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  • Question 1 - A 25-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 4-week history of dry...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 4-week history of dry cough and chest tightness. She was diagnosed with asthma 8-months ago and has been using a salbutamol inhaler as needed. However, she has noticed an increase in shortness of breath over the past month and has been using her inhaler up to 12 times per day.

      During the examination, her vital signs are normal. Her peak expiratory flow rate is 290L/min (best 400 L/min).

      What is the next course of action in managing this patient's asthma symptoms?

      Your Answer: Low-dose inhaled corticosteroid

      Explanation:

      For an adult with asthma that is not controlled by a short-acting beta-agonist, the appropriate next step is to add a low-dose inhaled corticosteroid. This is in accordance with NICE guidelines. The addition of a combined inhaled corticosteroid and long-acting beta-agonist is not recommended until symptoms cannot be controlled with a low-dose inhaled corticosteroid and a short-acting beta-agonist, with or without a leukotriene receptor antagonist. Similarly, a leukotriene receptor antagonist or long-acting beta-agonist should not be introduced until symptoms are not controlled with a low-dose inhaled corticosteroid and a short-acting beta-agonist, with or without a leukotriene receptor antagonist.

      The management of asthma in adults has been updated by NICE in 2017, following the 2016 BTS guidelines. One of the significant changes is in ‘step 3’, where patients on a SABA + ICS whose asthma is not well controlled should be offered a leukotriene receptor antagonist instead of a LABA. NICE does not follow the stepwise approach of the previous BTS guidelines, but to make the guidelines easier to follow, we have added our own steps. The steps range from newly-diagnosed asthma to SABA +/- LTRA + one of the following options, including increasing ICS to high-dose, a trial of an additional drug, or seeking advice from a healthcare professional with expertise in asthma. Maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) is a form of combined ICS and LABA treatment that is only available for ICS and LABA combinations in which the LABA has a fast-acting component. It should be noted that NICE does not recommend changing treatment in patients who have well-controlled asthma simply to adhere to the latest guidance. The definitions of what constitutes a low, moderate, or high-dose ICS have also changed, with <= 400 micrograms budesonide or equivalent being a low dose, 400 micrograms - 800 micrograms budesonide or equivalent being a moderate dose, and > 800 micrograms budesonide or equivalent being a high dose for adults.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      46.1
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  • Question 2 - As the on-call duty doctor, you are in your room when a receptionist...

    Correct

    • As the on-call duty doctor, you are in your room when a receptionist rushes in, alarmed that an elderly woman has been hit by a car in the surgery car park. The receptionist calls an ambulance while you quickly assess the patient. The patient's airway is clear, with spontaneous breathing at a rate of 18 breaths per minute and oxygen saturation of 98% on room air. The patient is hemodynamically stable with a heart rate of 70 beats per minute and blood pressure of 138/86 mmHg. The patient is lethargic, but responds to voice and exhibits abnormal flexion in response to pain. The patient mumbles incomprehensible sounds when asked questions. What is the patient's Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score based on your assessment?

      Your Answer: 8

      Explanation:

      What is the patient’s GCS based on the assessment that he is drowsy, but his eyes open to voice and exhibits abnormal flexion to pain, and mutters incomprehensible sounds in response to questions?
      GCS score is 7.

      Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale for Adults

      The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool used to assess the level of consciousness in adults who have suffered a brain injury or other neurological condition. It is based on three components: motor response, verbal response, and eye opening. Each component is scored on a scale from 1 to 6, with a higher score indicating a better level of consciousness.

      The motor response component assesses the patient’s ability to move in response to stimuli. A score of 6 indicates that the patient is able to obey commands, while a score of 1 indicates no movement at all.

      The verbal response component assesses the patient’s ability to communicate. A score of 5 indicates that the patient is fully oriented, while a score of 1 indicates no verbal response at all.

      The eye opening component assesses the patient’s ability to open their eyes. A score of 4 indicates that the patient is able to open their eyes spontaneously, while a score of 1 indicates no eye opening at all.

      The GCS score is expressed as a combination of the scores from each component, with the motor response score listed first, followed by the verbal response score, and then the eye opening score. For example, a GCS score of 13, M5 V4 E4 at 21:30 would indicate that the patient had a motor response score of 5, a verbal response score of 4, and an eye opening score of 4 at 9:30 PM.

      Overall, the Glasgow Coma Scale is a useful tool for healthcare professionals to assess the level of consciousness in adults with neurological conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      63.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 30-year-old man comes to you with a painful and swollen left knee....

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man comes to you with a painful and swollen left knee. He recently returned from a trip to Spain about 4 weeks ago. He denies any history of knee problems or trauma. Upon examination, you notice that his left knee is warm and swollen, but he has a full range of motion. Additionally, he complains of pain when moving his ankle joints, but there is no visible swelling. You also observe a waxy yellow rash on the soles of both feet. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Reactive arthritis

      Explanation:

      Keratoderma blenorrhagica is the cause of the rash on the soles. The reactive arthritis he is experiencing could be a result of a gastrointestinal infection or Chlamydia.

      Understanding Reactive Arthritis: Symptoms and Features

      Reactive arthritis is a type of seronegative spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It was previously known as Reiter’s syndrome, which was characterized by a triad of urethritis, conjunctivitis, and arthritis following a dysenteric illness during World War II. However, later studies revealed that patients could also develop symptoms after a sexually transmitted infection, now referred to as sexually acquired reactive arthritis (SARA).

      Reactive arthritis is defined as an arthritis that develops after an infection, but the organism cannot be recovered from the joint. The symptoms typically develop within four weeks of the initial infection and last for around 4-6 months. Approximately 25% of patients experience recurrent episodes, while 10% develop chronic disease. The arthritis is usually an asymmetrical oligoarthritis of the lower limbs, and patients may also experience dactylitis.

      Other symptoms of reactive arthritis include urethritis, conjunctivitis (seen in 10-30% of patients), and anterior uveitis. Skin symptoms may also occur, such as circinate balanitis (painless vesicles on the coronal margin of the prepuce) and keratoderma blenorrhagica (waxy yellow/brown papules on palms and soles). A helpful mnemonic to remember the symptoms of reactive arthritis is Can’t see, pee, or climb a tree.

      In conclusion, understanding the symptoms and features of reactive arthritis is crucial for early diagnosis and treatment. While the condition can be recurrent or chronic, prompt management can help alleviate symptoms and improve quality of life for affected individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      31.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 64-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and ischaemic...

    Incorrect

    • A 64-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and ischaemic heart disease visits his GP complaining of erectile dysfunction. What medication would make prescribing sildenafil contraindicated?

      Your Answer: Metformin

      Correct Answer: Isosorbide mononitrate

      Explanation:

      Sildenafil, a PDE 5 inhibitor, should not be taken with nitrates or nicorandil as it can enhance the vasodilating effects of these medications.

      Understanding Phosphodiesterase Type V Inhibitors

      Phosphodiesterase type V (PDE5) inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. These drugs work by increasing the levels of cGMP, which leads to the relaxation of smooth muscles in the blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which was the first drug of its kind. It is a short-acting medication that is usually taken one hour before sexual activity.

      Other PDE5 inhibitors include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra). Tadalafil is longer-acting than sildenafil and can be taken on a regular basis, while vardenafil has a similar duration of action to sildenafil. However, these drugs are not suitable for everyone. Patients taking nitrates or related drugs, those with hypotension, and those who have had a recent stroke or myocardial infarction should not take PDE5 inhibitors.

      Like all medications, PDE5 inhibitors can cause side effects. These may include visual disturbances, blue discolouration, non-arteritic anterior ischaemic neuropathy, nasal congestion, flushing, gastrointestinal side-effects, headache, and priapism. It is important to speak to a healthcare professional before taking any medication to ensure that it is safe and appropriate for you.

      Overall, PDE5 inhibitors are an effective treatment for erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. However, they should only be used under the guidance of a healthcare professional and with careful consideration of the potential risks and benefits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      14.3
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  • Question 5 - A 70-year-old woman presents with complaints of dyspnea. Upon examination, fine bibasal crackles...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman presents with complaints of dyspnea. Upon examination, fine bibasal crackles are heard in the lungs. Which of the following result sets would be indicative of pulmonary fibrosis?

      Your Answer: FEV1 - reduced, FEV1/FVC - reduced

      Correct Answer: FVC - reduced, FEV1/FVC - normal

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pulmonary Function Tests

      Pulmonary function tests are a useful tool in determining whether a respiratory disease is obstructive or restrictive. These tests measure the amount of air a person can exhale forcefully and the total amount of air they can exhale. The results of these tests can help diagnose conditions such as asthma, COPD, bronchiectasis, and pulmonary fibrosis.

      Obstructive lung diseases are characterized by a significant reduction in the amount of air a person can exhale forcefully (FEV1) and a reduced FEV1/FVC ratio. Examples of obstructive lung diseases include asthma, COPD, bronchiectasis, and bronchiolitis obliterans.

      On the other hand, restrictive lung diseases are characterized by a significant reduction in the total amount of air a person can exhale (FVC) and a normal or increased FEV1/FVC ratio. Examples of restrictive lung diseases include pulmonary fibrosis, asbestosis, sarcoidosis, acute respiratory distress syndrome, infant respiratory distress syndrome, kyphoscoliosis, and neuromuscular disorders.

      Understanding the results of pulmonary function tests can help healthcare professionals diagnose and manage respiratory diseases more effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      24.1
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  • Question 6 - A 57-year-old man presents with a 4 weeks-history of productive cough, dyspnoea, and...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old man presents with a 4 weeks-history of productive cough, dyspnoea, and pleuritic chest pain. He has had associated lethargy, weight loss, a swinging fever and night sweats. He had a stroke two years ago.

      Sputum and blood cultures are collected. After a chest x-ray revealed a fluid-filled space within an area of consolidation in his left lung, he was given IV antibiotics.

      However, the patient's condition has not improved and instead appears to be worsening. What is the most appropriate next step in his management?

      Your Answer: Arrange CT-guided percutaneous drainage

      Explanation:

      If a lung abscess is not responding to intravenous antibiotics, percutaneous drainage should be considered as an option.

      Correct: Arrange CT-guided percutaneous drainage. This is because the patient’s symptoms, such as swinging fevers, night sweats, pleuritic chest pain, dyspnoea, and cough, are consistent with a lung abscess. The chest x-ray also supports this diagnosis by showing a fluid-filled space within an area of consolidation. If IV antibiotics are not effective, percutaneous drainage can be guided by a CT scan or ultrasound. IV antibiotics may not be able to penetrate the abscess wall, which is why some patients do not respond to this treatment.

      Incorrect: Arrange bronchoscopy. This is not commonly used for lung abscesses and is only indicated if an underlying tumour or foreign body is suspected. It is performed for diagnosis only, not drainage.

      Incorrect: Arrange sputum cytology. Sputum cultures have already been collected, and a diagnosis of lung abscess has been established. This option could be considered later if the patient still does not respond to treatment to rule out an underlying malignancy.

      Incorrect: Prescribe broad-spectrum IV antibiotics. This option is unlikely to be effective since the patient has already received IV antibiotics without success. The next step would be to manually drain the abscess.

      Understanding Lung Abscess

      A lung abscess is a localized infection that occurs within the lung tissue. It is commonly caused by aspiration pneumonia, which can be triggered by poor dental hygiene, reduced consciousness, or previous stroke. Other potential causes include haematogenous spread, direct extension, and bronchial obstruction. The infection is typically polymicrobial, with Staphylococcus aureus, Klebsiella pneumonia, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa being the most common monomicrobial causes.

      The symptoms of lung abscess are similar to pneumonia, but they tend to develop more slowly over several weeks. Patients may experience fever, productive cough, foul-smelling sputum, chest pain, and dyspnea. Some may also have systemic features such as night sweats and weight loss, while a minority may experience haemoptysis. Physical examination may reveal dull percussion and bronchial breathing, as well as clubbing in some cases.

      To diagnose lung abscess, a chest x-ray is usually performed, which shows a fluid-filled space within an area of consolidation. Sputum and blood cultures should also be obtained to identify the causative organism. Treatment typically involves intravenous antibiotics, but if the infection does not resolve, percutaneous drainage or surgical resection may be required in rare cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      24.3
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  • Question 7 - A 26-year-old man presents to the GUM clinic with penile discharge and dysuria...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man presents to the GUM clinic with penile discharge and dysuria for the past 5 days. Urethral swabs are taken and microscopy reveals the presence of diplococci. Sensitivities are not yet available, and he is diagnosed with gonorrhoea. What is the recommended initial treatment?

      Your Answer: Oral azithromycin

      Correct Answer: IM ceftriaxone

      Explanation:

      Gonorrhoea is best treated with intramuscular ceftriaxone, and it is crucial to notify and treat sexual partners. All patients with gonorrhoea should undergo a test of cure after 2 weeks.

      Understanding Gonorrhoea: Causes, Symptoms, Microbiology, and Management

      Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the Gram-negative diplococcus Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It can occur on any mucous membrane surface, including the genitourinary tract, rectum, and pharynx. The incubation period of gonorrhoea is typically 2-5 days. Symptoms in males include urethral discharge and dysuria, while females may experience cervicitis leading to vaginal discharge. Rectal and pharyngeal infections are usually asymptomatic.

      Immunisation against gonorrhoea is not possible, and reinfection is common due to antigen variation of type IV pili and Opa proteins. Local complications may develop, including urethral strictures, epididymitis, and salpingitis, which can lead to infertility. Disseminated infection may also occur, with gonococcal infection being the most common cause of septic arthritis in young adults.

      Management of gonorrhoea involves the use of antibiotics. Ciprofloxacin used to be the treatment of choice, but there is now increased resistance to it. Cephalosporins are now more widely used, with a single dose of IM ceftriaxone 1g being the new first-line treatment. If ceftriaxone is refused, oral cefixime 400mg + oral azithromycin 2g should be used. Disseminated gonococcal infection (DGI) and gonococcal arthritis may also occur, with symptoms including tenosynovitis, migratory polyarthritis, and dermatitis. Later complications include septic arthritis, endocarditis, and perihepatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      28.3
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  • Question 8 - A 25-year-old woman who uses the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) contacted the...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman who uses the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) contacted the clinic after missing one dose. She typically takes one tablet at 9 pm every day, but she forgot and remembered the next morning. Her last period was 12 days ago.

      What guidance should be provided to this patient?

      Your Answer: Take the missed dose immediately and then take the next pill at 10pm

      Explanation:

      If a woman on COCP misses one pill, she should take the missed pill immediately and then take the next pill at the usual time. There is no need for any further action or emergency contraception such as a copper IUD. She can continue with the 7-day pill-free break as normal. Discarding the missed pill is not recommended as it could increase the risk of an unwanted pregnancy. Starting the next pack without the 7-day break is also not necessary in this case. However, if she misses two pills and there are fewer than seven pills left in the pack, she would need to start the next pack without a break.

      Missed Pills in Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      When taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol, it is important to know what to do if a pill is missed. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their recommendations in recent years. If one pill is missed at any time in the cycle, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed in this case.

      However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. In this case, the woman should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for 7 days in a row. If pills are missed in week 1 (Days 1-7), emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week 1. If pills are missed in week 2 (Days 8-14), after seven consecutive days of taking the COC there is no need for emergency contraception.

      If pills are missed in week 3 (Days 15-21), the woman should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of 7 days on, 7 days off. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the effectiveness of the COC in preventing pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      30.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 70-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with abrupt onset of numbness...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with abrupt onset of numbness on the right side of his body, without any other accompanying symptoms. He has a medical history of uncontrolled hypertension and diabetes mellitus. A CT scan of his head was conducted, which revealed no signs of bleeding or tumors. The diagnosis is a lacunar stroke. Which area of the brain is impacted by a lacunar stroke?

      Your Answer: The basal ganglia, thalamus and internal capsule

      Explanation:

      The basal ganglia, thalamus, and internal capsule are common sites for lacunar strokes. Amaurosis fugax affects (1), ‘locked-in’ syndrome affects (2), Wallenberg syndrome affects (4), and lateral pontine syndrome affects (5).

      When a stroke occurs, the location of the lesion in the brain can determine the specific effects on the body. Depending on which artery is affected, different symptoms may arise. For example, a stroke in the anterior cerebral artery can lead to contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, with the lower extremity being more affected than the upper. On the other hand, a stroke in the middle cerebral artery can cause contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, with the upper extremity being more affected than the lower, as well as contralateral homonymous hemianopia and aphasia.

      If the stroke occurs in the posterior cerebral artery, the individual may experience contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing and visual agnosia. In the case of Weber’s syndrome, which involves branches of the posterior cerebral artery that supply the midbrain, the person may have an ipsilateral CN III palsy and contralateral weakness of the upper and lower extremities.

      Other types of strokes include those affecting the posterior inferior cerebellar artery, which can lead to ipsilateral facial pain and temperature loss and contralateral limb/torso pain and temperature loss, as well as ataxia and nystagmus. A stroke in the anterior inferior cerebellar artery can cause similar symptoms to Wallenberg’s syndrome, but with the addition of ipsilateral facial paralysis and deafness.

      Finally, lacunar strokes are small, localized strokes that often occur in individuals with hypertension. They typically present with isolated hemiparesis, hemisensory loss, or hemiparesis with limb ataxia, and commonly affect the basal ganglia, thalamus, and internal capsule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      24.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 4-year-old boy is brought to the doctor's office because of a rash...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old boy is brought to the doctor's office because of a rash on his upper arm. During the examination, the doctor observes several raised lesions that are approximately 2 mm in diameter. Upon closer inspection, a central dimple is visible in most of the lesions. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Molluscum contagiosum

      Explanation:

      Understanding Molluscum Contagiosum

      Molluscum contagiosum is a viral skin infection that is commonly seen in children, particularly those with atopic eczema. It is caused by the molluscum contagiosum virus and can be transmitted through direct contact or contaminated surfaces. The infection presents as pinkish or pearly white papules with a central umbilication, which can appear anywhere on the body except for the palms of the hands and soles of the feet. In children, lesions are commonly seen on the trunk and in flexures, while in adults, sexual contact may lead to lesions developing on the genitalia, pubis, thighs, and lower abdomen.

      While molluscum contagiosum is a self-limiting condition that usually resolves within 18 months, it is important to avoid sharing towels, clothing, and baths with uninfected individuals to prevent transmission. Scratching the lesions should also be avoided, and treatment may be considered if the itch is problematic. However, treatment is not usually recommended, and if necessary, simple trauma or cryotherapy may be used. In some cases, referral may be necessary, such as for individuals who are HIV-positive with extensive lesions or those with eyelid-margin or ocular lesions and associated red eye.

      Overall, understanding molluscum contagiosum and taking appropriate precautions can help prevent transmission and alleviate symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      17.3
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  • Question 11 - A newborn boy is born via emergency caesarean section at 42 weeks and...

    Incorrect

    • A newborn boy is born via emergency caesarean section at 42 weeks and 5 days due to fetal tachycardia and thick meconium-stained amniotic fluid. The mother received intrapartum antibiotics as she was known to be colonized with group B streptococcus. The infant presents with cyanosis, tachypnea, and chest wall retraction. A chest X-ray reveals patchy infiltrates and atelectasis. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sepsis

      Correct Answer: Meconium aspiration syndrome

      Explanation:

      Transient tachypnoea of the newborn does not exhibit cyanosis or chest X-ray changes. Preterm deliveries are usually associated with surfactant deficiency.

      Understanding Meconium Aspiration Syndrome

      Meconium aspiration syndrome is a condition that affects newborns and causes respiratory distress due to the presence of meconium in the trachea. This condition typically occurs in the immediate neonatal period and is more common in post-term deliveries, with rates of up to 44% reported in babies born after 42 weeks. The severity of the respiratory distress can vary, but it can be quite severe in some cases.

      There are several risk factors associated with meconium aspiration syndrome, including a history of maternal hypertension, pre-eclampsia, chorioamnionitis, smoking, or substance abuse. These risk factors can increase the likelihood of a baby developing this condition. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors and to monitor newborns closely for signs of respiratory distress.

      Overall, meconium aspiration syndrome is a serious condition that requires prompt medical attention. With proper management and treatment, however, most babies are able to recover fully and go on to lead healthy lives. By understanding the risk factors and symptoms associated with this condition, healthcare providers can help ensure that newborns receive the care they need to thrive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      26.4
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  • Question 12 - A 45-year-old man has been referred by his GP due to a history...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man has been referred by his GP due to a history of uncontrolled hypertension. He has come in today to undergo an aldosterone: renin ratio test. The results indicate high levels of aldosterone and low levels of renin. Additionally, a CT scan has revealed bilateral adrenal gland hyperplasia.

      What is the recommended management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      The patient is suffering from primary hyperaldosteronism, which is caused by bilateral adrenal gland hyperplasia. This condition leads to elevated aldosterone levels, resulting in increased sodium retention and negative feedback to renin release. The most common cause of primary hyperaldosteronism is bilateral adrenal hyperplasia, which can be treated with spironolactone, an aldosterone receptor antagonist, for four weeks. Adrenalectomy is only recommended for unilateral adrenal adenoma, which is not the case for this patient. Fludrocortisone and hydrocortisone are not appropriate treatments for hyperaldosteronism as they act on mineralocorticoid receptors, exacerbating the condition. Reassurance and discharge are not recommended as untreated primary hyperaldosteronism can lead to chronic elevation of blood pressure, increasing the risk of cardiovascular disease, stroke, and kidney damage.

      Understanding Primary Hyperaldosteronism

      Primary hyperaldosteronism is a medical condition that was previously believed to be caused by an adrenal adenoma, also known as Conn’s syndrome. However, recent studies have shown that bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia is the cause in up to 70% of cases. It is important to differentiate between the two as this determines the appropriate treatment. Adrenal carcinoma is an extremely rare cause of primary hyperaldosteronism.

      The common features of primary hyperaldosteronism include hypertension, hypokalaemia, and alkalosis. Hypokalaemia can cause muscle weakness, but this is seen in only 10-40% of patients. To diagnose primary hyperaldosteronism, the 2016 Endocrine Society recommends a plasma aldosterone/renin ratio as the first-line investigation. This should show high aldosterone levels alongside low renin levels due to negative feedback from sodium retention caused by aldosterone.

      If the plasma aldosterone/renin ratio is high, a high-resolution CT abdomen and adrenal vein sampling are used to differentiate between unilateral and bilateral sources of aldosterone excess. If the CT is normal, adrenal venous sampling (AVS) can be used to distinguish between unilateral adenoma and bilateral hyperplasia. The management of primary hyperaldosteronism depends on the underlying cause. Adrenal adenoma is treated with surgery, while bilateral adrenocortical hyperplasia is treated with an aldosterone antagonist such as spironolactone.

      In summary, primary hyperaldosteronism is a medical condition that can be caused by adrenal adenoma, bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia, or adrenal carcinoma. It is characterized by hypertension, hypokalaemia, and alkalosis. Diagnosis involves a plasma aldosterone/renin ratio, high-resolution CT abdomen, and adrenal vein sampling. Treatment depends on the underlying cause and may involve surgery or medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      740.1
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  • Question 13 - A diabetic woman in her 50s presents with painful diabetic neuropathy in her...

    Correct

    • A diabetic woman in her 50s presents with painful diabetic neuropathy in her feet. She has no other significant medical history. What is the recommended initial treatment to alleviate her pain?

      Your Answer: Duloxetine

      Explanation:

      Diabetes can cause peripheral neuropathy, which typically results in sensory loss rather than motor loss. This often affects the lower legs first due to the length of the sensory neurons supplying this area, resulting in a glove and stocking distribution. Painful diabetic neuropathy is a common issue that can be managed with drugs such as amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. If these drugs do not work, tramadol may be used as a rescue therapy, and topical capsaicin may be used for localized neuropathic pain. Pain management clinics may also be helpful for patients with resistant problems.

      Gastrointestinal autonomic neuropathy can cause gastroparesis, which can lead to erratic blood glucose control, bloating, and vomiting. This can be managed with prokinetic agents such as metoclopramide, domperidone, or erythromycin. Chronic diarrhea, which often occurs at night, is another potential complication of diabetic neuropathy. Gastroesophageal reflux disease can also occur due to decreased lower esophageal sphincter pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      13.6
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  • Question 14 - A 45-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 7-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 7-day history of flu-like symptoms, including spiking fevers, headache, rigors, vomiting and diarrhoea.
      On examination, he looks unwell, is febrile and jaundiced. His abdomen is soft, with mild, generalised tenderness and hepatosplenomegaly. He returned from Nigeria six months ago after a 8-week stay with a charity mission. He had all the appropriate travel vaccinations and took mefloquine prophylaxis.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Schistosomiasis

      Correct Answer: Malaria

      Explanation:

      Travel-Related Illnesses: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Malaria, Yellow Fever, Enteric Fever, Hepatitis A, and Schistosomiasis are some of the common travel-related illnesses that can affect people visiting certain parts of the world.

      Malaria is a potentially life-threatening illness caused by a parasite transmitted by mosquitoes. Symptoms include headache, cough, fatigue, fever with rigors, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Diagnosis is made through thick and thin blood films, and treatment should be guided by an infectious disease specialist.

      Yellow fever is an insect-borne tropical disease with symptoms that may include a flu-like illness, jaundice, and abnormal bleeding. It has a short incubation period of 3-6 days and is transmitted by mosquitoes. Vaccination is recommended for travelers to high-risk areas.

      Enteric fever is caused by salmonella typhoid or paratyphoid and is transmitted orally via contaminated food or drink. Symptoms include severe flu-like symptoms, especially diarrhea and fever. Diagnosis is made through blood cultures, and treatment is with antibiotics.

      Hepatitis A is a viral infection transmitted via contaminated food or water. Symptoms include a flu-like illness, jaundice, and tender hepatomegaly. Diagnosis is made through blood tests, and treatment is supportive.

      Schistosomiasis is a parasitic infection spread by flatworms that live in freshwater. Symptoms can include fever, rash, abdominal pain, and diarrhea. Chronic infection may present as rectal bleeding, hematuria, anemia, or cystitis. Diagnosis is made through blood and stool tests, and treatment is with antiparasitic medication.

      In conclusion, travelers to certain parts of the world should be aware of the risk of these illnesses and take appropriate precautions, including vaccination, prophylaxis, and avoiding contaminated food and water. If symptoms develop, prompt medical attention should be sought.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      35.6
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  • Question 15 - A 54-year-old man with a history of hypertension comes in for a check-up....

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old man with a history of hypertension comes in for a check-up. During his annual health assessment, he undergoes a U&E, HbA1c, and cholesterol test. The results are as follows:
      His blood pressure today is 128/78 mmHg. He takes ramipril 5mg od as his only regular medication.
      Na+ 142 mmol/l
      K+ 4.6 mmol/l
      Urea 5.2 mmol/l
      Creatinine 88 µmol/l
      Total cholesterol 5.2 mmol/l
      HbA1c 45 mmol/mol (6.3%)
      His 10-year QRISK2 score is 7%. What is the most appropriate course of action based on these findings?

      Your Answer: Arrange a fasting glucose sample

      Explanation:

      There is no need to take any action regarding his cholesterol as it is under control. Additionally, his blood pressure is also well managed. However, his HbA1c level is in the pre-diabetes range (42-47 mmol/mol) and requires further investigation. It is important to note that a HbA1c reading alone cannot rule out diabetes, and a fasting sample should be arranged for confirmation.

      Type 2 diabetes mellitus can be diagnosed through a plasma glucose or HbA1c sample. The diagnostic criteria vary depending on whether the patient is experiencing symptoms or not. If the patient is symptomatic, a fasting glucose level of 7.0 mmol/l or higher or a random glucose level of 11.1 mmol/l or higher (or after a 75g oral glucose tolerance test) indicates diabetes. If the patient is asymptomatic, the same criteria apply but must be demonstrated on two separate occasions.

      In 2011, the World Health Organization released supplementary guidance on the use of HbA1c for diagnosing diabetes. A HbA1c level of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or higher is diagnostic of diabetes mellitus. However, a HbA1c value of less than 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) does not exclude diabetes and may not be as sensitive as fasting samples for detecting diabetes. For patients without symptoms, the test must be repeated to confirm the diagnosis. It is important to note that increased red cell turnover can cause misleading HbA1c results.

      There are certain conditions where HbA1c cannot be used for diagnosis, such as haemoglobinopathies, haemolytic anaemia, untreated iron deficiency anaemia, suspected gestational diabetes, children, HIV, chronic kidney disease, and people taking medication that may cause hyperglycaemia (such as corticosteroids).

      Impaired fasting glucose (IFG) is defined as a fasting glucose level of 6.1 mmol/l or higher but less than 7.0 mmol/l. Impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) is defined as a fasting plasma glucose level less than 7.0 mmol/l and an OGTT 2-hour value of 7.8 mmol/l or higher but less than 11.1 mmol/l. People with IFG should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test to rule out a diagnosis of diabetes. A result below 11.1 mmol/l but above 7.8 mmol/l indicates that the person does not have diabetes but does have IGT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      74.3
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  • Question 16 - As a foundation doctor on the postnatal ward, you conduct a newborn examination...

    Correct

    • As a foundation doctor on the postnatal ward, you conduct a newborn examination on a two-day-old baby girl. She was delivered normally and in good condition. During the hip examination, you notice that the left hip can be relocated, which raises concerns. What is the next appropriate step in management?

      Your Answer: Urgent referral for hip ultrasound

      Explanation:

      The Ortolani manoeuvre was performed on a newborn to relocate the femoral head after dislocation caused by the Barlow manoeuvre. The result was abnormal, indicating a need for urgent assessment to check for potential developmental dysplasia of the hip. The best imaging option is ultrasound, which avoids radiation and provides optimal visualization of the hip’s development. Referring the child for routine assessment would cause unnecessary delay in treatment, and providing reassurance would be inappropriate given the abnormal screening result.

      Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is a condition that affects 1-3% of newborns and is more common in females, firstborn children, and those with a positive family history or breech presentation. It used to be called congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH). DDH is more often found in the left hip and can be bilateral in 20% of cases. Screening for DDH is recommended for infants with certain risk factors, and all infants are screened using the Barlow and Ortolani tests at the newborn and six-week baby check. Clinical examination includes testing for leg length symmetry, restricted hip abduction, and knee level when hips and knees are flexed. Ultrasound is used to confirm the diagnosis if clinically suspected, but x-ray is the first line investigation for infants over 4.5 months. Management includes the use of a Pavlik harness for children under 4-5 months and surgery for older children with unstable hips.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 17 - The physician is analyzing the routine blood test results for a 65-year-old woman...

    Correct

    • The physician is analyzing the routine blood test results for a 65-year-old woman who has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and giant cell arteritis. The following are some of the findings:
      - Hemoglobin (Hb) level of 133 g/L (normal range for females: 115-160 g/L; males: 135-180 g/L)
      - Mean cell volume (MCV) of 88 fl (normal range: 82-100 fl)
      - Platelet count of 390 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400 * 109/L)
      - White blood cell (WBC) count of 10.7 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0 * 109/L)
      - Neutrophil count of 8.4 * 109/L (normal range: 2.0-7.0 * 109/L)
      - Lymphocyte count of 1.4 * 109/L (normal range: 1.0-3.0 * 109/L)

      What could be the possible cause of these abnormal results?

      Your Answer: Prednisolone

      Explanation:

      The slightly high neutrophil count of 8.4 could be attributed to the use of prednisolone, a corticosteroid commonly used in the treatment of giant cell arteritis. This medication is known to induce neutrophilia. On the other hand, amlodipine, an antihypertensive drug, is not associated with neutrophilia but may cause leucopenia as a rare side effect. Dapagliflozin, a medication used in managing type 2 diabetes mellitus, does not affect white cell count, but it may cause frequent urinary tract infections, dizziness, and rash. Similarly, exenatide, a subcutaneous injection used in managing type 2 diabetes mellitus, is not known to cause changes in white cell count, but it may cause nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea.

      Understanding Corticosteroids and Their Side-Effects

      Corticosteroids are commonly prescribed therapies used to replace or augment the natural activity of endogenous steroids. They can be administered systemically or locally, depending on the condition being treated. However, the usage of corticosteroids is limited due to their numerous side-effects, which are more common with prolonged and systemic therapy.

      Glucocorticoid side-effects include impaired glucose regulation, increased appetite and weight gain, hirsutism, hyperlipidaemia, Cushing’s syndrome, moon face, buffalo hump, striae, osteoporosis, proximal myopathy, avascular necrosis of the femoral head, immunosuppression, increased susceptibility to severe infection, reactivation of tuberculosis, insomnia, mania, depression, psychosis, peptic ulceration, acute pancreatitis, glaucoma, cataracts, suppression of growth in children, intracranial hypertension, and neutrophilia.

      On the other hand, mineralocorticoid side-effects include fluid retention and hypertension. It is important to note that patients on long-term steroids should have their doses doubled during intercurrent illness. Longer-term systemic corticosteroids suppress the natural production of endogenous steroids, so they should not be withdrawn abruptly as this may precipitate an Addisonian crisis. The British National Formulary suggests gradual withdrawal of systemic corticosteroids if patients have received more than 40mg prednisolone daily for more than one week, received more than three weeks of treatment, or recently received repeated courses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      104.7
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  • Question 18 - A 61-year-old man with a known history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, atrial...

    Correct

    • A 61-year-old man with a known history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, atrial fibrillation and epilepsy presents with a complaint of feeling generally unwell. He reports a blue tinge to his vision. Which medication is most likely responsible for this symptom?

      Your Answer: Sildenafil

      Explanation:

      Drug-induced visual alterations
      Viagra, also known as ‘the blue pill’, can cause blue-tinted vision. Digoxin, on the other hand, may result in yellow-green vision.

      Understanding Phosphodiesterase Type V Inhibitors

      Phosphodiesterase type V (PDE5) inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. These drugs work by increasing the levels of cGMP, which leads to the relaxation of smooth muscles in the blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which was the first drug of its kind. It is a short-acting medication that is usually taken one hour before sexual activity.

      Other PDE5 inhibitors include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra). Tadalafil is longer-acting than sildenafil and can be taken on a regular basis, while vardenafil has a similar duration of action to sildenafil. However, these drugs are not suitable for everyone. Patients taking nitrates or related drugs, those with hypotension, and those who have had a recent stroke or myocardial infarction should not take PDE5 inhibitors.

      Like all medications, PDE5 inhibitors can cause side effects. These may include visual disturbances, blue discolouration, non-arteritic anterior ischaemic neuropathy, nasal congestion, flushing, gastrointestinal side-effects, headache, and priapism. It is important to speak to a healthcare professional before taking any medication to ensure that it is safe and appropriate for you.

      Overall, PDE5 inhibitors are an effective treatment for erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. However, they should only be used under the guidance of a healthcare professional and with careful consideration of the potential risks and benefits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      44.5
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  • Question 19 - A 59-year-old man visits his doctor with a complaint of hearing difficulties. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man visits his doctor with a complaint of hearing difficulties. He reports that he can no longer hear the television from his couch and struggles to hear his wife when she speaks from another room. Upon examination, his ears appear normal and otoscopy reveals no abnormalities. He denies experiencing any other symptoms. The patient has a complicated medical history, including chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, hypertension, heart failure, and diabetes mellitus. Which medication is the most probable cause of his hearing impairment?

      Your Answer: Spironolactone

      Correct Answer: Bumetanide

      Explanation:

      Bumetanide is the only medication among the options that may cause ototoxicity, marked by hearing loss. This loop diuretic is used to manage heart failure by inhibiting the Na+-K+-Cl- cotransporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle, reducing the absorption of NaCl. However, at high levels, it may also inhibit the Na+-K+-Cl- cotransporter in the inner ear, damaging the hair cells and decreasing endolymph. Amlodipine, bisoprolol, and ramipril are not known to cause ototoxicity and are used to manage hypertension and heart failure.

      Loop Diuretics: Mechanism of Action and Indications

      Loop diuretics, such as furosemide and bumetanide, are medications that inhibit the Na-K-Cl cotransporter (NKCC) in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. This reduces the absorption of NaCl and increases the excretion of water and electrolytes, making them effective in treating conditions such as heart failure and resistant hypertension. Loop diuretics act on NKCC2, which is more prevalent in the kidneys.

      As loop diuretics work on the apical membrane, they must first be filtered into the tubules by the glomerulus before they can have an effect. This means that patients with poor renal function may require higher doses to achieve a sufficient concentration within the tubules.

      Loop diuretics are commonly used in the treatment of heart failure, both acutely (usually intravenously) and chronically (usually orally). They are also effective in treating resistant hypertension, particularly in patients with renal impairment.

      However, loop diuretics can have adverse effects, including hypotension, hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hypochloremic alkalosis, ototoxicity, hypocalcemia, renal impairment (from dehydration and direct toxic effect), hyperglycemia (less common than with thiazides), and gout.

      In summary, loop diuretics are effective medications for treating heart failure and resistant hypertension, but their use should be carefully monitored due to potential adverse effects. Patients with poor renal function may require higher doses to achieve therapeutic effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      43.8
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  • Question 20 - A 55-year-old man comes to his GP clinic complaining of palpitations that have...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man comes to his GP clinic complaining of palpitations that have been ongoing for the past day. He has no significant medical history. There are no accompanying symptoms of chest pain or difficulty breathing. Physical examination is normal except for an irregularly fast heartbeat. An electrocardiogram reveals atrial fibrillation with a rate of 126 bpm and no other abnormalities. What is the best course of action for treatment?

      Your Answer: Admit patient

      Explanation:

      Admission to hospital is necessary for this patient as they are a suitable candidate for electrical cardioversion.

      Atrial Fibrillation and Cardioversion: Elective Procedure for Rhythm Control

      Cardioversion is a medical procedure used in atrial fibrillation (AF) to restore the heart’s normal rhythm. There are two scenarios where cardioversion may be used: as an emergency if the patient is haemodynamically unstable, or as an elective procedure where a rhythm control strategy is preferred. In the elective scenario, cardioversion can be performed either electrically or pharmacologically. Electrical cardioversion is synchronised to the R wave to prevent delivery of a shock during the vulnerable period of cardiac repolarisation when ventricular fibrillation can be induced.

      According to the 2014 NICE guidelines, rate or rhythm control should be offered if the onset of the arrhythmia is less than 48 hours, and rate control should be started if it is more than 48 hours or is uncertain. If the AF is definitely of less than 48 hours onset, patients should be heparinised and may be cardioverted using either electrical or pharmacological means. However, if the patient has been in AF for more than 48 hours, anticoagulation should be given for at least 3 weeks prior to cardioversion. An alternative strategy is to perform a transoesophageal echo (TOE) to exclude a left atrial appendage (LAA) thrombus. If excluded, patients may be heparinised and cardioverted immediately.

      NICE recommends electrical cardioversion in this scenario, rather than pharmacological. If there is a high risk of cardioversion failure, it is recommended to have at least 4 weeks of amiodarone or sotalol prior to electrical cardioversion. Following electrical cardioversion, patients should be anticoagulated for at least 4 weeks. After this time, decisions about anticoagulation should be taken on an individual basis depending on the risk of recurrence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      39.8
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Respiratory Medicine (2/3) 67%
Neurology (2/2) 100%
Musculoskeletal (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology/Therapeutics (1/3) 33%
Infectious Diseases (0/2) 0%
Reproductive Medicine (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Paediatrics (1/2) 50%
Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease (3/3) 100%
Haematology/Oncology (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
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