravenous fluids and bisphosphonates. A low calcium diet is unnecessary, and good hydration is the first-line treatment for mild asymptomatic hypercalcemia. Thiazide diuretics should be avoided as they can exacerbate hypercalcemia, as can lack of mobility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman in the terminal stages of cancer becomes delirious and restless.
Which of the following is the LEAST likely cause?
Your Answer: Constipation
Correct Answer: Haloperidol treatment
Explanation:Causes of Delirium and Terminal Restlessness in End-of-Life Care
Delirium and terminal restlessness are common occurrences in end-of-life care, and there are many different causes that can contribute to these symptoms. Some causes can be easily reversed, while others cannot.
Medications, such as opioids, anti-epileptic drugs, steroids, and anxiolytics, are just a few examples of medications that can cause delirium. Overuse or underuse of medications can also worsen delirium. Additionally, untreated physical pain or discomfort, dehydration, anoxia, anaemia, infections and fevers, brain tumours or swelling, urinary retention, constipation or faecal impaction, fear, anxiety, emotional turmoil, cancer treatments, and metabolic disturbances can all contribute to delirium and terminal restlessness.
To alleviate the distress of terminal confusion and restlessness, haloperidol is often given. This medication has little sedative effect and can help manage these symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 11
Incorrect
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You do a house call to see a middle-aged gentleman with advanced colon cancer. He has been complaining of a sore mouth, retrosternal discomfort and dysphagia over the last one week.
On examination he has obvious oral thrush.
Which of the following management plans is most appropriate?Your Answer: Simple advice on good oral hygiene, with symptom relief obtained from sucking on ice cubes and pineapple chunks
Correct Answer: Artificial saliva PRN
Explanation:Managing Dry Mouth in Palliative Care
Dry mouth is a common issue in palliative care, with various factors contributing to its development. If oral thrush is present, it should be treated accordingly. However, if there is no infective cause, simple measures such as good mouth care, chewing sugar-free gum, sucking ice cubes, or using artificial saliva can be effective. It is also important to review the patient’s medication, as certain drugs can cause dry mouth as a side effect, including opioids, antiemetics, and antimuscarinic drugs.
In cases where the patient experiences symptoms of retrosternal discomfort and dysphagia, it may suggest candidal oesophagitis with more extensive disease than what is visible in the mouth. In such cases, oral miconazole gel and oral nystatin suspension may not be enough, and systemic treatment with oral fluconazole is necessary. Therefore, managing dry mouth in palliative care requires a comprehensive approach that considers the underlying causes and appropriate treatment options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 12
Incorrect
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You are assessing a senior gentleman with prostate cancer. Regrettably, his pain is presently uncontrolled with co-codamol 30/500 2 tablets qds and diclofenac 50 mg tds. Your plan is to transition him to oral morphine. Can you provide the conversion factor between oral codeine and oral morphine?
Your Answer: Divide by 15
Correct Answer: Divide by 10
Explanation:Codeine can be converted to morphine by dividing its dosage by 10.
Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects include nausea, drowsiness, and constipation, which are usually transient but may persist. Denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain in addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man has metastatic prostate cancer. Because he is now experiencing excessive fatigue, some routine blood tests are performed.
Which of the following findings would raise the most concern?
Your Answer: Alanine aminotransferase 29 IU/l
Correct Answer: Calcium 3.42 mmol/l
Explanation:Interpreting Blood Test Results: A Case Study of Hypercalcaemia
The patient’s blood test results show a serum calcium concentration of 3.42 mmol/l, indicating hypercalcaemia most likely caused by cancer. This constitutes an emergency, and the patient should be immediately offered admission to the hospital. Intravenous fluids and bisphosphonates are the usual management for hypercalcaemia. The other blood test results, including alanine aminotransferase, potassium, sodium, and urea, are all within normal limits or near the upper end of the reference range and are not a cause for concern. This case study highlights the importance of recognizing significant abnormalities in blood test results, especially in emergency situations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 14
Incorrect
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John is a 85-year-old man with advanced metastatic prostate cancer who you have been managing in the community with palliative care who has died today. You fill out the death certificate. In which of the following circumstances would you be required to refer the case to the coroner?
Your Answer: If the person who died was not seen by doctor who is signing the medical certificate within 10 days of death
Correct Answer: If the person who died was not visited by a medical practitioner during their final illness
Explanation:A death should be referred to the coroner if the person who died was not visited by a medical practitioner during their final illness, if the cause of death is unknown, if the death was violent or unnatural, if the death was sudden and unexplained, if a medical certificate is not available, if the person who died wasn’t seen by the doctor who signed the medical certificate within 28 days before death or after they died, if the death occurred during an operation or before the person came out of anaesthetic, or if the medical certificate suggests the death may have been caused by an industrial disease or industrial poisoning.
Notifiable Deaths and Reporting to the Coroner
When it comes to death certification, certain deaths are considered notifiable and should be reported to the coroner. These include unexpected or sudden deaths, as well as deaths where the attending doctor did not see the deceased within 28 days prior to their passing (this was increased from 14 days during the COVID pandemic). Additionally, deaths that occur within 24 hours of hospital admission, accidents and injuries, suicide, industrial injury or disease, deaths resulting from ill treatment, starvation, or neglect, deaths occurring during an operation or before recovery from the effect of an anaesthetic, poisoning (including from illicit drugs), stillbirths where there is doubt as to whether the child was born alive, and deaths of prisoners or people in police custody are also considered notifiable.
It is important to note that these deaths should be reported to the coroner, who will then investigate the circumstances surrounding the death. This is to ensure that any potential criminal activity or negligence is properly addressed and that the cause of death is accurately determined. By reporting notifiable deaths to the coroner, we can help ensure that justice is served and that families receive the closure they need during a difficult time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 53-year-old woman who was diagnosed with lung cancer almost a year ago presents feeling progressively unwell over the last week or two.
You review her notes and see that she is under the care of the local respiratory team with a histological diagnosis of squamous cell carcinoma. The tumour is not suitable for surgical resection and the patient is being treated palliatively.
Her current medication consists of: paracetamol 1 g QDS, morphine sulphate 30 mg BD, Oramorph PRN for breakthrough pain, lactulose 15 mls BD and metoclopramide 10 mg TDS.
She describes feeling generally weak and lethargic and complains of thirst and widespread aches and pains. Her family reports that she has also been a bit more vague and slightly confused over the last few days.
Further questioning reveals that she is also suffering from some generalised abdominal pain and despite taking a regular laxative has been very constipated.
What is the underlying cause of this patient's symptoms?Your Answer: Ectopic parathyroid hormone production
Correct Answer: Anaemia
Explanation:Hypercalcaemia in a Patient with Squamous Cell Lung Carcinoma
This patient is presenting with signs and symptoms of hypercalcaemia, including confusion, lethargy, musculoskeletal aches and pains, thirst, abdominal pain, and constipation. The underlying cause of her hypercalcaemia is likely ectopic parathyroid hormone production associated with her squamous cell lung carcinoma.
It is important to consider other potential causes of her symptoms, such as anaemia or an infective cause like atypical pneumonia. However, her medication and superior vena caval obstruction are less likely to be the primary cause of her clinical picture.
Managing hypercalcaemia in patients with advanced cancer is crucial for symptom control and improving quality of life. The Scottish Palliative Care Guidelines provide recommendations for the management of hypercalcaemia, including hydration, bisphosphonates, and corticosteroids. Close monitoring and communication with the patient’s healthcare team are also essential.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 16
Incorrect
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You are requested to evaluate an elderly patient with advanced esophageal cancer. The patient has metastatic cancer and is receiving palliative care with home visits. The patient reports increasing trouble in swallowing over the past few weeks, which is now hindering their ability to consume food properly. The patient describes the feeling of food getting stuck while swallowing. There is no pain while swallowing. What is the most suitable treatment to alleviate these symptoms?
Your Answer: Hyoscine butylbromide
Correct Answer: Nifedipine
Explanation:Managing Dysphagia in Palliative Care
When managing dysphagia in a palliative care setting, it is crucial to identify the underlying cause of the condition. Depending on the cause, different treatments may be necessary. For instance, a physical obstruction caused by a tumour may require a corticosteroid such as dexamethasone, while oesophageal spasm may respond to a muscle relaxant like nifedipine or baclofen.
In the case of a patient with oesophageal cancer who experiences progressive difficulty in swallowing and food getting stuck on the way down, the most likely cause is a gradually enlarging tumour mass causing obstruction and progressive dysphagia. In this scenario, dexamethasone is the most appropriate treatment to prescribe.
It is worth noting that oesophageal spasm typically causes odynophagia in addition to dysphagia. Therefore, a careful assessment of the patient’s symptoms and medical history is necessary to determine the most effective treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 17
Incorrect
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In a 78-year-old man with dementia, which feature is the LEAST suggestive of approaching end of life (within the next 12 months)?
Your Answer: Mini Mental State Examination score <10
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Recognizing Late Stage Dementia and the Importance of Advance Care Planning
Late stage dementia is characterized by a decline in physical and cognitive abilities, making it difficult for individuals to perform activities of daily living without assistance. Indicators of late stage dementia include urinary and fecal incontinence, inability to walk without assistance, and a lack of meaningful conversation. A Barthel score of less than three is also a sign of late stage dementia. Other signs include weight loss, urinary tract infections, severe pressure sores, recurrent fever, reduced oral intake, and aspiration pneumonia.
It is important to note that a Mini-Mental State examination score of less than 10 indicates severe dementia, but not necessarily that the patient is in decline towards death. However, it is crucial to discuss with dementia patients while they still have mental capacity how they would like the later stages of their care managed. Advance care planning can help ensure that their wishes are respected and that they receive the appropriate care and support during this difficult time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old male with multiple myeloma is currently suffering from sudden onset of back pain. He is taking 7.5mg morphine four times a day and 1g paracetamol four times a day as his regular oral analgesic medications. What is the appropriate dose of morphine for breakthrough pain in this case?
Your Answer: 7.5mg
Correct Answer: 5mg
Explanation:The breakthrough dose is calculated as 1/6th of the daily morphine dose, which is equivalent to 5mg (30 mg total daily dose divided by 6).
Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects include nausea, drowsiness, and constipation, which are usually transient but may persist. Denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain in addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 19
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a patient with advanced breast cancer. The patient has asked you to fill out a DS1500 form. When is it appropriate to complete this form?
Your Answer: When life expectancy is < 4 months
Correct Answer:
Explanation:When an individual’s life expectancy is less than 6 months, a DS1500 form is filled out to expedite the process of receiving benefit payments.
Patients who suffer from chronic illnesses or cancer and require assistance with caring for themselves may be eligible for benefits. Those under the age of 65 can claim Personal Independence Payment (PIP), while those aged 65 and over can claim Attendance Allowance (AA). PIP is tax-free and divided into two components: daily living and mobility. Patients must have a long-term health condition or disability and have difficulties with activities related to daily living and/or mobility for at least 3 months, with an expectation that these difficulties will last for at least 9 months. AA is also tax-free and is for those who need help with personal care. Patients should have needed help for at least 6 months to claim AA.
Patients who have a terminal illness and are not expected to live for more than 6 months can be fast-tracked through the system for claiming incapacity benefit (IB), employment support allowance (ESA), DLA or AA. A DS1500 form is completed by a hospital or hospice consultant, which contains questions about the diagnosis, clinical features, treatment, and whether the patient is aware of the condition/prognosis. The form is given directly to the patient and a fee is payable by the Department for Works and Pensions (DWP) for its completion. This ensures that the application is dealt with promptly and that the patient automatically receives the higher rate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A syringe driver is ordered for a patient who is in the final stages of metastatic breast cancer. Which of the following medications is not compatible with dexamethasone, metoclopramide, and midazolam?
Your Answer: Diamorphine
Correct Answer: Cyclizine
Explanation:Several drugs are incompatible with cyclizine when used in syringe drivers.
When a patient in palliative care is unable to take oral medication due to various reasons such as nausea, dysphagia, intestinal obstruction, weakness or coma, a syringe driver should be considered. In the UK, there are two main types of syringe drivers: Graseby MS16A (blue) and Graseby MS26 (green). The delivery rate for the former is given in mm per hour, while the latter is given in mm per 24 hours.
Most drugs are compatible with water for injection, but for certain drugs such as granisetron, ketamine, ketorolac, octreotide, and ondansetron, sodium chloride 0.9% is recommended. Commonly used drugs for various symptoms include cyclizine, levomepromazine, haloperidol, metoclopramide for nausea and vomiting, hyoscine hydrobromide, hyoscine butylbromide, or glycopyrronium bromide for respiratory secretions/bowel colic, midazolam, haloperidol, levomepromazine for agitation/restlessness, and diamorphine as the preferred opioid for pain.
When mixing drugs, diamorphine is compatible with most other drugs used, including dexamethasone, haloperidol, hyoscine butylbromide, hyoscine hydrobromide, levomepromazine, metoclopramide, and midazolam. However, cyclizine may precipitate with diamorphine when given at higher doses, and it is incompatible with a number of drugs such as clonidine, dexamethasone, hyoscine butylbromide (occasional), ketamine, ketorolac, metoclopramide, midazolam, octreotide, and sodium chloride 0.9%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 21
Incorrect
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You are conducting a cancer care assessment on an elderly woman with an advanced brain tumor. She has previously undergone radiotherapy and chemotherapy, but these treatments did not have a significant effect on her condition. Her primary concerns are vertigo and nausea.
Which antiemetic would be the most suitable to recommend?Your Answer: Metoclopramide
Correct Answer: Ondansetron
Explanation:Antiemetics in Palliative Care
A variety of antiemetics are used in palliative care to treat nausea and vomiting. However, the underlying cause of the symptoms should be determined to guide which particular treatment is most appropriate. For patients with co-existent vertigo, an antiemetic with antihistamine properties such as cyclizine is most suitable as it also has actions against vertigo, motion sickness, and labyrinthine disorders.
Nausea and vomiting caused by drugs or toxins and metabolic factors like hypercalcaemia may respond best to haloperidol or levomepromazine. Metoclopramide, a prokinetic, can be useful in treating symptoms due to gastric stasis. On the other hand, ondansetron, a 5-HT3 antagonist, acts at the chemoreceptor trigger zone in the brain and is used as a treatment for emetogenic chemotherapy.
In summary, the appropriate antiemetic for palliative care patients depends on the underlying cause of their nausea and vomiting. Healthcare professionals should consider the patient’s individual needs and symptoms when selecting the most suitable treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with oesophageal cancer is having difficulties with taking regular oral morphine medications. After consulting with the oncology team, it is decided to switch him to transdermal fentanyl patches. He is currently taking 50 mg twice daily of modified-release oral morphine which has been effectively managing his pain. You prescribe a fentanyl '25' patch which provides the same level of pain relief. What instructions do you give the patient when starting to use the patches?
Your Answer: Apply the patch the same time as taking the last oral morphine dose
Correct Answer: Continue to use the oral modified-release morphine for 72 hours following patch initiation
Explanation:Considerations for Drug Delivery in Palliative Care
Drug delivery is a crucial aspect to consider in palliative care, as patients may have difficulties with certain formulations or preparations. For instance, some patients may have trouble swallowing medication due to dysphagia, while others may be intolerant to specific preparations. In such cases, transdermal fentanyl and buprenorphine can be used as alternatives.
However, it’s important to note that transdermal preparations may not be suitable for patients who require treatment for acute pain or those with variable pain relief needs. This is because the route of administration affects the pharmacokinetics, resulting in a delay in achieving a steady state.
When switching from oral morphine preparations to transdermal fentanyl, the British National Formulary (BNF) provides a section on equivalent doses. For example, 60 mg daily of oral morphine equates to the fentanyl ’25’ patch. However, if the opioid problem is hyperalgesia, it’s recommended to cut the dose of the new opioid by one quarter to one half of the equivalent dose.
It’s essential to consult the palliative care section in the BNF for further details on other dose equivalencies. Fentanyl patches should be applied every 72 hours, and patients may require extra analgesia for up to 24 hours after the patch is started due to its slow onset of action. Doses of the patch can be adjusted at 72-hour intervals.
If a patient is taking a long-acting 12-hourly morphine, the patch should be applied when the last dose is given. On the other hand, if a patient is taking a short-acting morphine, it should be continued four hourly for the first 12 hours of patch use. By considering these drug delivery factors, healthcare professionals can provide effective pain relief for patients in palliative care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 23
Incorrect
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An elderly patient has a terminal illness and it is likely that the end stage of this is approaching. The General Medical Council (GMC) has produced guidance concerning treatment and care of patients coming towards the end of life.
Which of the following options conforms to the principles described by the GMC regarding end-of-life care?
Your Answer: The right to patient confidentiality can be waived
Correct Answer: Treatment decisions must start from a presumption in favour of prolonging life
Explanation:Principles for End-of-Life Decision Making
When making decisions regarding end-of-life care, it is important to adhere to certain principles. These principles include equality and human rights, which dictate that patients approaching the end of their life should receive the same quality of care as all other patients. Additionally, there should be a presumption in favor of prolonging life, meaning that decisions about potentially life-prolonging treatments should not be motivated by a desire to bring about the patient’s death. It is also important to presume capacity in terminally ill patients and to maximize their capacity to make decisions through shared decision making. Finally, when a patient lacks capacity, the overall benefit of a potentially life-prolonging treatment must be weighed against the burdens and risks for the patient, with consultation from those close to the patient. By following these principles, end-of-life decisions can be made with the patient’s best interests in mind.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 24
Incorrect
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The director of a nearby assisted living facility reaches out to your practice to notify you of the sudden passing of an 80-year-old man. He had a medical history of hypertension, ischaemic heart disease, and advanced dementia. Your last interaction with him was during a home visit 2 months ago to discuss advanced care planning, which included avoiding hospitalization and establishing a do not resuscitate order.
What is the best course of action to take following his death?Your Answer: Alert the safeguarding lead
Correct Answer: Refer the death to the coroner
Explanation:If a doctor has not seen the deceased in the 28 days prior to their death, the death must be referred to the coroner. This is a notifiable death and may require further investigation and a post-mortem. However, the first step is to refer the death to the coroner’s office. Alerting the safeguarding lead or calling 999 is not necessary in this situation, and completing the death certificate should not be done until after the coroner’s investigation is complete.
Notifiable Deaths and Reporting to the Coroner
When it comes to death certification, certain deaths are considered notifiable and should be reported to the coroner. These include unexpected or sudden deaths, as well as deaths where the attending doctor did not see the deceased within 28 days prior to their passing (this was increased from 14 days during the COVID pandemic). Additionally, deaths that occur within 24 hours of hospital admission, accidents and injuries, suicide, industrial injury or disease, deaths resulting from ill treatment, starvation, or neglect, deaths occurring during an operation or before recovery from the effect of an anaesthetic, poisoning (including from illicit drugs), stillbirths where there is doubt as to whether the child was born alive, and deaths of prisoners or people in police custody are also considered notifiable.
It is important to note that these deaths should be reported to the coroner, who will then investigate the circumstances surrounding the death. This is to ensure that any potential criminal activity or negligence is properly addressed and that the cause of death is accurately determined. By reporting notifiable deaths to the coroner, we can help ensure that justice is served and that families receive the closure they need during a difficult time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 25
Correct
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A 70-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) for a review. He has a diagnosis of advanced liver cancer. The patient undergoes a physical examination. He has lost 12 kg since his last GP review (three months ago) and reports loss of appetite, along with frequent vomiting. He has widespread muscle wasting.
Which of the following is the most important diagnostic factor for cachexia in this patient?Your Answer: Loss of muscle mass
Explanation:Understanding the Symptoms of Cancer-Related Cachexia
Cancer-related cachexia is a complex condition that involves the progressive loss of muscle mass, often accompanied by a loss of appetite and changes in taste. This condition is not reversed by standard nutritional support and can lead to functional impairment, fatigue, and respiratory complications. Skeletal muscle wasting is a common feature of many cancers, particularly those affecting the gastrointestinal tract, and is a significant contributor to cancer-related deaths. While weight loss may be present in cachexia, it is not the most specific diagnostic feature. Anorexia, on the other hand, is a common symptom that supports the diagnosis. Immobility may result from cachexia, but it is not a causal factor and can have multiple other causes. Vomiting may or may not be present in cachexia, but it can be contributory to the diagnosis. Overall, understanding the symptoms of cancer-related cachexia is crucial for early detection and management of this debilitating condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman is diagnosed with locally invasive pancreatic cancer. She has decided she doesn't want any oncological input. She lives with her husband of 50 years. She is clear she would like to be cared for at home as much possible. She comes alone to the appointment. She wants to discuss her care plans; in particular, she would like more information about a Lasting Power of Attorney (LPA) for Health and Welfare.
What is the most appropriate advice you can provide this patient?Your Answer: The appointed attorney must be someone from the donors family
Correct Answer: The appointed attorney cannot always make decision about the donor
Explanation:Understanding Lasting Power of Attorney for Health and Welfare
Lasting Power of Attorney (LPA) for Health and Welfare is a legal document that allows a person to appoint one or more attorneys to make decisions on their behalf when they are unable to do so themselves. This LPA can only be invoked when the donor loses mental capacity, which may occur if they have a living will or have been sectioned.
It is important to note that the LPA for Health and Welfare doesn’t give the attorney the right to make decisions about pensions and benefits. For such decisions, a separate LPA for Property and Financial Affairs must be considered.
Once registered, the appointed attorney can make decisions about the donor’s health and care. It is not necessary for the appointed attorney to be a family member; they can be a friend, relative, or even a professional such as a solicitor.
It is also important to renew the LPA every 12 months. The LPA will endure unless revoked by the donor while they still have mental capacity, revoked by the attorney, the donor loses mental capacity, they divorce or end a civil partnership, or they pass away.
In summary, understanding the LPA for Health and Welfare is crucial for ensuring that a person’s wishes are respected and their best interests are protected when they are unable to make decisions for themselves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman has terminal breast cancer. She has liver metastases but her pain is well controlled.
Her main symptom, however, is anxiety. She feels nervous all the time and has a tremor. She says she feels tense about almost anything. She has read that beta blockers can help people like her and asks whether they would be worthwhile.
What symptoms are beta blockers most likely to alleviate in a 55-year-old woman with terminal breast cancer and anxiety?Your Answer: Worry
Correct Answer: Psychological tension
Explanation:Beta-blockers and Anxiety Symptoms
Beta-blockers are effective in managing the autonomic symptoms of anxiety, such as tremors and palpitations. However, they are not likely to alleviate the psychological symptoms of anxiety. While beta-blockers may help with physical symptoms, other approaches may be necessary to address the emotional and cognitive aspects of anxiety. Therefore, it is important to consider a comprehensive treatment plan that includes therapy, medication, and lifestyle changes to manage anxiety effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 28
Incorrect
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The district nurses request your presence for a home visit to assess a 42-year-old woman with a fungating squamous cell skin carcinoma. She is receiving palliative care due to widespread metastatic disease.
The nurses have been attending to the wound dressing multiple times a week, but have observed that the tumour has become malodorous. What topical medications could be beneficial in this situation?Your Answer: Povidine-iodine
Correct Answer: Aciclovir
Explanation:Managing Malodorous Fungating Tumours with Metronidazole
Fungating tumours require meticulous nursing care, including regular dressings and frequent monitoring. However, in cases where the tumour emits a foul odour, additional measures may be necessary. Metronidazole is a medication that can be used to reduce malodour in these instances. It can be administered both systemically and topically, with the latter being the preferred method.
Topical metronidazole is typically applied to the wound once or twice a day. This medication has been found to have good activity against anaerobic bacteria, which are often responsible for the unpleasant odour associated with fungating tumours. Other treatment options are unlikely to be effective in managing malodour in these cases.
In summary, managing malodorous fungating tumours requires a comprehensive approach that includes good nursing care and the use of appropriate medications such as metronidazole. By following these guidelines, patients can experience improved quality of life and greater comfort during their palliative care journey.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 29
Incorrect
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You are called to see a palliative care patient who is homebound and receiving care from the district nurses and community palliative care nurses. The primary diagnosis is lung cancer and symptom control is currently being achieved with the use of a syringe driver. The reason for the call today is that the patient's 85-year-old mother has had three seizures in the last 24 hours. The patient is for palliative treatment only and neither she nor her family want her to be admitted to the hospital. You review the current medications being administered via the syringe driver and see that she is being given diamorphine, cyclizine, and hyoscine hydrobromide.
Which of the following treatment plans is most appropriate?Your Answer: Diazepam 10 mg rectally PRN
Correct Answer: Phenytoin 300 mg daily taken orally
Explanation:Treatment Options for Seizures in Palliative Care
In palliative care, patients may experience seizures which can be distressing for both the patient and their family. To prevent further fits and provide symptom palliation, treatment is necessary. However, the method of administration must be considered as the patient may already be receiving medication via a syringe driver. Oral preparations may not be absorbed adequately, and phenytoin is not the medication of choice in this setting. Benzodiazepines can provide palliation of anxiety, restlessness, and breathlessness, as well as treat seizures. However, intramuscular and rectal administration of medication can be uncomfortable for the patient.
Midazolam is the benzodiazepine antiepileptic of choice for use as a continuous subcutaneous infusion. It is typically administered at initial doses of 20-40 mg over 24 hours. Lorazepam and diazepam also have their roles in palliative care, but they may be preferable in different situations, especially if delivery is by an alternative route to subcutaneous infusion and as required use is indicated for more infrequent symptoms. Overall, the choice of treatment for seizures in palliative care should be carefully considered to ensure the patient’s comfort and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 30
Incorrect
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You are seeing a 58-year-old woman who has been diagnosed with early invasive breast cancer which is oestrogen-receptor-positive. Her oncologist is treating her with anastrozole 1 mg daily. Which one of the following is the most common side effect of anastrozole?
Your Answer: Interstitial nephritis
Correct Answer: Bone fractures
Explanation:Anastrozole Side Effects According to BNF
The British National Formulary (BNF) is often used as a reference for setting questions in the AKT exam. One of the topics that may be tested is the side effects of medications. The BNF categorizes side effects based on their frequency, ranging from very common to very rare. Anastrozole is a medication used in the adjuvant treatment of oestrogen-receptor-positive early invasive breast cancer in postmenopausal women. However, it is contraindicated for premenopausal treatment. According to the BNF, bone fractures are common or very common side effects of Anastrozole. On the other hand, vasculitis and angioedema are very rare side effects. Notably, interstitial nephritis and interstitial pneumonitis are not listed as side effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 31
Incorrect
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Which prescription contains the highest opioid dosage?
Your Answer: Transdermal fentanyl patch 12 micrograms an hour
Correct Answer: Modified-release morphine 30 mg BD orally
Explanation:Opioid Equivalencies: Understanding Dosage Comparisons
When it comes to managing pain, patients may need to use different routes of administration as their disease progresses. This is where opioid equivalencies come into play. By considering 24 hour dose equivalencies, healthcare professionals can make accurate comparisons between different opioids.
For example, modified-release oral morphine 30 mg BD is equivalent to 60 mg of oral morphine over 24 hours. To convert subcutaneous diamorphine to oral morphine, simply multiply by 3. Therefore, 10 mg (subcutaneously via syringe driver over 24 hours) × 3 = 30 mg of oral morphine over a 24 hour period.
Immediate-release morphine 10 mg QDS is equivalent to 40 mg over a 24 hour period. Oxycodone is twice as strong as oral morphine salts for the equivalent dose, so 10 mg BD of oral oxycodone is equivalent to 40 mg oral morphine over 24 hours.
Transdermal fentanyl patches have equivalencies to oral morphine listed in the BNF for ease of reference. A fentanyl ’12’ patch is equivalent to 30 mg of oral morphine salt a day. Overall, understanding opioid equivalencies is crucial for effective pain management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 32
Correct
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What is the Gold Standards Framework (GSF) and what does it enable for people nearing the end of their lives?
Your Answer: It involves an anticipatory approach to care
Explanation:The Gold Standards Framework: A Framework for Anticipatory End-of-Life Care
The Gold Standards Framework (GSF) was originally designed for use in primary care, but has since been adapted for use in care homes and nursing homes. Its anticipatory approach to care has been shown to have positive effects on pain and symptom control, and improved planning has helped to prevent some hospital admissions. The GSF is not a prescriptive model, but rather a framework that can be tailored to meet local needs and resources. It can also be adapted for patients with non-cancer diagnoses who require end-of-life care. Ultimately, the GSF aims to help patients live and die well in their preferred place of care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 33
Correct
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A 70-year-old man with advanced colonic cancer becomes cachectic. He is still living at home and is troubled by his lack of appetite and rapid weight loss. There are no obvious reversible problems (eg pain, medication, vomiting, reflux), and his examination shows no acute issues such as bowel obstruction. Blood tests are unremarkable, other than long-standing anaemia and low albumin levels.
Which of the following drugs is most likely to be beneficial for patients with anorexia/cachexia?Your Answer: Dexamethasone
Explanation:Treatment Options for Anorexia/Cachexia Syndrome in Palliative Care
The anorexia/cachexia syndrome is a complex metabolic process that occurs in the end stages of many illnesses, resulting in loss of appetite, weight loss, and muscle wasting. While drugs can be used to improve quality of life, their benefits may be limited or temporary. Corticosteroids, such as dexamethasone, are a commonly used treatment option for short-term improvement of appetite, nausea, energy levels, and overall wellbeing. However, their effects tend to decrease after 3-4 weeks. Proton pump inhibitors, like omeprazole, should be co-prescribed for gastric protection. Amitriptyline is unlikely to be beneficial in these circumstances, but may be useful for depression or neuropathic pain. Cyclizine may help with nausea, but doesn’t have a role in anorexia/cachexia. Levomepromazine is commonly used for end-of-life care to alleviate nausea, but is unlikely to target anorexia or cachexia specifically. Overall, treatment options for anorexia/cachexia syndrome in palliative care should be carefully considered and tailored to each individual patient’s needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old lady comes to the clinic seeking guidance regarding her potential risk of developing cancer. She has received proper treatment for CIN II, is a former smoker, and currently takes the combined oral contraceptive pill. Her two paternal aunts passed away from ovarian carcinoma at ages 40 and 48. What is the primary predisposing factor for ovarian cancer in this patient?
Your Answer: Smoking history
Correct Answer: Oral contraceptive therapy
Explanation:Understanding the Risk Factors for Developing Breast Cancer
Breast cancer is a prevalent disease that affects 1.4% of the overall population. However, the risk of developing breast cancer increases with a family history of the disease. The number of affected first-degree relatives and their age at diagnosis can significantly impact the risk. For instance, having one affected first-degree relative increases the risk to 4-5%, while having two close relatives affected raises the risk to 7%.
Women with BRCA1 mutation have a 40% carrier risk of developing carcinoma, while those with BRCA2 have a 25% risk. Additionally, women who have had many ovulations, early menarche, and nullipara are more likely to develop breast cancer. However, the use of the combined oral contraceptive pill is associated with a reduced risk of developing the disease.
In summary, understanding the risk factors for developing breast cancer is crucial in taking preventive measures and seeking early diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man has metastatic disease following a carcinoma of the lung. He has been discharged to be cared for at home as per his wishes and has a home visit from his general practitioner. He is not eating or drinking and has a syringe driver of morphine and cyclizine to manage symptoms. His conscious level is variable.
Which of the following signs would indicate that he is entering the last days of life?
Your Answer: Rectal bleeding
Correct Answer: Cheyne-Stokes breathing
Explanation:Understanding Symptoms in Palliative Care: Indicators of End-of-Life
As a patient approaches the end of their life, it can be difficult to determine the exact moment of passing. However, certain symptoms may indicate that the end is near. Cheyne-Stokes breathing, characterized by cycles of increasingly deep and shallow respiration with possible periods of apnea, is a poor prognostic sign often seen in palliative care. Rectal bleeding may indicate progression of colorectal carcinoma, but doesn’t necessarily indicate the end of life. Abdominal distension may be related to the cancer or constipation caused by pain medication, but is not an indicator of prognosis. Grand mal seizures may require further investigation or treatment, but do not necessarily give an idea of prognosis. Pain management should be regularly reviewed, but the amount of pain doesn’t necessarily correlate with entering the end-of-life phase. Understanding these symptoms can help healthcare providers provide appropriate care and support for patients and their families during this difficult time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 36
Correct
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You are asked to prescribe diamorphine to go into a syringe driver for a 85-year-old gentleman with terminal metastatic colorectal cancer. He is currently taking a total of 100 mg of oral morphine over 24 hours.
Having calculated the correct dose of diamorphine for his syringe driver over 24 hours, what dose of subcutaneous diamorphine would you prescribe for breakthrough pain?Your Answer: 5 mg
Explanation:Drug Dose Calculations
Calculating drug doses can be a challenging task, especially when it comes to converting between different medications and routes of administration. One common question in medical exams involves calculating the appropriate dose of a medication for a patient.
To answer this question correctly, there are several steps to follow. Firstly, the total oral dose of morphine must be converted to diamorphine. Then, the breakthrough dose of subcutaneous diamorphine must be calculated, not the oral morphine dose.
To calculate the 24-hour dose of diamorphine for a patient, the total daily dose of oral morphine should be divided by 3. For example, if a patient is taking 90 mg of oral morphine over 24 hours, this is equivalent to 30 mg of diamorphine over 24 hours by syringe driver.
According to the BNF, the subcutaneous dose for breakthrough pain should be between one sixth and one tenth of the 24-hour dose. Therefore, for this patient, the correct breakthrough dose of subcutaneous diamorphine would be between 3 mg and 5 mg.
It is important to note that drug dose calculations are a common area of weakness in medical exams. Examiners often include questions on this topic, and it is essential for healthcare professionals to have a good understanding of how to calculate drug doses accurately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 37
Incorrect
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You are requested by district nurses to visit a patient at home to assess his medication. He is an 80-year-old man with terminal prostate cancer and widespread metastases. His pain is currently well managed by taking Morphine Sulphate SR tablets, 60mg twice a day. However, his overall condition has deteriorated, and he is experiencing difficulty swallowing the tablets, as well as increased agitation. Your recommendation is to initiate a syringe driver containing Diamorphine and a small dose of Midazolam subcutaneously to replace the oral Morphine tablets. What would be the appropriate dosage of sc Diamorphine to prescribe over a 24-hour period?
Your Answer: 60 mg
Correct Answer: 10 mg
Explanation:Converting Oral Morphine to SC Diamorphine: A Guide
When converting oral Morphine to SC Diamorphine, it is important to remember that the 24-hour total SC Diamorphine dose required will be approximately one-third of the 24-hour total oral Morphine dose. This means that the ratio of Morphine PO to Diamorphine SC is 3:1.
For example, if a patient is taking MST SR 60 mg bd, which is a total of 120 mg/24 hrs PO, the 24-hour total Diamorphine SC dose required will be 120/3 = 40 mg. It is crucial to double-check the direction of your conversion to avoid calculation errors.
Prescribing medication can be a complex process, and it is important to take the necessary precautions to ensure accuracy and patient safety. By following this guide, healthcare professionals can confidently convert oral Morphine to SC Diamorphine with ease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man comes to the clinic for a review of his cancer. He has advanced and progressive prostate cancer but is currently able to get out of the house with his family.
Which of the following features would most strongly suggest that he has entered the final stage of the illness and that death is near?
Your Answer: Hypercalcaemia
Correct Answer: He becomes bed-bound
Explanation:Recognizing the Signs of Dying: What to Look For
Recognizing the signs of dying is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients and their caregivers during the end-of-life phase. This final phase can last for hours or even days, and patients may exhibit several signs that indicate they are nearing death.
One of the most common signs is a gradual deterioration in their condition, which may occur over several days or even more rapidly. Patients may also experience reduced mobility and become increasingly fatigued without any apparent cause. They may also become aware of their impending death and express this to their caregivers.
Other signs include reduced cognition, difficulty communicating, and social withdrawal. Patients may also experience a decline in their level of consciousness, become delirious, and become bed-bound. They may also have difficulty taking food, fluids, and oral medication.
As death approaches, patients may exhibit peripheral cyanosis, mottled skin, and feel cold to the touch. They may also experience episodes of apnea or Cheyne-Stokes breathing.
While the four incorrect options may also be present near death, they do not necessarily indicate that death is imminent. However, recognizing the signs of dying can help caregivers provide appropriate care and support during this difficult time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 39
Incorrect
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You assess a 73-year-old man with metastatic bowel cancer who is in the final stage and has a syringe driver. Regrettably, he is experiencing intestinal obstruction and is distressed with bowel colic. Which medication should be included in the syringe driver?
Your Answer: Morphine
Correct Answer: Hyoscine butylbromide
Explanation:Hyoscine hydrobromide, hyoscine butylbromide, or glycopyrronium bromide can be used to treat respiratory secretions and bowel colic with syringe drivers.
When a patient in palliative care is unable to take oral medication due to various reasons such as nausea, dysphagia, intestinal obstruction, weakness or coma, a syringe driver should be considered. In the UK, there are two main types of syringe drivers: Graseby MS16A (blue) and Graseby MS26 (green). The delivery rate for the former is given in mm per hour, while the latter is given in mm per 24 hours.
Most drugs are compatible with water for injection, but for certain drugs such as granisetron, ketamine, ketorolac, octreotide, and ondansetron, sodium chloride 0.9% is recommended. Commonly used drugs for various symptoms include cyclizine, levomepromazine, haloperidol, metoclopramide for nausea and vomiting, hyoscine hydrobromide, hyoscine butylbromide, or glycopyrronium bromide for respiratory secretions/bowel colic, midazolam, haloperidol, levomepromazine for agitation/restlessness, and diamorphine as the preferred opioid for pain.
When mixing drugs, diamorphine is compatible with most other drugs used, including dexamethasone, haloperidol, hyoscine butylbromide, hyoscine hydrobromide, levomepromazine, metoclopramide, and midazolam. However, cyclizine may precipitate with diamorphine when given at higher doses, and it is incompatible with a number of drugs such as clonidine, dexamethasone, hyoscine butylbromide (occasional), ketamine, ketorolac, metoclopramide, midazolam, octreotide, and sodium chloride 0.9%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A surgery hires a Nurse Practitioner (NP) to care for a nearby nursing home. The GPs only visit when requested by the NPs. An 87-year-old woman with dementia contracts a chest infection. Following discussions with her family, the NP decides to treat her with oral antibiotics but not to admit her. She passes away two days later, and a GP from the local out-of-hours service confirms her death. The woman's last GP visit was five weeks ago. What should be done in this situation?
Your Answer: Patients registered GP completes a death certificate, 1a 'Bronchopneumonia'
Correct Answer: Report the death to the Coroner
Explanation:As the patient was not examined by a physician during the final 28 days of their illness, it is necessary to report their death.
Death Certification in the UK
There are no legal definitions of death in the UK, but guidelines exist to verify it. According to the current guidance, a doctor or other qualified personnel should verify death, and nurse practitioners may verify but not certify it. After a patient has died, a doctor needs to complete a medical certificate of cause of death (MCCD). However, there is a list of circumstances in which a doctor should notify the Coroner before completing the MCCD.
When completing the MCCD, it is important to note that old age as 1a is only acceptable if the patient was at least 80 years old. Natural causes is not acceptable, and organ failure can only be used if the disease or condition that led to the organ failure is specified. Abbreviations should be avoided, except for HIV and AIDS.
Once the MCCD is completed, the family takes it to the local Registrar of Births, Deaths, and Marriages office to register the death. If the Registrar decides that the death doesn’t need reporting to the Coroner, he/she will issue a certificate for Burial or Cremation and a certificate of Registration of Death for Social Security purposes. Copies of the Death Register are also available upon request, which banks and insurance companies expect to see. If the family wants the burial to be outside of England, an Out of England Order is needed from the coroner.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man has inoperable small-cell lung cancer but has been reasonably well. He has a forthcoming hospital appointment. He reports no significant symptoms other than his long-standing persistent cough. His General Practitioner (GP) requests some blood tests as per his consultant’s last letter.
Which of the following results would raise the most concern in this patient?
Your Answer: Urea 10.0 mmol/l (2.5–8.8 mmol/l)
Correct Answer: Calcium 3.14 mmol/l (normal range 2.20–2.60 mmol/l)
Explanation:Interpreting Blood Test Results in Palliative Care Patients
When interpreting blood test results in palliative care patients, it is important to consider the context and urgency of each abnormal result. In this case, the serum calcium level is the most concerning, as it is significantly elevated and could indicate symptomatic hypercalcaemia. Immediate admission to a hospital or hospice is recommended, along with intravenous fluid replacement and bisphosphonate treatment. The alkaline phosphatase level is also elevated, but further investigation is needed to determine the source. The slightly low potassium level can be monitored with routine testing, while the slight hyponatraemia may be normal for the patient or repeated non-urgently. A slightly elevated urea level may indicate mild dehydration or renal impairment, but is not significant enough to require emergency treatment. Overall, careful consideration of each abnormal result is necessary in order to provide appropriate care for palliative care patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 42
Incorrect
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The importance of comprehending the function of grief in palliative care lies in aiding patients and their caregivers in managing it. What is the typically acknowledged sequence of the phases of bereavement?
Your Answer: Anger, denial, bargaining, depression, acceptance
Correct Answer: Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance
Explanation:Understanding the Five Stages of Grief: Insights from Dr. Elisabeth Kübler-Ross
Dr. Elisabeth Kübler-Ross is known for her pioneering work in supporting and counseling individuals experiencing personal trauma, grief, and grieving, particularly in relation to death and dying. Her ideas, particularly the five stages of grief model, have been widely used to help people cope with emotional upheavals resulting from various life events.
The first stage is denial, which involves a conscious or unconscious refusal to accept the reality of the situation. This can be a defense mechanism that some people use to cope with traumatic changes. However, denial can also hinder the healing process if it is not addressed.
The second stage is anger, which can manifest in different ways. People may direct their anger towards themselves or others, especially those close to them. It is important to understand that anger is a natural response to grief and to remain non-judgmental when dealing with someone who is upset.
The third stage is bargaining, which often involves attempting to make deals with a higher power or trying to negotiate a better outcome. However, this rarely provides a sustainable solution for grief.
The fourth stage is depression, which can include feelings of sadness, regret, fear, and uncertainty. It is a sign that the person is beginning to accept the reality of the situation.
The final stage is acceptance, which varies depending on the individual’s circumstances. It is an indication that the person has achieved some emotional detachment and objectivity. People who are dying may enter this stage long before their loved ones, and they must go through their own unique stages of grief.
While Kübler-Ross’s concepts were developed through extensive interviews with dying patients, some have criticized her one-size-fits-all approach as being too simplistic. Not everyone will experience all of these stages, and they may not occur in a specific order. Nonetheless, understanding these stages can provide valuable insights into the grieving process and help individuals cope with emotional upheavals resulting from various life events.
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This question is part of the following fields:
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Question 43
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old gentleman with a history of lung cancer is brought to your clinic by his family with complaints of 'depression'. He has been receiving treatment for his lung cancer for several months now and was doing well both physically and emotionally. However, his family noticed a sudden change in his behavior yesterday. He became withdrawn, quiet, and tearful, which is not typical of his usual self. There was no apparent trigger for this change, and he had plans to visit his family in the coming days.
Upon examination, he appears withdrawn and quiet, and he reports not knowing why he feels the way he does. He is apyrexial, and there are no physical findings to explain his symptoms.
What would be the most appropriate management plan for this patient?Your Answer: Start a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor and arrange to review the patient in one week
Correct Answer: Contact the community palliative care nurse to arrange a domiciliary visit for support and advice
Explanation:Acute Personality Change in Lung Cancer Patients: A Possible Sign of Cerebral Metastases
When a patient with known lung cancer experiences an acute personality change, it is important to consider the possibility of cerebral metastases. While depression associated with the condition may be a factor, an abrupt shift in behavior without an obvious trigger warrants immediate specialist assessment. This was the case for a real patient with lung cancer who presented with withdrawal and quietness, and was found to have brain metastases on CT imaging.
According to a review of psychiatric aspects of brain tumors, changes in behavior and personality are common in patients with cerebral metastases. These changes can include depression, anxiety, irritability, and apathy. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these potential symptoms and to promptly refer patients for further evaluation and treatment. By doing so, patients can receive appropriate care and support to manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 44
Correct
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A 16-year-old girl presents with chronic leg pain and is diagnosed with an osteosarcoma.
Which of the following is true of osteosarcoma?Your Answer: Typical punched out lesion seen on x ray
Explanation:Osteosarcomas: A Bone Cancer that Affects Long Bones
Osteosarcomas are a type of bone cancer that primarily affects the metaphysis of long bones, with the knee and proximal humerus being the most commonly affected areas. Although they are more commonly seen in young adults, they can also occur in the elderly in association with Paget’s disease. The most common symptoms of osteosarcomas are bone pain and a palpable lump.
When an x-ray is taken, periosteal elevation (known as Codman’s triangle) and a ‘sunburst’ appearance due to soft tissue involvement are typically seen. Early haematogenous spread is common, and the 5-year survival rate is approximately 50%.
Overall, osteosarcomas are a serious form of bone cancer that require prompt diagnosis and treatment. By understanding the symptoms and diagnostic features of this condition, patients and healthcare providers can work together to develop an effective treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 45
Incorrect
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Ms. Smith is a 62-year-old woman with lung cancer. She has a husband and two children; her son has been closely involved in decision making regarding her care throughout her illness and she has previously conferred Power of Attorney for Health and Welfare to him, whereas her daughter only visits very infrequently.
Ms. Smith has been very clear that she wishes not to receive artificial ventilation if she were to lose capacity. She is worried that her daughter will want to do anything she can to keep her alive. Therefore, Ms. Smith completed an Advance Decision to Refuse Treatment (ADRT) stating she wishes not to receive artificial ventilation at the end of life.
What conclusions can you draw regarding the ARDT?Your Answer: His wife, as next of kin, can override the ADRT
Correct Answer: It will come in to force as soon as Mr James signs it
Explanation:Advance Decisions to Refuse Treatment (ADRTs)
An Advance Decision to Refuse Treatment (ADRT) is a legally binding document that comes into force once a person loses capacity. It is applicable and valid, and family members cannot override it. It is important to note that there is no legal definition of next of kin.
For an ADRT that refuses potentially life-sustaining treatment to be valid, it must be written, signed, and witnessed. It should also include a statement indicating that the person completing the ADRT accepts the consequences, even if it means their life is at risk.
A Lasting Power of Attorney for Health and Welfare can only override the ADRT if it was made after the ADRT and the attorney has the authority to give or refuse consent for treatment related to the ADRT.
It is essential to complete an ADRT when one is 18 years or older and has the capacity to do so. The document comes into force when the person loses capacity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 83-year-old woman is terminally ill with metastatic breast cancer. Her General Practitioner (GP) reviews her at her home, with her family present. There is a discussion around treatment escalation, and a ‘just-in-case box’ is prescribed. The GP explains that in the last days of life, a syringe driver may be helpful to control symptoms such as pain, agitation, breathlessness or nausea.
Which of the following drugs is suitable for continuous subcutaneous infusion?
Your Answer: Prochlorperazine
Correct Answer: Glycopyrronium
Explanation:Continuous Subcutaneous Infusions in Palliative Care: Medications to Consider and Avoid
Continuous subcutaneous infusions are a popular method of delivering medications in palliative care when other modes of delivery are no longer suitable. This method involves administering medication into the fatty tissue under the skin, providing constant dosing over a calculated period of time. Commonly used drugs include opioids, antiemetics, anticholinergics, sedatives, and others such as dexamethasone, ketorolac, ketamine, and octreotide. However, some medications are not suitable for subcutaneous infusion. Amoxicillin can damage tissue and is unlikely to have a role in end-of-life care. Chlorpromazine and prochlorperazine must not be given by this route as they may cause tissue necrosis. Diazepam can also cause tissue necrosis and should be avoided, with midazolam being the preferred benzodiazepine for subcutaneous infusion if needed. It is important to consider the suitability of medications for continuous subcutaneous infusion in palliative care to ensure safe and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 47
Incorrect
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What is the correct order of relative potency, from least to most potent, for these opioid analgesics, considering that diamorphine is typically administered parenterally while the others are usually given orally?
Your Answer: Codeine, oxycodone, diamorphine, morphine
Correct Answer: Codeine, morphine, oxycodone, diamorphine
Explanation:Understanding the Potencies of Opioid Analgesics
It is crucial to have a good understanding of the relative potencies of opioid analgesics as patients may need to switch from one opioid to another or from one route of administration to another.
Codeine is the weakest opioid on the list and is often prescribed alone or in combination with paracetamol in co-codamol preparations.
Oxycodone is twice as potent as oral morphine salts for the same dose. When converting between the two, the dose of oral morphine needs to be halved to provide the equivalent dose of oxycodone.
Diamorphine is the most potent opioid listed and is typically administered subcutaneously to palliate terminal symptoms. To convert from oral morphine to subcutaneous diamorphine, the 24-hour oral morphine dose should be divided by 3 to give an approximate equivalent 24-hour dose of diamorphine. To convert from oral oxycodone to subcutaneous diamorphine, the 24-hour oxycodone dose should be divided by 1.5. For example, oxycodone 7.5 mg equals 5 mg diamorphine.
Understanding the potencies of opioid analgesics is essential for healthcare professionals to provide safe and effective pain management for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 48
Incorrect
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You are evaluating an elderly gentleman with metastatic prostate cancer. He has bony metastases affecting his pelvis and has been experiencing a persistent pain in his groin that he describes as a combination of burning and shooting. Despite taking paracetamol 1 g QDS and codeine 60mg QDS regularly, he has found that his current medication doesn't effectively alleviate this new pain. He has been struggling with this pain for the past few weeks and has sought advice due to its persistent nature and the failure of his current medication. What is the most appropriate medication to add to his treatment regimen for this symptom?
Your Answer: Lidocaine medicated plasters OD
Correct Answer: Ibuprofen 400 mg TDS
Explanation:Treatment Options for Neuropathic Pain
Neuropathic pain is often described as burning or shooting pain and can be difficult to manage with traditional painkillers. However, there are several treatment options available.
Tricyclic antidepressants like amitriptyline are commonly used and can be started at a low dose of 10-25 mg at night, with the option to increase up to 75 mg under specialist advice. Other nerve painkillers like gabapentin, pregabalin, and carbamazepine may also be effective.
If a tumour is compressing a nerve, dexamethasone may be useful to reduce tumour oedema. Nerve blocks can also be an option for localized pain. However, NSAIDs like ibuprofen are not effective for neuropathic pain.
Opioids like tramadol and oxycodone can be used with some success, but they only have a partial effect on neuropathic symptoms. Immediate release morphine is not preferable to amitriptyline, and regular medication is more appropriate.
Lidocaine plasters can be useful for post-herpetic neuralgia, but they are not a first-line therapy for neuropathic pain. Finally, oxybutinin can be helpful in treating bladder spasm.
In summary, there are several treatment options available for neuropathic pain, and it may take some trial and error to find the most effective one for each individual patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with mouth issues. He is currently undergoing chemotherapy for lung cancer. Upon examination, the doctor observes an ulcerated, erythematous, and sore mouth. The patient mentions that he can still consume solid food. What is the most probable reason for this patient's symptoms?
Your Answer: Herpes zoster infection
Correct Answer: Oral mucositis
Explanation:Common Oral Conditions in Myelosuppressed Patients
Myelosuppressed patients, particularly those undergoing cancer treatment, are at a high risk of developing oral complications. One of the most common conditions is oral mucositis, which can occur in up to 70% of patients undergoing stem cell transplantation. This painful condition is caused by a combination of factors, including chemotherapy or radiotherapy damage, the oral environment, myelosuppression, and genetic predisposition. Symptoms include burning, erythema, and ulcerations in the mouth, which can impact the patient’s nutritional status and require supportive treatment with oral hygiene, mucosal-coating agents, and analgesia.
Other oral conditions that may affect myelosuppressed patients include herpes zoster infection, candidiasis, herpes simplex infection, and Stevens-Johnson syndrome. Candidiasis is the most frequent oral infection in myelosuppressed patients, presenting as white patches on the gums, tongue, and inside the mouth. Herpes simplex virus 1 (HSV-1) is another common viral infection that causes ulcers on the lips. Herpes zoster infection can involve the mouth and skin, while Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a potentially fatal skin reaction caused by drugs, presenting with macules, target lesions, and bullae affecting the skin and mucosal surfaces.
In conclusion, myelosuppressed patients are at a high risk of developing various oral complications, which can impact their quality of life and require supportive treatment. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these conditions and provide appropriate management to improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man has been recently diagnosed with terminal pancreatic cancer. His son attends with the patient and requests more support at home. When would it be appropriate to complete a DS1500 form?
Your Answer: Death expected within 12 months
Correct Answer: Death expected within 6 months
Explanation:If a patient or their representative believes that the patient may have a terminal illness, they can request a form DS1500 to be issued. According to Social Security legislation, a terminal illness is a disease that is advancing and is expected to result in death within six months.
Patients who suffer from chronic illnesses or cancer and require assistance with caring for themselves may be eligible for benefits. Those under the age of 65 can claim Personal Independence Payment (PIP), while those aged 65 and over can claim Attendance Allowance (AA). PIP is tax-free and divided into two components: daily living and mobility. Patients must have a long-term health condition or disability and have difficulties with activities related to daily living and/or mobility for at least 3 months, with an expectation that these difficulties will last for at least 9 months. AA is also tax-free and is for those who need help with personal care. Patients should have needed help for at least 6 months to claim AA.
Patients who have a terminal illness and are not expected to live for more than 6 months can be fast-tracked through the system for claiming incapacity benefit (IB), employment support allowance (ESA), DLA or AA. A DS1500 form is completed by a hospital or hospice consultant, which contains questions about the diagnosis, clinical features, treatment, and whether the patient is aware of the condition/prognosis. The form is given directly to the patient and a fee is payable by the Department for Works and Pensions (DWP) for its completion. This ensures that the application is dealt with promptly and that the patient automatically receives the higher rate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 51
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man currently under the care of local cancer services, and being treated with chemotherapy for Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma, presents to the general practice clinic with a cough and sore throat, which have persisted for two days.
On examination, his temperature is 38.2 oC. His pulse is 88 bpm, while his blood pressure (BP) is 110/65 mmHg. His respiratory rate is 20 breaths per minute, while his oxygen saturations are 97% on air. He is alert and his chest examination is normal. He has no known allergies.
What is the most appropriate next step in this patient's management?Your Answer: Contact the local Oncology Unit for advice
Correct Answer: Arrange emergency admission
Explanation:Management of a Patient at Risk of Neutropenia with a NEWS2 Score of 5
When managing a patient at risk of neutropenia with a NEWS2 score of 5, it is important to arrange emergency admission for assessment in secondary care to establish whether any supportive treatment is required. The NEWS2 score is a tool developed by the Royal College of Physicians that considers a patient’s vital signs and level of consciousness to improve the detection and response to clinical deterioration in adult patients.
If the patient’s NEWS2 score aggregate is <4, they may be treated in the community with oral antibiotics such as doxycycline 100 mg once a day for seven days. However, if the patient's NEWS2 score is 5, urgent review in secondary care is necessary. In this case, prescribing 500 mg amoxicillin orally twice a day for seven days may be appropriate. While advice from the local Oncology Unit may be beneficial in cases of a raised temperature, stable patients with a NEWS2 score of 5 require urgent review and should not delay seeking medical attention. Self-care and antipyretics may be appropriate for immunocompetent patients with a low risk of sepsis indicated by a NEWS2 score <3.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 52
Incorrect
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When administering diamorphine, which drug should be given using a separate syringe driver?
Your Answer: Octreotide
Correct Answer: Ketamine
Explanation:Syringe Driver Compatibility Guide
When using a syringe driver, it is important to know which drugs are compatible with each other to avoid any adverse reactions. For diamorphine, the following drugs are compatible: cyclizine, dexamethasone, haloperidol, hyoscine, metoclopramide, octreotide, midazolam, and ondansetron. However, phenobarbital, diclofenac, and ketamine should be administered with a separate syringe driver. It is also important to note that diazepam, chlorpromazine, and prochlorperazine are not suitable for subcutaneous usage. By following this compatibility guide, healthcare professionals can ensure safe and effective administration of medication through a syringe driver.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 53
Incorrect
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What is the correct statement regarding the use of opioids in palliative care?
Your Answer: Patients on fentanyl patches should not be given bolus doses of morphine
Correct Answer: Diamorphine is the drug of choice for syringe drivers
Explanation:Choosing the Right Drug for Syringe Drivers: Considerations and Precautions
When it comes to selecting a drug for syringe drivers, diamorphine is often preferred due to its low volume. However, it’s important to note that diamorphine is about three times more potent than oral morphine, so careful dose conversion is necessary.
For those considering fentanyl patches, it’s important to keep in mind that it takes 24 hours for the drug to reach steady state. Finally, if using MST, it’s a twice-daily sustained-release preparation.
Overall, selecting the right drug for syringe drivers requires careful consideration and attention to detail to ensure safe and effective pain management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 54
Correct
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A 58-year-old gentleman with known lung cancer is seen as an emergency. He has developed a significant deterioration in his breathlessness over the last few days. He also complains of headache and dizziness.
On examination he has a soft stridor and you notice some dilated veins on his chest wall.
What is the most appropriate management plan?Your Answer: Furosemide orally
Explanation:Superior Vena Caval Obstruction (SVCO)
Superior Vena Caval Obstruction (SVCO) is a condition where there is a blockage of blood flow in the superior vena cava. This can be caused by external compression or thrombosis within the vein. The most common cause of SVCO is malignancy, with lung cancer and lymphoma being the most frequent culprits. Benign causes include intrathoracic goitre and granulomatous conditions such as sarcoidosis.
Typical features of SVCO include facial and upper body oedema, facial plethora, venous distention, and increased shortness of breath. Impaired venous return can cause dizziness and even syncopal attacks. Headache due to pressure effect is also seen.
Prompt recognition of SVCO on clinical grounds is crucial, and immediate referral for specialist assessment is necessary. If there is any stridor or laryngeal oedema, SVCO becomes a medical emergency.
Treatment for SVCO typically involves steroids and radiotherapy, with chemotherapy and stent insertion being indicated in some cases. Although dexamethasone may be given as an acute treatment, it is not the best answer for this patient, who needs to be referred immediately for inpatient treatment and monitoring.
In summary, SVCO is a serious condition that requires prompt recognition and referral for specialist assessment. Treatment options include steroids, radiotherapy, chemotherapy, and stent insertion, depending on the underlying cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 55
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman on palliative treatment for metastatic breast cancer is struggling to take her prescribed morphine, causing her discomfort to increase. She is currently prescribed 50 mg BD orally.
What is the best course of action to manage her pain?Your Answer: Switch to gabapentin
Correct Answer: Switch to subcutaneous morphine infusion at 60 mg/24 hrs
Explanation:To convert this patient’s daily dose of oral morphine to a more tolerable route, the dose should be divided by two. The ratio of oral to parenterally administered morphine is 2:1, meaning that subcutaneous or intravenous doses are half that of the oral dose. However, it is important to note that there has been no change in the patient’s condition or nature of pain, so switching to a different class of pain relief would not be appropriate. Transdermal patches may not be suitable for this patient as they are typically used for those with stable levels of pain and should not be given to opioid-naïve patients. A subcutaneous dose of 60 mg/24 hours is equivalent to 120 mg of oral morphine and would be an appropriate option. It is important to address the patient’s difficulty in taking their pain relief as the cause of their pain, rather than an increase in their pain requirements.
Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects include nausea, drowsiness, and constipation, which are usually transient but may persist. Denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain in addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 56
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman with advanced breast cancer has noticed an increase in nausea and vomiting as her opioid dose has been raised. She is currently experiencing persistent and severe vomiting with minimal relief of her nausea.
Which medication is most likely to provide relief for this patient?Your Answer: Hyoscine
Correct Answer: Haloperidol
Explanation:Managing Nausea and Vomiting in Palliative Care: Medications to Consider
Nausea and vomiting are common symptoms in palliative care, and can be caused by a variety of factors such as drug toxicity or metabolic disturbances. To manage these symptoms, several medications can be considered.
Haloperidol is often the first-line drug for opioid-induced nausea, renal failure, and hypercalcaemia. Metoclopramide and levomepromazine are alternative options. For nausea caused by cytotoxic therapy or radiotherapy, ondansetron can be used.
Ranitidine may be beneficial if gastric or oesophageal stasis is an issue. Cyclizine is useful for managing vagally-mediated nausea and vomiting caused by mechanical bowel obstruction, vestibular disturbance, and Intracranial disease. Dexamethasone can be added to cyclizine in scenarios where Intracranial pressure is raised.
Finally, hyoscine butylbromide can be used for managing bowel colic and excessive gastrointestinal secretions. When selecting medications, it is important to consider the underlying cause of the nausea and vomiting, as well as the patient’s individual needs and preferences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 57
Incorrect
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Which one of the following situations would not automatically require a doctor to contact the coroner to discuss the death?
Your Answer: 44-year-old man with history of depression found hanging in home
Correct Answer: 38-year-old man dies from cerebral malaria contracted in India
Explanation:Notifying the coroner is not legally required for this death, but it must be reported to the Local Authority Proper Officer under the Health Protection Regulations 2010.
Notifiable Deaths and Reporting to the Coroner
When it comes to death certification, certain deaths are considered notifiable and should be reported to the coroner. These include unexpected or sudden deaths, as well as deaths where the attending doctor did not see the deceased within 28 days prior to their passing (this was increased from 14 days during the COVID pandemic). Additionally, deaths that occur within 24 hours of hospital admission, accidents and injuries, suicide, industrial injury or disease, deaths resulting from ill treatment, starvation, or neglect, deaths occurring during an operation or before recovery from the effect of an anaesthetic, poisoning (including from illicit drugs), stillbirths where there is doubt as to whether the child was born alive, and deaths of prisoners or people in police custody are also considered notifiable.
It is important to note that these deaths should be reported to the coroner, who will then investigate the circumstances surrounding the death. This is to ensure that any potential criminal activity or negligence is properly addressed and that the cause of death is accurately determined. By reporting notifiable deaths to the coroner, we can help ensure that justice is served and that families receive the closure they need during a difficult time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
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Question 58
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner with generalised pruritus. She has metastatic disease from endometrial carcinoma and is not jaundiced. What is the most suitable initial treatment?
Your Answer: Emollient
Explanation:Managing Pruritus in Palliative Care Patients: Causes and Treatment Options
Pruritus, or severe itching, is a common symptom in palliative care patients with advanced disease. It can be caused by various factors such as uraemia, cholestasis, opioids, solid tumors, and hematologic disorders. Dry skin is also a common accompanying factor in all causes of pruritus. Therefore, regular skin lubrication is a crucial part of managing pruritus in palliative care patients.
Topical agents such as levomenthol cream, lidocaine ointment, capsaicin, and topical corticosteroids can also be helpful in managing pruritus. However, the use of H1 receptor antagonists (antihistamines) is not always effective as they only work in cases where histamine release occurs in the skin, which is not the primary cause of pruritus in palliative care patients.
Cholestasis is one of the causes of pruritus, but the pathogenesis is still unclear. Lowering the level of bile acids with cholestyramine is often ineffective as there is no correlation between the level of bile acids and the severity of pruritus. Serotonin may have a role in pruritus secondary to malignant disease, cholestasis, uraemia, and opioids. Therefore, medications such as paroxetine, mirtazapine, and ondansetron can be used to manage pruritus in palliative care patients.
In conclusion, managing pruritus in palliative care patients requires a comprehensive approach that addresses the underlying causes and provides symptomatic relief. Regular skin lubrication and the use of topical agents and medications such as paroxetine, mirtazapine, and ondansetron can be helpful in managing pruritus in palliative care patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 59
Incorrect
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Which option represents good practice in end-of-life care for a Primary Healthcare Team from the following list?
Your Answer: The practice should have a standard care plan for patients at the end of life
Correct Answer: There should be a named person to coordinate services
Explanation:Coordinating End-of-Life Care: The Importance of a Named Person
End-of-life care requires a coordinated approach to ensure that the physical, psychological, social, and spiritual needs of the patient are addressed. While decisions about a person’s care are made through multi-disciplinary discussions, there should be a named care coordinator of services. This lead professional could be anyone from a general practitioner to a specialist nurse, but their role is crucial in ensuring that best interest decisions are taken for people who lack capacity.
Early and ongoing conversations with the patient about planning their treatment and care are encouraged, and this communication should be informative, timely, and sensitive. Health professionals should support people in making choices about their preferred place of death, whether it be at home, in hospital, care home, or hospice. To support end-of-life care, practices should have a palliative care register that includes people with terminal conditions other than cancer, such as frailty, dementia, and heart failure.
Individualized care plans should be produced with the patient involved in the process, and the plan should be recognized in all care settings. Coordinating end-of-life care is essential to ensure that the patient’s needs are met, and having a named person to oversee this process is crucial.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 60
Incorrect
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You assess a 65-year-old man with motor neuron disease. He mentions that he intends to travel to Switzerland for euthanasia if his condition worsens. What would be your initial response?
Your Answer: Inform him that it is illegal to aid anyone to commit euthanasia
Correct Answer: Discuss his fears about the terminal phase
Explanation:In recent years, the issue of assisted suicide has gained relevance as UK patients have been travelling to Switzerland ‘Dignitas’ clinic. However, aiding someone to commit suicide is currently illegal. As a healthcare professional, it is important to address the patient’s fears about the terminal phase and discuss the advancements in palliative care. It may also be helpful for the patient to speak with others who have gone through similar experiences for reassurance. If the patient still insists on travelling to Switzerland, it is necessary to inform them of the legal implications of aiding suicide by providing information about appropriate clinics. It is important to note that the ‘double-effect’ principle only applies to accepting the side-effects of pain relief and not to intentionally hastening death. Implying otherwise is inappropriate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 61
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman with lung cancer is experiencing bone pains. Her biochemistry screen shows borderline hypercalcaemia. She has a medical history of hypertension and is currently taking multiple medications for it.
What is the most probable factor contributing to the exacerbation of her hypercalcaemia?Your Answer: Atenolol
Explanation:Drugs that can cause hypercalcaemia
Bendroflumethiazide is a type of thiazide diuretic that is commonly known to cause hypercalcaemia. This condition is characterized by high levels of calcium in the blood, which can lead to various health problems. Aside from bendroflumethiazide, other drugs that may cause hypercalcaemia include lithium, teriparatide, and with theophylline toxicity. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of these medications and to consult with a healthcare professional if any symptoms of hypercalcaemia arise. Proper monitoring and management of this condition can help prevent complications and ensure optimal health outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 62
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman is under palliative care for glioblastoma and is currently managing her pain with regular paracetamol. However, she has reported feeling nauseous. What would be the most suitable initial anti-emetic medication to prescribe for her?
Your Answer: Metoclopramide
Correct Answer: Cyclizine
Explanation:Cyclizine is a recommended first-line anti-emetic for nausea and vomiting caused by intracranial or intra-vestibular issues, as well as for managing gastrointestinal obstruction in palliative care. Domperidone is effective for gastro-intestinal pain in palliative care, as it stimulates gastric muscle contraction by blocking dopamine inhibition. Metoclopramide is useful for acute migraine, chemotherapy or radiotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting, but is unlikely to relieve nausea related to increased intracranial pressure. Ondansetron is indicated for preventing and treating chemotherapy-related nausea and vomiting. Dexamethasone is often the first choice steroid in palliative care, as it can treat multiple symptoms including nausea, anorexia, spinal cord compression, and liver capsule pain. If the patient’s nausea is due to raised intracranial pressure, cyclizine should be the first-line option, but dexamethasone may also be considered as an additional treatment.
Nausea and Vomiting in Palliative Care: Mechanistic Approach to Prescribing
Nausea and vomiting in palliative care can have multiple causes, but identifying the most prominent one is crucial in guiding the choice of anti-emetic therapy. Six broad syndromes have been identified, with gastric stasis and chemical disturbance being the most common. In general, pharmacological therapy is the first-line method for treating nausea and vomiting in palliative care. There are two approaches to choosing drug therapy: empirical and mechanistic. The mechanistic approach matches the choice of anti-emetic drug to the likely cause of the patient’s nausea and vomiting.
For reduced gastric motility, pro-kinetic agents such as metoclopramide and domperidone are useful. However, metoclopramide should not be used when pro-kinesis may negatively affect the gastrointestinal tract. For chemically mediated nausea and vomiting, the chemical disturbance should be corrected first. Key treatment options include ondansetron, haloperidol, and levomepromazine. Cyclizine and levomepromazine are first-line for visceral/serosal causes, while anticholinergics such as hyoscine can be useful. For raised Intracranial pressure, cyclizine and dexamethasone are recommended. For vestibular causes, cyclizine is the first-line treatment, while atypical antipsychotics such as olanzapine or risperidone can be used in refractory cases. If anticipatory nausea is the clear cause, a short-acting benzodiazepine such as lorazepam can be useful.
NICE CKS recommends that oral anti-emetics are preferable and should be used if possible. If the oral route is not possible, the parenteral route of administration is preferred. The intravenous route can be used if intravenous access is already established. By using a mechanistic approach to prescribing, healthcare professionals can tailor anti-emetic therapy to the specific cause of nausea and vomiting in palliative care patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 63
Correct
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A 67-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner for a consultation. He has been diagnosed with lung cancer and is experiencing persistent minor haemoptysis which is causing him anxiety. He has also coughed up a larger amount of blood on one occasion. What is the most suitable initial treatment for his persistent bleeding?
Your Answer: Tranexamic acid
Explanation:Managing Haemoptysis in Terminal Lung Cancer Patients
Haemoptysis is a common symptom experienced by 20-30% of patients with lung cancer, with 3% experiencing massive haemoptysis as a terminal event. The management of haemoptysis in terminal lung cancer patients depends on the volume of blood loss, its cause, and prognosis.
For massive haemoptysis, intramuscular or intravenous morphine and midazolam are indicated, and the use of dark-coloured towels can mask blood. For smaller, self-limiting haemorrhage, tranexamic acid 1 g three times a day can often be effective.
In this scenario, there is no information to suggest a cause other than tumour progression, so tranexamic acid is the correct answer. It would be reasonable to try tranexamic acid first before considering radiotherapy.
In the secondary care setting, protamine is given intravenously as a reversal agent to heparin, should this be required. However, it is not usually used in the community.
Overall, managing haemoptysis in terminal lung cancer patients requires careful consideration of the individual’s situation and needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 64
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman visits the local radiotherapy suite, where she is undergoing radiotherapy treatment for endometrial cancer after a radical hysterectomy. She reports that both of her legs have been swollen for some weeks but that, in the last day, her right calf has become more swollen and is slightly painful on weight-bearing.
On examination, she can weight bear and there is no change in the left leg. The right calf is 36 cm when measured 10 cm distal to the tibial tuberosity, compared with 32 cm on the left. There is mild pitting oedema on the right ankle and medial calf tenderness.
What is the most appropriate scoring tool to use in this case?Your Answer: Child-Pugh score
Correct Answer: Wells score
Explanation:Scoring Tools in Clinical Practice
In clinical practice, various scoring tools are used to aid in the diagnosis and management of different medical conditions. The Wells score is a tool used to assess the likelihood of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in patients with symptoms such as pain and swelling in the calf. The Ottawa ankle rules, on the other hand, are guidelines used to determine if a patient with foot or ankle pain should undergo an X-ray to diagnose a possible ankle bone fracture. The National Early Warning Score (NEWS) is a tool developed to improve the detection and response to clinical deterioration in adult patients. The CHA2DS2VASC score is used to assess the stroke risk in patients with atrial fibrillation, while the Child-Pugh score is used to measure the severity of liver cirrhosis. These scoring tools play a crucial role in clinical decision-making and patient management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 65
Incorrect
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The District Nurse requests a prescription for a syringe driver for a patient you assessed earlier in the day. The patient, who is in their late 70s, is dying from metastatic renal cancer. You recommend a 24-hour dose of 60mg of diamorphine. Please provide the correct wording for the prescription.
Your Answer: Diamorphine 30 mg (thirty milligrams) ampoules. Supply 6 ampoules. 60mg daily by subcutaneous infusion over 24 hours.
Correct Answer: Diamorphine 30 mg ampoules. Supply 6 (six) ampoules. 60mg daily by subcutaneous infusion over 24 hours.
Explanation:Controlled drugs are medications that have the potential for abuse and are regulated by the 2001 Misuse of Drugs Regulations act. The act divides these drugs into five categories or schedules, each with its own rules on prescribing, supply, possession, and record keeping. When prescribing a controlled drug, certain information must be present on the prescription, including the patient’s name and address, the form and strength of the medication, the total quantity or number of dosage units to be supplied, the dose, and the prescriber’s name, signature, address, and current date.
Schedule 1 drugs, such as cannabis and lysergide, have no recognized medical use and are strictly prohibited. Schedule 2 drugs, including diamorphine, morphine, pethidine, amphetamine, and cocaine, have recognized medical uses but are highly addictive and subject to strict regulations. Schedule 3 drugs, such as barbiturates, buprenorphine, midazolam, temazepam, tramadol, gabapentin, and pregabalin, have a lower potential for abuse but are still subject to regulation. Schedule 4 drugs are divided into two parts, with part 1 including benzodiazepines (except midazolam and temazepam) and zolpidem, zopiclone, and part 2 including androgenic and anabolic steroids, hCG, and somatropin. Schedule 5 drugs, such as codeine, pholcodine, and Oramorph 10 mg/5ml, have a low potential for abuse and are exempt from most controlled drug requirements.
Prescriptions for controlled drugs in schedules 2, 3, and 4 are valid for 28 days and must include all required information. Pharmacists are generally not allowed to dispense these medications unless all information is present, but they may amend the prescription if it specifies the total quantity only in words or figures or contains minor typographical errors. Safe custody requirements apply to schedules 2 and 3 drugs, but not to schedule 4 drugs. The BNF marks schedule 2 and 3 drugs with the abbreviation CD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 66
Incorrect
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What is the correct definition of advanced decisions according to the Mental Capacity Act (2005)?
Your Answer: Doctors will still have to act in the patient’s best interest
Correct Answer: Decisions about life-sustaining treatment must be in writing
Explanation:Understanding Advance Decisions under the Mental Capacity Act
The Mental Capacity Act provides individuals with the right to make advance decisions, which replace advanced directives. These decisions allow a person to refuse certain medical treatments in specific circumstances, even if it may result in their death. However, to make an advance decision, the person must be 18 years or older (16 years in Scotland) and have mental capacity.
While any treatment can be refused, measures needed for comfort, such as warmth, shelter, and offering food or water by mouth, cannot be refused. A person may express a wish for particular treatments in advance, but these do not have to be followed. An advance decision has the same weight as decisions made by a person with capacity at the present time and must be followed, so the concept of patient’s best interests doesn’t apply.
Advance decisions about life-sustaining treatment must be in writing, signed, and witnessed, and include a statement that the decision applies even if life is at risk. Other decisions may be verbal but should be recorded in medical records. An advance decision becomes invalid if it is withdrawn or amended when capacity is still present or changed by someone with ‘lasting powers of attorney.’
An advance decision takes precedence over decisions made in a patient’s best interest by other people. In making a best interest decision, the Mental Capacity Act requires doctors to try to find out the individual’s views, including their past and present wishes and feelings, as well as any beliefs or values.
Ignoring an advance decision can result in claims for criminal charges of assault. In Scotland, advance directives are not legally enforceable under the Adults with Incapacity (Scotland) Act 2000, but the Act states that the wishes of the adult should be taken into consideration when acting or making a decision on their behalf.
Understanding Advance Decisions and the Mental Capacity Act
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 67
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man with metastatic prostate cancer is experiencing increased pain and frequent vomiting while taking oral modified-release morphine sulphate 60mg bd. It has been decided to switch to subcutaneous administration. What is the appropriate dosage of morphine for a continuous subcutaneous infusion over a 24-hour period?
Your Answer: 30 mg
Correct Answer: 60mg
Explanation:In this scenario, the BNF suggests administering half the usual oral dose of morphine.
When morphine is given through injection (subcutaneous, intramuscular, or intravenous), the recommended dose is approximately half of the oral dose. If the patient is no longer able to swallow, a continuous subcutaneous infusion of morphine is typically used.
Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects include nausea, drowsiness, and constipation, which are usually transient but may persist. Denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain in addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 68
Correct
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A 70-year-old woman has terminal breast cancer. Her General Practitioner visits her at home. Until her diagnosis five years ago, she had no significant medical history. She is known to have liver metastases and is quite breathless. Her oxygen saturations are 92% in air, and her respiratory rate is 28 breaths per minute. She is alert, but very frail.
Which of the following treatments is most likely to be of benefit for this patient’s dyspnoea?Your Answer: Morphine
Explanation:Managing Dyspnoea in Terminally Ill Patients: Treatment Options
Dyspnoea is a common symptom in terminally ill patients and can significantly impact their quality of life. When managing dyspnoea, it is important to identify and treat any reversible causes, such as cardiac failure or pneumonia. However, in cases where the cause cannot be reversed, there are several treatment options available.
One such option is the use of opioids, such as morphine, which can reduce breathlessness at rest and in the end-of-life phase. A therapeutic trial should be given, and the patient should be monitored for response and side-effects. If morphine is not tolerated, alternative opioids can be used.
Dexamethasone is another option, particularly in cases of lymphangitis carcinomatosis and superior vena cava airway obstruction. It reduces inflammatory oedema and can also be used post-radiotherapy.
Furosemide is not likely to be of benefit unless there is evidence of cardiac failure.
Lorazepam, a benzodiazepine, may relieve anxiety and panic associated with severe breathlessness, but it is less effective than opioids and should be considered a second-line treatment.
Finally, if oxygen saturations are below 92%, a trial of oxygen can be considered for symptom relief. However, it is important to note that there may be a poor relationship between hypoxaemia, dyspnoea, and response to oxygen.
In conclusion, managing dyspnoea in terminally ill patients requires a multi-faceted approach, including identifying and treating reversible causes and utilizing appropriate medications for symptom relief.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 69
Incorrect
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Sophie is a 84-year-old woman with a history of osteoporosis and arthritis who was discharged from hospital 4 weeks ago following a hip replacement surgery. Her GP last saw her during a home visit 3 days after discharge. She had been regularly seen by the district nurse since then. Unfortunately, she had declined significantly since her hospital admission and was found dead by her daughter this morning.
What is the appropriate course of action for the GP regarding Sophie's death certificate?Your Answer: Ask the patient’s hospital consultant to complete the death certificate
Correct Answer: Refer the death to the coroner
Explanation:If a doctor has not examined the deceased within 28 days prior to their death, the case must be referred to the coroner. This time frame was extended from 14 days due to the COVID pandemic.
While it may be appropriate to list myocardial infarction as the cause of death in section 1a, the GP is not authorized to issue the death certificate in such cases. It is generally not recommended to cite old age as the cause of death.
Only a medical practitioner who is registered can complete a death certificate.
Notifiable Deaths and Reporting to the Coroner
When it comes to death certification, certain deaths are considered notifiable and should be reported to the coroner. These include unexpected or sudden deaths, as well as deaths where the attending doctor did not see the deceased within 28 days prior to their passing (this was increased from 14 days during the COVID pandemic). Additionally, deaths that occur within 24 hours of hospital admission, accidents and injuries, suicide, industrial injury or disease, deaths resulting from ill treatment, starvation, or neglect, deaths occurring during an operation or before recovery from the effect of an anaesthetic, poisoning (including from illicit drugs), stillbirths where there is doubt as to whether the child was born alive, and deaths of prisoners or people in police custody are also considered notifiable.
It is important to note that these deaths should be reported to the coroner, who will then investigate the circumstances surrounding the death. This is to ensure that any potential criminal activity or negligence is properly addressed and that the cause of death is accurately determined. By reporting notifiable deaths to the coroner, we can help ensure that justice is served and that families receive the closure they need during a difficult time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 70
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man complains to the palliative care team of increasing fatigue and breathlessness over the past four weeks. He is under their care and has ceased any active treatment; his preferred care plan is for symptom-related treatment only. He is living independently at home and has been reasonably well over the last six months.
On examination, he is pale, with a pulse of 96 bpm at rest. He becomes breathless after undressing for the examination. There is a palpable spleen.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal values
Haemoglobin (Hb) 66 g/l 130–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 1.2 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
Platelets (PLT) 34 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Neutrophils 0.5 × 109/l 2.0–7.5 × 109/l
Lymphocytes 0.6 × 109/l 1.0–4.5 × 109/l
What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?Your Answer: Prostate cancer
Correct Answer: Primary myelofibrosis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Pancytopenia and Splenomegaly
A patient presents with pallor, tiredness, and breathlessness, along with pancytopenia and splenomegaly. The most likely cause is a myelodysplastic disorder, specifically primary myelofibrosis, which results in scarring of the bone marrow and loss of bone marrow function. This disorder has a median survival of around five and a half years and can cause progressive symptoms. The splenomegaly is due to extramedullary haemopoiesis.
Other potential causes, such as bowel cancer, prostate cancer, and metastatic oesophageal carcinoma, are less likely due to the absence of relevant symptoms or metastasis to the bone. Chemotherapy-related bone marrow suppression is also unlikely as the patient is not receiving any active treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 71
Incorrect
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Sarah is a 65-year-old woman with hepatocellular carcinoma, currently admitted to a hospice for end of life care. She is experiencing nausea without vomiting and would like something to help alleviate this.
During examination, she appears jaundiced and there is a significant amount of ascites present. She is feeling bloated and has not had a bowel movement in 3 days, but is passing gas.
What medication would be the most appropriate to address her nausea?Your Answer: Ondansetron
Correct Answer: Metoclopramide
Explanation:When it comes to palliative care, the type of antiemetic used should be based on the underlying cause of nausea. For instance, if the cause is gastric dysmotility and stasis, dopamine (D2) receptor antagonists like metoclopramide would be appropriate. On the other hand, cyclizine can be used to treat nausea that is related to movement by blocking signals from the vestibular apparatus in the middle ear that trigger the vomiting center. In John’s case, his symptoms suggest gastric stasis, and therefore, metoclopramide would be a suitable option to alleviate his symptoms.
Nausea and Vomiting in Palliative Care: Mechanistic Approach to Prescribing
Nausea and vomiting in palliative care can have multiple causes, but identifying the most prominent one is crucial in guiding the choice of anti-emetic therapy. Six broad syndromes have been identified, with gastric stasis and chemical disturbance being the most common. In general, pharmacological therapy is the first-line method for treating nausea and vomiting in palliative care. There are two approaches to choosing drug therapy: empirical and mechanistic. The mechanistic approach matches the choice of anti-emetic drug to the likely cause of the patient’s nausea and vomiting.
For reduced gastric motility, pro-kinetic agents such as metoclopramide and domperidone are useful. However, metoclopramide should not be used when pro-kinesis may negatively affect the gastrointestinal tract. For chemically mediated nausea and vomiting, the chemical disturbance should be corrected first. Key treatment options include ondansetron, haloperidol, and levomepromazine. Cyclizine and levomepromazine are first-line for visceral/serosal causes, while anticholinergics such as hyoscine can be useful. For raised Intracranial pressure, cyclizine and dexamethasone are recommended. For vestibular causes, cyclizine is the first-line treatment, while atypical antipsychotics such as olanzapine or risperidone can be used in refractory cases. If anticipatory nausea is the clear cause, a short-acting benzodiazepine such as lorazepam can be useful.
NICE CKS recommends that oral anti-emetics are preferable and should be used if possible. If the oral route is not possible, the parenteral route of administration is preferred. The intravenous route can be used if intravenous access is already established. By using a mechanistic approach to prescribing, healthcare professionals can tailor anti-emetic therapy to the specific cause of nausea and vomiting in palliative care patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 72
Correct
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You are tasked with completing a death certificate for an 85-year-old patient under your care. She passed away yesterday due to pneumonia at home, following a joint decision made by her family and medical team not to admit her to the hospital for further treatment. The patient had a history of dementia and osteoporosis, and you had last assessed her two days prior.
The patient had recently undergone surgery for a fractured neck of femur, which she sustained after tripping on a step at home. Although her surgery had been successful and she had been recovering well, she began experiencing respiratory symptoms shortly after being discharged from the hospital. What is the appropriate course of action regarding the completion of the death certificate?Your Answer: Speak to the coroner
Explanation:It is probable that the patient passed away due to the initial fall, which necessitates referral to the coroner as per the guidance that mandates all deaths related to injury or poisoning.
Death Certification in the UK
There are no legal definitions of death in the UK, but guidelines exist to verify it. According to the current guidance, a doctor or other qualified personnel should verify death, and nurse practitioners may verify but not certify it. After a patient has died, a doctor needs to complete a medical certificate of cause of death (MCCD). However, there is a list of circumstances in which a doctor should notify the Coroner before completing the MCCD.
When completing the MCCD, it is important to note that old age as 1a is only acceptable if the patient was at least 80 years old. Natural causes is not acceptable, and organ failure can only be used if the disease or condition that led to the organ failure is specified. Abbreviations should be avoided, except for HIV and AIDS.
Once the MCCD is completed, the family takes it to the local Registrar of Births, Deaths, and Marriages office to register the death. If the Registrar decides that the death doesn’t need reporting to the Coroner, he/she will issue a certificate for Burial or Cremation and a certificate of Registration of Death for Social Security purposes. Copies of the Death Register are also available upon request, which banks and insurance companies expect to see. If the family wants the burial to be outside of England, an Out of England Order is needed from the coroner.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 73
Correct
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A client is taking tramadol 100 mg qds. Despite this, they are experiencing inadequate pain relief. What is the equivalent 24-hour dosage of oral morphine?
Your Answer: 40 mg
Explanation:Divide the dosage of tramadol by 10 to obtain the equivalent dosage of morphine.
Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects include nausea, drowsiness, and constipation, which are usually transient but may persist. Denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain in addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 74
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with pancreatic cancer comes to the clinic for a review of medication. He reports that his pain is no longer managed with paracetamol and 240 mg oral codeine per day. The doctor decides to initiate an opiate.
Which of the following is the most suitable choice?Your Answer: Seek specialist advice
Correct Answer: Oral morphine 30 mg daily in divided doses
Explanation:Starting Strong Opioids for Pain Management
When beginning strong opioids for pain management, it is recommended to use regular oral sustained-release or immediate-release morphine, depending on the patient’s preference. Immediate-release morphine can be used as needed for breakthrough pain, but it should not replace regular oral morphine. For patients without renal or hepatic comorbidities, a typical starting dose of 20-30 mg of oral morphine per day is recommended. This can be divided into two doses of sustained-release morphine or taken as 5mg of immediate-release morphine every 4 hours. However, patients switching from a weak opioid may require a higher starting dose of 40-60mg per day.
If oral opioids are not suitable, transdermal patches or subcutaneous infusions can be used as an alternative. In most cases, a general practitioner should not require specialist advice at this stage of pain management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 75
Correct
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A 52-year-old man being treated for prostate cancer comes to the general practice surgery to discuss his treatment. He feels that he is not coping emotionally and has not returned to his work as a construction worker; he is feeling very low in mood. He is anxious and is not sleeping well. He doesn't want to discuss his feelings with his family; he asks for some information about services available for psychological support.
What is the most appropriate initial advice you can provide this patient about access to psychological support?Your Answer: Providers of cancer services should ensure that all patients undergo systematic psychological assessment at key points of their treatment
Explanation:Importance of Psychological Assessment and Support for Cancer Patients
Cancer patients often experience psychological distress related to their diagnosis and treatment. To address this, providers of cancer services should ensure that all patients undergo systematic psychological assessment at key points of their treatment, as recommended by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence guidelines. Referrals to community or specialist services should be made as needed.
It is important to note that psychological support should be available throughout a patient’s cancer journey and need not be limited to the end of active treatment. While patients with a previous history of mental health problems may require a referral to a psychiatrist, other services may be more appropriate for some patients.
In addition, Admiral Nurses, who specialize in Alzheimer’s support, are not directly involved in cancer care and may not be the best source of emotional support for cancer patients. Overall, the importance of psychological assessment and support for cancer patients cannot be overstated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 76
Correct
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You are assessing a patient at home with metastatic colon cancer. She is receiving symptom relief through a syringe driver and is being given diamorphine and cyclizine continuously via the device. In the past 24 hours, she has become increasingly restless and agitated. Her family is present and asks if there is a medication that can alleviate her symptoms without causing excessive sedation.
What medication would you recommend to be administered via the syringe driver?Your Answer: Haloperidol
Explanation:Treatment Options for Restlessness and Agitation in Palliative Care
Restlessness and agitation are common symptoms in palliative care patients, and they can be distressing for both the patient and their caregivers. One option for managing these symptoms is through the use of a syringe driver, which delivers medication continuously over a 24-hour period. The three main medications used in this context are haloperidol, levomepromazine, and midazolam.
Haloperidol is an antipsychotic medication that has minimal sedative properties and is effective in managing restlessness and confusion. Levomepromazine, on the other hand, is more sedating than haloperidol and may be more appropriate for patients who require greater sedation. Midazolam is a benzodiazepine that has both sedative and antiepileptic effects and is often used in combination with an antipsychotic for very restless patients.
It is important to note that diazepam should not be used in a syringe driver as it can cause injection site reactions. Phenobarbital and propofol are also not typically used in this context and should only be considered under the guidance of a specialist palliative care physician and pharmacist. Propranolol is not administered via subcutaneous injection and is not typically used for managing restlessness and agitation.
In summary, haloperidol is the preferred medication for managing restlessness and agitation in palliative care patients via a syringe driver. The appropriate dose ranges from 5-15 mg over a 24-hour period. However, the choice of medication and dose should always be made in consultation with a healthcare professional.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 77
Incorrect
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How should strong opioids be used for cancer pain management in primary care?
Your Answer: Hydromorphine is seven times less potent than morphine on a mg for mg basis
Correct Answer: Oxycodone has a more predictable systemic bioavailability than morphine
Explanation:Opioid Prescription Guidelines
About 10-30% of patients cannot use morphine due to side effects or poor analgesic response. However, oxycodone is not shown to have fewer unwanted effects than morphine. On the other hand, hydromorphone is seven times more potent than morphine on a mg for mg basis. Fentanyl should only be used second line, and when a daily requirement is established.
To ensure safe and appropriate opioid prescription, it is important to remember the STOPP criteria. Prescription is potentially inappropriate if a strong, oral or transdermal opioid (i.e. morphine, oxycodone, fentanyl, buprenorphine, diamorphine, methadone, tramadol, pethidine, pentazocine) is prescribed as first-line therapy for mild pain (WHO analgesic ladder not observed). Additionally, regular use without concomitant laxative can lead to severe constipation. Lastly, prescribing a long-acting (modified-release) opioid without a short-acting (immediate-release) opioid for breakthrough pain can result in the persistence of severe pain.
It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the safe and effective use of opioids in pain management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 78
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old woman has terminal lung cancer. Her level of pain is sufficient to commence treatment with a strong opioid analgesic by mouth. Her only other medication is paracetamol 1 g 6-hourly.
Which of the following additional drugs should be routinely started at this stage?
Your Answer: Ibuprofen
Correct Answer: Senna
Explanation:Common Medications Used in Palliative Care
When introducing an opioid in palliative cancer care, it is recommended to prescribe a stimulant laxative such as senna or a dantron-containing laxative to prevent constipation. Amitriptyline is commonly prescribed as an adjuvant analgesic for neuropathic pain, while ibuprofen is used for bone pain or pain due to soft tissue infiltration. Metoclopramide is a pro-kinetic drug used for vomiting due to gastric stasis, while prochlorperazine is not typically used in palliative care. It is important to consider the specific needs of each patient when selecting medications for palliative care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 79
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman has a fungating metastatic breast cancer and is increasingly distressed by the malodorous discharge from the affected breast, which is causing considerable social embarrassment.
From the list below, choose the single treatment which would help alleviate this symptom.Your Answer: Allevyn dressings
Explanation:Managing Foul Odors in Palliative Care
In palliative care, managing foul odors is an important aspect of providing comfort to patients. One approach is to use metronidazole, which can improve smells caused by anaerobic organisms that infect fungating tumors. Another option is to use charcoal dressings, which absorb malodorous substances. It is recommended to familiarize oneself with the British National Formulary (BNF) section on prescribing in palliative care, as it contains valuable information that is often tested in exams. By utilizing these strategies, healthcare providers can help alleviate unpleasant odors and improve the quality of life for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 80
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old gentleman being treated palliatively for prostate cancer is reviewed.
He has advanced metastatic disease and is currently taking modified release morphine tablets at a dose of 60 mg BD for pain control. He tells you that since increasing his dose of morphine several weeks ago he is having a lot of problems with constipation.
He weighs 70 kgs and has no known drug allergies or intolerances.
What is the most appropriate regimen to prescribe alone as an initial treatment for his constipation?Your Answer: Co-danthramer 25/200 1-2 capsules at bedtime
Correct Answer: Glycerol suppositories one PRN
Explanation:Managing Constipation in Palliative Care
Constipation is a common problem in palliative care, often caused by the use of opioid analgesics. To prevent constipation, laxatives should be co-prescribed with opioids. A combination of a faecal softener and a peristaltic stimulant, such as co-danthramer, is ideal. Alternatively, a stool softener like docusate sodium can be combined with a stimulant laxative like a senna preparation. PRN suppositories are not recommended for regular use. Lactulose can be used in combination with senna, but some sources advise against it due to its side effects. Methylnaltrexone bromide is indicated for opioid-induced constipation in terminally ill patients who do not respond to other laxatives. Prucalopride is not a palliative care medication and is only licensed for treating chronic constipation in women who have not found relief from other laxatives and lifestyle changes.
In summary, managing constipation in palliative care requires a combination of preventative measures and appropriate medication. Co-prescribing laxatives with opioids is essential, and a combination of a faecal softener and a peristaltic stimulant is ideal. Methylnaltrexone bromide can be used in terminally ill patients who do not respond to other laxatives. Prucalopride is not a palliative care medication and is only licensed for treating chronic constipation in women who have not found relief from other laxatives and lifestyle changes.
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Question 81
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner with worsening symptoms over a brief period. She reports experiencing anorexia, thirst, nausea, constipation, and polyuria. The patient has a history of breast cancer and bone metastases. What is the most suitable investigation to determine the cause of her current condition? Choose ONE answer.
Your Answer: Urea
Correct Answer: Calcium
Explanation:Hypercalcaemia in Palliative Care Patients
Hypercalcaemia is a common life-threatening metabolic disorder in cancer patients, particularly in those with myeloma and breast, renal, lung, and thyroid cancers. The severity of symptoms doesn’t always correlate with the degree of hypercalcaemia but often reflects the rapidity of onset. In palliative care patients, hypercalcaemia is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention.
Intravenous fluid replacement and intravenous bisphosphonates are the treatments of choice for hypercalcaemia in patients with a reasonable short-term prognosis who are willing to undergo treatment. It is important to note that hypercalcaemia can result from renal failure, so a urea level test may be useful. However, isolated acute kidney injury doesn’t explain the symptoms and may lead to a missed diagnosis.
A high serum alkaline phosphatase level is usually present in patients with bony metastases, but it would not be the most useful test in isolation. Although anaemia may be present in some patients, it doesn’t fit with the acute clinical symptoms, and a haemoglobin level test would not provide useful diagnostic information.
Thirst and polyuria may suggest diabetes, but the clinical history makes hypercalcaemia a more likely diagnosis. Therefore, it is crucial to consider hypercalcaemia as a potential cause of acute symptoms in palliative care patients.
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Question 82
Incorrect
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Please review the death certificate below:
1a Congestive cardiac failure
1b Essential hypertension
1c
2 Advanced age, type 2 diabetes mellitus
Which one of the statements regarding this certificate is accurate?Your Answer: Type 2 diabetes mellitus should have been recorded in 1c
Correct Answer: Congestive cardiac failure is the direct cause of death
Explanation:If the underlying cause is stated, it is acceptable to use a type of organ failure in 1a. However, section 2 should be used to record Type 2 diabetes mellitus as it doesn’t lead to essential hypertension.
Death Certification in the UK
There are no legal definitions of death in the UK, but guidelines exist to verify it. According to the current guidance, a doctor or other qualified personnel should verify death, and nurse practitioners may verify but not certify it. After a patient has died, a doctor needs to complete a medical certificate of cause of death (MCCD). However, there is a list of circumstances in which a doctor should notify the Coroner before completing the MCCD.
When completing the MCCD, it is important to note that old age as 1a is only acceptable if the patient was at least 80 years old. Natural causes is not acceptable, and organ failure can only be used if the disease or condition that led to the organ failure is specified. Abbreviations should be avoided, except for HIV and AIDS.
Once the MCCD is completed, the family takes it to the local Registrar of Births, Deaths, and Marriages office to register the death. If the Registrar decides that the death doesn’t need reporting to the Coroner, he/she will issue a certificate for Burial or Cremation and a certificate of Registration of Death for Social Security purposes. Copies of the Death Register are also available upon request, which banks and insurance companies expect to see. If the family wants the burial to be outside of England, an Out of England Order is needed from the coroner.
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Question 83
Incorrect
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A senior gentleman with metastatic prostate cancer is being evaluated. He is presently managing his pain with MST 30 mg twice daily, but due to his inability to swallow medication, he has become lethargic. A syringe driver is being arranged. What would be the most suitable prescription?
Your Answer: Diamorphine 20 mg over 24 hours in sodium chloride 0.9%
Correct Answer: Diamorphine 20 mg over 24 hours in 'water for injection'
Explanation:The preferred diluent in syringe drivers is ‘water for injection’.
When a patient in palliative care is unable to take oral medication due to various reasons such as nausea, dysphagia, intestinal obstruction, weakness or coma, a syringe driver should be considered. In the UK, there are two main types of syringe drivers: Graseby MS16A (blue) and Graseby MS26 (green). The delivery rate for the former is given in mm per hour, while the latter is given in mm per 24 hours.
Most drugs are compatible with water for injection, but for certain drugs such as granisetron, ketamine, ketorolac, octreotide, and ondansetron, sodium chloride 0.9% is recommended. Commonly used drugs for various symptoms include cyclizine, levomepromazine, haloperidol, metoclopramide for nausea and vomiting, hyoscine hydrobromide, hyoscine butylbromide, or glycopyrronium bromide for respiratory secretions/bowel colic, midazolam, haloperidol, levomepromazine for agitation/restlessness, and diamorphine as the preferred opioid for pain.
When mixing drugs, diamorphine is compatible with most other drugs used, including dexamethasone, haloperidol, hyoscine butylbromide, hyoscine hydrobromide, levomepromazine, metoclopramide, and midazolam. However, cyclizine may precipitate with diamorphine when given at higher doses, and it is incompatible with a number of drugs such as clonidine, dexamethasone, hyoscine butylbromide (occasional), ketamine, ketorolac, metoclopramide, midazolam, octreotide, and sodium chloride 0.9%.
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Question 84
Incorrect
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A geriatric patient with terminal illness is currently receiving 60mg of modified release morphine every 12 hours. Due to difficulty in swallowing, you plan to switch to a 24 hour subcutaneous infusion of morphine. The morphine ampoules available are of 10 mg/ml strength. What would be the required volume of morphine (in ml) to be added to the syringe driver for a 24 hour period?
Your Answer: 12
Correct Answer: 6
Explanation:Converting Oral Morphine to Subcutaneous Infusion
In order to convert oral morphine to a 24 hour subcutaneous infusion of morphine, the total 24 hour oral dose must be calculated. For example, if the patient is taking a 12 hour release preparation of 60mg, the total daily dose of oral morphine is 120mg. To convert this to a 24 hour subcutaneous infusion of morphine, the figure must be divided by two. For diamorphine, the figure would be divided by three. Therefore, the patient needs 60mg morphine over 24 hours.
It is important to note that the question asks for the volume of morphine over 24 hours, not the dose. If the ampoules are 10 mg/ml, then to deliver 60mg in 24 hours, 6 x 10 mg/ml = 6 ml is needed. It is crucial to read the question carefully to ensure the correct answer is given.
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Question 85
Incorrect
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You receive a call from the Coroner's officer regarding the sudden death of a patient you were treating. Upon reviewing your written report on the patient's care, you are summoned to appear in person at the Coroner's court to provide evidence, along with other healthcare professionals who also treated the patient. What is the purpose of this procedure?
Your Answer: Confidential enquiry
Correct Answer: Inquest
Explanation:Understanding Inquests
An inquest is a public investigation into the circumstances surrounding a person’s death. It is held at a Coroner’s Court and aims to determine the who, where, when, and how of the death. As a healthcare professional, you may be required to attend an inquest to provide evidence about your involvement in the care of a patient who has died. It is important to note that an inquest is a legal proceeding, but it is not a criminal one. This means that it cannot assign blame or responsibility to a person or organization. Instead, its purpose is to gather information and establish facts. During an inquest, you may be questioned by a lawyer representing the patient, and there may be a jury and members of the press present. It is essential to be prepared and understand the process to ensure that you can provide accurate and helpful information.
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Question 86
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old retired teacher has been diagnosed with a renal cell carcinoma.
He has been steadily increasing his analgesia in recent weeks and is currently taking the maximum dose of co-codamol 30/500. You are considering switching to morphine.
What is the equivalent 24-hour oral morphine dose to maintain the same level of analgesia as his current co-codamol regimen?Your Answer: 24 mg
Correct Answer: 10 mg
Explanation:Understanding Equivalent Morphine Dose for Codeine Patients
When prescribing pain medication, it is important to consider the equivalent morphine dose for patients taking codeine. This can be calculated by dividing the dose of codeine by 10. For example, a patient taking 60 mg of codeine four times a day would have a total daily dose of 240 mg, which is equivalent to 24 mg of morphine.
Failing to consider the equivalent morphine dose can result in inadequate pain relief for the patient. It is important to note that some patients may metabolize codeine at different rates, but this should not be a major concern in most cases. The majority of patients are normal metabolizers, converting 10% of codeine to morphine.
Overall, understanding the equivalent morphine dose for codeine patients is a crucial aspect of pain management and should be taken into consideration when prescribing medication.
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Question 87
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old businessman presents with bilateral leg weakness that has suddenly become worse over the last 12 hours. Some 8 months ago he had a lobar resection for a stage-II squamous-cell carcinoma followed by radiotherapy and adjuvant chemotherapy. On examination there is reduced power and altered sensation in both legs.
Select the single most likely cause of the current problem.Your Answer: Spinal tuberculosis
Correct Answer: Spinal cord compression as a result of vertebral metastases
Explanation:Spinal Cord Compression: An Oncological Emergency
Spinal cord compression is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention. The sudden onset of bilateral leg weakness and loss of sensation are common symptoms, along with back pain, urinary retention, and constipation. This condition is often caused by metastatic cancer, with breast, bronchus, prostate, multiple myeloma, and high-grade non-Hodgkin lymphoma being the most common culprits. While patients may already have a cancer diagnosis, spinal cord compression can sometimes be the first sign of cancer.
To diagnose spinal cord compression, a whole spinal MRI scan is necessary. Treatment should begin immediately with intravenous dexamethasone, followed by either neurosurgery or radiotherapy. Peripheral neuropathy and spinal tuberculosis can be ruled out based on the time course and lack of relevant history. Paraneoplastic myelopathy is rare and typically associated with small-cell lung cancer, while a secondary spinal tumor deposit would present similarly but is less common.
In summary, spinal cord compression is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Early intervention can improve outcomes and prevent further complications.
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Question 88
Incorrect
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What is NOT a precondition of the doctrine of double effect, which states that intentionally causing death is unacceptable but prescribing high doses of sedatives and opioids to relieve pain is permissible even if death may result?
Your Answer: Action undertaken for proportionately grave reason
Correct Answer: Patient desires a quick death
Explanation:The Ethics of Palliative Sedation: Applying the Doctrine of Double Effect
The use of palliative sedation raises ethical concerns regarding the distinction between symptom relief and euthanasia. While the former aims to alleviate suffering, the latter involves the intentional hastening of death. The doctrine of double effect provides a framework for evaluating the ethical implications of palliative sedation.
The doctrine of double effect consists of four conditions that can be applied to the use of palliative care. Firstly, the act itself must be morally neutral or good, such as the administration of medication for pain or sedation. Secondly, the intention of giving medication should be to produce a good effect, such as relief of pain or suffering, even if a harmful effect, such as death, is likely in some cases. Thirdly, the good effect should not be brought about by means of the bad effect. Finally, there must be proportionality between the good and bad effects, meaning that the relief of suffering must be significant enough to justify the potential harm caused by the medication.
In summary, the doctrine of double effect provides a useful framework for evaluating the ethical implications of palliative sedation. It emphasizes the importance of intention, proportionality, and the distinction between symptom relief and euthanasia.
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Question 89
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of intense pain radiating through her left sciatic nerve, which is not being managed by her current pain medication. The pain is so severe that it is disrupting her sleep. She has recently been diagnosed with spinal metastases from a primary breast cancer. She has been prescribed 20 mg oral morphine sulphate twice daily for her back pain. What is the best course of action for managing this patient's condition?
Your Answer: Add liquid oral morphine 5 mg/5 ml (10 ml) as needed
Correct Answer: Add 10 mg amitriptyline at night and increase the dose if tolerated after three to seven days
Explanation:Managing Pain in Palliative Care: Medication Recommendations
When it comes to managing pain in palliative care, there are several medication options available. For neuropathic pain, amitriptyline is recommended as a starting dose of 10-25 mg at night, with the option to increase after three to seven days. Tricyclic antidepressants can also be used alongside standard analgesics for mixed pain.
Liquid oral morphine can be added as needed, with a starting dose of 5 ml and no more than a dose every two hours. If the patient requires further morphine, titrating the dose with liquid morphine is recommended.
While non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents like naproxen can be used for pain management, they are not first-line for neuropathic pain. Sedating benzodiazepines like diazepam are not recommended for neuropathic pain, but may be used for sleeping problems or anxiety.
Overall, a combination of medication options may be necessary to effectively manage pain in palliative care.
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Question 90
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old woman has liver metastases from a colorectal cancer. She complains of nausea, which comes in waves, and experiences vomiting before going for chemotherapy but finds this less troublesome after chemotherapy. She also finds the nausea less troublesome when she is distracted.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer: Raised Intracranial pressure
Correct Answer: Anxiety
Explanation:Assessing Nausea and Vomiting in Palliative Care: Possible Causes and Treatment Options
When assessing nausea and vomiting in palliative care, it is important to seek a reversible cause. If none is found, a specific diagnosis should be made. One possible cause is anxiety, which can present with nausea in waves and anticipatory vomiting that may be relieved by distraction. Benzodiazepines or levomepromazine can be used for medication. Other causes include gastric stasis, gastric outflow obstruction, small stomach syndrome, oesophageal blockage, bowel obstruction, raised intracranial pressure, movement-related nausea, vestibular issues, drugs, metabolic issues, and carcinomatosis. It is important to consider all possible causes and choose appropriate treatment options accordingly.
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Question 91
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old man with advanced pancreatic cancer is experiencing bothersome widespread pruritus. He is also jaundiced and has refused a biliary stent. Despite trying various emollients, including one with menthol, he has not found relief.
What medication would be the most suitable to test for this patient's pruritus symptoms?
Choose ONE answer only.Your Answer: Pregabalin
Correct Answer: Hydroxyzine
Explanation:Treatment Options for Pruritus in Palliative Care Patients
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends treating the underlying cause of pruritus if possible. However, in palliative care patients, symptom management is the primary focus. For widespread pruritus, sedating antihistamines like hydroxyzine or chlorphenamine may be used. Gamma-aminobutyric (GABA) drugs like gabapentin and pregabalin may also be considered, but consultation with a specialist is recommended. Topical calamine lotion has limited evidence for effectiveness and is not recommended by NICE. Hydralazine, a vasodilator antihypertensive drug, has no indication for use in pruritus and is not appropriate for palliative care patients.
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Question 92
Correct
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You assess a hospice patient at their residence. They are presently taking 30 mg MST twice a day, which is effectively managing their pain. However, due to their inability to swallow, you decide, after consulting with everyone involved, to transition them to morphine via a syringe driver. What would be the suitable initial dosage for the patient?
Your Answer: 30 mg over 24 hours
Explanation:When switching from one strong opioid to another, the most common switch is from oral morphine sulphate to subcutaneous diamorphine or morphine. Diamorphine is more soluble and easier to administer in higher doses, but morphine is preferred in most cases. The potency ratio of parenteral diamorphine to oral morphine is 3:1, while the subcutaneous dose of morphine is one third to one half of the oral dose. Most centres divide the oral dose by two and re-titrate as necessary.
Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects include nausea, drowsiness, and constipation, which are usually transient but may persist. Denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain in addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy.
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Question 93
Incorrect
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An 82-year-old man with advanced pancreatic cancer is experiencing widespread pruritus and has tried several emollients, including one with menthol. He is jaundiced and has declined a biliary stent. What is the next most suitable medication to try for his symptoms?
Your Answer: Gabapentin
Correct Answer: Hydroxyzine
Explanation:Management of Pruritus in Palliative Care Patients with Advanced Pancreatic Cancer
When treating a patient with advanced pancreatic cancer who has declined stenting for relief of cholestasis, the focus should be on palliative symptom management. The underlying cause of widespread pruritus should be treated if possible, but in this case, emollients have been tried and a sedating antihistamine such as hydroxyzine or chlorphenamine is the next appropriate medication. While pregabalin and gabapentin may be considered, they should only be used after discussion with a specialist/dermatologist. Topical calamine lotion is not recommended by NICE for pruritus treatment. Hydralazine, a vasodilator antihypertensive drug, has no indication for use in pruritus.
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Question 94
Incorrect
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In palliative care, what is the most appropriate initial management strategy for treating opioid-induced constipation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Senna
Explanation:Managing Opioid-Induced Constipation in Palliative Care
Opioid-induced constipation is a common problem in palliative care. The main treatment involves the use of oral laxatives, with senna being the recommended initial choice due to its ability to stimulate peristalsis. The dosage should be titrated up to achieve comfortable defecation without colic, and higher doses may be necessary in palliative care. If colic is a problem, a reduction in senna dosage and the addition of an osmotic or surface-wetting laxative may be necessary. Increasing fluid and dietary fiber intake can also help, but it is more important to ensure that patients have food and drink they enjoy. Bulk-forming laxatives like ispaghula may be unpalatable and cause intestinal obstruction if not taken with enough water. If laxatives are insufficient, a pro-kinetic agent like metoclopramide may be added, but should not be used if the patient has colic.
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Question 95
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man with known Hodgkin's lymphoma presents with concerns of facial swelling. Upon examination, his face appears red and puffy, with engorged neck veins and a non-rising jugular venous pulse upon liver palpation. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cardiac failure
Explanation:Superior Vena Cava Obstruction: A Potentially Urgent Condition
Superior vena cava obstruction is a rare but serious condition that requires prompt treatment. Although it is not immediately life-threatening, it can cause swelling of the face and fixed elevation of the jugular venous pulse. In the UK, lung cancer is the most common cause, but lymphoma can also be a factor.
Treatment options may include steroids or stenting, but in a primary care setting, the first step is to admit the patient as an emergency for further investigation and treatment. It is important to act quickly to prevent any potential complications and ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.
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Question 96
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man is evaluated after being bedridden due to severe heart failure and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. He has been immobile in bed and his wife is struggling to care for him. During the examination, his blood pressure is 110/80 mmHg, heart rate is 85 bpm and regular. Bilateral crackles and wheezing are heard on chest auscultation, and he has pitting edema on both knees and over the sacrum. Which scoring system is utilized to assess his risk of developing pressure ulcers?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Waterlow scale
Explanation:Different Clinical Scales and Their Uses
There are various clinical scales used in healthcare to assess different aspects of a patient’s condition. Here are some examples:
Waterlow Scale: This scale is used to estimate the risk of pressure sores in patients. It helps determine the level of nursing care required and the type of mattress that may be needed.
Barthel Scale: This scale measures a patient’s ability to perform activities of daily living and provides an overall estimate of disability.
Glasgow-Imrie Scale: This scale is used to evaluate the severity of acute pancreatitis.
Modified Rankin Score: This scale assesses disability associated with neurological impairment.
Ranson’s Criteria: This scale is used to evaluate the risk of mortality in patients with acute pancreatitis.
Each of these scales serves a specific purpose in healthcare and helps healthcare professionals make informed decisions about patient care.
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Question 97
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman has advanced ovarian cancer with peritoneal metastases and ascites. She is experiencing nausea, vomiting, abdominal colic and constipation. During examination, her General Practitioner notes hyperactive bowel sounds. Which treatment option is most likely to provide relief for her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cyclizine
Explanation:The woman in question is likely suffering from intestinal obstruction, a condition that affects 3% of all cancer patients and up to 25% of those with advanced ovarian cancer. This can be caused by peristaltic failure due to opioid drugs or nerve damage, or by mechanical factors such as bowel wall infiltration, compression, or constipation. The presence of painful colic and hyperactive bowel sounds suggests a mechanical obstruction. To address her nausea and vomiting, a sequence of subcutaneous infusions of cyclizine, haloperidol, and levomepromazine may be tried until the most effective agent is found. However, stimulant laxatives like senna should be avoided due to the patient’s colic, and all oral laxatives should be stopped if there is complete obstruction. Bisacodyl, another stimulant laxative, should also be avoided in patients with colic, with sodium docusate being the preferred laxative for constipation. Metoclopramide, a prokinetic agent, is the drug of choice for functional obstruction but is contraindicated in the presence of colic and mechanical obstruction. For pain relief, continuous subcutaneous morphine/diamorphine or a fentanyl patch may be used, but the patient would benefit more from an antiemetic and addressing the underlying cause if possible.
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Question 98
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man has prostate cancer with bony metastases. He is being treated with gonadorelin analogue injections and he feels reasonably well. He complains of excessive sweating, particularly at night, that often requires him to change clothes and bedding. This is a chronic problem.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of the patient's presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gonadorelin analogue therapy
Explanation:Causes and Treatment of Excessive Sweating in Advanced Cancer Patients
Excessive sweating is a common issue among patients with advanced cancer, and it can be caused by various factors. One of the main causes is sex hormone suppression, which is a common treatment for cancer. However, other factors such as infection, lymphoma, widespread cancer, and medication (such as SSRI antidepressants, hormone therapies, and opioids) can also contribute to excessive sweating.
Endocrine issues such as oestrogen deficiency, androgen deficiency, hypoglycaemia, and hyperthyroidism can also cause excessive sweating. Autonomic neuropathy is another potential cause.
To alleviate excessive sweating, patients can try reducing the room temperature, removing excess bedding and clothing, increasing ventilation, and using a fan. If necessary, patients can seek advice from their oncologist about hormone replacement therapy using diethylstilboestrol.
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Question 99
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman with advanced ovarian cancer has recently started taking oral opiates for pain relief. On the previous day, she took modified-release morphine 20 mg 12-hourly and required four 5 mg rescue doses of immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. She had been advised that she could take the rescue doses every 2-4 hours, if necessary.
What is the most suitable analgesic regimen for her?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Modified-release morphine 30 mg twice daily plus immediate-release morphine 10 mg 2-4 hourly as required
Explanation:Regular review of pain management is crucial in palliative care patients, especially if rescue analgesia is needed frequently. Each patient should be assessed individually, taking into account factors such as pain relief efficacy, adverse effects, and patient preference. For opioid-naïve patients, a safe starting dose of morphine is between 20-30 mg daily, while patients switching from a regular weak opioid can start with 40-60 mg daily. The dose can be given as an immediate-release preparation every four hours or as a modified-release preparation every 12 hours, with additional rescue doses for breakthrough pain. Dose adjustments should be made based on the number of rescue doses required and the patient’s response to them, with increases not exceeding one-third to one-half of the total daily dose every 24 hours. Adjuvant analgesics can also be considered during dose titration. Oxycodone can be used as an alternative to morphine for patients who cannot tolerate it, with a conversion rate of 6.6mg orally to 10 mg of oral morphine. Subcutaneous infusion may be necessary if swallowing is an issue. The equivalent dose of morphine is about half the daily oral requirement, and for diamorphine, one third. A ceiling of morphine immediate-release 30 mg every four hours (or modified-release 100 mg every 12 hours) is usually sufficient for most patients, although higher doses may be necessary in some cases.
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Question 100
Incorrect
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You are assessing a palliative care cancer patient with advanced metastatic disease who is in their 70s.
You have been requested by the palliative care community nurse to attend for a joint home visit as the patient has been experiencing headaches. The patient had a CT head scan four weeks ago that revealed extensive brain metastases.
No further active treatment has been planned, and the patient has chosen to receive home care with community support. You suspect that the headaches are due to increased intracranial pressure.
What is the most appropriate medication to prescribe for symptom relief?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dexamethasone
Explanation:Treatment for Symptoms of Raised Intracranial Pressure in Brain Metastases Patients
This patient is experiencing symptoms of raised intracranial pressure due to brain metastases. Depending on the treatment aims and ceiling of treatment, radiotherapy may be indicated. However, pharmacotherapy can also aid in palliating symptoms. High dose corticosteroids, such as dexamethasone at 16 mg daily for four to five days, followed by a reduced dose of 4-6 mg daily, can help alleviate headaches caused by raised intracranial pressure. Other options may be considered as adjuncts to treatment for pain, nausea, and agitation. Nevertheless, dexamethasone is the best option as it directly targets the underlying problem causing the symptoms in this case.
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Question 101
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man with advanced colon cancer presents with generalized pruritus. Upon examination, there are no visible skin lesions or jaundice. Despite frequent use of emollients, the patient's symptoms persist. Upon reviewing his medication history for symptom management, which of the following drugs is most commonly associated with itching?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Morphine
Explanation:Managing Medication Side Effects in Palliative Care
Medication side effects are a crucial consideration in palliative care. When a patient experiences pruritus without an obvious clinical reason, drug side effects must be taken into account. Morphine, for example, is known to cause itching in some patients by stimulating histamine release. In such cases, switching to an alternative opioid preparation that is less likely to stimulate pruritus, such as oxycodone, may be appropriate.
There are other options available to treat pruritus in certain circumstances. Cetirizine, an antihistamine, can be used as an anti-pruritic. Cholestyramine is useful in treating pruritus due to obstructive jaundice by binding and forming an insoluble complex with bile salts. Anti-inflammatory drugs like ibuprofen have been shown to be effective in some cases of pruritus, as they act on prostaglandins that play a role in its development. Additionally, odansetron has been used to treat pruritus due to its action as a 5-hydroxytrytamine antagonist, as 5-hydroxytryptamine has been shown to be involved in the mechanism of pruritus. By carefully considering medication side effects and choosing appropriate treatments, healthcare providers can help manage symptoms and improve quality of life for palliative care patients.
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Question 102
Incorrect
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As a member of staff at a GP practice, your supervising GP begins discussing the coroner's responsibilities and when it is necessary to refer deceased patients to them. She asks you to identify which of the following cases should be referred to the coroner for an autopsy:
A patient in their 90s who passed away peacefully in their sleep at home.
Please indicate which case requires referral to the coroner.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A patient with a long history of mental illness and self-harm who committed suicide
Explanation:Reporting to the coroner is necessary when a patient dies by suicide, as none of the other options meet the reporting criteria outlined in the notes.
Notifiable Deaths and Reporting to the Coroner
When it comes to death certification, certain deaths are considered notifiable and should be reported to the coroner. These include unexpected or sudden deaths, as well as deaths where the attending doctor did not see the deceased within 28 days prior to their passing (this was increased from 14 days during the COVID pandemic). Additionally, deaths that occur within 24 hours of hospital admission, accidents and injuries, suicide, industrial injury or disease, deaths resulting from ill treatment, starvation, or neglect, deaths occurring during an operation or before recovery from the effect of an anaesthetic, poisoning (including from illicit drugs), stillbirths where there is doubt as to whether the child was born alive, and deaths of prisoners or people in police custody are also considered notifiable.
It is important to note that these deaths should be reported to the coroner, who will then investigate the circumstances surrounding the death. This is to ensure that any potential criminal activity or negligence is properly addressed and that the cause of death is accurately determined. By reporting notifiable deaths to the coroner, we can help ensure that justice is served and that families receive the closure they need during a difficult time.
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Question 103
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner reporting ongoing distress following the sudden death of his wife 12 months ago following a cardiac arrest. He took three months off work to ‘deal with’ his wife’s death and then returned to his full-time role. He lives alone and reports that he has been unable to ‘bounce back’. He thinks of his wife’s death often and it distresses and distracts him. He has been sleeping poorly, has missed several shifts and was finally dismissed from his job. He feels isolated and a sense of responsibility that he did not ‘look after his wife’.
What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Complicated grief
Explanation:Understanding Different Types of Grief and Trauma Reactions
Grief and trauma can manifest in various ways, and it is essential to differentiate between different types of reactions to provide appropriate support and treatment. Complicated grief is a type of grief that persists in its intensity, hindering a person’s ability to engage in normal activities and causing feelings of shame or guilt. This type of grief can last for an extended period, and the person may struggle to accept the death, leading to isolation and loneliness. On the other hand, post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) can result from a distressing event, causing intrusive symptoms such as vivid and distressing memories or flashbacks. Normal grief reactions follow the Kubler Ross model, with stages of denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance. However, if the intense feelings of grief persist, it may indicate complicated grief. Major depressive disorder (MDD) shares some symptoms with complicated grief, but the context of the loss is crucial in distinguishing between the two. Acute stress reaction is a transient disorder that develops in response to exceptional physical and mental stress, subsiding within hours or days, and is not indicated in this case. Understanding these different types of grief and trauma reactions can help in providing appropriate support and treatment to those who need it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
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Question 104
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old patient of yours has terminal lung cancer and is taking morphine. One day you visit him at home to review his medication and check on symptoms. He and his wife are both confused with dosing and think he may have taken too much.
Which of the following symptoms and signs suggests opioid toxicity?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pinpoint pupils
Explanation:Opioid Toxicity and Pain Management in MRCGP Curriculum
Pinpoint pupils, confusion, nightmares, agitation, hypotension, depressed respiration, and myoclonus are all indicative of opioid toxicity. It is important to recognize these symptoms as they can be life-threatening. As part of the MRCGP curriculum, it is essential to have a thorough understanding of pain management, including the most commonly used drugs and any potential adverse effects or interactions. This knowledge will enable healthcare professionals to provide effective pain relief while minimizing the risk of opioid toxicity. Therefore, it is crucial to prioritize this aspect of the curriculum to ensure that doctors are equipped to manage pain in their patients safely and effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
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Question 105
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with advanced lung cancer is an inpatient in his local hospice for symptom control. He is currently unable to swallow medication. A General Practitioner (GP) who works at the hospice one day a week is on call when the patient has his first seizure. It has not resolved after five minutes. Resuscitation equipment is available and the GP is aware that the patient wants active treatment should a seizure occur at home or in the hospice but is not for admission to hospital.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management option?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intravenous lorazepam
Explanation:Treatment Options for Seizures in Palliative Care Patients
Seizures are a common occurrence in palliative care patients, often caused by brain tumors or biochemical imbalances. Advance care planning is crucial to prevent unwanted hospital admissions. Here are some treatment options:
1. Intravenous Lorazepam: Administer 4 mg by slow injection if resuscitation equipment is available.
2. Midazolam or Diazepam: Buccal or subcutaneous administration of 10 mg midazolam or 10 mg rectal solution or per stoma of diazepam is recommended as first-line treatment. If seizure activity persists, the dose can be repeated once after 10-20 minutes.
3. Intravenous Phenytoin: 15 mg/kg (maximum total dose 1 g) can be used for refractory seizures, but requires a filter and cardiac monitoring.
4. Intramuscular Diamorphine: This is not a suitable treatment for seizure activity.
5. Intramuscular Diazepam: Diazepam is a reasonable first-line treatment, but the 10 mg dose should be administered per rectum (or via a stoma if appropriate), and not intramuscularly.
6. Intramuscular Phenobarbital: Phenobarbital 100-200 mg intramuscularly would only be used for a protracted seizure not responding to first-line treatment, under specialist supervision.
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Question 106
Incorrect
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A 51-year-old woman with motor neuron disease seeks guidance. She has come across the Mental Capacity Act and, after consulting with her spouse, has made the decision to decline ventilation if she experiences respiratory failure. What is the best course of action to take?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Advise that his wishes should be written, signed and witnessed
Explanation:Formal advance directives are the preferred option for patients. It should be noted that lasting power of attorney arrangements do not cover decisions related to life-sustaining treatments unless they are explicitly stated.
The Mental Capacity Act was introduced in 2007 and applies to adults over the age of 16. It outlines who can make decisions on behalf of a patient who becomes incapacitated, such as after a stroke. Mental capacity includes the ability to make decisions about daily life, healthcare, and finances. The Act is based on five key principles, including assuming a person has capacity unless proven otherwise, taking all possible steps to help a person make decisions, and making decisions in the person’s best interests.
To assess whether a person lacks capacity, the Act provides a clear test that is decision-specific and time-specific. A person can only be considered unable to make a particular decision if they have an impairment or disturbance in the functioning of the mind or brain and are unable to understand, retain, use, or communicate information relevant to the decision. The Act also emphasizes that no individual can be labeled incapable based on their age, appearance, or any medical condition.
When assessing what is in someone’s best interests, the Act considers factors such as the likelihood of regaining capacity, the person’s wishes and beliefs, and the views of other relevant people. The Act also allows for the appointment of an attorney through a Lasting Power of Attorney (LPA) to act on behalf of a person who loses capacity. The LPA can cover property and financial affairs as well as health and welfare decisions, including life-sustaining treatment. Advance decisions can also be made by individuals with capacity to specify treatments they would not want if they lost capacity. These decisions must be written, signed, and witnessed if they refuse life-sustaining treatment.
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Question 107
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old woman presents with advanced oesophageal cancer.
She has an inoperable tumour and is being managed palliatively. From the description of her symptoms you diagnose oesophageal spasm.
Which of the following would be most helpful in managing her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pamidronate
Explanation:Treatment options for oesophageal spasm
This patient is suffering from oesophageal cancer and is experiencing odynophagia and dysphagia. A clinical diagnosis of oesophageal spasm has been made. There are several treatment options available depending on the underlying cause of the symptoms.
Dexamethasone is useful if the dysphagia is due to tumour enlargement and physical blockage is causing dysphagia. Fluconazole is used to treat oesophagitis caused by candidal infection. Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that can be helpful if symptoms of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease are present. Pamidronate is a bisphosphonate that is administered intravenously to treat bone pain and hypercalcaemia.
Nifedipine can work well in cases like this due to its action of relaxing smooth muscle and can help treat the painful spasm that is underlying the symptoms. It is important to identify the underlying cause of the oesophageal spasm to determine the most effective treatment option. With proper treatment, the patient can experience relief from their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 108
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man has terminal metastatic prostate cancer. His General Practitioner visits him in the care home because he is no longer taking medication by mouth. He is bed-bound and in and out of consciousness. He appears comfortable, but his carers report that he has been intermittently in pain, particularly around personal care. He has a ‘just-in-case box’ of medications available but has not required anything for symptom control yet.
Which of the following medication regimens is the most appropriate management plan?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stat dose of subcutaneous morphine
Explanation:Managing Palliative Care Symptoms with Subcutaneous Medications
To support anticipatory prescribing and access to palliative care medications for patients in the dying phase, ‘just-in-case’ boxes are produced in many areas. These boxes include subcutaneous medication for pain, nausea/vomiting, secretions, and agitation, along with syringes and water for injection. Proactive management of symptom control for patients is a key component of the Gold Standards Framework.
When a patient experiences symptoms for the first time, giving subcutaneous stat doses over 24 hours is useful to assess their needs and guide the amount required in a subsequent continuous syringe driver. This approach is particularly helpful for opioid-naïve patients with intermittent pain, as it allows for a period of assessment to guide a starting dose.
While a buprenorphine patch may be useful earlier in the course of illness, it has a relatively slow onset of action and is difficult to titrate to match rapidly changing pain. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs like diclofenac are unlikely to be used for a sudden increase in pain or breakthrough pain that may occur in the last days of life.
Levomepromazine is a common choice of antiemetic for end-of-life care and will likely be in the patient’s ‘just-in-case’ box. However, it is not the treatment of choice for pain. Overall, subcutaneous medications are an important tool for managing palliative care symptoms and improving the quality of life for patients in the dying phase.
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This question is part of the following fields:
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Question 109
Incorrect
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The husband of a 70-year-old woman who passed away at home after a prolonged battle with liver cancer contacts you for guidance. You have recently filled out the death certificate. The woman's spouse is inquiring about the next course of action. What would be the most suitable recommendation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She should collect the death certificate from the surgery and take it to the local Registrar of Births, Deaths, and Marriages office
Explanation:Death Certification in the UK
There are no legal definitions of death in the UK, but guidelines exist to verify it. According to the current guidance, a doctor or other qualified personnel should verify death, and nurse practitioners may verify but not certify it. After a patient has died, a doctor needs to complete a medical certificate of cause of death (MCCD). However, there is a list of circumstances in which a doctor should notify the Coroner before completing the MCCD.
When completing the MCCD, it is important to note that old age as 1a is only acceptable if the patient was at least 80 years old. Natural causes is not acceptable, and organ failure can only be used if the disease or condition that led to the organ failure is specified. Abbreviations should be avoided, except for HIV and AIDS.
Once the MCCD is completed, the family takes it to the local Registrar of Births, Deaths, and Marriages office to register the death. If the Registrar decides that the death doesn’t need reporting to the Coroner, he/she will issue a certificate for Burial or Cremation and a certificate of Registration of Death for Social Security purposes. Copies of the Death Register are also available upon request, which banks and insurance companies expect to see. If the family wants the burial to be outside of England, an Out of England Order is needed from the coroner.
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This question is part of the following fields:
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Question 110
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old gentleman with terminal metastatic breast cancer has been on a syringe driver for four days following a period of vomiting. He is currently taking a total of 30 mg of diamorphine over 24 hours via a syringe driver, but his nausea is now well controlled and he wishes to go back on to oral medication.
What total dose of oral morphine should you prescribe over a 24-hour period?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 120 mg
Explanation:Drug Calculation Learning Point
When it comes to drug calculations, it’s important to be careful and avoid getting caught out. One common scenario is converting a patient from oral medication to a subcutaneous infusion as their disease progresses. However, it’s also important to be able to take patients off a syringe driver and back on to oral medication. In this case, the total daily dose of diamorphine via syringe driver is one-third of the total oral dose of morphine. It’s easy to get the calculation the wrong way around, so it’s crucial to be familiar with this learning point.
For example, if a patient is having 30 mg of diamorphine over 24 hours, the total 24-hour oral dose of morphine would be 30 mg x 3 = 90 mg oral morphine. This is a common area of weakness in the AKT exam, and examiners have highlighted it as an area of poor performance. Therefore, it’s essential to practice this calculation repeatedly during revision time to ensure a thorough understanding of the concept.
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This question is part of the following fields:
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Question 111
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man who has recently undergone palliative radiotherapy for head and neck cancer visits the clinic complaining of constant diffuse mouth pain. Upon examination, there is widespread erythema with no visible focal lesions, ulceration, or candidiasis.
Apart from administering analgesics, what is the most suitable treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Benzydamine hydrochloride mouthwash
Explanation:Topical sprays are not suitable for providing continuous pain relief throughout the day due to their short duration of action. It is recommended to only use topical local anaesthetics for severe pain.
Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects include nausea, drowsiness, and constipation, which are usually transient but may persist. Denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain in addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 112
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man visits his General Practitioner, complaining of profound fatigue. This has developed during and since he completed adjuvant chemotherapy for prostate cancer. He finds that he is low in energy despite getting around seven hours of sleep a day.
Recent blood tests including a full blood count, prostate-specific antigen (PSA), thyroid function tests, vitamin D, iron studies and renal function are all normal. He requests advice on how he can address his symptoms.
What is the most appropriate advice to give this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She should maintain a good level of physical activity
Explanation:Managing Cancer-Related Fatigue: Practical Advice and Guidance
Cancer-related fatigue is a common symptom experienced by many patients undergoing treatment. While the causes are not fully understood, there are practical steps that can be taken to manage this debilitating condition.
One important factor is maintaining a good level of physical activity. This can help reduce symptoms of fatigue, boost appetite, provide more energy, and improve sleep quality. However, it’s important to strike a healthy balance between activity and rest.
While support groups can be helpful for some patients, it’s important to note that speaking to others about fatigue may worsen symptoms for some. It’s important to find what works best for each individual.
Short-term sedative sleeping tablets are not recommended for managing fatigue. Instead, establishing a sleep routine and practicing good sleep hygiene can be more effective.
Psychological support can also be beneficial for some patients. Many hospitals offer access to counsellors or staff specially trained to provide emotional support to people affected by cancer. Oncologists or specialist nurses can provide information about available services.
Overall, managing cancer-related fatigue requires a multifaceted approach that takes into account individual needs and preferences. By following practical advice and guidance, patients can improve their quality of life and better cope with the challenges of cancer treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
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Question 113
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man was diagnosed with a melanoma six weeks after being referred to the Dermatology Department by his General Practitioner (GP). His friends call his GP, concerned that he has withdrawn to his room over the last four weeks, has stopped playing basketball, has appeared to lose weight, and has missed his hospital appointments. There is a letter in his medical records informing the practice that he has missed two surgery appointments.
He later attends the surgery with a friend. He is dressed scruffily and doesn't make eye contact during your conversation. His Patient Health Questionnaire-9 score is 15.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Major depression
Explanation:Mental Health Issues in Young Cancer Patients: Understanding the Symptoms
Young cancer patients often experience mental health issues that can affect their treatment, survival, and quality of life. Depression and anxiety are common, affecting up to 20% and 10% of patients, respectively. In diagnosing major depression, symptoms such as depressed mood, diminished interest in activities, and significant weight changes are present. Brain metastases typically present with symptoms such as headaches, seizures, or neurological disease, which this patient doesn’t have. Acute psychotic reactions involve symptoms of delusions, hallucinations, or thought disorders, which are not present in this case. Phobic anxiety disorder involves anxiety out of proportion with the threat posed, which is not present in this patient. PTSD involves recurrent intrusive thoughts about a traumatic event, which this patient doesn’t exhibit. Understanding these symptoms can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate support and treatment for young cancer patients with mental health issues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
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Question 114
Incorrect
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You are requested to make a home visit for a palliative care patient who is experiencing difficulties with a cutaneous metastatic lesion. She is an elderly woman with advanced metastatic breast cancer and has developed a fungating deposit in her left groin that has been treated with regular dressings by the district nurses. In recent days, she has been experiencing issues with localized capillary bleeding from the wound that has not responded to local pressure and simple dressings.
What treatments would be suitable in this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tranexamic acid 1g TDS orally
Explanation:Treatment Options for Capillary Bleeding
In cases of capillary bleeding, there are several treatment options available. Oral tranexamic acid is one option that can be used to treat this type of bleeding. It is recommended to continue its use for an additional week after the bleeding has stopped. Topical options include gauze soaked in tranexamic acid 100 mg/mL or adrenaline solution 1 mg/mL (1 in 1000), which can be applied directly to the affected area.
It is important to note that intramuscular adrenaline has no role in treating localised capillary bleeding. Topical metronidazole is used in treating malodorous fungating tumours, but it is not effective in stopping bleeding. Oral steroids have numerous effects, but they would not halt bleeding. However, oral vitamin K may be useful when bleeding is due to prolonged clotting in liver disease.
In summary, when dealing with capillary bleeding, it is important to consider the appropriate treatment options and use them accordingly. Oral tranexamic acid and topical solutions such as gauze soaked in tranexamic acid or adrenaline solution can be effective in stopping bleeding, while other options such as intramuscular adrenaline and topical metronidazole are not recommended for this purpose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
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Question 115
Incorrect
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At what stage are GPs typically involved in myeloma?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: ESR and plasma viscosity are nearly always raised
Explanation:Understanding Multiple Myeloma
Multiple myeloma is a type of cancer that affects the plasma cells in the bone marrow. It is characterized by the presence of abnormal plasma cells that produce an excess of monoclonal antibodies, also known as paraproteins. Here are some key diagnostic markers and symptoms of multiple myeloma:
– Bence Jones protein is a reliable diagnostic marker.
– Bone pain is common, usually in the back, but not in the skull.
– White blood cell count is usually normal or low, with a classic leucoerythroblastic anemia.
– Paraprotein may be absent in 20% of cases, but there are light chains in the urine.
– Serum calcium can be normal or raised, and both ESR (usually) and CRP (nearly always) are raised.
– IL6 is a key myeloma growth cytokine. Serum IL6 is raised in active myelomatosis and it primarily controls CRP production. A rise in IL6 is mirrored by a rise in CRP.
– Bone lesions are lytic.It is important to note that multiple myeloma can present differently in each individual, and a proper diagnosis requires a thorough evaluation by a healthcare professional. If you are experiencing any symptoms or have concerns about multiple myeloma, please consult with your doctor.
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Question 116
Incorrect
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You are seeing a 65-year-old man with locally advanced prostate cancer which has been considered by his oncologist to be at a high risk of progression.
He is taking bicalutamide 150 mg daily.
What is the most common side effect of this medication?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Renal failure
Explanation:Bicalutamide and its Side Effects According to BNF
Bicalutamide is a medication used to treat locally advanced prostate cancer at high risk of disease progression. The British National Formulary (BNF) lists the frequency of side effects, with hepatic disorders (including jaundice) being among the most common. Photosensitivity reactions are rare or very rare, while renal failure is not listed as a side effect in the BNF, although haematuria can occur less commonly. Therefore, clinicians are advised to consider periodic liver function tests for patients undergoing bicalutamide treatment. The RCGP may set questions based on the BNF for the AKT, testing candidates’ knowledge of less well-known medication side effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
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Question 117
Incorrect
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You are visiting 84-year-old Mr. Smith who has metastatic lung cancer and has been experiencing nausea and vomiting for the past week. He reports regular nausea, oesophageal reflux, and occasional large volumes of vomit, which provide temporary relief.
Upon conducting a thorough assessment, you suspect that his symptoms are caused by gastric stasis and decide to initiate an anti-emetic.
What is the most suitable medication to begin in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metoclopramide
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines, dopamine (D2) receptor antagonists such as metoclopramide or domperidone should be used as the first-line treatment for nausea and vomiting caused by gastric dysmotility and stasis in palliative care. Cyclizine, an antihistaminic and anticholinergic anti-emetic, would not be appropriate for this condition. Hyoscine butylbromide is another anticholinergic anti-emetic that can be used. Levomepromazine, a broad-spectrum anti-emetic, is useful for persistent nausea and vomiting that is not controlled by other anti-emetics, as well as for mechanical obstruction.
Nausea and Vomiting in Palliative Care: Mechanistic Approach to Prescribing
Nausea and vomiting in palliative care can have multiple causes, but identifying the most prominent one is crucial in guiding the choice of anti-emetic therapy. Six broad syndromes have been identified, with gastric stasis and chemical disturbance being the most common. In general, pharmacological therapy is the first-line method for treating nausea and vomiting in palliative care. There are two approaches to choosing drug therapy: empirical and mechanistic. The mechanistic approach matches the choice of anti-emetic drug to the likely cause of the patient’s nausea and vomiting.
For reduced gastric motility, pro-kinetic agents such as metoclopramide and domperidone are useful. However, metoclopramide should not be used when pro-kinesis may negatively affect the gastrointestinal tract. For chemically mediated nausea and vomiting, the chemical disturbance should be corrected first. Key treatment options include ondansetron, haloperidol, and levomepromazine. Cyclizine and levomepromazine are first-line for visceral/serosal causes, while anticholinergics such as hyoscine can be useful. For raised Intracranial pressure, cyclizine and dexamethasone are recommended. For vestibular causes, cyclizine is the first-line treatment, while atypical antipsychotics such as olanzapine or risperidone can be used in refractory cases. If anticipatory nausea is the clear cause, a short-acting benzodiazepine such as lorazepam can be useful.
NICE CKS recommends that oral anti-emetics are preferable and should be used if possible. If the oral route is not possible, the parenteral route of administration is preferred. The intravenous route can be used if intravenous access is already established. By using a mechanistic approach to prescribing, healthcare professionals can tailor anti-emetic therapy to the specific cause of nausea and vomiting in palliative care patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
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Question 118
Incorrect
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You are asked to assess an elderly 83-year-old man who has advanced prostate cancer and is experiencing poor appetite and anorexia. Upon further inquiry, he reports that his nausea is well-managed with cyclizine as needed, and he doesn't have any difficulty swallowing. His pain is adequately controlled, and he has regular bowel movements. What would be the most beneficial approach in this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nutritional supplements alongside any tolerated diet
Explanation:Addressing Lack of Appetite in Palliative Care Patients
A thorough history and clinical examination are crucial in identifying the underlying cause of anorexia and lack of appetite in palliative care patients. Pain, constipation, nausea, vomiting, and dysphagia are some of the potential causes that need to be treated accordingly. However, if the primary cause is a lack of appetite, specific measures should be taken to address it.
Home care input may not be effective in improving appetite, and changing antiemetics is unnecessary if the current medication is working well. Nutritional supplements may aid in caloric intake, but addressing the lack of appetite is still the priority. Referral for PEG feeding is not appropriate if there are no physical problems preventing oral intake.
The best option to stimulate appetite and improve oral intake is a course of prednisolone or dexamethasone. These corticosteroids have been proven to increase appetite and enjoyment of food in many patients. Progestogens are also effective but are more expensive.
In conclusion, addressing the lack of appetite in palliative care patients is crucial in improving their quality of life. A thorough assessment of the underlying cause is necessary, and appropriate measures should be taken to address it. Corticosteroids such as prednisolone and dexamethasone are effective in stimulating appetite and improving oral intake.
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This question is part of the following fields:
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Question 119
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman has metastatic breast cancer in her bones. Pain has been well controlled with modified-release morphine and she is still quite mobile. A palliative care nurse has given her a National Comprehensive Cancer Network (NCCN) Distress Thermometer for Patients. This is a visual analogue scale that records subjective distress on a scale of 0-10. She records 7-8 and most of this is recorded as being due to emotional issues (depression, nervousness, worry, loss of interest). She is assessed to have moderate depression with significant functional impairment. She declines psychological intervention, but would be happy to take medication.
Which of the following is the most appropriate medication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Chlorine salicylate gel
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Question 120
Incorrect
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You are asked to prescribe a syringe driver for a palliative care patient with pain who is now struggling to swallow tablets.
Her pain has been well controlled on morphine sulphate tablets, 60 mg twice a day, and severadol (quick release morphine) 20 mg three times a day.
You decide to prescribe morphine, subcutaneously, via the syringe driver.
Which of the following dosing regime would be appropriate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 120 mg over 24 hours. 10 mg as required, for breakthrough pain.
Explanation:Calculating Morphine Dosage for Palliative Care Patients
When prescribing medication for palliative care patients, it is crucial to calculate the correct dosage to effectively manage their pain. The calculation involves two parts: determining the total amount of morphine to be placed in the syringe driver for continuous 24-hour administration and calculating the as required or breakthrough dose.
To calculate the total amount of morphine required, the total amount of morphine the patient needs in 24 hours to control their pain must be added up. It is important to note that morphine is approximately twice as effective when given subcutaneously or intravenously as when given orally. Therefore, the required dose is half of the calculated amount.
The breakthrough dose should always be one-sixth of the total dose placed in the syringe driver. This allows for effective pain management when the patient experiences sudden spikes in pain.
Regular review of the analgesia regime is essential to ensure the patient’s pain is adequately managed. If available, diamorphine is the first drug of choice for treating severe pain in cancer patients parenterally. A conversion factor of 3 should be used when converting from oral morphine to parenteral diamorphine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
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Question 121
Incorrect
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You are counselling the wife of a man who has passed away suddenly due to a heart attack. Three weeks after his death, she brings up some financial struggles she is facing. What is the determining factor for her eligibility for the Bereavement Support Payment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Benefits for Bereavement
When a loved one passes away, it can be a difficult time emotionally and financially. However, there are benefits available to help ease the financial burden. One such benefit is the Funeral Payment, which is a one-time payment given to the partner or parent of the deceased if they are on benefits to help pay for the funeral. Another benefit is the Bereavement Support Payment, which includes a lump sum and up to 18 monthly payments if the claimant is under the state pension age when their partner died. The amount received depends on the national insurance contributions and whether the claimant receives Child Benefit.
Additionally, there is the Widowed Parent’s Allowance, which is payable to a parent whose husband or wife has died. To be eligible, the surviving partner must be bringing up a child under 19 years of age and receiving Child Benefit. The deceased partner must have made adequate national insurance contributions, and the woman may also be eligible if she was expecting her late husband’s baby. However, divorcees and those who remarry are not eligible to claim. While GPs may not be experts on these benefits, it is important to have a basic understanding of them to provide support and guidance to patients during a difficult time.
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Question 122
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old woman comes to the General Practitioner for a consultation. She has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and is concerned about the impact on her life expectancy.
Which of the following features is most likely to suggest that the end of life is approaching (ie within the next 12 months)?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The doctor feels he will die soon
Explanation:The Gold Standards Framework (GSF) Prognostic Indicator Guidance aims to identify patients who are nearing the end of their life. The first step is to ask the surprise question to determine if the doctor would be surprised if the patient were to die in the next few months, weeks, or days. If the answer is no, measures should be taken to improve the patient’s quality of life. If the answer is yes, two further steps outline general indicators of decline and specific indicators for different diseases. For COPD, at least two of the following indicators should be present: severe disease, recurrent hospital admissions, long-term oxygen therapy criteria, MRC grade 4/5, signs and symptoms of right heart failure, combination of other factors, or more than six weeks of systemic steroids for COPD in the preceding six months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 123
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man is brought to the doctor by his wife because of a 2-week history of increasing confusion. He has advanced prostate cancer. He reports constipation, passing urine more frequently and feeling nauseous. He has no signs of infection, and urine testing is negative. He is taking ibuprofen and paracetamol for backache and receives gonadorelin analogue injections for his cancer, but takes no other medications. The clinical examination is unremarkable.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's clinical presentation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypercalcaemia
Explanation:Hypercalcaemia: Symptoms, Complications, and Treatment Options
Hypercalcaemia is a medical condition characterized by high levels of calcium in the blood. This condition can cause a range of symptoms, including constipation, nausea, polyuria, confusion, depression, lethargy, weakness, and bone pain. In chronic cases, hypercalcaemia can lead to the formation of renal stones. If left untreated, calcium levels greater than 3.5 mmol/l can cause renal failure and arrhythmias.
The treatment of hypercalcaemia involves identifying and removing the underlying causes, rehydration, and, if necessary, the use of bisphosphonates. In cases where primary hyperparathyroidism is the cause, surgical treatment may be necessary.
In summary, hypercalcaemia is a serious medical condition that can cause a range of symptoms and complications. Early diagnosis and treatment are essential to prevent further health problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 124
Incorrect
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A 66-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with spinal pain. He has a history of bronchial carcinoma. Which of the following signs is LEAST indicative of spinal metastases?
Select ONE answer only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lumbar pain relieved by rest and aggravated by movement
Explanation:Recognizing Spinal Metastases: Symptoms and Risks
Spinal metastases pose a significant risk of spinal cord compression, affecting 5-10% of all cancer patients. While all options may indicate spinal metastases, it is crucial to identify specific symptoms. Lumbar pain that worsens with movement and improves with rest is a common symptom of mechanical back pain, but other concerning features include progressive and nocturnal spinal pain. If a patient presents with symptoms suggestive of spinal metastases, doctors should consult with the local metastatic spinal cord coordinator within 24 hours to ensure prompt and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 125
Incorrect
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You are asked to see a 64-year-old woman known to have breast cancer.
Her family has become worried as yesterday she seemed to be behaving 'oddly'. They tell you that her behaviour has become inappropriate and that she has been walking around the house naked and been swearing a lot in conversation. Prior to yesterday she was her 'usual self'.
The family also report that she seems to be passing urine and opening her bowels as per usual and that she has been eating and drinking fine.
Examination reveals that the patient is alert and uncomplaining. Temperature is 37.1°C, blood pressure is 118/78 mmHg and pulse rate is 86 regular. Systems examination doesn't reveal anything acute aside from the patient swearing frequently and talking about inappropriate topics of conversation. Urine dipstick testing reveals 'trace' of blood and protein.
Which if the following investigations will confirm the underlying diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urine microscopy, culture and sensitivity
Explanation:Considerations for a Patient with Metastatic Cancer and Acute Change in Mental Status
A variety of factors need to be considered when a patient with metastatic cancer presents with an acute change in mental status. In this scenario, potential causes such as infection, hypercalcaemia, and brain metastases should be ruled out. It is also important to review the patient’s drug history to rule out any iatrogenic causes.
In this case, the patient’s observations, including temperature, pulse rate, and blood pressure, are normal, and there are no signs of infection. The urine dipstick test doesn’t reveal any significant abnormalities. The symptoms are also not consistent with hypercalcaemia.
However, the patient’s acute change in mental status with disinhibition requires urgent referral to the hospital and a CT head scan to look for frontal lobe metastases. A full ‘confusion’ screen would also be carried out to further investigate the underlying cause.
In summary, when a patient with metastatic cancer presents with an acute change in mental status, a thorough evaluation of potential causes is necessary to ensure appropriate management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 126
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old patient passes away in a nursing home. You were familiar with her and are requested to fill out the death certificate. She has been experiencing a gradual decline over the past few weeks and died peacefully in her sleep. What could be a possible cause of death under certain conditions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Old age
Explanation:Old age or frailty due to old age can only be listed as the cause of death if specific criteria are fulfilled. These include personally caring for the deceased over a long period, observing a gradual decline in their health and functioning, not being aware of any identifiable disease or injury contributing to the death, being certain that there is no other reason to report the death to the procurator fiscal, and the patient being 80 years or older. Other options such as terminal events or vague phrases like cardiovascular event are not appropriate as they do not identify a specific disease or pathological process.
Death Certification in the UK
There are no legal definitions of death in the UK, but guidelines exist to verify it. According to the current guidance, a doctor or other qualified personnel should verify death, and nurse practitioners may verify but not certify it. After a patient has died, a doctor needs to complete a medical certificate of cause of death (MCCD). However, there is a list of circumstances in which a doctor should notify the Coroner before completing the MCCD.
When completing the MCCD, it is important to note that old age as 1a is only acceptable if the patient was at least 80 years old. Natural causes is not acceptable, and organ failure can only be used if the disease or condition that led to the organ failure is specified. Abbreviations should be avoided, except for HIV and AIDS.
Once the MCCD is completed, the family takes it to the local Registrar of Births, Deaths, and Marriages office to register the death. If the Registrar decides that the death doesn’t need reporting to the Coroner, he/she will issue a certificate for Burial or Cremation and a certificate of Registration of Death for Social Security purposes. Copies of the Death Register are also available upon request, which banks and insurance companies expect to see. If the family wants the burial to be outside of England, an Out of England Order is needed from the coroner.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 127
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with worsening shortness of breath. He was recently diagnosed with small cell lung cancer and is awaiting treatment. On examination, he has a red face, stridor, dilated veins over his upper body and face, and swelling in his arms.
What is the most suitable course of action for managing his condition at this point?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent referral for consideration of chemotherapy
Explanation:Superior Vena Cava Obstruction: A Palliative Care Emergency
Superior vena cava obstruction (SVCO) is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention in palliative care. It occurs when central venous return is impaired due to compression, obstruction, or thrombosis. Patients with SVCO often present before a definitive diagnosis of the underlying pathology is made. The most common causes of SVCO are lung cancer (70% of cases) and lymphoma (8%).
Active intervention is appropriate for patients with SVCO who are still ambulant. Hospital admission is required for assessment and possible chemotherapy/radiotherapy, stenting, or other interventions. Corticosteroids and diuretics may be used in emergency situations, but they are not appropriate as a first-line management option when there is evidence of airway compromise.
After treatment, the average survival is eight months. If a patient is bed-bound, terminal, or refusing intervention, or if no further treatment is available, symptom-control measures should be given, and nursing support should be arranged.
In conclusion, SVCO is a serious condition that requires prompt intervention in palliative care. Early diagnosis and treatment can improve outcomes and quality of life for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 128
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman has lung cancer. She saw her oncologist one month ago who told her that the prognosis was poor and that she was unlikely to survive for more than a year.
Now she comes to see you with pains in her back. Her corrected calcium is 3.5 mmol/l.
The normal calcium range is around 2.2 to 2.6 millimoles per litre (mmol/L).
What should you do first?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Admission to treat the hypercalcaemia
Explanation:Managing Hypercalcaemia in Palliative Care
You should urgently arrange intravenous treatment for hypercalcaemia in palliative care patients, especially when the calcium level is very high. This may indicate bone metastases or a non-metastatic effect of malignancy. As a GP, the most appropriate decision would be to admit the patient for immediate treatment.
The RCGP emphasizes that an AKT question may have several plausible answers, but the candidate’s ability to select the most appropriate one is crucial. In this case, admitting the patient for treatment is the best course of action.
Once admitted, the patient may receive intravenous 0.9% saline to increase circulating volume. Adding a loop diuretic may also help by inhibiting the tubular reabsorption of calcium. Additionally, a bisphosphonate may reduce bone turnover.
This question is part of the MRCGP examination curriculum, which requires candidates to have knowledge of various palliative care emergencies and their appropriate management. These emergencies include major haemorrhage, hypercalcaemia, superior vena caval obstruction, spinal cord compression, bone fractures, anxiety/panic, and the use of emergency drugs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 129
Incorrect
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You are discussing a case with the pediatric palliative care nurse. You have a young patient who has been on long term oral prednisolone that the palliative care team want to switch to oral dexamethasone. This prompts discussion about the relative potencies of steroid preparations.
Place the following corticosteroid medications in order of their anti-inflammatory (glucocorticoid) potency from strongest to weakest:
A Deflazacort
B Dexamethasone
C Hydrocortisone
D Methylprednisolone
E PrednisoloneYour Answer:
Correct Answer: D A B C E
Explanation:Understanding the Potency of Corticosteroids
Corticosteroids are commonly used in daily practice to manage various conditions such as asthma, COPD, inflammatory joint disease, and even in palliative care to manage cerebral edema associated with malignancy and chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. However, not all corticosteroids have the same anti-inflammatory potency.
To understand the relative potencies of corticosteroids, it is important to compare their glucocorticoid effects. The British National Formulary (BNF) provides a useful table that lists equivalent anti-inflammatory doses of various corticosteroids. For example, 5 mg of prednisolone is equivalent to 6 mg of deflazacort, 750 µgrams of dexamethasone, 20 mg of hydrocortisone, and 4 mg of methylprednisolone.
Knowing the relative potencies of corticosteroids can help healthcare professionals make informed decisions when prescribing them for their patients. It is important to note that the uses of corticosteroids are vast and varied, and the appropriate choice of corticosteroid depends on the specific condition being treated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 130
Incorrect
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An 87-year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer who is in the last days of life is having difficulty drinking due to swallowing problems. Her main symptoms of pain and nausea are being managed with a syringe driver. She complains of thirst despite frequent mouth care.
Which is the most appropriate treatment option?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Consider subcutaneous fluids
Explanation:Managing Thirst in a Dying Patient: Considerations and Options
As a patient approaches the end of life, their need for food and water decreases. However, thirst can still be a distressing symptom. When managing a dying patient’s hydration status, it is important to consider their wishes and preferences, as well as the potential risks and benefits of clinically assisted hydration. Here are some options to consider when a patient is complaining of thirst:
– Subcutaneous fluids: This can be a good option for providing symptomatic relief without overloading the patient with fluids.
– Increasing haloperidol in the syringe driver: While haloperidol can be helpful for managing nausea and vomiting, it is unlikely to improve thirst.
– Continuing mouth care and sips of water only: While this may be appropriate for some patients, it may not be enough to relieve thirst in others.
– Increasing morphine in the syringe driver: While morphine can be helpful for pain relief, it is unlikely to improve thirst.
– Inserting a nasogastric tube: If clinically assisted hydration is necessary, subcutaneous fluids are generally a more comfortable and less invasive option than a nasogastric tube.Ultimately, the goal of managing thirst in a dying patient is to provide comfort and relief, rather than to prolong life. Each patient’s situation should be evaluated on an individual basis, with their wishes and preferences taken into account.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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