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Question 1
Correct
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A 7-month-old infant born in Bangladesh is presented for surgery. The mother reports that the baby has been experiencing coryzal symptoms for the past week and has not been feeding well for the last two days. Today, the baby has started vomiting. The mother is particularly worried about the baby's cough, which comes in bouts and is so severe that the baby turns red. There are no inspiratory or expiratory noises. Upon clinical examination, the baby is found to have a clear chest and no fever. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pertussis
Explanation:It is rare for patients of this age to exhibit the inspiratory ‘whoop’.
A vaccination programme for pregnant women was introduced in 2012 to combat an outbreak of whooping cough that resulted in the death of 14 newborn children. The vaccine is over 90% effective in preventing newborns from developing whooping cough. The programme was extended in 2014 due to uncertainty about future outbreaks. Pregnant women between 16-32 weeks are offered the vaccine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 2
Correct
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A 65-year-old Caucasian smoker presents to you with a two month history of a cough. The cough is non-productive, but he has coughed up spots of blood on occasion. He has also lost 10 pounds in weight, which he attributes to a reduced appetite since his wife started a healthy eating regime at home.
Upon examination, he has lost weight, but he is afebrile and appears to be in good health. His 4-year-old grandson whom he sees twice a week has recently been diagnosed with whooping cough, and he wonders if he could have whooping cough as well.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Malignancy
Explanation:Managing a Patient Who is a Contact of an Infectious Disease
When managing a patient who is a contact of an infectious disease, it is crucial to consider the full differential diagnosis and take an overview of the clinical picture. In this case, the patient presented with haemoptysis, which could be a symptom of various conditions.
Bronchopneumonia is a possible cause, but it typically presents with fever and general malaise. Chronic bronchitis is unlikely to result in haemoptysis, and tuberculosis is not probable in a Caucasian man with no history of travel or contact with the disease. Pertussis is also not a likely cause of haemoptysis.
The most probable diagnosis, which needs to be ruled out, is malignancy. Therefore, a thorough evaluation and appropriate testing should be conducted to determine the underlying cause of the patient’s symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents with indigestion that has been troubling him for the past two months. He reports no prior history of these symptoms and states that he has been able to eat and drink normally. However, he has noticed a recent weight loss. He denies any abdominal pain or changes in bowel habits. On examination, his abdomen appears normal. Laboratory tests, including a full blood count, renal function, liver function, and C-reactive protein, are all within normal limits. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Urgent endoscopy (within two weeks)
Correct Answer: Abdominal and erect x ray today
Explanation:Urgent Upper Gastrointestinal Endoscopy for Stomach Cancer Assessment
Urgent upper gastrointestinal endoscopy is necessary within two weeks for individuals experiencing dysphagia to assess for stomach cancer. Additionally, patients aged 55 or over with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia should also undergo this procedure. A directed admission is not required, and x-rays are unnecessary as the patient doesn’t have an acute abdomen. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends endoscopy over an ultrasound scan. This history necessitates an urgent investigation, and a routine referral to gastroenterology would not be appropriate. It is important to note that knowledge of the patient’s H Pylori status would not alter the need for urgent OGD, and referral should not be delayed for this reason.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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What condition is typically linked to obstructive sleep apnoea?
Your Answer: Hypersomnolence
Correct Answer: Macrognathia
Explanation:Symptoms of Sleep Apnoea
Sleep apnoea is a condition characterized by hypersomnolence or excessive sleepiness. Apart from this, there are other common symptoms that may be experienced by individuals with this condition. These include apparent personality changes, witnessed apnoeas, and true nocturnal polyuria. Reduced libido is a less common symptom. Sleep apnoea may also be associated with other medical conditions such as acromegaly, myxoedema, obesity, and micrognathia/retrognathia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 5
Correct
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What parameter is the GP measuring by asking 100 randomly selected patients from his patient list if they are currently experiencing symptoms of eczema?
Your Answer: Point prevalence
Explanation:Understanding Epidemiological Measures: Point Prevalence, Incidence Rate, Cumulative Incidence, Incidence Proportion, and Period Prevalence
Epidemiological measures are essential in determining the prevalence and incidence of diseases in a population. Among the commonly used measures are point prevalence, incidence rate, cumulative incidence, incidence proportion, and period prevalence.
Point prevalence refers to the proportion of people with a particular disease at a specific time point. For instance, a doctor may send a questionnaire to determine the number of people suffering from a disease at a particular time, and the data collected can be used to determine the point prevalence.
Incidence rate, on the other hand, refers to the rate at which a new event occurs over a specified period. For example, the number of new cases of a disease in a population over a year.
Cumulative incidence is another term for incidence proportion, which refers to the number of new cases in a population during a specified time period.
Incidence proportion is similar to cumulative incidence, but it only considers new cases in a population during a specified time period.
Period prevalence, on the other hand, refers to the proportion of people with a particular disease during a given time period.
Understanding these epidemiological measures is crucial in determining the prevalence and incidence of diseases in a population, which can help in developing effective prevention and treatment strategies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman brings her 4-year-old daughter to the surgery. According to both the family and the nursery she attends for day care, her left eye has become increasingly amblyopic, and she has developed a divergent squint. It appears also that she has become increasingly clumsy and has difficulty using stereoscopic vision to play with her lego.
She was born two months premature but has achieved normal milestones since and has had all of her planned vaccinations.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?Your Answer: Non-urgent referral to the ophthalmologist
Correct Answer: Check for red reflex
Explanation:Importance of Red Reflex Assessment in Diagnosing Retinoblastoma
In cases where a patient presents with loss of the red reflex, it is crucial to rule out the development of a retinoblastoma. This is because retinoblastoma is the most common intraocular malignancy of childhood, and delay in diagnosis can have negative prognostic implications. Therefore, urgent referral to an ophthalmologist is necessary.
Diagnosis of retinoblastoma is typically confirmed through indirect dilated ophthalmoscopy under anaesthetic. Referral to a community optician or non-urgent referral to an ophthalmologist can result in significant delays in diagnosis, making both options inappropriate. While referral to an optician may seem like a viable option, testing the red reflex is a quick and easy procedure that a GP can perform themselves.
Re-examining the patient in six weeks is not a suitable course of action as it will only delay diagnosis. In situations where loss of the red reflex is present, reassurance is not appropriate, and urgent referral for further assessment is necessary. Therefore, it is essential to prioritize red reflex assessment in diagnosing retinoblastoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl was admitted to hospital the previous day following a 3-day history of a diarrhoeal illness, which had then developed into bloody diarrhoea. The mother telephones the clinic to say she is very ill and has developed blood spots in the skin and had nosebleeds. She says they are also worried about her kidneys.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: von Willebrand disease
Correct Answer: Disseminated intravascular coagulation
Explanation:Understanding Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation: A Guide for General Practitioners
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a serious condition that can occur in response to another illness or trauma. In DIC, the coagulation mechanism is activated inappropriately and in a diffuse way, leading to thrombosis or, more commonly, haemorrhage due to the depletion of clotting factors and platelets. DIC is often fatal and associated with organ failure, with bleeding from at least three unrelated sites being typical in the acute form.
DIC can be triggered by a variety of factors, including infections such as gastroenteritis (e.g. Escherichia coli O157), malignancy (especially leukaemia), and septicaemia (e.g. meningococcal septicaemia). While bleeding is a feature in two-thirds of cases, renal involvement occurs in a quarter of cases, and limb ischaemia can lead to loss of digits or limbs.
As a general practitioner, it is important to have some knowledge of DIC to respond to any questions that may arise. When presented with a patient with severe and widespread bleeding with kidney injury, DIC is more likely to be the cause than other conditions such as acute leukaemia, haemophilia A, von Willebrand disease, or meningococcal septicaemia.
By understanding DIC and its potential triggers and symptoms, general practitioners can better support their patients and provide appropriate referrals for further treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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You observe a 20-year-old male with a left-sided varicocele that has been present for a few months. The varicocele is not causing him any discomfort and has not increased in size, measuring about 2 cm in diameter. During examination, the varicocele is only noticeable when the patient performs the Valsalva manoeuvre. The patient expresses concern about his future fertility, despite not having any immediate plans for children.
Which of the following statements is accurate?Your Answer: 30% of men who have a varicocele have no problem fathering children
Correct Answer: Men should not be offered surgery for varicoceles as a form of fertility treatment
Explanation:Understanding Varicocele: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management
A varicocele is a condition characterized by the abnormal enlargement of the veins in the testicles. Although it is usually asymptomatic, it can be a cause for concern as it is associated with infertility. Varicoceles are more commonly found on the left side of the testicles, with over 80% of cases occurring on this side. The condition is often described as a bag of worms due to the appearance of the affected veins.
Diagnosis of varicocele is typically done through ultrasound with Doppler studies. This allows doctors to visualize the affected veins and determine the extent of the condition. While varicoceles are usually managed conservatively, surgery may be required in cases where the patient experiences pain. However, there is ongoing debate regarding the effectiveness of surgery in treating infertility associated with varicocele.
In summary, varicocele is a condition that affects the veins in the testicles and can lead to infertility. It is commonly found on the left side and is diagnosed through ultrasound with Doppler studies. While conservative management is usually recommended, surgery may be necessary in some cases. However, the effectiveness of surgery in treating infertility is still a topic of debate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old white male is diagnosed with hypertension.
He is usually fit and well with no significant past medical history. His ECG is normal, he has no microalbuminuria, and clinical examination is otherwise unremarkable.
Assuming there are no contraindications, place the following in the correct order in which they should be initiated to manage his high blood pressure:
A ACE-inhibitor
B Calcium channel blocker
C Thiazide-like diuretic
D Alpha blockerYour Answer: A B C D
Correct Answer: C A B D
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for Hypertension Treatment
There are established guidelines published by NICE for managing high blood pressure. The guidelines outline a stepwise approach to pharmacological treatment. For patients under 55 years old and not of black African or Caribbean ethnic origin, the first-line treatment is an ACE inhibitor or a low-cost angiotensin receptor II antagonist. If additional treatment is needed, a calcium-channel blocker should be added, followed by a thiazide-like diuretic. If a fourth agent is required, options include a further diuretic, an alpha-blocker, or a beta-blocker. Spironolactone can be used if the patient’s potassium level is 4.5 mmol/L or less. If not, an alpha- or beta-blocker can be considered.
For patients of black African or Caribbean ethnic origin of any age (and all those over 55), the first-line antihypertensive treatment is a calcium-channel blocker. If the calcium-channel blocker is not tolerated or contraindicated, then a thiazide-like diuretic would be first-line. If additional treatment is required, an ACE-inhibitor (or a low-cost angiotensin receptor II antagonist) should be added, followed by a thiazide-like diuretic. If necessary, a further diuretic (spironolactone), an alpha-blocker, or a beta-blocker can be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 10
Correct
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A 65-year-old man visits his GP for routine blood tests after undergoing an elective hip replacement two weeks ago. He has been self-administering subcutaneous venous thromboembolism prophylaxis and reports feeling well. His medical history includes hypertension and polymyalgia rheumatica, and he is currently taking co-codamol, prednisolone, and ramipril. However, his blood tests reveal a platelet count of 36 * 109/L (150 - 400). What is the most likely cause of his thrombocytopenia?
Your Answer: Enoxaparin
Explanation:Thrombocytopenia can be caused by heparin, including the low molecular weight heparin enoxaparin. Prosthetic joints are not a common cause of thrombocytopenia, while the other drugs listed are not typically associated with this condition. If heparin-induced thrombocytopenia is suspected or confirmed, it is important to discontinue heparin and switch to an alternative anticoagulant like danaparoid. Platelet counts should be monitored and normalized before administering warfarin.
Understanding Drug-Induced Thrombocytopenia
Drug-induced thrombocytopenia is a condition where a person’s platelet count drops due to the use of certain medications. This condition is believed to be immune-mediated, meaning that the body’s immune system mistakenly attacks and destroys platelets. Some of the drugs that have been associated with drug-induced thrombocytopenia include quinine, abciximab, NSAIDs, diuretics like furosemide, antibiotics such as penicillins, sulphonamides, and rifampicin, and anticonvulsants like carbamazepine and valproate. Heparin, a commonly used blood thinner, is also known to cause drug-induced thrombocytopenia. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of medications and to consult with a healthcare provider if any concerning symptoms arise. Proper management and monitoring of drug-induced thrombocytopenia can help prevent serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man visits his GP for a medication review after undergoing a renal transplant three months ago. The GP notes that the patient's medication was changed following the transplant, with the addition of immunosuppressant medication. What is the most probable immunosuppressive drug regimen for this patient?
Your Answer: Azathioprine, prednisolone
Correct Answer: Mycophenolatemofetil (MMF), prednisolone, tacrolimus
Explanation:After a renal transplant, patients require immunosuppressive drugs to prevent rejection. There are four classes of maintenance drugs: calcineurin inhibitors, antiproliferative agents, mammalian target of rapamycin inhibitors, and steroids. Mycophenolate mofetil is a cost-efficient antiproliferative agent that reduces the risk of acute rejection by 50%. Prednisolone is a steroid that is typically used in low doses and gradually reduced over several months. Azathioprine may also be used in initial therapy, but a calcineurin inhibitor is necessary. Basiliximab may be used for induction therapy within four days of the transplant. Ciclosporin and prednisolone are both used for maintenance immunosuppression, but require an antiproliferative agent to complete the regimen. Sirolimus may be used with a corticosteroid in patients intolerant of calcineurin inhibitors, according to National Institute for Health and Care Excellence guidelines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman comes to you with a history of multiple recurrent and frequently changing symptoms that are 'functional' in nature (somatisation disorder).
Which of the following statements regarding her management is accurate?Your Answer: An understanding of her early childhood experiences is necessary
Correct Answer: She should be persuaded to understand that her symptoms are psychological
Explanation:Understanding Somatisation Disorder
Somatisation disorder is a complex condition that has been frequently asked about in previous examinations. It is important to note that knowledge of early childhood experiences is not necessary for diagnosis. However, depression is often found in individuals with somatisation disorder, making antidepressants a useful treatment option. In addition, involving relatives in the management of the disorder can be beneficial. It is important to approach management with empathy rather than persuasion. Understanding the complexities of somatisation disorder is crucial for effective treatment and management.
Spacing:
Somatisation disorder is a complex condition that has been frequently asked about in previous examinations. It is important to note that knowledge of early childhood experiences is not necessary for diagnosis. However, depression is often found in individuals with somatisation disorder, making antidepressants a useful treatment option.
In addition, involving relatives in the management of the disorder can be beneficial. It is important to approach management with empathy rather than persuasion. Understanding the complexities of somatisation disorder is crucial for effective treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 13
Correct
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A 58-year-old man has hesitancy, a weak and sometimes intermittent urinary stream and terminal dribbling. He has to pass water once or twice in the night. On digital rectal examination, his prostate is firm and smooth and without nodules. It is enlarged to about two fingers’ breadth. Urinalysis is normal. His prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level is 1.5 ng/ml (cut off age 55 - 59 = 3.5 ng/ml). He is otherwise well. He finds the symptoms troublesome and requests something to help quickly.
Which would be the most appropriate drug to prescribe to relieve his symptoms quickly?Your Answer: Tamsulosin
Explanation:Treatment Options for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia
Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition in men, characterized by troublesome symptoms such as difficulty urinating. There are several treatment options available, depending on the severity of symptoms and the size of the prostate.
Alpha-blockers, such as tamsulosin, are usually the first-line treatment for men with moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms. These drugs reduce the tone in the muscle of the neck of the bladder, providing relief within days.
5-alpha-reductase inhibitors, such as finasteride, can be offered to men with symptoms. These drugs block the synthesis of dihydrotestosterone from testosterone and can reduce symptoms, but it may take several months before benefit is noted.
Oral desmopressin, an analogue of antidiuretic hormone, can be used when nocturnal polyuria is the predominant symptom and there is no other obvious treatable cause.
Goserelin, a gonadorelin analogue, is used in the treatment of prostate cancer. Given the examination findings of a smoothly enlarged prostate and a normal PSA, prostate cancer is unlikely.
Antimuscarinic drugs, such as oxybutynin, can be added for men with a mixed picture of voiding and storage symptoms. However, for men with predominantly voiding symptoms and signs of BPH on examination, oxybutynin would not be first line.
In summary, treatment options for BPH depend on the individual’s symptoms and prostate size. Alpha-blockers and 5-alpha-reductase inhibitors are commonly used, while desmopressin and goserelin are reserved for specific cases. Antimuscarinic drugs may be added for men with mixed symptoms, but are not first-line for those with predominantly voiding symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman comes to the clinic with complaints of soreness in both eyelids and constant dryness in her eyes. Upon examination, the margins of her eyelids appear red but not swollen. What is the best initial course of action from the following options?
Your Answer: Hot compresses + mechanical removal of lid debris
Explanation:Understanding Blepharitis
Blepharitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the eyelid margins. It can be caused by dysfunction of the meibomian glands or seborrhoeic dermatitis/staphylococcal infection. Patients with rosacea are more prone to developing blepharitis. The meibomian glands secrete oil to prevent rapid evaporation of the tear film, and any problem affecting these glands can lead to dry eyes and irritation.
Symptoms of blepharitis are usually bilateral and include grittiness and discomfort around the eyelid margins, sticky eyes in the morning, and redness of the eyelid margins. Staphylococcal blepharitis may cause swollen eyelids, styes, and chalazions. Secondary conjunctivitis may also occur.
Management of blepharitis involves softening the lid margin using hot compresses twice a day and mechanical removal of debris from the lid margins through lid hygiene. A mixture of cooled boiled water and baby shampoo or sodium bicarbonate in cooled boiled water can be used for cleaning. Artificial tears may also be given for symptom relief in patients with dry eyes or an abnormal tear film.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 15
Incorrect
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In your practice area there is sheltered accommodation for a small number of young adults with general learning disability.
Which of the following is the correct statement concerning general learning disability?
Your Answer: General learning disability is different to mental handicap
Correct Answer: Expressive language skills may be better than receptive skills
Explanation:Understanding General Learning Disability: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
General learning disability is a condition characterized by incomplete or arrested development of the mind, which is evident from childhood. This term is now recommended in the United Kingdom to replace outdated terms such as mental handicap and mental retardation. The majority of patients have mild learning disability, with an Intelligence Quotient (IQ) of 50-70. The causes of this condition are varied, including genetic, metabolic, and events during pregnancy, childbirth, and the postnatal period. Patients with general learning disability often have associated physical, psychological, and behavioral problems.
Psychotropic drugs are commonly used to manage behavioral problems, but they are rarely beneficial. Before resorting to medication, doctors should first check for any sources of discomfort, such as earache or toothache. When communicating with patients, it is important to address them directly and obtain as much history as possible from them. However, doctors should also be aware that there may be incongruence between receptive and expressive verbal skills, and patients may not fully understand the questions being asked.
Most adults with general learning disability have limited economic opportunities. It is important to understand this condition and provide appropriate support and management to improve the quality of life for patients and their families.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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Question 16
Correct
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A 60-year-old woman presents with swollen legs and is diagnosed with proteinuria. Identify the one characteristic that would strongly indicate a diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome instead of nephritic syndrome.
Your Answer: Proteinuria > 3.5g/24 hours
Explanation:Understanding Nephrotic Syndrome and Nephritic Syndrome
Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, edema, and hyperlipidemia. On the other hand, nephritic syndrome is defined by azotemia, hematuria, hypertension, and oliguria. Both syndromes present with edema, but the amount of proteinuria is higher in nephrotic syndrome.
In nephrotic syndrome, the glomerulus has small pores that allow protein to pass through but not cells, resulting in proteinuria and hypoalbuminemia. The liver compensates for protein loss by increasing the synthesis of albumin, LDL, VLDL, and lipoprotein(a), leading to lipid abnormalities. Patients with nephrotic syndrome are also at risk of hypercoagulability and infection due to the loss of inhibitors of coagulation and immunoglobulins in the urine.
The etiology of nephrotic syndrome varies depending on age and comorbidities. Minimal change disease is the most common cause in children, while focal segmental glomerulosclerosis is the most common cause in younger adults. Membranous nephropathy is the most common cause in older people, and diabetic nephropathy in adults with long-standing diabetes. Secondary causes include amyloidosis, lupus nephritis, and multiple myeloma.
Categorizing glomerular renal disease into syndromes such as nephrotic syndrome and nephritic syndrome helps narrow the differential diagnosis. Understanding the differences between these two syndromes is crucial in the diagnosis and management of glomerular renal disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old overweight woman complains of fatigue and frequent urination. Her physician orders a fasting blood glucose test:
Fasting glucose level: 8.2 mmol/l
The patient is advised on dietary changes and the doctor decides to initiate metformin treatment.
What is the best course of action for prescribing metformin?Your Answer: Metformin 500mg tds with food
Correct Answer: Metformin 500mg od with food for 14 days then metformin 500mg bd for 14 days then review
Explanation:To minimize the risk of gastrointestinal side-effects, it is recommended to gradually increase the dose of metformin and wait for at least a week before making any further adjustments, according to the BNF.
Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus, as well as polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. Unlike other medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin doesn’t cause hypoglycaemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. Its mechanism of action involves activating the AMP-activated protein kinase, increasing insulin sensitivity, decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis, and potentially reducing gastrointestinal absorption of carbohydrates. However, metformin can cause gastrointestinal upsets, reduced vitamin B12 absorption, and in rare cases, lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. It is contraindicated in patients with chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and those undergoing iodine-containing x-ray contrast media procedures. When starting metformin, it should be titrated up slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side-effects, and modified-release metformin can be considered for patients who experience unacceptable side-effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 18
Correct
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You are evaluating a recent research on the advantages of omega-3 fish oils in individuals with confirmed ischemic heart disease. What is the significance of the study's power?
Your Answer: #NAME?
Explanation:The probability of a type II error is subtracted from 1 to obtain the power.
Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 19
Correct
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A 35-year-old teacher presents with heavy periods. She reports using 8-10 pads daily during her 10-day long periods. She has two children and doesn't want any more at this time. She experiences mild cramping but no pain. Her busy schedule makes it difficult for her to remember to take medication daily. Blood tests reveal iron deficiency and she is prescribed iron tablets. Pelvic ultrasound shows no abnormalities. What is the recommended initial treatment for menorrhagia in this patient?
Your Answer: Mirena
Explanation:Treatment Options for Menorrhagia
Menorrhagia, or heavy menstrual bleeding, can be effectively treated with the Mirena intrauterine device. It is important to note that the Mirena also serves as a long-term contraceptive, making it a suitable option for many women. The copper coil, on the other hand, can actually increase vaginal bleeding and should be avoided in cases of menorrhagia. While the combined oral contraceptive pill is a viable option, it may not be the best choice for women with busy or unpredictable lifestyles. The progesterone-only pill is a third-line option, but there is no reason not to use the Mirena as a first-line treatment. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs like mefenamic acid may be helpful for dysmenorrhoea, but are not typically used for menorrhagia. For more information on treatment options for menorrhagia, visit http://cks.nice.org.uk/menorrhagia#!scenario.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 20
Correct
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A 7-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his father. He has a history of asthma and is prescribed salbutamol 100 mcg prn and Clenil (beclomethasone dipropionate) 100 mcg bd via a spacer. Despite the steroid inhaler, he is having to use salbutamol on a daily basis, especially in the morning or after physical activity. Today, his chest examination is normal.
What would be the most suitable course of action for further management?Your Answer: Add a leukotriene receptor antagonist
Explanation:For children between the ages of 5 and 16 who have asthma that is not being controlled by a combination of a short-acting beta agonist (SABA) and a low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS), it is recommended to add a leukotriene receptor antagonist to their asthma management plan.
Managing Asthma in Children: NICE Guidelines
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) released guidelines in 2017 for the management of asthma in children aged 5-16. These guidelines follow a stepwise approach, with treatment options based on the severity of the child’s symptoms. For newly-diagnosed asthma, short-acting beta agonists (SABA) are recommended. If symptoms persist or worsen, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) may be used. Leukotriene receptor antagonists (LTRA) and long-acting beta agonists (LABA) may also be added to the treatment plan.
For children under 5 years old, clinical judgement plays a greater role in diagnosis and treatment. The stepwise approach for this age group includes an 8-week trial of paediatric moderate-dose ICS for newly-diagnosed asthma or uncontrolled symptoms. If symptoms persist, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose ICS with LTRA may be used. If symptoms still persist, referral to a paediatric asthma specialist is recommended.
It is important to note that NICE doesn’t recommend changing treatment for patients with well-controlled asthma simply to adhere to the latest guidelines. Additionally, maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) may be used for combined ICS and LABA treatment, but only for LABAs with a fast-acting component. The definitions for low, moderate, and high-dose ICS have also changed, with different definitions for children and adults.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old woman presents to your morning clinic as an urgent addition. She is in tears and reports feeling very low. She has been experiencing poor sleep and loss of appetite.
In accordance with the NICE guidelines for depression in adults (CG90), which category of depression is recommended for active monitoring for up to two weeks?Your Answer: Moderate depression
Correct Answer: Mild depression
Explanation:Active Monitoring for Mild Depression
Active monitoring is a recommended approach for individuals who may recover without formal intervention, those with mild depression who do not want treatment, or those with subthreshold depressive symptoms who request an intervention. Practitioners should discuss the presenting problem(s) and any concerns the person may have about them, provide information about the nature and course of depression, and arrange a further assessment within two weeks. It is important to make contact if the person doesn’t attend follow-up appointments. This approach allows for a watchful waiting period, during which the individual’s symptoms can be monitored and evaluated for any changes or progression. By providing information and support, practitioners can help individuals make informed decisions about their mental health and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 22
Correct
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A 35-year-old gentleman with Down's syndrome reports low mood and lethargy for the past three months. He reports no thoughts of self-harm and has a supportive network of family and friends. There are no obvious social triggers for his new symptoms. He still enjoys his regular trips to the day centre and watching movies.
Which is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step?Your Answer: Blood tests including TFTs
Explanation:Hypothyroidism and Low Mood in Down’s Syndrome
Although routine investigations are not necessary for individuals with low mood, it is important to note that the prevalence of hypothyroidism is increased in people with Down’s syndrome. This condition can manifest with nonspecific symptoms such as lethargy and low mood, or it may be asymptomatic. Therefore, it may be necessary to conduct investigations to rule out hypothyroidism as a potential cause of low mood in individuals with Down’s syndrome.
There are no apparent safeguarding concerns or reasons to breach confidentiality in this situation. However, if investigations are normal, it is still possible that the individual is experiencing depression. In such cases, antidepressants, psychological therapy, and advice from psychiatry may be appropriate next steps. It is important to consider all potential causes of low mood in individuals with Down’s syndrome to ensure that they receive the appropriate care and support.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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Question 23
Correct
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A father brings his 4-year-old daughter to your GP surgery. He has noticed that she has been scratching her face, particularly around her mouth and that she has developed some 'spots and scabs' in the area. The patient doesn't appear systemically unwell or distressed. The child has a history of atopic eczema and viral-induced wheeze.
On examination of the child's face you note the presence of pustules and vesicles surrounding the mouth and nose area along with some honey-coloured plaques. You diagnose impetigo and prescribe topical fusidic acid as well as advising good hygiene measures.
The father is concerned about sending the child to preschool. What do you advise?Your Answer: The patient must have been on treatment for 48h before returning to daycare
Explanation:Patients with impetigo can go back to school or work once they are no longer contagious, which is either when all lesions have crusted over or after 48 hours of starting treatment. For measles or rubella, it is recommended to wait for at least 4 days after the rash appears before returning to work or school.
Understanding Impetigo: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Impetigo is a common bacterial skin infection that is caused by either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. It can occur as a primary infection or as a complication of an existing skin condition such as eczema. Impetigo is most common in children, especially during warm weather. The infection can develop anywhere on the body, but it tends to occur on the face, flexures, and limbs not covered by clothing.
The infection spreads through direct contact with discharges from the scabs of an infected person. The bacteria invade the skin through minor abrasions and then spread to other sites by scratching. Infection is spread mainly by the hands, but indirect spread via toys, clothing, equipment, and the environment may occur. The incubation period is between 4 to 10 days.
Symptoms of impetigo include ‘golden’, crusted skin lesions typically found around the mouth. It is highly contagious, and children should be excluded from school until the lesions are crusted and healed or 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment.
Management of impetigo depends on the extent of the disease. Limited, localized disease can be treated with hydrogen peroxide 1% cream or topical antibiotic creams such as fusidic acid or mupirocin. MRSA is not susceptible to either fusidic acid or retapamulin, so topical mupirocin should be used in this situation. Extensive disease may require oral flucloxacillin or oral erythromycin if penicillin-allergic. The use of hydrogen peroxide 1% cream was recommended by NICE and Public Health England in 2020 to cut antibiotic resistance. The evidence base shows it is just as effective at treating non-bullous impetigo as a topical antibiotic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 24
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A 55-year-old man with dyslipidaemia, hypertension and angina has recently been diagnosed with impaired glucose tolerance (IGT).
Clinically he is obese with a BMI of 33 kg/m2, his blood pressure is 145/85 mmHg. He is aware that having impaired glucose tolerance is a risk factor for type 2 diabetes and would like to discuss strategies to attenuate this risk.
Which of the following has been shown best to reduce the incidence of type 2 diabetes in individuals with IGT?Your Answer: Intensive lifestyle change
Explanation:Diabetes Prevention Interventions
The Diabetes Prevention Programme (DPP) and Finnish Diabetes Prevention Study both demonstrated a significant reduction in the incidence of type 2 diabetes through intensive lifestyle interventions. These interventions included dietary changes, increased physical activity, and weight loss. The DPP and Finnish study showed a 58% reduction in incidence, compared to a 31% reduction when using metformin. Acarbose has also been shown to reduce the incidence of diabetes when combined with lifestyle changes. The ACT Now study suggests that pioglitazone may reduce the progression from pre-diabetes to type 2 diabetes, although it is not licensed for this purpose in the UK. The Finnish Diabetes Prevention Study (DPS) specifically focused on lifestyle interventions and showed positive results after three years of dietary and physical activity changes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 25
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A mother brings her 5-month old baby daughter to your clinic for a birthmark on her arm. Upon examination, you identify a small vascular plaque that doesn't seem to be causing any discomfort to the baby. Your diagnosis is a strawberry naevus. What would be the most suitable initial course of action?
Your Answer: Watch and wait
Explanation:A congenital haemangioma known as a strawberry naevus affects approximately one in 20 infants. These haemangiomas grow quickly during the first few months of life and then gradually disappear over a few years without any intervention. Unless they are causing vision, hearing, breathing, or feeding problems, they typically do not require treatment. However, if they are located on the lower spine, they may indicate spina bifida and require further investigation. Additionally, if they are unusually large or atypical, medical attention may be necessary.
Strawberry naevi, also known as capillary haemangiomas, are not usually present at birth but can develop quickly within the first month of life. They appear as raised, red, and lobed tumours that commonly occur on the face, scalp, and back. These growths tend to increase in size until around 6-9 months before gradually disappearing over the next few years. However, in rare cases, they can obstruct the airway if they occur in the upper respiratory tract. Capillary haemangiomas are more common in white infants, particularly in females, premature infants, and those whose mothers have undergone chorionic villous sampling.
Complications of strawberry naevi include obstruction of vision or airway, bleeding, ulceration, and thrombocytopaenia. Treatment may be necessary if there is visual field obstruction, and propranolol is now the preferred choice over systemic steroids. Topical beta-blockers such as timolol may also be used. Cavernous haemangioma is a type of deep capillary haemangioma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 26
Correct
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A 29-year-old woman schedules a routine appointment to discuss her cervical screening outcomes. Regrettably, her last two samples have been reported as insufficient. What is the best course of action for these findings?
Your Answer: Colposcopy within 6 weeks
Explanation:If a woman has two consecutive inadequate samples during cervical cancer screening, she should be referred for colposcopy. This is because if the cytology results are abnormal and show high-grade dyskaryosis (moderate or severe), colposcopy should be offered within 2 weeks. For those with inadequate, borderline, or low-grade dyskaryosis (mild) results, they should receive an appointment within 6 weeks. It is not possible for the woman to return to routine recall as her samples were inadequate. Repeat hrHPV tests would only be necessary if the woman had positive hrHPV and normal cytology results.
Understanding Cervical Cancer Screening Results
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved significantly in recent years, with the introduction of HPV testing allowing for further risk stratification. The NHS now uses an HPV first system, where a sample is tested for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV) first, and cytological examination is only performed if this is positive.
If the hrHPV test is negative, individuals can return to normal recall, unless they fall under the test of cure pathway, untreated CIN1 pathway, or require follow-up for incompletely excised cervical glandular intraepithelial neoplasia (CGIN) / stratified mucin producing intraepithelial lesion (SMILE) or cervical cancer. If the hrHPV test is positive, samples are examined cytologically, and if the cytology is abnormal, individuals will require colposcopy.
If the cytology is normal but the hrHPV test is positive, the test is repeated at 12 months. If the repeat test is still hrHPV positive and cytology is normal, a further repeat test is done 12 months later. If the hrHPV test is negative at 24 months, individuals can return to normal recall, but if it is still positive, they will require colposcopy. If the sample is inadequate, it will need to be repeated within 3 months, and if two consecutive samples are inadequate, colposcopy will be required.
For individuals who have previously had CIN, they should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample in the community 6 months after treatment. The most common treatment for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia is large loop excision of transformation zone (LLETZ), which may be done during the initial colposcopy visit or at a later date depending on the individual clinic. Cryotherapy is an alternative technique.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 27
Correct
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A 49-year-old man presents with concerns about his hearing. He has a history of recurrent Ménière disease which has resulted in significant hearing loss. He struggles to hear his coworkers at work and his partner has noticed that he needs to turn the volume up high on the television. He has not considered hearing aids due to negative stories he has heard about them.
Upon reviewing his recent audiogram, it shows an 80 dB hearing loss at the 1,000 Hz and 2,000 Hz frequencies. The patient is interested in being referred for a cochlear implant.
What is the recommended management plan?Your Answer: Refer her for hearing aids
Explanation:Individuals with severe to profound hearing loss, such as this woman, may benefit from a cochlear implant. It is not necessary for her to wait until her hearing worsens before seeking treatment. Ménière disease-related hearing loss, which is linked to inner ear issues and balance symptoms, can also be improved with a cochlear implant. While cochlear implants are available through the NHS, patients are typically required to have attempted hearing aids before being considered for the procedure.
A cochlear implant is an electronic device that can be given to individuals with severe-to-profound hearing loss. The suitability for a cochlear implant is determined by audiological assessment and/or difficulty developing basic auditory skills in children, and a trial of appropriate hearing aids for at least 3 months in adults. The causes of severe-to-profound hearing loss can be genetic, congenital, idiopathic, infectious, viral-induced sudden hearing loss, ototoxicity, otosclerosis, Ménière disease, or trauma. Prior to an assessment for the cochlear implant, patients should have exhausted all medical therapies aimed at targeting any underlying pathological process contributing to the loss of hearing.
Surgical implantation may be complicated by infection, facial paralysis due to nerve injury intra-operatively, cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage, and meningitis. Patients are discharged for the postoperative physical recovery of the implantation site and generally return to outpatient clinic 3-5 weeks post-op for device stimulation. Contraindications to consideration for cochlear implant include lesions of cranial nerve VIII or in the brain stem causing deafness, chronic infective otitis media, mastoid cavity or tympanic membrane perforation, and cochlear aplasia.
The device has both internal and external components. Externally, the microphone recognises the environmental sound and sends it to the sound processor. This, in turn, transforms the impulses received into a digital signal that which is then transferred to the transmitter coil. The transmitter coil conveys the signal to the internal components. Internally, a receiver, which magnetically connected to, and sits directly above the transmitter coil, and receives the impulses from the external apparatus which are then processed by a set of electrodes. The electrodes do the work that would be performed by the inner ear hair cells in a ‘normal’ ear. The brain can then process these signals to comprehend sound.
Rechargeable batteries can be used to power the apparatus and life span depends upon usage and the individual device. Hearing link describes cochlear implants as ‘…the world’s most successful medical prostheses in that less than 0.2% of recipients reject it or do not use it and the failure rate needing reimplantation is around 0.5%.’ It is important for patients to demonstrate an understanding of what to expect from cochlear implantation, including comprehension of the likely limitations of the device. Patients should also demonstrate an interest in using the
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 28
Correct
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A 5-year-old child presents with a six month history of soiling his underpants. His parents report that his appetite is good, he goes to the toilet to open his bowels only about three times a week and his stools are hard. On examination his height and weight are on the 50th centile. His abdomen is soft, non-tender and non-distended. What is the next step in your management of this child?
Your Answer: Macrogol
Explanation:Management of Constipation with Overflow (Soiling)
Constipation with overflow, also known as soiling, is a common problem in children. It occurs when there is chronic constipation, leading to the inappropriate passage of stool in underwear. The faeces are often loose and smelly, and the child has no control over this involuntary action.
The first line of management for constipation with overflow is laxatives, such as macrogol (Movicol), which should be continued for several weeks after regular bowel habit is established. If this doesn’t work, a stimulant laxative like sodium picosulfate, bisacodyl or senna may be added, followed by an osmotic laxative like lactulose if needed.
Macrogol (also known as polyethylene glycol or PEG) is the most appropriate first-line treatment in this scenario for several reasons:
- Effectiveness: Macrogol is an osmotic laxative that helps retain water in the stool, making it softer and easier to pass.
- Safety: It is safe for long-term use in children and is often used as a first-line treatment for constipation in pediatric patients.
- Ease of Use: Macrogol is usually well-tolerated by children, can be mixed with drinks, and is more effective than many other laxatives in treating constipation and resolving fecal impaction.
Considerations for Other Options:
- Glycerol Suppository: While effective for immediate relief of rectal loading, it is not suitable for long-term management of constipation.
- Fybogel (Psyllium Husk): A bulk-forming laxative that requires adequate fluid intake, which might not be ideal if the child is already constipated and has hard stools.
- Dietary Modification: Important for long-term prevention and management, but alone it might not be sufficient for initial treatment of established constipation.
- Abdominal Ultrasound Scan: Not indicated at this stage unless there are atypical features or suspicion of another underlying condition. This child’s presentation is consistent with functional constipation.
Recommended Management Plan:
- Initiate Treatment with Macrogol: Start with an appropriate dose to soften the stools and allow for regular bowel movements. Follow up with dose adjustments as needed.
- Education and Support: Educate the parents about the importance of maintaining regular bowel habits and the potential for an initial increase in soiling as the impacted stool is cleared.
- Dietary Modification: Encourage a diet high in fiber with adequate hydration to help prevent future constipation episodes. This can include fruits, vegetables, and whole grains.
- Follow-up: Regular follow-up to assess the effectiveness of treatment, adjust the dose of macrogol as needed, and provide further dietary advice.
- Behavioral Interventions: Encourage regular toilet sitting after meals to establish a routine and help the child develop healthy bowel habits.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 29
Correct
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A four-year-old child presents with a rash. The child has a history of atopic eczema that has been challenging to manage. Upon examination, the child has multiple umbilicated papules primarily on the neck and trunk. When compressed, the lesions discharge a cheesy substance.
What would be your plan of action?Your Answer: No specific treatment necessary
Explanation:Molluscum Contagiosum: A Common Skin Condition in Children
Molluscum contagiosum is a skin condition caused by a DNA pox virus that is more common in children with atopic eczema. It is characterized by dome-shaped papules, usually a few millimeters in diameter, with a central punctum that is often described as umbilicated. When squeezed, the lesions release a cheesy material.
While no specific treatment is needed, the lesions may take 12-18 months to disappear. However, if patients are concerned about the unsightly appearance of the rash, they can be shown how to squeeze the lesions to express the central plug out of each Molluscum. This can speed up the resolution process.
In summary, Molluscum contagiosum is a common skin condition in children that can be managed with simple techniques. It is important to reassure patients that the lesions will eventually disappear on their own and that treatment is only necessary for cosmetic reasons.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 30
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman requests medication from her General Practitioner as she has an overwhelming feeling of dread about her upcoming job interview. She becomes very anxious in situations where she is required to talk to people who are not very well known to her and usually tries to avoid such events. She is happily married and was very happy in her current job until she was made redundant.
What is the single most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Social phobia
Explanation:Differentiating Anxiety Disorders: A Brief Overview
Anxiety disorders are a group of mental health conditions that can cause significant distress and impairment in daily life. Here are some key differences between the most common anxiety disorders:
Social Phobia: This disorder is characterized by fear, worry, or embarrassment in social situations, leading to avoidance. Panic attacks are common, and symptoms are limited to social situations.
Generalized Anxiety Disorder: This disorder is characterized by excessive, uncontrollable worry that is disproportionate to the situation. Physical and psychological symptoms may be present, but the worry is not limited to specific triggers.
Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder: This disorder is characterized by intrusive thoughts or images (obsessions) and repetitive behaviors or mental acts (compulsions) that are performed to alleviate anxiety. These symptoms are not present in the scenario described.
Panic Disorder: This disorder is characterized by sudden-onset acute anxiety symptoms, such as palpitations or hyperventilation. Panic attacks may occur without a specific trigger, but can also be triggered by specific situations.
Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder: This disorder develops after exposure to a traumatic event and is characterized by hyperarousal, dissociation, flashbacks, and nightmares. There is no history of trauma in the scenario described, ruling out PTSD as a diagnosis.
Understanding the differences between these anxiety disorders can help healthcare professionals make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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