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  • Question 1 - You sample 100 patients' ages from your patient list and calculate the mean...

    Incorrect

    • You sample 100 patients' ages from your patient list and calculate the mean age to be 45 years old. This baseline data will be used before enrolling these patients on an exercise programme to measure the effect this has on age. The standard deviation of your data is 3. You wish to determine how accurate your estimate of the mean is likely to be.

      What is the standard error of the mean?

      Your Answer: 13

      Correct Answer: 0.5

      Explanation:

      Understanding Confidence Interval and Standard Error of the Mean

      The confidence interval is a widely used concept in medical statistics, but it can be confusing to understand. In simple terms, it is a range of values that is likely to contain the true effect of an intervention. The likelihood of the true effect lying within the confidence interval is determined by the confidence level, which is the specified probability of including the true value of the variable. For instance, a 95% confidence interval means that the range of values should contain the true effect of intervention 95% of the time.

      To calculate the confidence interval, we use the standard error of the mean (SEM), which measures the spread expected for the mean of the observations. The SEM is calculated by dividing the standard deviation (SD) by the square root of the sample size (n). As the sample size increases, the SEM gets smaller, indicating a more accurate sample mean from the true population mean.

      A 95% confidence interval is calculated by subtracting and adding 1.96 times the SEM from the mean value. However, if the sample size is small (n < 100), a 'Student's T critical value' look-up table should be used instead of 1.96. Similarly, if a different confidence level is required, such as 90%, the value used in the formula should be adjusted accordingly. In summary, the confidence interval is a range of values that is likely to contain the true effect of an intervention, and its calculation involves using the standard error of the mean. Understanding these concepts is crucial in interpreting statistical results in medical research.

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      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 2 - A study investigates a new diagnostic test for dementia. You are interested in...

    Incorrect

    • A study investigates a new diagnostic test for dementia. You are interested in determining the proportion of patients who are classified as not having dementia by the test but actually do not have dementia. What measurement would indicate this?

      Your Answer: Specificity

      Correct Answer: Negative predictive value

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sensitivity, Specificity, and Predictive Values

      When evaluating a diagnostic test, it is important to understand the concepts of sensitivity, specificity, and predictive values. Sensitivity refers to the proportion of individuals with the condition who are correctly identified by the test, while specificity refers to the proportion of individuals without the condition who are correctly identified by the test.

      Predictive values, on the other hand, take into account both true and false positives and negatives. The positive predictive value refers to the proportion of individuals who test positive and actually have the condition, while the negative predictive value refers to the proportion of individuals who test negative and do not have the condition.

      It is important to note that sensitivity and specificity are based on the disease state itself, while predictive values are based on the test result. This distinction can sometimes cause confusion among candidates, but understanding these concepts is crucial for interpreting diagnostic test results accurately.

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      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 3 - You are studying the measurement of a new biomarker for cognitive decline in...

    Incorrect

    • You are studying the measurement of a new biomarker for cognitive decline in elderly patients, and how it might be applied to geriatric medicine. You assume that the data for this particular biomarker are likely to be normally distributed.

      When considering the normal distribution, which of the following is true?

      Your Answer: Data need to be transformed before they can be analysed with parametric tests

      Correct Answer: The mean, median and mode are the same value

      Explanation:

      Understanding Normal Distribution and Parametric Tests

      The normal distribution is a bell-shaped curve that is symmetrical on both sides. Its mean, median, and mode are equal, making it a useful tool for analyzing data. For instance, the probability that a normally distributed random variable x, with mean sigma, and standard deviation µ, lies between (sigma – 1.96 µ) and (sigma + 1.96 µ) is 0.95, while the probability that it lies between (sigma – µ) and (sigma + µ) is 0.68. Additionally, 95% of the distribution of sample means lie within 1.96 standard deviations of the population mean.

      Parametric tests are statistical tests that assume the data are normally distributed. However, data that are not normally distributed can still be subject to a parametric test, but they need to be transformed first. Understanding normal distribution and parametric tests is crucial for researchers and analysts who want to make accurate inferences from their data.

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  • Question 4 - A study is conducted to investigate the likelihood of stroke in high-risk patients...

    Incorrect

    • A study is conducted to investigate the likelihood of stroke in high-risk patients taking a new oral antithrombotic medication versus warfarin. The study includes patients over the age of 60. The results are as follows:

      Total number of patients Number who had a stroke within a 3 year period
      New drug 200 10
      Warfarin 600 12

      What is the relative risk of experiencing a stroke within a 3 year period for patients over the age of 60 taking the new drug compared to warfarin?

      Your Answer: 0.66

      Correct Answer: 2.5

      Explanation:

      To calculate the relative risk, we need to determine the experimental event rate (EER) and the control event rate (CER). In this case, the EER is 10 out of 200, which equals 0.05. The CER is 12 out of 600, which equals 0.02. To find the relative risk, we divide the EER by the CER, resulting in a value of 2.5.

      Understanding Relative Risk in Clinical Trials

      Relative risk (RR) is a measure used in clinical trials to compare the risk of an event occurring in the experimental group to the risk in the control group. It is calculated by dividing the experimental event rate (EER) by the control event rate (CER). If the resulting ratio is greater than 1, it means that the event is more likely to occur in the experimental group than in the control group. Conversely, if the ratio is less than 1, the event is less likely to occur in the experimental group.

      To calculate the relative risk reduction (RRR) or relative risk increase (RRI), the absolute risk change is divided by the control event rate. This provides a percentage that indicates the magnitude of the difference between the two groups. Understanding relative risk is important in evaluating the effectiveness of interventions and treatments in clinical trials. By comparing the risk of an event in the experimental group to the control group, researchers can determine whether the intervention is beneficial or not.

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  • Question 5 - A new oral-hypoglycaemic is being developed. A number of different study types are...

    Incorrect

    • A new oral-hypoglycaemic is being developed. A number of different study types are considered to demonstrate efficacy in reducing the HbA1c. Which one of the following study designs would require the most participants to produce a significant result?

      Your Answer: Study design would not affect the number of patients required

      Correct Answer: Superiority trial

      Explanation:

      Since a superiority trial involves comparing a new drug with an already existing treatment that can also reduce HbA1c, a substantial sample size is necessary to establish a noteworthy distinction.

      When a new drug is introduced, there are various study design options available. One of these options is a placebo-controlled trial, which can provide strong evidence but may be considered unethical if established treatments are available. Additionally, it doesn’t offer a comparison with standard treatments. Therefore, if a drug is to be compared to an existing treatment, a statistician must determine whether the trial is intended to show superiority, equivalence, or non-inferiority.

      Superiority trials may seem like the natural aim of a trial, but they require a large sample size to demonstrate a significant benefit over an existing treatment. On the other hand, equivalence trials define an equivalence margin (-delta to +delta) on a specified outcome. If the confidence interval of the difference between the two drugs falls within the equivalence margin, the drugs may be assumed to have a similar effect. Non-inferiority trials are similar to equivalence trials, but only the lower confidence interval needs to fall within the equivalence margin (i.e. -delta). These trials require smaller sample sizes. Once a drug has been shown to be non-inferior, large studies may be conducted to demonstrate superiority.

      It is important to note that drug companies may not necessarily aim to show superiority over an existing product. If they can demonstrate that their product is equivalent or even non-inferior, they may compete on price or convenience.

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  • Question 6 - A letter to a medical journal suggested that an established antidepressant may cause...

    Incorrect

    • A letter to a medical journal suggested that an established antidepressant may cause photosensitivity in elderly patients.

      The manufacturer has received feedback from many sources noting similar adverse effects and wants to know whether this is a true association.

      Which one of the following techniques is most appropriate?

      Your Answer: Double blind, randomised, placebo controlled study

      Correct Answer: Meta-analysis

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Best Study Design for Investigating a Rare Toxic Effect of an Established Drug

      When investigating a rare toxic effect of an established drug, it is important to choose the most appropriate study design. In this case, a double-blind, randomized, placebo-controlled study would be too time-consuming, expensive, and unlikely to detect the rare effect. A dose-ranging study is not suitable for this purpose either. A sequential trial would not have enough subjects to detect the small risk. A case-control study would require more raw data and produce a lower level of evidence than a meta-analysis. Therefore, a meta-analysis would be the quickest and most efficient option, as it combines all previous data and produces the highest level of evidence. By eliminating the other study designs, we can confidently choose the best option for investigating the rare toxic effect of the established drug.

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  • Question 7 - Which one of the following statements best describes a type I statistical error?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements best describes a type I statistical error?

      Your Answer: The alternative hypothesis is rejected when it is true

      Correct Answer: The null hypothesis is rejected when it is true

      Explanation:

      Rejecting the null hypothesis when it is actually true is known as a Type I error.

      Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.

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  • Question 8 - A 47-year-old man seeks your guidance on quitting smoking and mentions his interest...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old man seeks your guidance on quitting smoking and mentions his interest in using electronic cigarettes as a cessation aid. You recall reading a study that compared electronic cigarettes to nicotine replacement therapy for smoking cessation. The study involved primary care patients who were randomly assigned to either the intervention or control group.

      What type of bias could potentially threaten the validity of this study?

      Your Answer: Selective reporting bias

      Correct Answer: Selection bias

      Explanation:

      Selection bias is a term used to describe the non-random assignment of patients to a study group, which can result in systematic differences in the baseline characteristics of the groups being compared. Randomisation is an effective way to prevent selection bias, but if it is not done properly, selection bias can occur. For example, if patients attending a primary care practice were allocated to an intervention or control group based on factors such as their smoking habits, this could lead to systematic differences in baseline characteristics. Attrition bias and performance bias are not the same as selection bias, as they refer to different types of systematic differences between groups in a study.

      Understanding Bias in Clinical Trials

      Bias refers to the systematic favoring of one outcome over another in a clinical trial. There are various types of bias, including selection bias, recall bias, publication bias, work-up bias, expectation bias, Hawthorne effect, late-look bias, procedure bias, and lead-time bias. Selection bias occurs when individuals are assigned to groups in a way that may influence the outcome. Sampling bias, volunteer bias, and non-responder bias are subtypes of selection bias. Recall bias refers to the difference in accuracy of recollections retrieved by study participants, which may be influenced by whether they have a disorder or not. Publication bias occurs when valid studies are not published, often because they showed negative or uninteresting results. Work-up bias is an issue in studies comparing new diagnostic tests with gold standard tests, where clinicians may be reluctant to order the gold standard test unless the new test is positive. Expectation bias occurs when observers subconsciously measure or report data in a way that favors the expected study outcome. The Hawthorne effect describes a group changing its behavior due to the knowledge that it is being studied. Late-look bias occurs when information is gathered at an inappropriate time, and procedure bias occurs when subjects in different groups receive different treatment. Finally, lead-time bias occurs when two tests for a disease are compared, and the new test diagnoses the disease earlier, but there is no effect on the outcome of the disease. Understanding these types of bias is crucial in designing and interpreting clinical trials.

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      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 9 - A randomised controlled trial is conducted comparing a new medication or placebo for...

    Incorrect

    • A randomised controlled trial is conducted comparing a new medication or placebo for recovery from a certain illness.

      What term best describes the probability of obtaining a result by chance at least as extreme as the one that was observed, assuming that the null hypothesis of no difference between the medication and placebo is true?

      Your Answer: Standard error

      Correct Answer: P value

      Explanation:

      The P value represents the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is as extreme or more extreme than the one observed, assuming that the null hypothesis is true.

      Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.

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      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 10 - A new mother comes to see you with her baby for a routine...

    Correct

    • A new mother comes to see you with her baby for a routine eight week check. She is anxious about cot death and wants to discuss the subject further.

      Which of the following statements about cot death is correct?

      Your Answer: It is more common in the winter months

      Explanation:

      Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS), also known as cot death, is not fully understood and its exact cause is unknown. It is more common in infants under 5 months of age, especially premature babies who have had apnoeic episodes during resuscitation. However, the risk can be reduced by placing the baby on their back to sleep, using a firm mattress, avoiding loose covers, positioning the baby’s feet to the foot of the cot, maintaining a reasonable room temperature, not sharing a bed with the baby, using a dummy at bedtime, avoiding cigarette smoking, recognizing and treating illnesses, and breastfeeding. Media campaigns have helped reduce the number of cases over the years.

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      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 11 - A clinical trial is designed to investigate a new treatment for elderly patients...

    Incorrect

    • A clinical trial is designed to investigate a new treatment for elderly patients with acute myocardial infarction. Two groups of elderly patients are randomly assigned to either the current protocol for management or the new treatment protocol. The patients are unaware of their treatment group, but the treating clinician is aware of which group each patient belongs to. What is the best description of this experimental study?

      Your Answer: Case-control

      Correct Answer: Single-blind

      Explanation:

      Types of Experimental Studies

      Experimental studies can take on different forms, each with its own purpose and methodology. One important aspect of experimental studies is blinding or masking, which aims to prevent bias from influencing the results. Double-blind studies involve neither the patient nor the person performing the intervention knowing which treatment the patient has been assigned to receive. Single-blind studies, on the other hand, involve either the patient or the clinician not knowing which treatment has been randomly allocated. In a placebo-controlled study, the control group takes an inert substance (a placebo) instead of receiving no treatment.

      It is important to note that case-control studies are not a type of experimental study, but rather a type of observational study. In a case-control study, a group of individuals with a specific disease or study parameter are matched to a group of controls, and the two groups are analyzed to see if any important differences exist relating to their past. Triple-blind studies are also possible, where the patients, clinicians, and statisticians do not know which treatment patients had. Understanding the different types of experimental studies can help researchers design studies that are appropriate for their research questions and goals.

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  • Question 12 - A study of individuals with cognitive impairment was conducted. The 112 participants who...

    Incorrect

    • A study of individuals with cognitive impairment was conducted. The 112 participants who underwent program A demonstrated an average increase of 6 points in their IQ score. On the other hand, the 115 participants who underwent program B showed an average increase of 4 points in their IQ score. The p value was greater than 0.05. What is accurate?

      Your Answer: The study demonstrates the usefulness of programme A

      Correct Answer: Even though the difference between the means is not significant it would be appropriate to calculate confidence intervals

      Explanation:

      Importance of Confidence Intervals in Data Analysis

      Even though the difference between means may not be significant, it is still important to calculate confidence intervals. This is because confidence intervals provide an idea of the distribution of the data, which can give more meaningful insights into the study. Additionally, the chances of obtaining results by chance are greater than 1 in 20 if the p-value is greater than 0.05.

      To compare data, a t-test can be used, and larger sample sizes generally provide more meaningful results. However, it is important to note that repeating an IQ test or using a different test (such as test A or B) may not necessarily provide more useful information. Overall, confidence intervals are a valuable tool in data analysis and should be considered even when the difference between means is not significant.

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  • Question 13 - You are discussing coronary heart disease risk with a patient who has a...

    Incorrect

    • You are discussing coronary heart disease risk with a patient who has a 15% 10-year risk of cardiovascular disease. The patient wants to know if he should take a statin.

      Using the NICE patient decision aid on lipid modification you explain to him that if there were 100 people like him and none of them took a statin, on average 15 of these people would develop coronary heart disease (CHD) or have stroke over a 10 year period. If all 100 took a statin then over the same time period, on average nine people would develop CHD or have a stroke.

      Which of the following is correct with regards the use of a statin for cardiovascular disease prevention in this patient population?

      Your Answer: The relative risk reduction is 0.6

      Correct Answer: The number needed to treat is 25

      Explanation:

      Understanding Statistical Concepts in Medical Practice

      Having a solid understanding of statistical concepts and terminology is crucial when informing patients about the risks and benefits of treatment. One important concept is the absolute risk (AR), which is the number of events in a group of patients divided by the total number of patients in that group. Another important concept is the absolute risk reduction (ARR), which is the difference between the AR in a control group (ARC) and in a treatment group (ART).

      To calculate the ARR, we subtract the ART from the ARC. For example, if the ARC is 10/100 and the ART is 6/100, then the ARR is 0.04 or 4%. The relative risk (RR) is another important concept, which is calculated by dividing the ART by the ARC. In this example, the RR is 0.6. The relative risk reduction (RRR) is calculated by subtracting the RR from 1. In this case, the RRR is 0.4. Finally, the number needed to treat (NNT) is calculated by dividing 1 by the ARR. In this example, the NNT is 25.

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  • Question 14 - What is the primary benefit of conducting non-inferiority trials in evaluating a novel...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary benefit of conducting non-inferiority trials in evaluating a novel medication?

      Your Answer: Prevents ethical dilemmas

      Correct Answer: Small sample size is required

      Explanation:

      When a new drug is introduced, there are various study design options available. One of these options is a placebo-controlled trial, which can provide strong evidence but may be considered unethical if established treatments are available. Additionally, it doesn’t offer a comparison with standard treatments. Therefore, if a drug is to be compared to an existing treatment, a statistician must determine whether the trial is intended to show superiority, equivalence, or non-inferiority.

      Superiority trials may seem like the natural aim of a trial, but they require a large sample size to demonstrate a significant benefit over an existing treatment. On the other hand, equivalence trials define an equivalence margin (-delta to +delta) on a specified outcome. If the confidence interval of the difference between the two drugs falls within the equivalence margin, the drugs may be assumed to have a similar effect. Non-inferiority trials are similar to equivalence trials, but only the lower confidence interval needs to fall within the equivalence margin (i.e. -delta). These trials require smaller sample sizes. Once a drug has been shown to be non-inferior, large studies may be conducted to demonstrate superiority.

      It is important to note that drug companies may not necessarily aim to show superiority over an existing product. If they can demonstrate that their product is equivalent or even non-inferior, they may compete on price or convenience.

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      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 15 - A GP is concerned about the number of cases of hypertension he is...

    Incorrect

    • A GP is concerned about the number of cases of hypertension he is seeing in his practice. He conducts a search of the practice records to investigate further. In the practice population of 15000 patients, he identifies 200 patients with a diagnosis of hypertension, with 20 of those diagnosed between 1st January 2021 and 31st December 2021. He also notes four deaths in the past year with hypertension named on part one of the death certificate.

      What was the incidence of hypertension for the year 2021 in this GP practice?

      Your Answer: 571 per 100,000

      Correct Answer: 43 per 100,000

      Explanation:

      The incidence of cirrhosis in the practice population is 43 per 100,000, as there were 6 new cases in the year out of a total population of 14,000. The proportion of patients with cirrhosis who received the diagnosis within the last year is 0.075, or 6 out of 80 patients. The prevalence of cirrhosis in the practice population is 0.00571, or 80 out of 14,000 patients.

      Understanding Incidence and Prevalence

      Incidence and prevalence are two terms used to describe the frequency of a condition in a population. The incidence refers to the number of new cases per population in a given time period, while the prevalence refers to the total number of cases per population at a particular point in time. Prevalence can be further divided into point prevalence and period prevalence, depending on the time frame used to measure it.

      To calculate prevalence, one can use the formula prevalence = incidence * duration of condition. This means that in chronic diseases, the prevalence is much greater than the incidence, while in acute diseases, the prevalence and incidence are similar. For example, the incidence of the common cold may be greater than its prevalence.

      Understanding the difference between incidence and prevalence is important in epidemiology and public health, as it helps to identify the burden of a disease in a population and inform healthcare policies and interventions. By measuring both incidence and prevalence, researchers can track the spread of a disease over time and assess the effectiveness of prevention and treatment strategies.

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  • Question 16 - You wish to investigate an outbreak of atypical pneumonia cases in the elderly...

    Incorrect

    • You wish to investigate an outbreak of atypical pneumonia cases in the elderly population and determine if there has been exposure to a particular risk factor.

      Which study design would be most appropriate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Case-control

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate study design to investigate an infectious outbreak is a case-control study. This study design allows for the retrospective identification of patients who have developed the disease and compares their past exposure to suspected causal factors with controls who do not have the disease. A cohort study, which follows patients into the future, is not suitable for this scenario as the aim is to trace the cause of the outbreak. A cross-sectional study provides a snapshot of the condition and exposures in the overall population at a set time, but it is not suitable for finding the cause of the outbreak. Randomized controlled trials are not appropriate as there are no interventions being studied. Meta-analysis is not applicable as there is no mention of other research to review.

      There are different types of studies that researchers can use to investigate various phenomena. One of the most rigorous types of study is the randomised controlled trial, where participants are randomly assigned to either an intervention or control group. However, practical or ethical issues may limit the use of this type of study. Another type of study is the cohort study, which is observational and prospective. Researchers select two or more groups based on their exposure to a particular agent and follow them up to see how many develop a disease or other outcome. The usual outcome measure is the relative risk. Examples of cohort studies include the Framingham Heart Study.

      On the other hand, case-control studies are observational and retrospective. Researchers identify patients with a particular condition (cases) and match them with controls. Data is then collected on past exposure to a possible causal agent for the condition. The usual outcome measure is the odds ratio. Case-control studies are inexpensive and produce quick results, making them useful for studying rare conditions. However, they are prone to confounding. Lastly, cross-sectional surveys provide a snapshot of a population and are sometimes called prevalence studies. They provide weak evidence of cause and effect.

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  • Question 17 - A consultant pediatrician creates a new survey for use in schools that aims...

    Incorrect

    • A consultant pediatrician creates a new survey for use in schools that aims to identify children with developmental delays. What term refers to the degree to which the survey accurately identifies its intended purpose?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Validity

      Explanation:

      Validity refers to how accurately something measures what it claims to measure. There are two main types of validity: internal and external. Internal validity refers to the confidence we have in the cause and effect relationship in a study. This means we are confident that the independent variable caused the observed change in the dependent variable, rather than other factors. There are several threats to internal validity, such as poor control of extraneous variables and loss of participants over time. External validity refers to the degree to which the conclusions of a study can be applied to other people, places, and times. Threats to external validity include the representativeness of the sample and the artificiality of the research setting. There are also other types of validity, such as face validity and content validity, which refer to the general impression and full content of a test, respectively. Criterion validity compares tests, while construct validity measures the extent to which a test measures the construct it aims to.

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  • Question 18 - What is the percentage of the population that falls within 2 standard deviations...

    Incorrect

    • What is the percentage of the population that falls within 2 standard deviations of the mean for a given biochemical test in the hospital laboratory?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 85%

      Explanation:

      Understanding Normal Distribution

      When it comes to understanding normal distribution, it’s important to know that one standard deviation includes 68% of the population. This means that if you were to plot the results of a test on a graph, 68% of the scores would fall within one standard deviation of the mean. Two standard deviations include approximately 95% of the population, which means that if you were to plot the results of a test on a graph, 95% of the scores would fall within two standard deviations of the mean. Finally, three standard deviations include 99.7% of the population, which means that if you were to plot the results of a test on a graph, 99.7% of the scores would fall within three standard deviations of the mean. Understanding normal distribution is important in many fields, including statistics, finance, and science.

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  • Question 19 - You are evaluating a study on the use of masks in public places...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a study on the use of masks in public places to reduce viral upper respiratory tract infections among elderly individuals. The study found that the treatment group, who wore a mask, had fewer cases compared to the control group who did not wear a mask. The absolute risk in the control group was 0.5 whereas the absolute risk in the treatment group was 0.3.

      What is the number needed to treat for elderly individuals in this study?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5

      Explanation:

      The formula for calculating the number needed to treat is to divide one by the absolute risk reduction. The absolute risk reduction is determined by subtracting the absolute risk in the control group from the absolute risk in the treatment group. For example, if the absolute risk in the control group is 0.3 and the absolute risk in the treatment group is 0.5, the absolute risk reduction would be 0.2. Therefore, the number needed to treat would be one divided by 0.2, which equals five.

      Numbers needed to treat (NNT) is a measure that determines how many patients need to receive a particular intervention to reduce the expected number of outcomes by one. To calculate NNT, you divide 1 by the absolute risk reduction (ARR) and round up to the nearest whole number. ARR can be calculated by finding the absolute difference between the control event rate (CER) and the experimental event rate (EER). There are two ways to calculate ARR, depending on whether the outcome of the study is desirable or undesirable. If the outcome is undesirable, then ARR equals CER minus EER. If the outcome is desirable, then ARR is equal to EER minus CER. It is important to note that ARR may also be referred to as absolute benefit increase.

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  • Question 20 - A new drug is tested for the treatment of heart disease. Drug B...

    Incorrect

    • A new drug is tested for the treatment of heart disease. Drug B is administered to 800 people with early stage heart disease and a placebo is given to 700 people with the same condition. After 3 years, 500 people who received drug B had survived while only 350 who received the placebo survived. What is the number needed to treat to save one life?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 10

      Explanation:

      Numbers needed to treat (NNT) is a measure that determines how many patients need to receive a particular intervention to reduce the expected number of outcomes by one. To calculate NNT, you divide 1 by the absolute risk reduction (ARR) and round up to the nearest whole number. ARR can be calculated by finding the absolute difference between the control event rate (CER) and the experimental event rate (EER). There are two ways to calculate ARR, depending on whether the outcome of the study is desirable or undesirable. If the outcome is undesirable, then ARR equals CER minus EER. If the outcome is desirable, then ARR is equal to EER minus CER. It is important to note that ARR may also be referred to as absolute benefit increase.

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  • Question 21 - A 60-year-old woman is discharged from the orthopaedic ward where there have been...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman is discharged from the orthopaedic ward where there have been a number of outbreaks of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA).

      Her daughter comes armed with a number of concerns about MRSA and tells you she knows a lot about the condition.

      Which of her beliefs is well founded?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is safe to kiss her mother

      Explanation:

      Understanding MRSA Infections

      MRSA is a type of bacteria that can colonize wounds and venous access sites. While its community nasal carriage rate is typically less than 1%, this rate may increase in patients who have recently taken beta-lactam antibiotics. Fortunately, MRSA infections can still be treated with a variety of antibiotics, including IV vancomycin. Patients with MRSA are properly isolated on hospital wards to prevent the spread of infection. It’s important to note that MRSA infections can occur outside of hospitals as well. Therefore, it’s crucial to understand the causes and symptoms of MRSA infections to prevent their spread.

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  • Question 22 - A new medication for reducing joint pain in elderly patients is being tested...

    Incorrect

    • A new medication for reducing joint pain in elderly patients is being tested compared to a standard pain medication. A total of 1500 elderly patients were enrolled in the trial with 750 taking the new medication and 750 taking the standard pain medication.

      After completing the same treatment period, 50 patients within the new medication group reported experiencing joint pain, giving an experimental event rate (EER) of 0.067, compared to 150 patients within the standard pain medication group, giving a control event rate (CER) of 0.2.

      What is the numbers needed to treat (NNT) for this new medication in reducing joint pain in elderly patients?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5

      Explanation:

      The NNT (number needed to treat) is a measure of how many patients need to receive an intervention or medication to reduce the expected number of outcomes by one. In this case, we want to determine the NNT for the new antiemetic to reduce the number of individuals who suffer from travel sickness. The formula for NNT is 1/absolute risk reduction (ARR), which can be calculated by subtracting the experimental event rate (EER) from the control event rate (CER).

      Using the data from the experiment, we can calculate the NNT as follows:

      NNT = 1/ARR
      NNT = 1/(CER – EER)
      NNT = 1/(0.3 – 0.1)
      NNT = 5

      This means that for every 5 patients who receive the new antiemetic, one patient will be prevented from experiencing travel sickness.

      If we wanted the NNT to be 1, the ARR would need to be 1, which is not the case in this experiment. If we wanted the NNT to be 10, the ARR would need to be 0.1. However, the ARR in this experiment is 0.2. To achieve an NNT of 2, the ARR would need to be 0.5.

      Numbers needed to treat (NNT) is a measure that determines how many patients need to receive a particular intervention to reduce the expected number of outcomes by one. To calculate NNT, you divide 1 by the absolute risk reduction (ARR) and round up to the nearest whole number. ARR can be calculated by finding the absolute difference between the control event rate (CER) and the experimental event rate (EER). There are two ways to calculate ARR, depending on whether the outcome of the study is desirable or undesirable. If the outcome is undesirable, then ARR equals CER minus EER. If the outcome is desirable, then ARR is equal to EER minus CER. It is important to note that ARR may also be referred to as absolute benefit increase.

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  • Question 23 - You want to advise an elderly patient on a new treatment for angina;...

    Incorrect

    • You want to advise an elderly patient on a new treatment for angina; she brought a newspaper cutting about it and you have looked up the original paper.

      The paper discusses the benefit of the new treatment in terms of number needed to treat (NNT).

      What is the meaning of the term number needed to treat for a drug therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The number of patients that need to be treated with a therapy for one to benefit

      Explanation:

      Understanding NNT: A Measure of Treatment Effectiveness

      The NNT, or Number Needed to Treat, is a measure of treatment effectiveness that indicates the number of patients who need to be treated over a certain period of time in order for one patient to benefit from the treatment. A low NNT indicates a more effective treatment, as fewer patients need to be treated for one to benefit.

      In other words, the NNT helps healthcare professionals and researchers understand the impact of a treatment on a group of patients. It is a useful tool for evaluating the effectiveness of different treatments and comparing their benefits and risks. By calculating the NNT, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions about which treatments to recommend to their patients.

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  • Question 24 - A doctor investigating the number of missed appointments (DNAs) for 10 patients, reveals...

    Incorrect

    • A doctor investigating the number of missed appointments (DNAs) for 10 patients, reveals the following data set.

      Patient number vs Number of DNAs in 12 months
      1 vs 0
      2 vs 3
      3 vs 1
      4 vs 45
      5 vs 2
      6 vs 0
      7 vs 1
      8 vs 4
      9 vs 4
      10 vs 2

      How would you best summarize the average number of missed appointments for these patients?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Median

      Explanation:

      The mean is a good summary measure for the average value, but it is sensitive to skewed data or outliers. In this case, the data set includes an outlier, and the mean value would be misleading. The median value, which is the middle value between the two middle values, would be a better summary measure. The standard deviation and variance are measures of dispersion and do not provide meaningful information about the average.

      Understanding Measures of Central Tendency

      Measures of central tendency are used in descriptive statistics to simplify data and provide a typical or middle value of a data set. There are three measures of central tendency: the mean, median, and mode. The median is the middle item in a data set arranged in numerical order and is not affected by outliers. The mode is the most frequent item in a data set, and there may be two or more modes in some data sets. The mean is calculated by adding all the items of a data set together and dividing by the number of items. However, unlike the median or mode, the mean is sensitive to outliers and skewed data.

      The appropriate method of summarizing the middle or typical value of a data set depends on the measurement scale. For categorical and nominal data, the mode is the appropriate measure of central tendency. For ordinal data, the median or mode is used. For interval data with a normal distribution, the mean is preferable, but the median or mode can also be used. For interval data with skewed data, the median is the appropriate measure of central tendency. For ratio data, the mean is preferable for normal distribution, but the median or mode can also be used. For skewed ratio data, the median is the appropriate measure of central tendency. Understanding measures of central tendency is essential in analyzing and interpreting data.

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  • Question 25 - A randomised controlled trial is conducted comparing a new medication or placebo for...

    Incorrect

    • A randomised controlled trial is conducted comparing a new medication or placebo for treatment of hypertension in adults aged 60 years or older. Study authors do a calculation to establish how large a sample size is needed for their study.

      What term best describes the type of calculation conducted?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Power

      Explanation:

      The power of a study is the correct answer. It is defined as the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis and not making a type II error. A power calculation helps researchers determine the necessary sample size to detect a meaningful difference between groups and reduce the risk of type II error. Standard error and systematic error are incorrect answers. Standard error is the standard deviation of a distribution of sample means, while systematic error refers to bias in the study design or execution.

      Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.

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  • Question 26 - You are tasked with creating a study to determine if living in close...

    Incorrect

    • You are tasked with creating a study to determine if living in close proximity to electricity pylons is a risk factor for adolescent leukemia. What study design would be most suitable for this investigation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Case-control study

      Explanation:

      A case-control study is used to compare a group of individuals with a particular disease to a group without the disease. The study examines their past exposure to a potential causal agent for the condition. This approach is preferred over a cohort study as childhood leukemia is a rare outcome, and a cohort study would require an extensive amount of time to yield significant results.

      There are different types of studies that researchers can use to investigate various phenomena. One of the most rigorous types of study is the randomised controlled trial, where participants are randomly assigned to either an intervention or control group. However, practical or ethical issues may limit the use of this type of study. Another type of study is the cohort study, which is observational and prospective. Researchers select two or more groups based on their exposure to a particular agent and follow them up to see how many develop a disease or other outcome. The usual outcome measure is the relative risk. Examples of cohort studies include the Framingham Heart Study.

      On the other hand, case-control studies are observational and retrospective. Researchers identify patients with a particular condition (cases) and match them with controls. Data is then collected on past exposure to a possible causal agent for the condition. The usual outcome measure is the odds ratio. Case-control studies are inexpensive and produce quick results, making them useful for studying rare conditions. However, they are prone to confounding. Lastly, cross-sectional surveys provide a snapshot of a population and are sometimes called prevalence studies. They provide weak evidence of cause and effect.

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  • Question 27 - A group of medical students want to investigate the impact of childhood drug...

    Incorrect

    • A group of medical students want to investigate the impact of childhood drug use on the diagnosis of dementia in later life. They propose a case-control study design. The students will randomly select a sample of patients with dementia (the cases) and a sample of patients without dementia (the controls). After this, patients will be asked to report their experience of childhood drug use. The hospital's ethical review board is concerned with the study design. They argue that this study is particularly susceptible to recall bias and should be revised.

      What is the specific concern of the review board regarding the proposed study design?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The accuracy of responses may differ between the two groups

      Explanation:

      Recall bias refers to the difference in accuracy of recollections retrieved from study participants in different groups, which may be influenced by factors such as the presence of a disorder. In the case of a study investigating drug use in individuals with dementia compared to a control group, recall bias is a significant concern as dementia patients may have poorer memory and be more disinhibited in admitting to prior drug use. While a case-control study may be flawed, it may be the only feasible option given the research question and study design. However, obtaining informed consent from patients with dementia and accounting for their potential forgetfulness about their participation in the study are important ethical considerations. Lying about teenage drug use may not necessarily lead to bias unless there is a systematic difference in lying rates between the two groups.

      Understanding Bias in Clinical Trials

      Bias refers to the systematic favoring of one outcome over another in a clinical trial. There are various types of bias, including selection bias, recall bias, publication bias, work-up bias, expectation bias, Hawthorne effect, late-look bias, procedure bias, and lead-time bias. Selection bias occurs when individuals are assigned to groups in a way that may influence the outcome. Sampling bias, volunteer bias, and non-responder bias are subtypes of selection bias. Recall bias refers to the difference in accuracy of recollections retrieved by study participants, which may be influenced by whether they have a disorder or not. Publication bias occurs when valid studies are not published, often because they showed negative or uninteresting results. Work-up bias is an issue in studies comparing new diagnostic tests with gold standard tests, where clinicians may be reluctant to order the gold standard test unless the new test is positive. Expectation bias occurs when observers subconsciously measure or report data in a way that favors the expected study outcome. The Hawthorne effect describes a group changing its behavior due to the knowledge that it is being studied. Late-look bias occurs when information is gathered at an inappropriate time, and procedure bias occurs when subjects in different groups receive different treatment. Finally, lead-time bias occurs when two tests for a disease are compared, and the new test diagnosis the disease earlier, but there is no effect on the outcome of the disease. Understanding these types of bias is crucial in designing and interpreting clinical trials.

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  • Question 28 - You are assessing a patient who has recently been evaluated by the community...

    Incorrect

    • You are assessing a patient who has recently been evaluated by the community respiratory team for long term oxygen therapy. She is an elderly patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and a Pa02 of 6.9 kPa in air.

      According to the available evidence, what minimum daily duration of oxygen use has been shown to significantly reduce mortality in elderly patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and a Pa02 of 6.9 kPa in air?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 15 hours

      Explanation:

      Long Term Oxygen Therapy Trials

      There have been two trials conducted to evaluate the effectiveness of long term oxygen therapy (LTOT). The MRC trial involved administering oxygen to patients to increase their Pa02 to 8 kPa for at least 15 hours a day. The results showed that after three years of treatment, the LTOT group had a significantly better survival rate and reduced mortality compared to the conventionally treated group.

      The NOTT trial, on the other hand, compared the effects of 12 and 24 hours of LTOT. The trial was stopped early due to the better survival rate observed in the group receiving 24-hour treatment. Based on the available trial data, it has been shown that the minimum daily duration of oxygen use that is beneficial is 15 hours.

      In summary, these trials provide evidence for the effectiveness of LTOT in improving survival rates and reducing mortality in patients. It is important for healthcare professionals to consider the duration of oxygen therapy when treating patients with chronic respiratory conditions.

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  • Question 29 - What is the definition of the statistical term that measures the spread of...

    Incorrect

    • What is the definition of the statistical term that measures the spread of a dataset from its average?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mode

      Explanation:

      Understanding Statistical Terms in Evidence-Based Medicine

      A basic understanding of statistical terms is essential in comprehending trial data and utilizing evidence-based medicine effectively. One of the most crucial statistical terms is the standard deviation, which measures the dispersion of a data set from its mean. It summarizes how widely dispersed the values are around the center of a group.

      Another important term is the mode, which refers to the most frequently occurring value in a data set. The range describes the spread of data in terms of its highest and lowest values. On the other hand, the 95% confidence interval (or 95% confidence limits) presents the range of likely effects and includes 95% of results from studies of the same size and design in the same population.

      Lastly, the weighted mean difference examines the difference in means between different sets of values, weighted for differences in the way they were recorded. Understanding these statistical terms is crucial in interpreting and analyzing trial data and making informed decisions in evidence-based medicine.

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  • Question 30 - What factor has been demonstrated to elevate the likelihood of developing prostate cancer?...

    Incorrect

    • What factor has been demonstrated to elevate the likelihood of developing prostate cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Low intake of animal fats

      Explanation:

      Risk Factors for Prostate Cancer

      Being overweight or obese are both risk factors for developing prostate cancer. Black ethnicity is associated with a higher risk of prostate cancer than Caucasian. A family history of breast cancer or prostate cancer also increases the risk. Additionally, an occupation in farming seems to increase the risk of prostate cancer.

      High intake of animal fats and low selenium intake, as well as exposure to radiation and cadmium, may also increase the risk of prostate cancer. However, there isn’t enough evidence to be absolutely sure in the case of cadmium. It’s important to be aware of these risk factors and to discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider.

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  • Question 31 - A study of 1000 participants aims to determine the normal range for a...

    Incorrect

    • A study of 1000 participants aims to determine the normal range for a number of parameters in a South East London population.

      It is found in the analysis there is a strong positive correlation between age and blood pressure.

      Which statistical technique may be used to predict blood pressure at any given age in this cohort?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Linear regression

      Explanation:

      Linear regression is a statistical method used to model the relationship between two variables by fitting a linear equation to observed data. This equation takes the form y = mx + c, where ‘y’ is the dependent variable, ‘x’ is the independent variable, ‘m’ is the slope of the line and ‘c’ is the intercept. By analyzing a scatter plot, linear regression can be used to predict how much one variable changes when a second variable is changed. For example, a line of best fit can be mapped to a scatter plot of heights and forced expiratory volume (FEV1) to predict an individual’s FEV1 based on their height.

      Correlation, measured by Pearson’s correlation or Spearman’s rank correlation coefficient, indicates the strength of an association between two continuous variables but cannot be used to predict the change in one variable when a second variable is altered. The chi-square test and Fisher’s exact test are used to assess whether an association exists between two categorical variables, such as social class and body mass index (BMI) category. The Kaplan-Meier estimate is used to measure survival over time, such as the number of patients still alive in the five years after commencing chemotherapy for lung cancer. A forest plot is a graphical display that summarizes results from a number of studies, such as a meta-analysis of a series of randomized controlled trials.

      Understanding Correlation and Linear Regression

      Correlation and linear regression are two statistical methods used to analyze the relationship between variables. While they are related, they are not interchangeable. Correlation is used to determine if there is a relationship between two variables, while regression is used to predict the value of one variable based on the value of another variable.

      The degree of correlation is measured by the correlation coefficient, which can range from -1 to +1. A coefficient of 1 indicates a strong positive correlation, while a coefficient of -1 indicates a strong negative correlation. A coefficient of 0 indicates no correlation between the variables. However, correlation coefficients do not provide information on how much the variable will change or the cause and effect relationship between the variables.

      Linear regression, on the other hand, can be used to predict how much one variable will change when another variable is changed. A regression equation can be formed to calculate the value of the dependent variable based on the value of the independent variable. The equation takes the form of y = a + bx, where y is the dependent variable, a is the intercept value, b is the slope of the line or regression coefficient, and x is the independent variable.

      In summary, correlation and linear regression are both useful tools for analyzing the relationship between variables. Correlation determines if there is a relationship, while regression predicts the value of one variable based on the value of another variable. Understanding these concepts can help in making informed decisions and drawing accurate conclusions from data analysis.

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  • Question 32 - A 25-year-old man presents to the clinic with symptoms of acute sinusitis. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents to the clinic with symptoms of acute sinusitis. He had a severe cold 10 days ago and thought he was recovering, but now has pain over his left cheek and a purulent nasal discharge, more pronounced from the left nostril. On examination, he is febrile with a temperature of 38.5°C and is tender when pressure is applied over the left maxilla. As he is feeling unwell, you decide to prescribe antibiotics, but he has a penicillin allergy. What would be your approach to treating this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Doxycycline for 5 days

      Explanation:

      Antibiotic Treatment for Acute Sinusitis

      Some important points to consider when treating acute sinusitis with antibiotics include the choice and duration of treatment. It is important to note that NICE CKS doesn’t recommend antibiotic treatment for uncomplicated acute sinusitis lasting 10 days or less. However, if antibiotic treatment is deemed appropriate, it is crucial to be familiar with the options available.

      For patients who are not allergic to penicillin, a 5-day course of Phenoxymethylpenicillin is the first choice. However, if the patient is allergic to penicillin, the options are limited to a 5-day course of doxycycline or a 7-day course of Clarithromycin. It is important to read the question carefully and take note of any allergies mentioned in the vignette.

      In summary, when considering antibiotic treatment for acute sinusitis, it is important to follow NICE CKS guidelines and be aware of the appropriate choice and duration of treatment based on the patient’s allergy status.

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  • Question 33 - A rapid urine screening test is developed to detect Chlamydia in individuals over...

    Incorrect

    • A rapid urine screening test is developed to detect Chlamydia in individuals over the age of 50. A trial involving 200 men and women in this age group is performed comparing the new test to the existing NAAT techniques:

      Chlamydia present Chlamydia absent
      New test positive 20 3
      New test negative 5 172

      What is the negative predictive value of the new test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 172/177

      Explanation:

      Negative predictive value = 172 / 177

      Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.

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  • Question 34 - A study examines the relationship between age and risk of heart disease. Blood...

    Incorrect

    • A study examines the relationship between age and risk of heart disease. Blood pressure readings for 3000 individuals aged 40-50 years were compared with blood pressure readings for 3000 individuals aged 60-70 years. The data is not normally distributed. The researchers want to determine if there is a significant difference in blood pressure readings between the two age groups.

      Which statistical test is appropriate for analyzing this data?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mann-Whitney U test

      Explanation:

      The appropriate statistical test for this study is the Mann-Whitney U test, which compares ordinal, interval, or ratio scales of unpaired data. An ANOVA would not be appropriate as it is used for normally distributed data and analyzes the effect of multiple factors on a variable. A paired t-test would also not be appropriate as it is used for paired data and the data must be normally distributed. An unpaired t-test would be appropriate for normally distributed data, but not for this study as the data is not normally distributed.

      Types of Significance Tests

      Significance tests are used to determine whether the results of a study are statistically significant or simply due to chance. The type of significance test used depends on the type of data being analyzed. Parametric tests are used for data that can be measured and are usually normally distributed, while non-parametric tests are used for data that cannot be measured in this way.

      Parametric tests include the Student’s t-test, which can be paired or unpaired, and Pearson’s product-moment coefficient, which is used for correlation analysis. Non-parametric tests include the Mann-Whitney U test, which compares ordinal, interval, or ratio scales of unpaired data, and the Wilcoxon signed-rank test, which compares two sets of observations on a single sample. The chi-squared test is used to compare proportions or percentages, while Spearman and Kendall rank are used for correlation analysis.

      It is important to choose the appropriate significance test for the type of data being analyzed in order to obtain accurate and reliable results. By understanding the different types of significance tests available, researchers can make informed decisions about which test to use for their particular study.

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  • Question 35 - A study examining glucose levels in a group of individuals taking antipsychotics reports...

    Incorrect

    • A study examining glucose levels in a group of individuals taking antipsychotics reports a mean value of 7 mmol/L. The sample size is 9, and the standard deviation of the sample is 6 mmol/L. The standard error of the mean is 2 mmol/L. What is the closest estimate for the correct range of the 95% confidence interval? Additionally, suppose the study was conducted on a population of individuals aged 65 and above.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3-11 mmol/L

      Explanation:

      It is important to note that confidence intervals are derived from standard errors, not standard deviation, as is commonly believed. It is crucial to avoid mixing up these two terms.

      Understanding Confidence Interval and Standard Error of the Mean

      The confidence interval is a widely used concept in medical statistics, but it can be confusing to understand. In simple terms, it is a range of values that is likely to contain the true effect of an intervention. The likelihood of the true effect lying within the confidence interval is determined by the confidence level, which is the specified probability of including the true value of the variable. For instance, a 95% confidence interval means that the range of values should contain the true effect of intervention 95% of the time.

      To calculate the confidence interval, we use the standard error of the mean (SEM), which measures the spread expected for the mean of the observations. The SEM is calculated by dividing the standard deviation (SD) by the square root of the sample size (n). As the sample size increases, the SEM gets smaller, indicating a more accurate sample mean from the true population mean.

      A 95% confidence interval is calculated by subtracting and adding 1.96 times the SEM from the mean value. However, if the sample size is small (n < 100), a 'Student's T critical value' look-up table should be used instead of 1.96. Similarly, if a different confidence level is required, such as 90%, the value used in the formula should be adjusted accordingly. In summary, the confidence interval is a range of values that is likely to contain the true effect of an intervention, and its calculation involves using the standard error of the mean. Understanding these concepts is crucial in interpreting statistical results in medical research.

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  • Question 36 - A study is conducted to evaluate the effectiveness of a new medication for...

    Incorrect

    • A study is conducted to evaluate the effectiveness of a new medication for treating high cholesterol. Two groups of patients are randomly assigned, one group taking the established drug for 6 months and the other taking the new drug for 6 months. Cholesterol levels are measured before and after the treatment. After a one-month break from medication, the groups switch medications and cholesterol levels are measured again. The difference in cholesterol levels before and after each medication is calculated for each patient. Which statistical test is most suitable for analyzing the results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Student's paired t-test

      Explanation:

      A crossover study is being conducted where the same patients are being compared based on parametric data, with medication being swapped halfway through the study. Therefore, the appropriate statistical test to use would be the Student’s paired t-test.

      Types of Significance Tests

      Significance tests are used to determine whether the results of a study are statistically significant or simply due to chance. The type of significance test used depends on the type of data being analyzed. Parametric tests are used for data that can be measured and are usually normally distributed, while non-parametric tests are used for data that cannot be measured in this way.

      Parametric tests include the Student’s t-test, which can be paired or unpaired, and Pearson’s product-moment coefficient, which is used for correlation analysis. Non-parametric tests include the Mann-Whitney U test, which compares ordinal, interval, or ratio scales of unpaired data, and the Wilcoxon signed-rank test, which compares two sets of observations on a single sample. The chi-squared test is used to compare proportions or percentages, while Spearman and Kendall rank are used for correlation analysis.

      It is important to choose the appropriate significance test for the type of data being analyzed in order to obtain accurate and reliable results. By understanding the different types of significance tests available, researchers can make informed decisions about which test to use for their particular study.

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  • Question 37 - A town in England had a population of 250,000 and last year 1,500...

    Incorrect

    • A town in England had a population of 250,000 and last year 1,500 deaths occurred among people aged 65 and above. The number of age-specific expected deaths in a population of the same size in England and Wales over the same time period is calculated as 1,000 for this age group. What is the standardized mortality ratio of the town's population aged 65 and above in reference to the rest of England and Wales?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1.5

      Explanation:

      The Standardized Mortality Ratio (SMR) is a measure used to compare the observed mortality in a study population to the expected mortality in a standard population. It is calculated using the following formula:

      SMR=Observed Deaths/Expected Deaths

      Data Given:

      • Observed Deaths in the Town (Age 65 and above): 1,500
      • Expected Deaths in a Similar Population in England and Wales (Age 65 and above): 1,000

      Calculation:

      Substitute the given values into the formula:

      SMR=1,500/1,000

      SMR=1.5

      Interpretation:

      The Standardized Mortality Ratio (SMR) of 1.5 means that the observed mortality rate among people aged 65 and above in the town is 50% higher than the expected mortality rate for this age group in the standard population of England and Wales.

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  • Question 38 - As part of a research project, you are investigating whether the use of...

    Incorrect

    • As part of a research project, you are investigating whether the use of pacifiers in toddlers is associated with sleep disturbances. What study design would be most suitable for this inquiry?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Case-control study

      Explanation:

      A case-control design is more suitable for studying sudden infant death syndrome due to its low incidence compared to a cohort study. This design compares a group with the disease to a group without, analyzing their past exposure to a potential causal agent for the condition.

      There are different types of studies that researchers can use to investigate various phenomena. One of the most rigorous types of study is the randomised controlled trial, where participants are randomly assigned to either an intervention or control group. However, practical or ethical issues may limit the use of this type of study. Another type of study is the cohort study, which is observational and prospective. Researchers select two or more groups based on their exposure to a particular agent and follow them up to see how many develop a disease or other outcome. The usual outcome measure is the relative risk. Examples of cohort studies include the Framingham Heart Study.

      On the other hand, case-control studies are observational and retrospective. Researchers identify patients with a particular condition (cases) and match them with controls. Data is then collected on past exposure to a possible causal agent for the condition. The usual outcome measure is the odds ratio. Case-control studies are inexpensive and produce quick results, making them useful for studying rare conditions. However, they are prone to confounding. Lastly, cross-sectional surveys provide a snapshot of a population and are sometimes called prevalence studies. They provide weak evidence of cause and effect.

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  • Question 39 - A systematic review on the use of apixaban for left ventricular thrombus in...

    Incorrect

    • A systematic review on the use of apixaban for left ventricular thrombus in elderly patients has revealed a noteworthy decrease in hospitalisation and mortality rates. The meta-analysis comprised twenty randomised and non-randomised studies. The researchers were apprehensive about the possibility of studies with positive outcomes being published more frequently than those with negative results and opted to explore the presence of publication bias.

      What is the most suitable approach to evaluate publication bias in this analysis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Funnel plot

      Explanation:

      None of the given options are correct for assessing publication bias in a meta-analysis. The most commonly used method for detecting publication bias is the funnel plot, which displays the effect size of each study against its standard error of sample size. Ideally, the studies should be symmetrically distributed around the overall effect size, and any asymmetry could indicate publication bias. Egger’s test can then be used to confirm the presence of publication bias.

      Understanding Funnel Plots in Meta-Analyses

      Funnel plots are graphical representations used to identify publication bias in meta-analyses. These plots typically display treatment effects on the horizontal axis and study size on the vertical axis. The shape of the funnel plot can provide insight into the presence of publication bias. A symmetrical, inverted funnel shape suggests that publication bias is unlikely. On the other hand, an asymmetrical funnel shape indicates a relationship between treatment effect and study size, which may be due to publication bias or systematic differences between smaller and larger studies (known as small study effects).

      In summary, funnel plots are a useful tool for identifying potential publication bias in meta-analyses. By examining the shape of the plot, researchers can gain insight into the relationship between treatment effect and study size, and determine whether further investigation is necessary to ensure the validity of their findings.

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  • Question 40 - Which one of the following would invalidate the use of the Student's t-test...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following would invalidate the use of the Student's t-test when performing a significance test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Using it with data that is not normally distributed

      Explanation:

      The data should be normally distributed and parametric.

      Types of Significance Tests

      Significance tests are used to determine whether the results of a study are statistically significant or simply due to chance. The type of significance test used depends on the type of data being analyzed. Parametric tests are used for data that can be measured and are usually normally distributed, while non-parametric tests are used for data that cannot be measured in this way.

      Parametric tests include the Student’s t-test, which can be paired or unpaired, and Pearson’s product-moment coefficient, which is used for correlation analysis. Non-parametric tests include the Mann-Whitney U test, which compares ordinal, interval, or ratio scales of unpaired data, and the Wilcoxon signed-rank test, which compares two sets of observations on a single sample. The chi-squared test is used to compare proportions or percentages, while Spearman and Kendall rank are used for correlation analysis.

      It is important to choose the appropriate significance test for the type of data being analyzed in order to obtain accurate and reliable results. By understanding the different types of significance tests available, researchers can make informed decisions about which test to use for their particular study.

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  • Question 41 - A researcher is tasked with evaluating the effectiveness of olanzapine versus haloperidol in...

    Incorrect

    • A researcher is tasked with evaluating the effectiveness of olanzapine versus haloperidol in reducing symptom severity of schizophrenia (as per the Positive and Negative Syndrome Scale) for each dollar spent. What would be the most suitable study approach?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cost-effectiveness analysis

      Explanation:

      The task assigned to the researcher is to conduct a cost-effectiveness analysis, which involves comparing two interventions based on their costs and their impact on a single clinical measure of effectiveness, specifically the reduction in symptom severity as measured by the PANSS.

      Inputs in Economic Evaluation Studies

      In economic evaluation studies, inputs refer to the resources used in delivering a healthcare intervention. There are three main types of costs associated with these inputs: direct, indirect, and intangible costs. Direct costs are those that are directly related to the intervention, such as staff time, medical supplies, and travel costs for the patient. Indirect costs are those that are incurred due to the reduced productivity of the patient, such as time off work or reduced work productivity, as well as time spent caring for the patient by relatives. Intangible costs are those that are difficult to measure, such as pain or suffering experienced by the patient.

      Understanding the different types of costs is important in economic evaluation studies as it allows for a comprehensive assessment of the costs associated with a healthcare intervention. By considering all types of costs, decision-makers can make informed decisions about the most cost-effective interventions to implement.

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  • Question 42 - You have conducted an audit of mammogram screening for women over the age...

    Incorrect

    • You have conducted an audit of mammogram screening for women over the age of 50. After the initial audit cycle, you discover that only 35% of eligible women have had a mammogram within the past two years. You implement a program to improve mammogram screening and re-evaluate the percentage with mammogram results 12 months later.

      Which statistical test would be most appropriate to determine if there has been a significant change in the number of women receiving mammograms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chi square test

      Explanation:

      Statistical Tests for Comparing Proportions, Means, and Associations

      The chi square test is the standard statistical test for comparing proportions. It involves comparing the number observed to have a certain characteristic with the number expected if there was no difference. ANOVA and ANCOVA are analyses used for statistical comparison between the means of several groups, with ANCOVA also taking into account continuous explanatory variables. The t test is used to compare the means of two groups, while Spearman’s rank correlation measures the degree of association between two numerical variables. These tests are useful for analyzing data in various fields, including healthcare, social sciences, and business. Proper understanding and application of these tests can lead to more accurate and reliable conclusions.

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  • Question 43 - Which of the following methods of economic evaluation utilize the incremental cost-effectiveness ratio...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following methods of economic evaluation utilize the incremental cost-effectiveness ratio (ICER)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cost-effectiveness analysis

      Explanation:

      Inputs in Economic Evaluation Studies

      In economic evaluation studies, inputs refer to the resources used in delivering a healthcare intervention. There are three main types of costs associated with these inputs: direct, indirect, and intangible costs. Direct costs are those that are directly related to the intervention, such as staff time, medical supplies, and travel costs for the patient. Indirect costs are those that are incurred due to the reduced productivity of the patient, such as time off work or reduced work productivity, as well as time spent caring for the patient by relatives. Intangible costs are those that are difficult to measure, such as pain or suffering experienced by the patient.

      Understanding the different types of costs is important in economic evaluation studies as it allows for a comprehensive assessment of the costs associated with a healthcare intervention. By considering all types of costs, decision-makers can make informed decisions about the most cost-effective interventions to implement.

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  • Question 44 - Which of the following is a form of qualitative research that depicts the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a form of qualitative research that depicts the customs of a community?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ethnography

      Explanation:

      Analytical Approaches in Qualitative Research

      Analytical approaches are an essential part of qualitative research, which aims to understand the meaning and experience dimensions of human lives and social worlds. Content analysis is a common method used in healthcare research, where interviews are transcribed to produce texts that can be used to generate coding categories and test theories. This involves counting word frequencies, sometimes aided by computer software. Another approach is constant comparison, which is based on grounded theory. It allows researchers to identify important themes in a systematic way, providing an audit trail as they proceed. The method involves developing concepts from the data by coding and analyzing at the same time.

      Assessing validity is also crucial in qualitative research. Triangulation compares the results from different methods of data collection or data sources. Respondent validation, or member checking, involves comparing the investigator’s account with those of the research subjects to establish the level of correspondence between the two sets. Bracketing is a methodological device of phenomenological inquiry that requires putting aside one’s own beliefs about the phenomenon under investigation or what one already knows about the subject prior to and throughout the phenomenological investigation. Reflexivity means sensitivity to the ways in which the researcher and the research process have shaped the collected data, including the role of prior assumptions and experience, which can influence even the most avowedly inductive inquiries.

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  • Question 45 - Which of the following is a risk factor for bowel cancer? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a risk factor for bowel cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Moderate alcohol consumption

      Explanation:

      According to Cancer Research UK, there are certain factors that are not associated with an increased risk of bowel cancer. These include fish consumption, low B12 levels, milk consumption, and selenium consumption. However, it is important to note that alcohol consumption, even at moderate levels, is associated with an increased risk of bowel cancer. Therefore, it is recommended to limit alcohol intake to reduce the risk of developing this type of cancer. By being aware of these factors, individuals can make informed choices about their diet and lifestyle to help reduce their risk of bowel cancer.

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  • Question 46 - If you were looking at evidence about which age group is most susceptible...

    Incorrect

    • If you were looking at evidence about which age group is most susceptible to psychiatric disturbance in patients taking Tamiflu, in what type of study would you be most likely to find it?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nested case-control study

      Explanation:

      Investigating Rare Case Reports of Psychiatric Disturbance and Drug Safety

      By definition, rare case reports cannot be adequately addressed in a standard clinical development program that typically involves studies in up to 5,000 patients. Therefore, conducting another randomized controlled trial (RCT) is unlikely to provide significant data. Managed healthcare databases may not offer sufficient detailed information to establish causality, and a cohort study may not have a large enough number of index events to draw conclusions about drug safety. In this scenario, a nested case-control study is the most appropriate approach to investigate any potential link between psychiatric disturbance and the drug. This type of study compares a collection of cases with control patients to identify any differences and draw conclusions about drug safety.

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  • Question 47 - A 55-year-old man with dyslipidaemia, hypertension and angina has recently been diagnosed with...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with dyslipidaemia, hypertension and angina has recently been diagnosed with impaired glucose tolerance (IGT).
      Clinically he is obese with a BMI of 33 kg/m2, his blood pressure is 145/85 mmHg. He is aware that having impaired glucose tolerance is a risk factor for type 2 diabetes and would like to discuss strategies to attenuate this risk.
      Which of the following has been shown best to reduce the incidence of type 2 diabetes in individuals with IGT?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intensive lifestyle change

      Explanation:

      Diabetes Prevention Interventions

      The Diabetes Prevention Programme (DPP) and Finnish Diabetes Prevention Study both demonstrated a significant reduction in the incidence of type 2 diabetes through intensive lifestyle interventions. These interventions included dietary changes, increased physical activity, and weight loss. The DPP and Finnish study showed a 58% reduction in incidence, compared to a 31% reduction when using metformin. Acarbose has also been shown to reduce the incidence of diabetes when combined with lifestyle changes. The ACT Now study suggests that pioglitazone may reduce the progression from pre-diabetes to type 2 diabetes, although it is not licensed for this purpose in the UK. The Finnish Diabetes Prevention Study (DPS) specifically focused on lifestyle interventions and showed positive results after three years of dietary and physical activity changes.

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  • Question 48 - A study examines the effectiveness of bisphosphonates in managing pain caused by bone...

    Incorrect

    • A study examines the effectiveness of bisphosphonates in managing pain caused by bone metastases in a group of 120 patients. Among them, 40 patients were treated with conventional therapy involving NSAIDs and radiotherapy, while the remaining 80 patients received bisphosphonates. Out of these 80 patients, 40 experienced considerable pain relief. What are the odds of a patient with bone metastases receiving significant pain relief from bisphosphonates?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1

      Explanation:

      Out of the 80 patients who were given bisphosphonates, 40 experienced significant pain relief. This means that the remaining 40 patients did not experience significant pain relief. The odds of experiencing significant pain relief after taking bisphosphonates in this group of patients is 1:1.

      Understanding Odds and Odds Ratio

      When analyzing data, it is important to understand the difference between odds and probability. Odds are a ratio of the number of people who experience a particular outcome to those who do not. On the other hand, probability is the fraction of times an event is expected to occur in many trials. While probability is always between 0 and 1, odds can be any positive number.

      In case-control studies, odds ratios are the usual reported measure. This ratio compares the odds of a particular outcome with experimental treatment to that of a control group. It is important to note that odds ratios approximate to relative risk if the outcome of interest is rare.

      For example, in a trial comparing the use of paracetamol for dysmenorrhoea compared to placebo, the odds of achieving significant pain relief with paracetamol were 2, while the odds of achieving significant pain relief with placebo were 0.5. Therefore, the odds ratio was 4.

      Understanding odds and odds ratio is crucial in interpreting data and making informed decisions. By knowing the difference between odds and probability and how to calculate odds ratios, researchers can accurately analyze and report their findings.

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  • Question 49 - As a GP participating in research projects, you have a patient who is...

    Incorrect

    • As a GP participating in research projects, you have a patient who is curious about a study testing a new antihypertensive medication. You inform them that the drug has undergone testing on several volunteers, but has not yet been approved for sale. The manufacturers are currently seeking patients to compare the effectiveness of this new drug to existing antihypertensives before it can be licensed and prescribed by all doctors.

      In which phase of the drug trial are you seeking patients for recruitment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phase 3

      Explanation:

      Phase 3 trials involve larger studies conducted on real patients, where the effectiveness of a new treatment is compared to existing treatments.

      To elaborate, phase 1 trials typically involve testing a drug on a small group of healthy individuals to assess its pharmacokinetics, pharmacodynamics, and dosage. Phase 2 trials involve testing the drug on actual patients with the condition it is intended to treat, to evaluate its efficacy and potential side effects.

      In phase 3 trials, the new treatment is compared to existing treatments, which requires a much larger sample size than phase 1 and 2 trials. Phase 4 trials involve ongoing observation after the treatment has been approved for sale, to monitor any long-term effects.

      There is no such thing as phase 5 trials.

      Stages of Drug Development

      Drug development is a complex process that involves several stages before a drug can be approved for marketing. The process begins with Phase 1, which involves small studies on healthy volunteers to assess the pharmacodynamics and pharmacokinetics of the drug. This phase typically involves around 100 participants.

      Phase 2 follows, which involves small studies on actual patients to examine the drug’s efficacy and adverse effects. This phase typically involves between 100-300 patients.

      Phase 3 is the largest phase and involves larger studies of between 500-5,000 patients. This phase examines the drug’s efficacy and adverse effects and may compare it with existing treatments. Special groups such as the elderly or those with renal issues may also be studied during this phase.

      If the drug is shown to be safe and effective, it may be approved for marketing. However, Phase 4, also known as post-marketing surveillance, is still necessary. This phase involves monitoring the drug’s safety and effectiveness in a larger population over a longer period of time.

      In summary, drug development involves several stages, each with its own specific purpose and participant size. The process is rigorous to ensure that drugs are safe and effective before they are marketed to the public.

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  • Question 50 - The regional deanery wishes to develop a syllabus for the after-hours education of...

    Incorrect

    • The regional deanery wishes to develop a syllabus for the after-hours education of medical residents. They distribute a preliminary survey to several nearby physicians, inquiring about what topics they believe should be covered. Following the findings of this preliminary survey, a subsequent survey is sent out which condenses the data and poses more detailed inquiries. What is this an instance of?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A Delphi process

      Explanation:

      The Delphi Process: A Method for Collecting Expert Knowledge

      The Delphi process, also known as the Delphi method or technique, is a structured approach to gathering and distilling knowledge from a group of experts. This method is often used for issues where there is little formal evidence available. The process involves several rounds of questionnaires, with the first round asking broad questions to the experts. The results of the first round are then analyzed and common themes are identified. This information is used to create a more specific questionnaire for the second round, which is sent back to the panel of experts. This iterative process is repeated two or three times.

      The Delphi method can be used in various fields, such as curriculum development, guideline development, and forecasting future health problems. For example, a group of expert stakeholders may be involved in determining what should be included in a curriculum. The expert panel for guideline development may include doctors, nurses, pharmacists, and patients. Anonymity is a key feature of the Delphi process, as it prevents individual participants from dominating the opinion-forming process. Overall, the Delphi process is a useful tool for collecting and synthesizing expert knowledge.

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  • Question 51 - A new screening tool for lower gastrointestinal malignancies, known as the Faecal Immunochemical...

    Incorrect

    • A new screening tool for lower gastrointestinal malignancies, known as the Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT), has been developed. The researchers want to determine the effectiveness of the test in detecting colorectal cancer in individuals aged 50 and above.

      To assess the test's accuracy, the researchers conducted a study where all participants aged 50 and above underwent a FIT and were subsequently followed up with a colonoscopy, which is considered the gold standard test for detecting colorectal cancer.

      Out of the 100 participants who tested positive on the initial FIT, 80 were confirmed to have colorectal cancer on colonoscopy. On the other hand, out of the 900 participants who tested negative on the initial FIT, 20 were later found to have colorectal cancer on colonoscopy.

      What is the sensitivity of the FIT in detecting colorectal cancer in individuals aged 50 and above?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 80%

      Explanation:

      The sensitivity of a test is calculated as the number of true positives divided by the sum of true positives and false negatives. It measures how well the test can detect the presence of a disease, with a higher sensitivity indicating a higher rate of true positives. For example, if there are 80 true positives and 20 false negatives, the sensitivity would be calculated as 80/(80+20) = 0.8 or 80%.

      Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.

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  • Question 52 - A new antiplatelet agent has been proven to reduce the risk of heart...

    Incorrect

    • A new antiplatelet agent has been proven to reduce the risk of heart attack in a year from 15% in patients treated with conventional treatment to 10% in patients treated with conventional treatment plus the new agent.

      The cost of this new drug is £150 per month.

      How much extra would a hospital need to spend over the course of a year to prevent one heart attack?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: £30,000

      Explanation:

      Calculation of Cost to Prevent Stroke

      The calculation of the cost to prevent a stroke involves determining the absolute risk reduction and the number needed to treat. In this case, the absolute risk reduction is 4%, which means that 25 patients would need to be treated to prevent one stroke. Assuming a cost of £100 per month for 12 months, the total cost to prevent a stroke would be £30,000. This calculation is important for healthcare providers and policymakers to consider when making decisions about the allocation of resources for stroke prevention.

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  • Question 53 - A study testing a new prostate cancer screening tool enrolls 52,820 participants. Among...

    Incorrect

    • A study testing a new prostate cancer screening tool enrolls 52,820 participants. Among the 8950 participants diagnosed with prostate cancer through histological examination, 8900 had a positive test outcome. Meanwhile, 13,750 healthy participants had a positive screening result. What is the specificity of this novel screening tool?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 68.70%

      Explanation:

      To calculate specificity, we need to use a 2*2 table with the following values for a sample size of 11,000 participants:

      Disease Healthy
      Positive TP=8900 FP=13750
      Negative FN=50 TN=30120

      Specificity is the probability of getting a negative test result when the person is healthy/doesn’t have the screened disease. We can calculate specificity using the formula:

      Specificity = TN / (TN+FP)

      Plugging in the values from our table, we get:

      Specificity = 30120 / (30120 + 13750) =

      Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.

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  • Question 54 - You are evaluating a recent research on the advantages of omega-3 fish oils...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a recent research on the advantages of omega-3 fish oils in individuals with confirmed ischemic heart disease. What is the significance of the study's power?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: #NAME?

      Explanation:

      The probability of a type II error is subtracted from 1 to obtain the power.

      Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.

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  • Question 55 - How would you define a placebo? ...

    Incorrect

    • How would you define a placebo?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A standard treatment against which a newer treatment is compared

      Explanation:

      The Psychological Effect of Placebos

      A placebo is a substance or treatment that has no therapeutic effect but is given to a patient or participant in a clinical trial. When administered, it typically produces a psychological effect rather than a physical one. This means that the patient or participant may experience a perceived improvement in their symptoms or condition due to the belief that they are receiving a real treatment. The psychological effect of placebos is often referred to as the placebo effect and can be powerful enough to produce measurable changes in the body, such as a decrease in pain or an increase in dopamine levels. However, it is important to note that the placebo effect is not a substitute for real medical treatment and should not be relied upon as such.

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  • Question 56 - A research study examines the advantages of incorporating a new antiplatelet medication with...

    Incorrect

    • A research study examines the advantages of incorporating a new antiplatelet medication with aspirin after a heart attack in patients over the age of 60. The study yields the following outcomes:

      Percentage of patients experiencing
      another heart attack within 3 months
      Aspirin 5%
      Aspirin + new drug 3%

      What is the number needed to treat to prevent one patient over the age of 60 from having another heart attack within 3 months?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 100

      Explanation:

      The formula for NNT is the reciprocal of the absolute risk reduction or the difference between the control event rate and the experimental event rate. For example, if the control event rate is 0.04 and the experimental event rate is 0.03, the NNT would be 1 divided by 0.01.

      Numbers needed to treat (NNT) is a measure that determines how many patients need to receive a particular intervention to reduce the expected number of outcomes by one. To calculate NNT, you divide 1 by the absolute risk reduction (ARR) and round up to the nearest whole number. ARR can be calculated by finding the absolute difference between the control event rate (CER) and the experimental event rate (EER). There are two ways to calculate ARR, depending on whether the outcome of the study is desirable or undesirable. If the outcome is undesirable, then ARR equals CER minus EER. If the outcome is desirable, then ARR is equal to EER minus CER. It is important to note that ARR may also be referred to as absolute benefit increase.

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  • Question 57 - A study examines the likelihood of experiencing a heart attack (MI) in patients...

    Incorrect

    • A study examines the likelihood of experiencing a heart attack (MI) in patients with established ischemic heart disease. Group A receives conventional treatment. After 7 years, 30 out of 150 patients have had an MI. Group B receives standard treatment plus a novel cardiac medication. After 7 years, 15 out of 90 patients have had an MI. What is the odds ratio of having an MI while taking the new drug compared to those who do not?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.8

      Explanation:

      Understanding Odds and Odds Ratio

      When analyzing data, it is important to understand the difference between odds and probability. Odds are a ratio of the number of people who experience a particular outcome to those who do not. On the other hand, probability is the fraction of times an event is expected to occur in many trials. While probability is always between 0 and 1, odds can be any positive number.

      In case-control studies, odds ratios are the usual reported measure. This ratio compares the odds of a particular outcome with experimental treatment to that of a control group. It is important to note that odds ratios approximate to relative risk if the outcome of interest is rare.

      For example, in a trial comparing the use of paracetamol for dysmenorrhoea compared to placebo, the odds of achieving significant pain relief with paracetamol were 2, while the odds of achieving significant pain relief with placebo were 0.5. Therefore, the odds ratio was 4.

      Understanding odds and odds ratio is crucial in interpreting data and making informed decisions. By knowing the difference between odds and probability and how to calculate odds ratios, researchers can accurately analyze and report their findings.

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  • Question 58 - A clinical trial is being conducted to investigate the effectiveness of a new...

    Incorrect

    • A clinical trial is being conducted to investigate the effectiveness of a new oral medication in improving the symptoms of patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The trial involves 400 patients aged 50 and above, with 200 patients receiving the new medication and the other 200 receiving a placebo. After six months, the patients are asked to rate their symptoms using a five-point scale: much improved, slightly improved, no change, slightly worsened, significantly worse. What statistical test would be most appropriate to determine whether the new medication is effective?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mann-Whitney U test

      Explanation:

      It should be noted that the outcome measure doesn’t follow a normal distribution, making it non-parametric. Therefore, the Student’s t-tests cannot be used. Additionally, since we are not comparing percentages or proportions, the chi-squared test is also not applicable.

      Types of Significance Tests

      Significance tests are used to determine whether the results of a study are statistically significant or simply due to chance. The type of significance test used depends on the type of data being analyzed. Parametric tests are used for data that can be measured and are usually normally distributed, while non-parametric tests are used for data that cannot be measured in this way.

      Parametric tests include the Student’s t-test, which can be paired or unpaired, and Pearson’s product-moment coefficient, which is used for correlation analysis. Non-parametric tests include the Mann-Whitney U test, which compares ordinal, interval, or ratio scales of unpaired data, and the Wilcoxon signed-rank test, which compares two sets of observations on a single sample. The chi-squared test is used to compare proportions or percentages, while Spearman and Kendall rank are used for correlation analysis.

      It is important to choose the appropriate significance test for the type of data being analyzed in order to obtain accurate and reliable results. By understanding the different types of significance tests available, researchers can make informed decisions about which test to use for their particular study.

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  • Question 59 - A cohort study is being designed to investigate the association between smoking and...

    Incorrect

    • A cohort study is being designed to investigate the association between smoking and breast cancer. What is the typical measure of outcome in a cohort study?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Relative risk

      Explanation:

      The relative risk is typically the outcome measure used in cohort studies.

      There are different types of studies that researchers can use to investigate various phenomena. One of the most rigorous types of study is the randomised controlled trial, where participants are randomly assigned to either an intervention or control group. However, practical or ethical issues may limit the use of this type of study. Another type of study is the cohort study, which is observational and prospective. Researchers select two or more groups based on their exposure to a particular agent and follow them up to see how many develop a disease or other outcome. The usual outcome measure is the relative risk. Examples of cohort studies include the Framingham Heart Study.

      On the other hand, case-control studies are observational and retrospective. Researchers identify patients with a particular condition (cases) and match them with controls. Data is then collected on past exposure to a possible causal agent for the condition. The usual outcome measure is the odds ratio. Case-control studies are inexpensive and produce quick results, making them useful for studying rare conditions. However, they are prone to confounding. Lastly, cross-sectional surveys provide a snapshot of a population and are sometimes called prevalence studies. They provide weak evidence of cause and effect.

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  • Question 60 - A 68-year-old male presents with a productive cough with regular sputum production, wheeze...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old male presents with a productive cough with regular sputum production, wheeze and breathlessness on exertion.

      On examination his FEV1 is 75% of predicted with no diurnal variation. He has smoked 30 cigarettes a day for the past 50 years.

      What is considered to be the most appropriate aspect of the long term management in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cessation of smoking

      Explanation:

      Importance of Smoking Cessation in Managing COPD

      Although chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a condition characterized by poorly reversible airflow limitation, quitting smoking is the only way to slow down its progression. A study involving 5,587 patients with mild COPD found that repeated smoking cessation over a period of 5 years resulted in a quit rate of 37%. After 14.5 years, those who quit smoking had higher lung function and survival rates compared to those who continued smoking.

      While bronchodilators, corticosteroids, and oxygen therapy are important mechanisms of treatment, it is crucial to remember that managing COPD doesn’t solely rely on drug therapy. Smoking cessation is a vital component in the management of COPD, and healthcare professionals should encourage and support patients in their efforts to quit smoking.

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  • Question 61 - A random selection of 800 adults over the age of 60 agree to...

    Incorrect

    • A random selection of 800 adults over the age of 60 agree to participate in a study of the possible effects of drug Y.

      They are followed prospectively for a period of ten years to see if there is an association between the incidence of osteoporosis and the use of drug Y.

      Which type of study is described here?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cohort study

      Explanation:

      Types of Epidemiological Studies

      Cohort studies, also known as longitudinal studies, involve the follow-up of individuals over a defined period of time. Prospective cohort studies follow individuals who are exposed and not exposed to a putative risk factor, and their disease experience is compared at the end of the follow-up period. Historical cohort studies, on the other hand, identify a cohort for whom records of exposure status are available from the past, and their disease experience is measured after a substantial period of time has elapsed since exposure.

      Case-control studies, on the other hand, compare patients who have the disease with those who do not have the disease and look retrospectively at their exposure to risk factors. Cross-over studies are similar to longitudinal studies, but the interventions given to each group are crossed over at a set time in the trial design. Finally, cross-sectional studies analyze data at a certain point in time of a certain population.

      One of the best studies for statistical significance is the randomized controlled clinical trial. Understanding the different types of epidemiological studies is crucial in designing and conducting research that can provide valuable insights into the causes and prevention of diseases.

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  • Question 62 - A study was conducted to investigate whether individuals with lower socioeconomic status were...

    Incorrect

    • A study was conducted to investigate whether individuals with lower socioeconomic status were at a higher risk of developing gastric cancer. The study tracked participants for 35 years and discovered that those with lower socioeconomic status had a significantly greater likelihood of developing gastric cancer. The researchers concluded that there was a strong correlation between lower socioeconomic status and gastric cancer development. However, an independent committee reviewing the study later discovered that individuals with lower socioeconomic status were also more likely to smoke.

      What type of potential bias is likely to be present in this study design?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Confounding bias

      Explanation:

      Confounding bias arises when an unaccounted factor has a causal relationship with the main outcome, leading to a distorted effect of the exposure of interest. In the case of the study mentioned, the association between lower socioeconomic status and gastric cancer is confounded by smoking, which is more prevalent among people with lower socioeconomic status. Berkson bias occurs when cases and controls are selected from hospitals instead of the general population, while measurement bias arises from systematically distorted information gathering. Recall bias occurs when those exposed have a greater sensitivity for recalling exposure, and selection bias arises from a poorly devised method of recruiting participants, leading to nonrandom assignment to study groups.

      Understanding Confounding in Statistics

      Confounding is a term used in statistics to describe a situation where a variable is correlated with other variables in a study, leading to inaccurate or spurious results. For instance, in a case-control study that examines whether low-dose aspirin can prevent colorectal cancer, age could be a confounding factor if the case and control groups are not matched for age. This is because older people are more likely to take aspirin and also more likely to develop cancer. Similarly, in a study that finds a link between coffee consumption and heart disease, smoking could be a confounding factor as it is associated with both drinking coffee and heart disease.

      Confounding occurs when there is a non-random distribution of risk factors in the populations being studied. Common causes of confounding include age, sex, and social class. To control for confounding in the design stage of an experiment, randomization can be used to produce an even distribution of potential risk factors in two populations. In the analysis stage, confounding can be controlled for by stratification. Understanding confounding is crucial in ensuring that research findings are accurate and reliable.

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  • Question 63 - A 44-year-old marketing executive presents for the first time with symptoms of dyspepsia....

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old marketing executive presents for the first time with symptoms of dyspepsia.

      He is otherwise fit and well and takes no regular prescribed medication.

      With reference to NICE guidance, which one of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Full dose PPI for a month is an appropriate initial treatment

      Explanation:

      Management of Dyspepsia in Patients Under 55 Years Old

      Patients under the age of 55 who do not exhibit alarm symptoms should not be referred for upper gastrointestinal endoscopy. Instead, raising the head of the bed may alleviate symptoms. Psychological therapies, such as cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), have been shown to provide short-term relief, but their routine provision by primary care teams is not currently recommended due to their costly and intensive nature. After a medication review, lifestyle advice, including promoting the continued use of antacids, should be given.

      It is unclear whether to treat first with a full dose proton pump inhibitor (PPI) for a month or test for H. pylori. However, it is reasonable to start with a full dose PPI and only test for H. pylori if symptoms persist or return. By following these management strategies, patients under 55 years old with dyspepsia can receive appropriate care and symptom relief.

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  • Question 64 - You plan to look at the effectiveness of a Chlamydia screening programme on...

    Incorrect

    • You plan to look at the effectiveness of a Chlamydia screening programme on detection rates for the disease among teenagers at the clinic.

      The research is designed to look merely at detection rates, not the effectiveness of treatment.

      Which of the following is true with respect to rules around ethical approval and consent for this project?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: You should have a clear publication plan at the outset of your study

      Explanation:

      Importance of a Clear Publication Plan for Clinical Studies

      A clear publication plan is essential for any clinical study. The study should be worthy of publication in some form, whether it is a local CCG journal or a peer-reviewed international publication. The research should provide learning outcomes that can improve clinical practice, and without publication, wider dissemination is impossible.

      It is crucial to ensure that all staff involved in the study are aware of good medical practice, and patients should be provided with an information leaflet about the study. If the study is conducted in multiple areas, MREC approval means that the study can proceed without a separate full LREC application.

      In summary, having a clear publication plan is crucial for any clinical study to ensure that the research findings are disseminated widely and can contribute to improving clinical practice.

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  • Question 65 - A study is conducted to determine the normal range of IgE levels in...

    Incorrect

    • A study is conducted to determine the normal range of IgE levels in elderly individuals. Assuming that IgE levels are normally distributed, what proportion of elderly individuals will have an IgE level greater than 2 standard deviations from the mean?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2.30%

      Explanation:

      The normal distribution, also known as the Gaussian distribution or ‘bell-shaped’ distribution, is commonly used to describe the spread of biological and clinical measurements. It is symmetrical, meaning that the mean, mode, and median are all equal. Additionally, a large percentage of values fall within a certain range of the mean. For example, 68.3% of values lie within 1 standard deviation (SD) of the mean, 95.4% lie within 2 SD, and 99.7% lie within 3 SD. This is often reversed, so that 95% of sample values lie within 1.96 SD of the mean. The range of the mean plus or minus 1.96 SD is called the 95% confidence interval, meaning that if a repeat sample of 100 observations were taken from the same group, 95 of them would be expected to fall within that range. The standard deviation is a measure of how much dispersion exists from the mean, and is calculated as the square root of the variance.

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  • Question 66 - A circumstance in which a subject in a research project alters their behavior...

    Incorrect

    • A circumstance in which a subject in a research project alters their behavior due to the awareness of being monitored is referred to as what?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hawthorne effect

      Explanation:

      Understanding Bias in Clinical Trials

      Bias refers to the systematic favoring of one outcome over another in a clinical trial. There are various types of bias, including selection bias, recall bias, publication bias, work-up bias, expectation bias, Hawthorne effect, late-look bias, procedure bias, and lead-time bias. Selection bias occurs when individuals are assigned to groups in a way that may influence the outcome. Sampling bias, volunteer bias, and non-responder bias are subtypes of selection bias. Recall bias refers to the difference in accuracy of recollections retrieved by study participants, which may be influenced by whether they have a disorder or not. Publication bias occurs when valid studies are not published, often because they showed negative or uninteresting results. Work-up bias is an issue in studies comparing new diagnostic tests with gold standard tests, where clinicians may be reluctant to order the gold standard test unless the new test is positive. Expectation bias occurs when observers subconsciously measure or report data in a way that favors the expected study outcome. The Hawthorne effect describes a group changing its behavior due to the knowledge that it is being studied. Late-look bias occurs when information is gathered at an inappropriate time, and procedure bias occurs when subjects in different groups receive different treatment. Finally, lead-time bias occurs when two tests for a disease are compared, and the new test diagnosis the disease earlier, but there is no effect on the outcome of the disease. Understanding these types of bias is crucial in designing and interpreting clinical trials.

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  • Question 67 - What term is most suitable for describing the spread of blood pressures in...

    Incorrect

    • What term is most suitable for describing the spread of blood pressures in a specific ethnic population that is larger than that of the general population?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Standard deviation

      Explanation:

      Understanding Standard Deviation

      Standard deviation is a statistical measure that helps to determine the spread of observations around the mean. It is calculated by finding the deviation of each observation from the mean value, squaring each value, summing them up, and dividing the total by the number of observations minus one. The standard deviation is then obtained by taking the square root of this value. In essence, standard deviation provides a measure of how much the observations deviate from the mean, and it is a useful tool for analyzing data in various fields, including finance, science, and engineering. By understanding standard deviation, researchers and analysts can gain insights into the variability of data and make informed decisions based on their findings.

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  • Question 68 - A study is being conducted on 35-45 years healthy male volunteers to establish...

    Incorrect

    • A study is being conducted on 35-45 years healthy male volunteers to establish a causal link between smoking and colorectal cancer. All participants are required to log their consumption in order to stratify participants according to overall exposure. The study investigators will perform a colonoscopy on all study participants to investigate for the presence of colorectal cancer every 10 years.

      What type of study is this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prospective cohort study

      Explanation:

      Prospective cohort studies observe individuals before they are exposed to risk factors, while retrospective cohort studies analyze individuals who have already been exposed to risk factors.

      Prospective cohort studies track individuals who do not have a disease but may be exposed to risk factors, and then monitor them for the development of the disease.

      Case-control studies examine individuals who have a disease and compare their exposures to those who do not have the disease.

      Cross-sectional studies evaluate diseases and exposures at a single point in time.

      Crossover studies involve participants who are assigned to either a placebo or treatment group and then switch after a certain period of time.

      Retrospective cohort studies are conducted after both the exposure and disease have already occurred.

      There are different types of studies that researchers can use to investigate various phenomena. One of the most rigorous types of study is the randomised controlled trial, where participants are randomly assigned to either an intervention or control group. However, practical or ethical issues may limit the use of this type of study. Another type of study is the cohort study, which is observational and prospective. Researchers select two or more groups based on their exposure to a particular agent and follow them up to see how many develop a disease or other outcome. The usual outcome measure is the relative risk. Examples of cohort studies include the Framingham Heart Study.

      On the other hand, case-control studies are observational and retrospective. Researchers identify patients with a particular condition (cases) and match them with controls. Data is then collected on past exposure to a possible causal agent for the condition. The usual outcome measure is the odds ratio. Case-control studies are inexpensive and produce quick results, making them useful for studying rare conditions. However, they are prone to confounding. Lastly, cross-sectional surveys provide a snapshot of a population and are sometimes called prevalence studies. They provide weak evidence of cause and effect.

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  • Question 69 - A trial is proposed to see whether excess alcohol use is a risk...

    Incorrect

    • A trial is proposed to see whether excess alcohol use is a risk factor for osteoporosis. It is decided to perform a case-control study rather than a cohort study.

      What is an advantage of a case-control study?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is possible to study exposure to unusual risk factors

      Explanation:

      Advantages and Limitations of Case-Control Studies

      A case-control study is a type of research that compares the characteristics of patients with a particular disease to a control group of patients who do not have the disease. This type of study is particularly useful for investigating unusual risk factors, as a wide range of factors can be explored without the risk of loss to follow up. Results are typically presented as an odds ratio.

      While case-control studies can provide valuable information on specific questions, they do have limitations. For example, it is not possible to control for all sources of bias, and factors that are identified as potentially causative may not actually be related to the disease in question. Additionally, incidence cannot be directly measured from a case-control study.

      Despite these limitations, case-control studies have been instrumental in providing insights into the relationship between various risk factors and diseases. Examples include studies on hormone replacement therapy and breast cancer risk, as well as studies on alcohol consumption and the risk of osteoporosis. Overall, case-control studies are a valuable tool for researchers, but must be interpreted with caution and in the context of other available evidence.

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  • Question 70 - A medical research team conducts a randomized controlled trial to investigate the effect...

    Incorrect

    • A medical research team conducts a randomized controlled trial to investigate the effect of a new treatment on cognitive decline in elderly patients. Ten participants are randomly assigned to the new treatment, and 10 continue with standard care. The results show no significant difference in cognitive decline between the two groups, with a p-value of 0.18 and an absolute risk reduction of 0.03. However, subsequent research with a larger patient population reveals a significant treatment effect on cognitive decline.

      What statistical mistake did the research team likely make?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type II error

      Explanation:

      The researchers have committed a type II error, which means that they accepted the null hypothesis even though it was false. In this case, they found no effect of the drug when there actually was one. It is important to note that a false-positive, which is a type I error, would occur if they found a significant drug effect when there was none. There is no indication of selection bias in the stem, so we can assume that the participants were properly randomized. It is worth noting that a type I error occurs when the null hypothesis is rejected even though it is true, which is the opposite of what happened in this case. Finally, a type III error is not commonly used, but it occurs when the null hypothesis is correctly rejected for the wrong reason.

      Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.

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  • Question 71 - What is the expected number of newly diagnosed men with rheumatoid arthritis in...

    Incorrect

    • What is the expected number of newly diagnosed men with rheumatoid arthritis in South Bridge practice each year, given an incidence rate of 1.5 per 10000 men per year?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 10.2

      Explanation:

      Understanding Incidence and Prevalence

      This question is easy if you understand the difference between incidence and prevalence and are careful with your calculations. The question asks for the incidence of rheumatoid arthritis in men, which is 1.5 men per 10,000 population. Therefore, in a population of 20,000, the answer is 3. It’s important to be precise with calculations, as it’s easy to make mistakes in the heat of an exam. If the question had asked for incidence in both men and women, the answer would be 5.1 per 10,000, or 10.2 in a population of 20,000. If the question had asked for prevalence, the answer would be 200. Remembering the difference between incidence and prevalence is key to answering questions like this accurately.

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  • Question 72 - The observation that symptoms which are severe on initial assessment are likely to...

    Incorrect

    • The observation that symptoms which are severe on initial assessment are likely to have improved on subsequent assessments is known as what?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Regression to the mean

      Explanation:

      When a variable is measured to be extreme initially, it is likely to move closer to the average on subsequent measurements, which is known as regression to the mean.

      Understanding the Placebo Effect

      The placebo effect refers to the phenomenon where a patient experiences an improvement in their condition after receiving an inert substance or treatment that has no inherent pharmacological activity. This can include a sugar pill or a sham procedure that mimics a real medical intervention. The placebo effect is influenced by various factors, such as the perceived strength of the treatment, the status of the treating professional, and the patient’s expectations.

      It is important to note that the placebo effect is not the same as receiving no care, as patients who maintain contact with medical services tend to have better outcomes. The placebo response is also greater in mild illnesses and can be difficult to separate from spontaneous remission. Patients who enter randomized controlled trials (RCTs) are often acutely unwell, and their symptoms may improve regardless of the intervention.

      The placebo effect has been extensively studied in depression, where it tends to be abrupt and early in treatment, and less likely to persist compared to improvement from antidepressants. Placebo sag refers to a situation where the placebo effect is diminished with repeated use.

      Overall, the placebo effect is a complex phenomenon that is influenced by various factors and can have significant implications for medical research and treatment. Understanding the placebo effect can help healthcare professionals provide better care and improve patient outcomes.

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  • Question 73 - A new anti-epileptic drug is being tested for adolescents with absence seizures. The...

    Incorrect

    • A new anti-epileptic drug is being tested for adolescents with absence seizures. The control group consists of 300 adolescents while 200 adolescents are given the new drug. After 6 months, 80 adolescents in the control group had a seizure while only 10 adolescents in the group taking the new medication had a seizure. What is the relative risk reduction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 75%

      Explanation:

      Understanding Relative Risk in Clinical Trials

      Relative risk (RR) is a measure used in clinical trials to compare the risk of an event occurring in the experimental group to the risk in the control group. It is calculated by dividing the experimental event rate (EER) by the control event rate (CER). If the resulting ratio is greater than 1, it means that the event is more likely to occur in the experimental group than in the control group. Conversely, if the ratio is less than 1, the event is less likely to occur in the experimental group.

      To calculate the relative risk reduction (RRR) or relative risk increase (RRI), the absolute risk change is divided by the control event rate. This provides a percentage that indicates the magnitude of the difference between the two groups. Understanding relative risk is important in evaluating the effectiveness of interventions and treatments in clinical trials. By comparing the risk of an event in the experimental group to the control group, researchers can determine whether the intervention is beneficial or not.

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  • Question 74 - Which of the following is accurate concerning the placebo effect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is accurate concerning the placebo effect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The placebo response is greater in mild rather than severe illness

      Explanation:

      The observed placebo response rate in published studies is on the rise, which is believed to be due to a larger number of patients with less severe forms of illness being included in these studies.

      Understanding the Placebo Effect

      The placebo effect refers to the phenomenon where a patient experiences an improvement in their condition after receiving an inert substance or treatment that has no inherent pharmacological activity. This can include a sugar pill or a sham procedure that mimics a real medical intervention. The placebo effect is influenced by various factors, such as the perceived strength of the treatment, the status of the treating professional, and the patient’s expectations.

      It is important to note that the placebo effect is not the same as receiving no care, as patients who maintain contact with medical services tend to have better outcomes. The placebo response is also greater in mild illnesses and can be difficult to separate from spontaneous remission. Patients who enter randomized controlled trials (RCTs) are often acutely unwell, and their symptoms may improve regardless of the intervention.

      The placebo effect has been extensively studied in depression, where it tends to be abrupt and early in treatment, and less likely to persist compared to improvement from antidepressants. Placebo sag refers to a situation where the placebo effect is diminished with repeated use.

      Overall, the placebo effect is a complex phenomenon that is influenced by various factors and can have significant implications for medical research and treatment. Understanding the placebo effect can help healthcare professionals provide better care and improve patient outcomes.

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  • Question 75 - A 60-year-old patient schedules a visit to discuss their yearly flu shot. They...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old patient schedules a visit to discuss their yearly flu shot. They have come across a research study that compared the vaccine to a placebo. The study found that among those who received the vaccine, 10% tested positive for the flu, while 30% in the placebo group did. The authors of the study conducted a statistical analysis to evaluate the relationship between the vaccine and getting the flu.

      Which statistical test would be appropriate for analyzing these findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chi-squared test

      Explanation:

      The appropriate statistical test for comparing proportions or percentages is the chi-squared test. For example, it can be used to compare the percentage of patients who improved following two different interventions. The Mann-Whitney U test is not applicable in this case as it is used for non-parametric data and compares ordinal, interval, or ratio scales of unpaired data. Similarly, Pearson’s product-moment coefficient is not suitable as it is a parametric test that assesses correlation. The choice of significance test depends on whether the data is parametric or non-parametric.

      Types of Significance Tests

      Significance tests are used to determine whether the results of a study are statistically significant or simply due to chance. The type of significance test used depends on the type of data being analyzed. Parametric tests are used for data that can be measured and are usually normally distributed, while non-parametric tests are used for data that cannot be measured in this way.

      Parametric tests include the Student’s t-test, which can be paired or unpaired, and Pearson’s product-moment coefficient, which is used for correlation analysis. Non-parametric tests include the Mann-Whitney U test, which compares ordinal, interval, or ratio scales of unpaired data, and the Wilcoxon signed-rank test, which compares two sets of observations on a single sample. The chi-squared test is used to compare proportions or percentages, while Spearman and Kendall rank are used for correlation analysis.

      It is important to choose the appropriate significance test for the type of data being analyzed in order to obtain accurate and reliable results. By understanding the different types of significance tests available, researchers can make informed decisions about which test to use for their particular study.

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  • Question 76 - A childcare assistant is setting up the nursery equipment. One set of thermometers...

    Incorrect

    • A childcare assistant is setting up the nursery equipment. One set of thermometers consistently measures temperature 5% lower than the actual value.

      What is the issue with this set of thermometers?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Validity

      Explanation:

      In statistics, reliability refers to the degree of consistency in a measurement, while validity pertains to the accuracy of a test.

      Understanding Reliability and Validity in Statistics

      Reliability and validity are two important concepts in statistics that are used to determine the accuracy and consistency of a measure. Reliability refers to the consistency of a measurement, while validity refers to whether a test accurately measures what it is supposed to measure.

      It is important to note that reliability and validity are independent of each other. This means that a measurement can be valid but not reliable, or reliable but not valid. For example, if a pulse oximeter consistently records oxygen saturations 5% below the true value, it is considered reliable because the value is consistently 5% below the true value. However, it is not considered valid because the reported saturations are not an accurate reflection of the true values.

      In summary, reliability and validity are crucial concepts in statistics that help to ensure accurate and consistent measurements. Understanding the difference between these two concepts is important for researchers and statisticians to ensure that their data is reliable and valid.

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  • Question 77 - A new publication describes a new test for detecting Alzheimer's disease.
    You want to...

    Incorrect

    • A new publication describes a new test for detecting Alzheimer's disease.
      You want to know what proportion of patients with Alzheimer's disease would be accurately diagnosed by this new test.
      What value would indicate this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sensitivity

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sensitivity and Positive Predictive Value in Medical Testing

      Medical testing is an essential tool in diagnosing diseases and conditions. Two important measures in evaluating the effectiveness of a test are sensitivity and positive predictive value. Sensitivity refers to the proportion of patients with the disease who are correctly identified by the test. In other words, it measures the accuracy of the test in detecting true positives. On the other hand, positive predictive value refers to the percentage of people who test positive for the disease and actually have it. This measure takes into account the prevalence of the disease in the population being tested and helps to determine the likelihood of a positive test result being a true positive. Understanding these measures is crucial in interpreting medical test results and making informed decisions about patient care.

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  • Question 78 - A researcher calculates various statistical values for a randomized controlled trial of a...

    Incorrect

    • A researcher calculates various statistical values for a randomized controlled trial of a new drug vs an old drug that treats heart failure in elderly patients. She finds that the probability of type 1 error is 31%, the probability of type 2 error is 26%, the p-value is 0.04 and the confidence interval of 95%.

      What is the power of this study for elderly patients?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.74

      Explanation:

      Power is the ability of a study to accurately identify an effect or difference, regardless of whether the hypothesis is accepted or rejected. It is calculated as 1 minus the probability of a type II error, which is the likelihood of failing to detect a true effect or difference. A study with high power has a low probability of type II error and can therefore more reliably detect real effects or differences. Conversely, as the probability of type II error decreases, the power of the study increases.

      Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.

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  • Question 79 - As part of a clinical audit, a medical student is analysing the characteristics...

    Incorrect

    • As part of a clinical audit, a medical student is analysing the characteristics of patients attending a hypertension clinic. She calculates that the mean age of the patients is 56 years old, and that the variance of the data is 64. She wants to calculate the standard deviation of the data set.

      What is the connection between standard deviation and variance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Standard deviation is the square root of variance

      Explanation:

      The square root of variance is equal to standard deviation, while variance is the squared value of standard deviation.

      Understanding Variance as a Measure of Spread

      Variance is a statistical measure that helps to determine how far apart a set of scores is from the mean. It is calculated by taking the square of the standard deviation. In other words, variance is a way to quantify the amount of variability or spread in a data set. It is a useful tool in many fields, including finance, engineering, and science, as it can help to identify patterns and trends in data. By understanding variance, researchers and analysts can gain insights into the distribution of data and make more informed decisions based on their findings. Overall, variance is an important concept to grasp for anyone working with data, as it provides a way to measure the degree of variability in a set of scores.

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  • Question 80 - What is the conclusion of the randomised placebo-controlled trial conducted by experienced vascular...

    Incorrect

    • What is the conclusion of the randomised placebo-controlled trial conducted by experienced vascular surgeons comparing a specific carotid surgery technique to another operation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Efficacy

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Sham Surgery in Clinical Trials

      Sham surgery, also known as placebo surgery, is a simulated surgical procedure that excludes the step believed to be therapeutically necessary. In clinical trials of surgical interventions, sham surgery serves as a crucial scientific control.

      An experienced group of vascular surgeons conducted a study on the effectiveness of sham surgery in carotid surgery. However, it has been challenging to prove its usefulness outside areas of expertise. It is often difficult to generalize the findings of a study group to everyday practice.

      Efficacy refers to the effect of something under ideal or laboratory conditions. It is important to note that this study did not comment on mortality rates. Overall, sham surgery plays a vital role in clinical trials and helps ensure the validity of surgical interventions.

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  • Question 81 - A clinical trial is being conducted to assess the effectiveness of a new...

    Incorrect

    • A clinical trial is being conducted to assess the effectiveness of a new drug in reducing blood pressure in patients with hypertension. The null hypothesis states there is no difference between the new drug and placebo in reducing blood pressure.

      After collecting the appropriate data, statistical analyses are conducted and the researcher wants to quantify if the observed difference may have occurred just by chance. He calculates this probability assuming the null hypothesis is correct.

      What is this known as?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: P-value

      Explanation:

      Confidence intervals are frequently utilized in statistical analysis to estimate the range of values within which a population parameter is likely to fall.

      Power refers to the likelihood of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, indicating the ability to detect a statistically significant difference. This is calculated as the complement of the probability of a type II error.

      The standard error is a measure of the variability of the means of multiple samples. It is computed by dividing the standard deviation of these means by the square root of the sample size.

      Type II error occurs when the null hypothesis is accepted despite being false, resulting in a failure to detect a difference, or a false negative.

      Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.

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  • Question 82 - A medical researcher is designing a study to examine a hypothesised link between...

    Incorrect

    • A medical researcher is designing a study to examine a hypothesised link between exposure to a chemical found in a particular brand of paint, and the subsequent development of skin cancer. He recruits young decorators who have been diagnosed with skin cancer, and another group of those who have not been diagnosed with it. He plans to assess their prior exposure to this brand of paint.

      Which bias is a particular problem in these types of studies?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Recall bias

      Explanation:

      In case-control studies, recall bias is a significant issue. The scenario presented is an example of such a study, where the accuracy of participants’ recollections is crucial. As the study is retrospective, participants must remember details such as the brands of paint they used and their frequency of use, which can be unreliable. This is especially true for the control group, who are less likely to recall any significant exposure they may have had since they do not have skin cancer.

      Lead-time bias, on the other hand, is not relevant to this scenario. It pertains to the comparison of two tests for a disease, and how earlier diagnosis can make it appear as if people are surviving longer. Publication bias, which refers to the failure to publish results, is also not mentioned in the scenario as the researcher is still collecting data. Lastly, unmasking bias, which occurs when an innocent symptom leads to the discovery of an unrelated illness, is not particularly relevant to the study’s objective of examining the link between paint exposure and skin cancer.

      Understanding Bias in Clinical Trials

      Bias refers to the systematic favoring of one outcome over another in a clinical trial. There are various types of bias, including selection bias, recall bias, publication bias, work-up bias, expectation bias, Hawthorne effect, late-look bias, procedure bias, and lead-time bias. Selection bias occurs when individuals are assigned to groups in a way that may influence the outcome. Sampling bias, volunteer bias, and non-responder bias are subtypes of selection bias. Recall bias refers to the difference in accuracy of recollections retrieved by study participants, which may be influenced by whether they have a disorder or not. Publication bias occurs when valid studies are not published, often because they showed negative or uninteresting results. Work-up bias is an issue in studies comparing new diagnostic tests with gold standard tests, where clinicians may be reluctant to order the gold standard test unless the new test is positive. Expectation bias occurs when observers subconsciously measure or report data in a way that favors the expected study outcome. The Hawthorne effect describes a group changing its behavior due to the knowledge that it is being studied. Late-look bias occurs when information is gathered at an inappropriate time, and procedure bias occurs when subjects in different groups receive different treatment. Finally, lead-time bias occurs when two tests for a disease are compared, and the new test diagnosis the disease earlier, but there is no effect on the outcome of the disease. Understanding these types of bias is crucial in designing and interpreting clinical trials.

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  • Question 83 - A recently published meta-analysis on the prevalence of interstitial lung disease in elderly...

    Incorrect

    • A recently published meta-analysis on the prevalence of interstitial lung disease in elderly patients with a history of severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2 (SARS-CoV-2) is discussed at a geriatric medicine conference that you attend. The speaker suggests that there may be a publication bias affecting the results.

      What statistical method, graph or examination would be the most effective in exploring the speaker's hypothesis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Funnel plot

      Explanation:

      A funnel plot is the correct tool to use when evaluating meta-analyses for publication bias. These plots typically display treatment effects on the horizontal axis and study size on the vertical axis, with an asymmetrical funnel indicating the presence of publication bias or small study effects. In contrast, a box and whisker plot is not an appropriate test for publication bias, as it primarily displays quartiles, median, and variability. Similarly, the chi-square test and Kruskal-Wallis test are not suitable for investigating publication bias, as they are designed to evaluate binary outcomes and compare means of independent groups, respectively.

      Understanding Funnel Plots in Meta-Analyses

      Funnel plots are graphical representations used to identify publication bias in meta-analyses. These plots typically display treatment effects on the horizontal axis and study size on the vertical axis. The shape of the funnel plot can provide insight into the presence of publication bias. A symmetrical, inverted funnel shape suggests that publication bias is unlikely. On the other hand, an asymmetrical funnel shape indicates a relationship between treatment effect and study size, which may be due to publication bias or systematic differences between smaller and larger studies (known as small study effects).

      In summary, funnel plots are a useful tool for identifying potential publication bias in meta-analyses. By examining the shape of the plot, researchers can gain insight into the relationship between treatment effect and study size, and determine whether further investigation is necessary to ensure the validity of their findings.

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  • Question 84 - In a study of 950 subjects under the age of 30, a new...

    Incorrect

    • In a study of 950 subjects under the age of 30, a new serological marker for diabetes was evaluated against the standard test of fasting blood glucose levels. The results are as follows:

      Test positive Test negative
      Blood glucose high 80 20
      Blood glucose normal 120 730

      What is the sensitivity of this test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 80%

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sensitivity and Specificity in Medical Testing

      Sensitivity and specificity are important measures in medical testing. Sensitivity refers to the probability that a person with a disease will be correctly identified by the test, while specificity refers to the probability that a person without the disease will be correctly identified as negative by the test.

      In a study with 50 subjects who have the disease, 40 were correctly identified by the test, resulting in a sensitivity of 80%. On the other hand, out of 900 subjects without the disease, 840 were correctly identified as negative by the test, giving a specificity of 93%.

      To better understand these measures, a table can be used to illustrate the results. The true positives (people with the disease who were correctly identified) and true negatives (people without the disease who were correctly identified as negative) are located in the diagonal cells of the table. False positives (people without the disease who were incorrectly identified as positive) and false negatives (people with the disease who were incorrectly identified as negative) are located in the off-diagonal cells.

      Overall, sensitivity and specificity are important factors to consider when evaluating the accuracy of medical tests.

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  • Question 85 - When two medical conditions are related through the presence of a confounding factor,...

    Incorrect

    • When two medical conditions are related through the presence of a confounding factor, the association is said to be:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Indirect

      Explanation:

      Association and Causation: Understanding the Difference

      Association refers to the relationship between two variables where one is more commonly found in the presence of the other. However, not all associations are causal. There are three types of association: spurious, indirect, and direct. Spurious associations are those that arise by chance and are not real, while indirect associations are due to the presence of another factor, also known as a confounding variable. Direct associations, on the other hand, are true associations not linked by a third variable.

      To establish causation, the Bradford Hill Causal Criteria are used. These criteria include strength, temporality, specificity, coherence, and consistency. The strength of the association is an important factor in determining causation, as a stronger association is more likely to be truly causal. Temporality refers to whether the exposure precedes the outcome, while specificity asks whether the suspected cause is associated with a specific outcome or disease. Coherence considers whether the association fits with other biological knowledge, and consistency looks at whether the same association is found in many studies.

      Understanding the difference between association and causation is important in research and decision-making. While an association may suggest a relationship between two variables, it doesn’t necessarily mean that one causes the other. By using the Bradford Hill Causal Criteria, researchers can determine whether an association is truly causal and make informed decisions based on their findings.

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  • Question 86 - A new rapid diagnostic test is developed to diagnose Alzheimer's disease. The test...

    Incorrect

    • A new rapid diagnostic test is developed to diagnose Alzheimer's disease. The test is based on measurement of certain biomarkers in the blood that are associated with the disease. The sensitivity and specificity of the test is 80% and 85%, respectively. What is the likelihood ratio for a negative test result?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.235

      Explanation:
      • Sensitivity (Sens): The probability that the test is positive given that the disease is present. In this case, it is 80% or 0.80.
      • Specificity (Spec): The probability that the test is negative given that the disease is not present. In this case, it is 85% or 0.85.
      • Likelihood Ratio for a Negative Test Result (LR): The ratio of the probability of a negative test result in patients with the disease to the probability of a negative test result in patients without the disease. It is calculated as:

        LR−=(1−Sensitivity)/Specificity

      Calculation

      Using the provided sensitivity and specificity:

      • Sensitivity = 0.80
      • Specificity = 0.85

      Substitute these values into the formula for the negative likelihood ratio:

      LR=(1−Sensitivity)/Specificity

      LR=(1−0.80)/0.85

      LR=0.20/0.85

       

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  • Question 87 - What is the highest ranked source of evidence in the hierarchy of evidence...

    Incorrect

    • What is the highest ranked source of evidence in the hierarchy of evidence based medicine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Meta-analysis

      Explanation:

      Hierarchy of Evidence Grades

      The strength of evidence provided by different study types is ranked in a hierarchy. This hierarchy is important to understand when making clinical decisions based on research. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) documents these evidence grades in Chapter 6 of their Guidelines manual (PMG6).

      The strongest level of evidence is provided by meta-analyses, followed by randomized controlled trials (RCTs), controlled studies without randomization, quasi-experimental studies, non-experimental descriptive studies, and finally expert committee reports, opinions, and clinical experience.

      It is crucial to consider the strength of evidence when interpreting research findings and applying them to clinical practice. By understanding the hierarchy of evidence grades, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions that are based on the most reliable and robust evidence available.

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  • Question 88 - A 60-year-old man with a BMI of 32 kg/m2 has uncontrolled hypertension, with...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man with a BMI of 32 kg/m2 has uncontrolled hypertension, with a blood pressure of 165/88 mmHg. He doesn't currently receive treatment for his hypertension.

      He has normal glucose tolerance (no evidence of impaired fasting glycaemia, impaired glucose tolerance or diabetes).

      When considering treatment of his hypertension which of these drugs has been shown to be associated with an increase in the risk of developing diabetes compared with an ACE inhibitor or ARB?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atenolol

      Explanation:

      Hypertension Treatment and Risk of Diabetes

      Atenolol is no longer recommended as a first or second line agent to treat hypertension due to an increased incidence of diabetes in patients. Instead, regimens based on amlodipine or losartan are preferred. Thiazides may worsen glucose tolerance, but they have not been shown to increase the risk of developing diabetes during hypertension treatment. ACE inhibitors were once thought to protect against diabetes, but they have not been proven to reduce the likelihood of developing diabetes during hypertension treatment. Doxazosin treatment has been linked to an increased risk of congestive cardiac failure, but not diabetes (ALLHAT). It is important to consider the potential risks and benefits of different hypertension treatments when managing patients with hypertension.

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  • Question 89 - A study is conducted to evaluate the efficacy of a new auto-antibody test...

    Incorrect

    • A study is conducted to evaluate the efficacy of a new auto-antibody test as a screening tool for prostate cancer. The study involves 1000 patients, out of which 70 test positive for the auto-antibody. Among the positive cases, 50 are confirmed to have prostate cancer through biopsy. On the other hand, 10 patients who tested negative for the auto-antibody were later diagnosed with prostate cancer.

      What is the percentage of positive predictive value of this test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 60%

      Explanation:

      The sensitivity of the test is the proportion of patients with the condition who receive a positive test result. It can be calculated by dividing the number of true positives (patients with the condition who test positive) by the sum of true positives and false negatives (patients with the condition who test negative). In this case, the sensitivity is 85.7% (30/35).

      Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.

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  • Question 90 - A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a history of fever,...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a history of fever, chills and a headache after returning from a trip to Sub-Saharan Africa. Past data shows that 70% of patients with these symptoms and a travel history to this region have Malaria. The calculated likelihood for a negative test result is 0.1.

      What is the significance of this result?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: There is a 10 fold decrease in the odds of the patient having malaria with a negative test result

      Explanation:

      When a test result is negative, the likelihood ratio measures how much the odds of having the disease decrease. This ratio is used to determine the likelihood of a patient having a particular condition or disease. A higher likelihood ratio indicates a greater likelihood of having the condition, while a lower likelihood ratio suggests that the patient is less likely to have the condition. The negative likelihood ratio specifically measures the change in odds for patients with a negative test result. Conversely, the positive likelihood ratio measures the change in odds for patients with a positive test result.

      Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.

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  • Question 91 - A 50-year-old patient presents you with a research paper on a new screening...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old patient presents you with a research paper on a new screening test for diagnosing breast cancer that is currently on trial. The test is being compared to the current gold standard screening test, mammography. The patient is interested in this test as she finds mammograms uncomfortable and wants to know how the new test compares to the standard screening.

      Given the following data, what is the specificity of the new test?

      Positive mammogram Negative mammogram
      Test positive 32 150
      Test negative 15 439

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.75

      Explanation:

      Specificity is the proportion of patients without the condition who have a negative test result. The correct answer is 0.75, which is calculated by dividing the number of true negatives (439) by the sum of true negatives and false positives (150). The other options provided are incorrect: 0.18 is the positive predictive value, 0.68 is the sensitivity, and 0.97 is the negative predictive value.

      Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.

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  • Question 92 - A trial is conducted to evaluate the effectiveness of a new screening test...

    Incorrect

    • A trial is conducted to evaluate the effectiveness of a new screening test for detecting heart disease in patients over the age of 50. The contingency table below shows the results for a group of patients who were tested:

      Heart disease present Heart disease absent
      Test positive 120 15
      Test negative 10 255

      What is the positive predictive value of the new screening test for detecting heart disease (rounded to 2 decimal places)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.94

      Explanation:

      The positive predictive value (PPV) is a measure of the probability that a patient has a particular condition (such as pancreatic cancer) if a diagnostic test (such as a tumour marker test) is positive. To calculate the PPV, the formula TP / (TP + FP) is used, where TP represents the number of true positives (patients who have the condition and test positive) and FP represents the number of false positives (patients who test positive but do not have the condition). For example, if there are 155 true positives and 10 false positives, the PPV would be calculated as 0.94.

      Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.

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  • Question 93 - What is the definition of the standardised mortality ratio, and how does it...

    Incorrect

    • What is the definition of the standardised mortality ratio, and how does it differ from the age-standardised mortality ratio?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The ratio of observed to expected mortality accounting for confounding factors

      Explanation:

      The mortality ratio, which only considers the observed over expected mortality, doesn’t factor in variables such as age and gender that may affect the results.

      Understanding the Standardised Mortality Ratio

      The standardised mortality ratio (SMR) is a useful tool for comparing mortality rates across different populations. It takes into account confounding factors such as age and sex, which can affect mortality rates. The SMR is calculated by dividing the observed deaths by the expected deaths, sometimes multiplied by 100.

      An SMR of 100 or 1 indicates that the mortality rate in the population being studied is the same as the standard population. If the SMR is greater than 100, it suggests a higher than expected mortality rate. The SMR is a valuable tool for researchers and policymakers to identify populations with higher mortality rates and to develop interventions to address the underlying causes. By understanding the SMR, we can better understand mortality rates and work towards improving health outcomes for all populations.

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  • Question 94 - A pharmaceutical company is developing a new drug to treat ovarian cancer. During...

    Incorrect

    • A pharmaceutical company is developing a new drug to treat ovarian cancer. During which phase of clinical trials is the drug's effectiveness specifically evaluated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phase IIb

      Explanation:

      Phases of Clinical Trials

      Clinical trials are conducted to determine the safety and efficacy of new treatments or drugs. These trials are commonly classified into four phases. The first phase involves determining the pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics of the drug, as well as any potential side effects. This phase is conducted on healthy volunteers.

      The second phase assesses the efficacy and dosage of the drug. It involves a small number of patients affected by a particular disease. This phase may be further subdivided into IIa, which assesses optimal dosing, and IIb, which assesses efficacy.

      The third phase involves assessing the effectiveness of the drug. This phase typically involves a larger number of people, often as part of a randomized controlled trial, comparing the new treatment with established treatments.

      The fourth and final phase is postmarketing surveillance. This phase monitors the long-term effectiveness and side effects of the drug after it has been approved and is on the market.

      Overall, the phases of clinical trials are crucial in determining the safety and efficacy of new treatments and drugs. They provide valuable information that can help improve patient outcomes and advance medical research.

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  • Question 95 - A study compares the effectiveness of two treatments for hypertension. The first treatment...

    Incorrect

    • A study compares the effectiveness of two treatments for hypertension. The first treatment has a success rate of 75% whilst the second treatment has a success rate of 82%. What type of significance test should be used for comparing the two results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chi-squared test

      Explanation:

      The chi-squared test is appropriate for comparing percentages.

      Types of Significance Tests

      Significance tests are used to determine whether the results of a study are statistically significant or simply due to chance. The type of significance test used depends on the type of data being analyzed. Parametric tests are used for data that can be measured and are usually normally distributed, while non-parametric tests are used for data that cannot be measured in this way.

      Parametric tests include the Student’s t-test, which can be paired or unpaired, and Pearson’s product-moment coefficient, which is used for correlation analysis. Non-parametric tests include the Mann-Whitney U test, which compares ordinal, interval, or ratio scales of unpaired data, and the Wilcoxon signed-rank test, which compares two sets of observations on a single sample. The chi-squared test is used to compare proportions or percentages, while Spearman and Kendall rank are used for correlation analysis.

      It is important to choose the appropriate significance test for the type of data being analyzed in order to obtain accurate and reliable results. By understanding the different types of significance tests available, researchers can make informed decisions about which test to use for their particular study.

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  • Question 96 - A clinical investigation examined the effectiveness of a new test for diagnosing prostate...

    Incorrect

    • A clinical investigation examined the effectiveness of a new test for diagnosing prostate cancer. The test is designed to show positive in the presence of the disease. The sensitivity was reported as 70%.

      Which one of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 70% of people with the disease will have a negative test result

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sensitivity and Specificity

      Sensitivity and specificity are two important measures used to evaluate the accuracy of medical tests. Sensitivity refers to the probability that a test will correctly identify a condition when it is present, while specificity refers to the probability that a test will correctly identify the absence of a condition when it is not present.

      In the given scenario, the data suggests that there is a 70% probability of the test being positive when tested in a group of patients with the disease. This means that if 100 patients with the disease were tested, 70 of them would test positive and 30 would test negative. It is important to note that sensitivity and specificity are not fixed values and can vary depending on the test and the population being tested. Understanding these measures can help healthcare professionals make informed decisions about the use and interpretation of medical tests.

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  • Question 97 - Please provide an appropriate question to answer as part of a GP audit....

    Incorrect

    • Please provide an appropriate question to answer as part of a GP audit.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: What percentage of patients taking ACE inhibitors have their U&E checked in a year?

      Explanation:

      Clinical Care Audit

      A clinical care audit is a process that evaluates the performance of healthcare providers against specific guidelines on therapy. The aim is to determine if the care provided meets a pre-specified standard. For instance, a typical audit may assess if all patients taking ACE inhibitors have had at least a yearly U&E. The standard is set high, at around 90%+, and if not met, measures are implemented to improve performance. These measures may include adding reminders to GP prescription systems, education sessions on the use of ACE inhibitors, and more.

      Closing the loop is an essential part of the audit process. This involves reassessing the percentage of clinical episodes that meet the audit standard to determine if improvements have been made. By conducting clinical care audits, healthcare providers can identify areas for improvement and implement measures to enhance the quality of care provided to patients.

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  • Question 98 - A 45-year-old woman has been diagnosed with breast cancer after a lesion was...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman has been diagnosed with breast cancer after a lesion was detected during a routine mammogram as part of the NHS Breast Screening program. What are the optimal features of a screening test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: High sensitivity and high specificity

      Explanation:

      An optimal screening test would possess both high sensitivity and high specificity.

      Sensitivity refers to the proportion of individuals with a particular disease who are correctly identified as having the disease by the test. In an ideal screening program, a high sensitivity would ensure that the majority of affected individuals are detected. The positive predictive value, which indicates the proportion of people with the disease among those who test positive, is less important than sensitivity in a screening test. A high positive predictive value doesn’t necessarily mean that most individuals with the disease would test positive, but rather that most of those who test positive have the disease.

      Specificity, on the other hand, refers to the proportion of individuals without the disease who are correctly identified as not having the disease by the test. A screening program with high specificity would produce negative test results for those who do not have the disease, reducing the need for further, more invasive tests. It is crucial for a screening program to have few false positive results. The negative predictive value, which indicates the proportion of people without the disease among those who test negative, is not relevant to a screening program’s goals.

      Screening for a particular condition should meet certain criteria, known as the Wilson and Jungner criteria. Firstly, the condition being screened for should be a significant public health concern. Secondly, there should be an effective treatment available for those who are diagnosed with the disease. Thirdly, facilities for diagnosis and treatment should be accessible. Fourthly, there should be a recognizable early stage of the disease. Fifthly, the natural progression of the disease should be well understood. Sixthly, there should be a suitable test or examination available. Seventhly, the test or examination should be acceptable to the population being screened. Eighthly, there should be a clear policy on who should be treated. Ninthly, the cost of screening and subsequent treatment should be economically balanced. Finally, screening should be an ongoing process rather than a one-time event.

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  • Question 99 - A 28-year-old patient who is participating in a clinical trial comes to your...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old patient who is participating in a clinical trial comes to your clinic for a flu shot. He is uncertain if it is permitted while he is in the trial, so his trial coordinator is consulted. The coordinator explains that the patient is part of a study involving 150 participants to evaluate the effectiveness and adverse effects of a new allergy medication, and receiving the vaccine should not be an issue.

      What phase of the clinical trial is the 28-year-old patient in?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phase II

      Explanation:

      The patient is participating in a phase II trial, which involves testing the efficacy and safety of the drug on several hundred patients. This is different from phase 0 trials, which are exploratory studies on a limited number of people, and phase I trials, which evaluate safety and doses on smaller groups of patients. Phase III trials involve comparing the treatment to a placebo or gold standard on thousands of people, while phase IV trials monitor the effectiveness and adverse effects of drugs and vaccines on the market.

      Stages of Drug Development

      Drug development is a complex process that involves several stages before a drug can be approved for marketing. The process begins with Phase 1, which involves small studies on healthy volunteers to assess the pharmacodynamics and pharmacokinetics of the drug. This phase typically involves around 100 participants.

      Phase 2 follows, which involves small studies on actual patients to examine the drug’s efficacy and adverse effects. This phase typically involves between 100-300 patients.

      Phase 3 is the largest phase and involves larger studies of between 500-5,000 patients. This phase examines the drug’s efficacy and adverse effects and may compare it with existing treatments. Special groups such as the elderly or those with renal issues may also be studied during this phase.

      If the drug is shown to be safe and effective, it may be approved for marketing. However, Phase 4, also known as post-marketing surveillance, is still necessary. This phase involves monitoring the drug’s safety and effectiveness in a larger population over a longer period of time.

      In summary, drug development involves several stages, each with its own specific purpose and participant size. The process is rigorous to ensure that drugs are safe and effective before they are marketed to the public.

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  • Question 100 - In a study of 26,000 males, 1,500 subjects were found to have either...

    Incorrect

    • In a study of 26,000 males, 1,500 subjects were found to have either overt or subclinical hypothyroidism.

      The risk of demonstrating either overt or subclinical hypothyroidism was therefore 5.77%.

      What is the most appropriate term to describe the 1,500 cases of hypothyroidism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prevalence

      Explanation:

      Understanding Prevalence and Incidence

      Prevalence and incidence are two important concepts in epidemiology that help us understand the occurrence of a disorder in a population. Prevalence refers to the rate of a disorder in a specified population at a specified time. This means that it tells us how many people in a population have the disorder at a given point in time. On the other hand, incidence refers to the number of new cases of a disorder developing over a specific time. This means that it tells us how many new cases of the disorder have developed in a population over a certain period of time. Understanding these two concepts is crucial for healthcare professionals and researchers to identify the burden of a disorder in a population and to develop effective prevention and treatment strategies.

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  • Question 101 - A new blood test is created to screen for breast cancer. Studies have...

    Incorrect

    • A new blood test is created to screen for breast cancer. Studies have revealed that it has a sensitivity of 75% for detecting clinically significant breast cancer and a specificity of 65%. What is the likelihood ratio for a positive test result?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2

      Explanation:

      The formula for the likelihood ratio of a positive test result is sensitivity divided by one minus specificity. In this case, the calculation is 0.8 divided by 0.4, which equals 2.

      Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.

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  • Question 102 - In a primary prevention study of stroke comparing a new antihypertensive with conventional...

    Incorrect

    • In a primary prevention study of stroke comparing a new antihypertensive with conventional antihypertensive therapy, the number of patients who had a stroke over the study period was 200 in group 1 with the new therapy (n = 5200) versus 250 with conventional therapy (n = 4750).

      What would be the approximate odds ratio for the new therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.72

      Explanation:

      Understanding Odds Ratio in Studies

      In studies, odds ratio is used to identify factors that cause harm. It is the ratio of the odds of the outcome in two groups. To calculate the odds ratio, you need to know the number of positive and negative cases in both groups. The formula for odds ratio is (a/c) / (b/d), where a is the number of positive cases in the first group, b is the number of positive cases in the second group, c is the number of negative cases in the first group, and d is the number of negative cases in the second group.

      For instance, if you want to calculate the odds ratio for strokes in two groups, you need to know the number of strokes in both groups and the number of people without strokes. Once you have this information, you can use the formula to calculate the odds ratio. If the odds ratio is greater than one, it means that the factor being studied is associated with harm. Understanding odds ratio is important in interpreting study results and making informed decisions.

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  • Question 103 - What approach has been demonstrated to aid in lowering the likelihood of sudden...

    Incorrect

    • What approach has been demonstrated to aid in lowering the likelihood of sudden infant death syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bottle rather than breastfeed

      Explanation:

      Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS), also known as cot death, is a condition that occurs in infants under 5 months of age, with a peak incidence between two and four months of age. The exact cause of SIDS is unknown, but research has identified key ways to reduce the risk, including placing the baby on their back to sleep, using a firm mattress, avoiding loose covers, positioning the baby’s feet to the foot of the cot, maintaining a reasonable room temperature, not sharing a bed with the baby, using a dummy when it is time to sleep, avoiding cigarette smoke, recognising and treating illness, and breastfeeding. With media campaigns based on reducing the risk of SIDS, the number of cases has significantly decreased over the years.

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  • Question 104 - You are working as a clinical research fellow. You design a case-control study...

    Incorrect

    • You are working as a clinical research fellow. You design a case-control study to investigate the association between maternal diet during pregnancy and adolescent obesity.

      What kind of bias is this study most susceptible to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Recall bias

      Explanation:

      Recall bias is a significant concern in case-control studies, particularly those conducted retrospectively. Participants may be asked to recall past exposures, leading to the risk of certain events being forgotten or over-remembered.

      Expectation bias is more likely to occur in non-blinded trials, where the observer’s cognitive biases can influence the recorded data. However, this is unlikely to be an issue in this retrospective study.

      Late look bias can arise when there is a significant delay in gathering data. For example, if data were collected when the children were in their 40s, mothers who were particularly unhealthy during pregnancy may have died, leading to underrepresentation in the study.

      Measurement bias can occur when the outcome of interest is poorly measured. In this study, for instance, measurement bias could arise if the children’s obesity status was determined based on the measurement of incorrectly calibrated scales.

      Understanding Bias in Clinical Trials

      Bias refers to the systematic favoring of one outcome over another in a clinical trial. There are various types of bias, including selection bias, recall bias, publication bias, work-up bias, expectation bias, Hawthorne effect, late-look bias, procedure bias, and lead-time bias. Selection bias occurs when individuals are assigned to groups in a way that may influence the outcome. Sampling bias, volunteer bias, and non-responder bias are subtypes of selection bias. Recall bias refers to the difference in accuracy of recollections retrieved by study participants, which may be influenced by whether they have a disorder or not. Publication bias occurs when valid studies are not published, often because they showed negative or uninteresting results. Work-up bias is an issue in studies comparing new diagnostic tests with gold standard tests, where clinicians may be reluctant to order the gold standard test unless the new test is positive. Expectation bias occurs when observers subconsciously measure or report data in a way that favors the expected study outcome. The Hawthorne effect describes a group changing its behavior due to the knowledge that it is being studied. Late-look bias occurs when information is gathered at an inappropriate time, and procedure bias occurs when subjects in different groups receive different treatment. Finally, lead-time bias occurs when two tests for a disease are compared, and the new test diagnosis the disease earlier, but there is no effect on the outcome of the disease. Understanding these types of bias is crucial in designing and interpreting clinical trials.

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  • Question 105 - A study is evaluating a new screening tool for prostate cancer. A total...

    Incorrect

    • A study is evaluating a new screening tool for prostate cancer. A total of 500 participants are enrolled in the study. Among all participants, 180 were diagnosed with prostate cancer through biopsy, but 8 of them had received a negative screening result. Among participants without prostate cancer, 70 were falsely screened positive.

      What is the positive likelihood ratio of this new screening tool?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4.2

      Explanation:

      The likelihood ratio for a positive test result can be calculated using the sensitivity and specificity of the test. The sensitivity is the probability of a positive test in individuals with the disease, while the specificity is the probability of a negative test in individuals without the disease. The formula for the positive likelihood ratio is sensitivity divided by (1 minus specificity). To calculate the values, a 2*2 table is used with the number of true positives (TP), false positives (FP), false negatives (FN), and true negatives (TN). In the given example, the sensitivity is 0.95 and the specificity is 0.776, resulting in a positive likelihood ratio of 4.17.

      Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.

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  • Question 106 - Which one of the following best describes the characteristics of a negatively skewed...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following best describes the characteristics of a negatively skewed distribution?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mean < median < mode

      Explanation:

      Understanding Skewed Distributions

      Skewed distributions are a common occurrence in statistics, and they can be classified into two types: positively skewed and negatively skewed. A normal distribution, also known as a Gaussian distribution, is a type of distribution where the mean, median, and mode are all equal. However, in a positively skewed distribution, the mean is greater than the median, which is greater than the mode. Conversely, in a negatively skewed distribution, the mean is less than the median, which is less than the mode.

      To remember the order of the mean, median, and mode in each type of distribution, one can use the alphabetical order. The positive skew is represented by mean > median > mode, while the negative skew is represented by mean < median < mode.

      Understanding skewed distributions is important in data analysis, as it can affect the interpretation of results and the choice of statistical tests. By recognizing the type of distribution, one can choose the appropriate measures of central tendency and dispersion, and apply the appropriate statistical tests to draw valid conclusions.

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  • Question 107 - In a trial of statin therapy in the secondary prevention of ischaemic heart...

    Incorrect

    • In a trial of statin therapy in the secondary prevention of ischaemic heart disease among elderly patients, therapy is shown to reduce cardiovascular mortality from 12% to 8% over the five years duration of the study.

      In comparison with standard therapy, what is the number of elderly patients that needs to be treated to prevent one death over five years?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 25

      Explanation:

      Reduction in Post-Myocardial Infarction Mortality

      The drug has been found to decrease the risk of death after a myocardial infarction by 4% over a period of five years. This means that if 100 individuals were treated with the drug, we could expect to prevent four deaths. In other words, for every 25 people treated with the drug, we could prevent one death. This reduction in mortality is significant and highlights the potential benefits of this drug in improving patient outcomes following a heart attack.

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  • Question 108 - A pharmaceutical company is seeking participants for a clinical trial of a new...

    Incorrect

    • A pharmaceutical company is seeking participants for a clinical trial of a new drug treatment for Ulcerative colitis. They aim to enroll approximately 1000 individuals with the condition to determine if the drug is more effective than the current treatment in reducing disease activity.

      What stage of the clinical trial process does this treatment fall under?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phase 3

      Explanation:

      Phase 3 trials involve conducting larger studies on real patients to compare the effectiveness of a new treatment with the existing treatment options. These studies typically involve more than 1000 patients and aim to determine the efficacy of the new treatment in comparison to the licensed treatment for the same condition.

      Stages of Drug Development

      Drug development is a complex process that involves several stages before a drug can be approved for marketing. The process begins with Phase 1, which involves small studies on healthy volunteers to assess the pharmacodynamics and pharmacokinetics of the drug. This phase typically involves around 100 participants.

      Phase 2 follows, which involves small studies on actual patients to examine the drug’s efficacy and adverse effects. This phase typically involves between 100-300 patients.

      Phase 3 is the largest phase and involves larger studies of between 500-5,000 patients. This phase examines the drug’s efficacy and adverse effects and may compare it with existing treatments. Special groups such as the elderly or those with renal issues may also be studied during this phase.

      If the drug is shown to be safe and effective, it may be approved for marketing. However, Phase 4, also known as post-marketing surveillance, is still necessary. This phase involves monitoring the drug’s safety and effectiveness in a larger population over a longer period of time.

      In summary, drug development involves several stages, each with its own specific purpose and participant size. The process is rigorous to ensure that drugs are safe and effective before they are marketed to the public.

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  • Question 109 - The cardiology department is attempting to establish the most effective medication for treating...

    Incorrect

    • The cardiology department is attempting to establish the most effective medication for treating hypertension in patients over the age of 60. They conduct a study to compare the rate of blood pressure reduction in a group of patients (Group A) given medication A versus a group (Group B) given medication B. The systolic blood pressure readings of patients in both groups are recorded.

      What is the most appropriate statistical test to determine if there is a significant difference in the effectiveness of the two medications?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chi-squared test

      Explanation:

      The appropriate statistical test to compare the percentage of wound infections developing in groups A and B is the Chi-squared test. This test is used to compare proportions or percentages and is non-parametric. The Mann-Whitney U test, Student’s t-test (paired and unpaired), and Wilcoxon signed-rank test are not appropriate for this scenario as they either measure different types of data or require normally distributed data.

      Types of Significance Tests

      Significance tests are used to determine whether the results of a study are statistically significant or simply due to chance. The type of significance test used depends on the type of data being analyzed. Parametric tests are used for data that can be measured and are usually normally distributed, while non-parametric tests are used for data that cannot be measured in this way.

      Parametric tests include the Student’s t-test, which can be paired or unpaired, and Pearson’s product-moment coefficient, which is used for correlation analysis. Non-parametric tests include the Mann-Whitney U test, which compares ordinal, interval, or ratio scales of unpaired data, and the Wilcoxon signed-rank test, which compares two sets of observations on a single sample. The chi-squared test is used to compare proportions or percentages, while Spearman and Kendall rank are used for correlation analysis.

      It is important to choose the appropriate significance test for the type of data being analyzed in order to obtain accurate and reliable results. By understanding the different types of significance tests available, researchers can make informed decisions about which test to use for their particular study.

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  • Question 110 - A 55-year-old man with type 2 diabetes comes to the clinic. His fasting...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with type 2 diabetes comes to the clinic. His fasting blood glucose levels range from 7-10, and his HbA1c result is 64 mmol/mol (normal range 20-42) despite following a diabetic diet and exercising regularly. He has a body mass index of 30. What is the most suitable treatment to initiate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metformin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for suboptimal Glucose Control in Type 2 Diabetes

      This patient with type 2 diabetes is at risk of micro- and macrovascular complications due to suboptimal glucose control, as evidenced by an HbA1c of greater than 48 mmol/mol despite lifestyle intervention. The initial treatment of choice is metformin, which aims to achieve a HbA1c of less than 48 mmol/mol. Metformin reduces insulin resistance and cardiovascular risk, as demonstrated in the UKPDS study.

      If metformin is inappropriate, DPPIV inhibitors such as sitagliptin may be considered. These medications achieve glycaemic control without significant weight gain and do not promote hypoglycaemia. Pioglitazone or an SU may also be used as alternative treatment options where metformin is contraindicated or not tolerated. It is important to reach target HbA1c levels to reduce the risk of complications associated with type 2 diabetes.

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  • Question 111 - A 62-year-old man, whose wife had a TIA one month ago, shows you...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man, whose wife had a TIA one month ago, shows you a newspaper article titled 'new super drug prevents stroke'. As you read through the article together, it states that a recent clinical trial has revealed a lipid-lowering therapy for stroke with a number needed to treat (NNT) of 20 for the prevention of the primary end-point. How would you explain these findings to him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: For 1000 patients treated with active therapy, there would be 50 fewer strokes

      Explanation:

      According to this stroke prevention study, one event can be prevented by treating 20 patients.

      Therefore, treating 1000 patients would result in 50 fewer strokes.

      NNT is a measure used in epidemiology that indicates the number of patients who need to be treated to prevent one adverse outcome within a specific time frame. A perfect NNT would be 1, indicating that all patients improve with treatment. The higher the NNT, the less effective the treatment is considered to be.

      Numbers needed to treat (NNT) is a measure that determines how many patients need to receive a particular intervention to reduce the expected number of outcomes by one. To calculate NNT, you divide 1 by the absolute risk reduction (ARR) and round up to the nearest whole number. ARR can be calculated by finding the absolute difference between the control event rate (CER) and the experimental event rate (EER). There are two ways to calculate ARR, depending on whether the outcome of the study is desirable or undesirable. If the outcome is undesirable, then ARR equals CER minus EER. If the outcome is desirable, then ARR is equal to EER minus CER. It is important to note that ARR may also be referred to as absolute benefit increase.

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  • Question 112 - You are working in an area with 65% adult flu vaccine uptake. There...

    Incorrect

    • You are working in an area with 65% adult flu vaccine uptake. There has been an outbreak of influenza in the local community. The regional public health body wants to investigate the incident further and identify the most likely events which spread the disease.

      What study design is most appropriate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Case-control study

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate study design for investigating an infectious outbreak is a case-control study. This is because it allows for a retrospective comparison of groups, such as those who attended an indoor trampolining event versus a family picnic, to determine the increased odds of contracting the disease, such as measles. Cohort studies are not suitable as they are prospective, while this study requires a retrospective approach. Cross-sectional surveys provide a snapshot of the disease prevalence but do not provide strong evidence links like a case-control study. Meta-analyses are not appropriate as they pool data from multiple studies, while this study aims to investigate something for the first time in a local population.

      There are different types of studies that researchers can use to investigate various phenomena. One of the most rigorous types of study is the randomised controlled trial, where participants are randomly assigned to either an intervention or control group. However, practical or ethical issues may limit the use of this type of study. Another type of study is the cohort study, which is observational and prospective. Researchers select two or more groups based on their exposure to a particular agent and follow them up to see how many develop a disease or other outcome. The usual outcome measure is the relative risk. Examples of cohort studies include the Framingham Heart Study.

      On the other hand, case-control studies are observational and retrospective. Researchers identify patients with a particular condition (cases) and match them with controls. Data is then collected on past exposure to a possible causal agent for the condition. The usual outcome measure is the odds ratio. Case-control studies are inexpensive and produce quick results, making them useful for studying rare conditions. However, they are prone to confounding. Lastly, cross-sectional surveys provide a snapshot of a population and are sometimes called prevalence studies. They provide weak evidence of cause and effect.

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  • Question 113 - A study on depression is criticized for producing results that do not generalize...

    Incorrect

    • A study on depression is criticized for producing results that do not generalize to elderly patient populations. This test can be said to have poor:

      External validity
      54%

      Predictive validity
      16%

      Construct validity
      9%

      Divergent validity
      14%

      Face validity
      8%

      Good external validity means that the results of a study generalize well to other populations, including the elderly.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: External validity

      Explanation:

      When a study has good external validity, its findings can be applied to other populations with confidence.

      Validity refers to how accurately something measures what it claims to measure. There are two main types of validity: internal and external. Internal validity refers to the confidence we have in the cause and effect relationship in a study. This means we are confident that the independent variable caused the observed change in the dependent variable, rather than other factors. There are several threats to internal validity, such as poor control of extraneous variables and loss of participants over time. External validity refers to the degree to which the conclusions of a study can be applied to other people, places, and times. Threats to external validity include the representativeness of the sample and the artificiality of the research setting. There are also other types of validity, such as face validity and content validity, which refer to the general impression and full content of a test, respectively. Criterion validity compares tests, while construct validity measures the extent to which a test measures the construct it aims to.

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  • Question 114 - A study was conducted to evaluate the effectiveness of a new autoantibody test...

    Incorrect

    • A study was conducted to evaluate the effectiveness of a new autoantibody test for detecting suspected Hashimoto's disease in individuals over the age of 50. The test was administered to 1000 participants who reported fatigue, and all test results were compared to FNA biopsy results, which served as the gold standard for diagnosing Hashimoto's disease. The table below shows the results:

      Antibody +ve Antibody -ve Total
      Hashimoto's disease confirmed at FNA 35 15 50
      No evidence of disease at FNA 30 920 950

      What is the approximate sensitivity of the autoantibody test for detecting Hashimoto's disease in individuals over the age of 50?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 70%

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sensitivity in Medical Testing

      Sensitivity is a crucial measure of a medical test’s ability to identify individuals with a particular condition. It is calculated as the proportion of true positives correctly identified by the test. For instance, if 50 individuals have Hashimoto’s disease according to the gold standard test of biopsy, and 35 of these are identified by the antibody test, the sensitivity of the test is 70%. This means that the test correctly identified 35 out of 50 true positives, while 15 were falsely identified as negative. In other words, sensitivity is the ability of a test to detect the presence of a condition in those who have it. Understanding sensitivity is essential in evaluating the accuracy and reliability of medical tests.

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  • Question 115 - A test that seems to assess its intended purpose upon initial examination is...

    Incorrect

    • A test that seems to assess its intended purpose upon initial examination is referred to as having which of the following qualities?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Good face validity

      Explanation:

      A test that seems to measure what it is intended to measure has strong face validity.

      Validity refers to how accurately something measures what it claims to measure. There are two main types of validity: internal and external. Internal validity refers to the confidence we have in the cause and effect relationship in a study. This means we are confident that the independent variable caused the observed change in the dependent variable, rather than other factors. There are several threats to internal validity, such as poor control of extraneous variables and loss of participants over time. External validity refers to the degree to which the conclusions of a study can be applied to other people, places, and times. Threats to external validity include the representativeness of the sample and the artificiality of the research setting. There are also other types of validity, such as face validity and content validity, which refer to the general impression and full content of a test, respectively. Criterion validity compares tests, while construct validity measures the extent to which a test measures the construct it aims to.

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  • Question 116 - A new medication aimed at preventing outbreaks of shingles is being tested in...

    Incorrect

    • A new medication aimed at preventing outbreaks of shingles is being tested in clinical trials. One hundred participants are administered the new medication. Over a three-month period, 10 of the participants experience a shingles outbreak. Meanwhile, in the control group, 300 participants are given a placebo. During the same time frame, 50 individuals in the control group experience a shingles outbreak. What is the relative risk of experiencing a shingles outbreak while taking the new medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.6

      Explanation:

      The experimental event rate (EER) is calculated as 10 events out of 100, resulting in a rate of 0.10. The control event rate (CER) is calculated as 50 events out of 300, resulting in a rate of 0.166. The relative risk is then calculated as the ratio of EER to CER, which is 0.6.

      Understanding Relative Risk in Clinical Trials

      Relative risk (RR) is a measure used in clinical trials to compare the risk of an event occurring in the experimental group to the risk in the control group. It is calculated by dividing the experimental event rate (EER) by the control event rate (CER). If the resulting ratio is greater than 1, it means that the event is more likely to occur in the experimental group than in the control group. Conversely, if the ratio is less than 1, the event is less likely to occur in the experimental group.

      To calculate the relative risk reduction (RRR) or relative risk increase (RRI), the absolute risk change is divided by the control event rate. This provides a percentage that indicates the magnitude of the difference between the two groups. Understanding relative risk is important in evaluating the effectiveness of interventions and treatments in clinical trials. By comparing the risk of an event in the experimental group to the control group, researchers can determine whether the intervention is beneficial or not.

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  • Question 117 - A case-control study is being designed to investigate the association between hypertension and...

    Incorrect

    • A case-control study is being designed to investigate the association between hypertension and a new medication. What is the typical outcome measure in a case-control study?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Odds ratio

      Explanation:

      The odds ratio is typically the outcome measure in a case-control study.

      There are different types of studies that researchers can use to investigate various phenomena. One of the most rigorous types of study is the randomised controlled trial, where participants are randomly assigned to either an intervention or control group. However, practical or ethical issues may limit the use of this type of study. Another type of study is the cohort study, which is observational and prospective. Researchers select two or more groups based on their exposure to a particular agent and follow them up to see how many develop a disease or other outcome. The usual outcome measure is the relative risk. Examples of cohort studies include the Framingham Heart Study.

      On the other hand, case-control studies are observational and retrospective. Researchers identify patients with a particular condition (cases) and match them with controls. Data is then collected on past exposure to a possible causal agent for the condition. The usual outcome measure is the odds ratio. Case-control studies are inexpensive and produce quick results, making them useful for studying rare conditions. However, they are prone to confounding. Lastly, cross-sectional surveys provide a snapshot of a population and are sometimes called prevalence studies. They provide weak evidence of cause and effect.

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  • Question 118 - To assess a new diagnostic test, 300 patients aged 50 and above are...

    Incorrect

    • To assess a new diagnostic test, 300 patients aged 50 and above are evaluated using both the new test and the current gold-standard test for diagnosis.

      The new test is observed to have a sensitivity of 80%, specificity of 60%, a positive predictive value of 66.7% and a negative predictive value of 75%.

      What is the positive likelihood ratio of the test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2

      Explanation:

      To calculate the positive likelihood ratio, divide the sensitivity by 1 minus the specificity. For this scenario, the positive likelihood ratio is 2, which is obtained by dividing 0.8 by 0.4 (1 minus 0.6).

      Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.

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  • Question 119 - What is the absolute risk reduction of stroke in elderly subjects receiving aspirin...

    Incorrect

    • What is the absolute risk reduction of stroke in elderly subjects receiving aspirin compared to those not receiving aspirin, and what is the number needed to treat to prevent one stroke?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 50

      Explanation:

      Understanding Number Needed to Treat

      Number needed to treat (NNT) is a statistical measure used in medical research to estimate the number of patients who need to receive a particular treatment in order to prevent a specific outcome. For instance, if two out of every 100 patients are prevented from having a stroke by taking aspirin, then the NNT would be 50. This means that 50 patients would need to be treated with aspirin in order to prevent one stroke.

      NNT is an important tool for healthcare professionals as it helps them to determine the effectiveness of a treatment and make informed decisions about patient care. It is also useful for patients as it provides a clear understanding of the potential benefits and risks associated with a particular treatment. By knowing the NNT, patients can make informed decisions about their healthcare and work with their healthcare provider to choose the best treatment option for their individual needs.

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  • Question 120 - What is the term used to describe a worldwide flu outbreak? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe a worldwide flu outbreak?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pandemic

      Explanation:

      Key Terms in Epidemiology

      Epidemiology is the study of the distribution and determinants of health and disease in populations. In this field, there are several key terms that are important to understand. An epidemic, also known as an outbreak, occurs when there is an increase in the number of cases of a disease above what is expected in a given population over a specific time period. On the other hand, an endemic refers to the usual or expected level of disease in a particular population. Finally, a pandemic is a type of epidemic that affects a large number of people across multiple countries, continents, or regions. Understanding these terms is crucial for epidemiologists to identify and respond to disease outbreaks and pandemics.

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  • Question 121 - A disease is discovered to have a standard mortality ratio of 140 in...

    Incorrect

    • A disease is discovered to have a standard mortality ratio of 140 in a surveyed population. Is it accurate to say that the disease is more fatal in this age group?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: There were 40% more fatalities from the disease in this population compared to the reference population

      Explanation:

      There were a higher number of deaths in the sample population than what was anticipated.

      Understanding the Standardised Mortality Ratio

      The standardised mortality ratio (SMR) is a useful tool for comparing mortality rates across different populations. It takes into account confounding factors such as age and sex, which can affect mortality rates. The SMR is calculated by dividing the observed deaths by the expected deaths, sometimes multiplied by 100.

      An SMR of 100 or 1 indicates that the mortality rate in the population being studied is the same as the standard population. If the SMR is greater than 100, it suggests a higher than expected mortality rate. The SMR is a valuable tool for researchers and policymakers to identify populations with higher mortality rates and to develop interventions to address the underlying causes. By understanding the SMR, we can better understand mortality rates and work towards improving health outcomes for all populations.

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  • Question 122 - An intercalating medical student conducts a retrospective cohort study examining the association between...

    Incorrect

    • An intercalating medical student conducts a retrospective cohort study examining the association between socioeconomic status and mortality in elderly medical inpatients. The study finds there to be no association and the student's supervisor therefore suggests that the study should not be published because clinicians would not be interested in the result.

      What is the name given to this form of bias?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Publication bias

      Explanation:

      When evaluating research articles, it is crucial to be aware of various biases and assess whether they have been minimized. If an article exhibits bias, its results may not be reliable. Some types of bias include response bias, where those who participate in a study may not accurately represent the population; observer bias, where the outcome may be influenced by the observer’s subjectivity; publication bias, where studies with negative findings are less likely to be published; and recall bias, where patients may more easily remember exposures they believe are linked to the outcome.

      Detecting Publication Bias with Funnel Plots

      Publication bias is a common issue in research where only studies with positive results are published, leading to biased overall results. To detect publication bias, graphical methods such as funnel plots and Galbraith plots can be used.

      Among these methods, the funnel plot is the most commonly used and important for exams. A funnel plot is a scatter graph used to check for publication bias in systematic reviews and meta-analyses. It provides a visual representation of the weight of published literature, ensuring that all studies are evenly represented.

      An asymmetrical, inverted funnel shape in a funnel plot indicates that publication bias is unlikely. However, an asymmetrical funnel shape indicates a relationship between treatment effect and study size, suggesting either publication bias or a systematic difference between smaller and larger studies known as small study effects. Therefore, funnel plots are a valuable tool for detecting publication bias and ensuring unbiased research results.

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  • Question 123 - A researcher is conducting a meta-analysis of randomised controlled trials into the use...

    Incorrect

    • A researcher is conducting a meta-analysis of randomised controlled trials into the use of a new drug for the treatment of Alzheimer's disease. The studies compare the use of the drug and standard care against a placebo and standard care.

      She has plotted the studies on an axis with the treatment effect (change in cognitive function score) on the horizontal axis and the standard error of the effect estimate on the vertical axis.

      What type of plot has been created?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Funnel plot

      Explanation:

      Funnel plots are used in meta-analyses to show the potential for publication bias. They display effect size on the horizontal axis and a measure of the studies’ standard error on the vertical axis. A symmetrical funnel plot indicates a lack of publication bias, while an asymmetric plot may suggest bias or heterogeneity. The interpretation of funnel plots is described in a BMJ paper by Sterne et al. Box plots, forest plots, histograms, and normal Q-Q plots are other types of plots used in statistical analysis.

      Understanding Funnel Plots in Meta-Analyses

      Funnel plots are graphical representations used to identify publication bias in meta-analyses. These plots typically display treatment effects on the horizontal axis and study size on the vertical axis. The shape of the funnel plot can provide insight into the presence of publication bias. A symmetrical, inverted funnel shape suggests that publication bias is unlikely. On the other hand, an asymmetrical funnel shape indicates a relationship between treatment effect and study size, which may be due to publication bias or systematic differences between smaller and larger studies (known as small study effects).

      In summary, funnel plots are a useful tool for identifying potential publication bias in meta-analyses. By examining the shape of the plot, researchers can gain insight into the relationship between treatment effect and study size, and determine whether further investigation is necessary to ensure the validity of their findings.

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  • Question 124 - You are in the early stages of the audit process and are examining...

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    • You are in the early stages of the audit process and are examining existing evidence. You come across the following types of research:
      A Cohort study
      B Cross-sectional study
      C Ecological study
      D Longitudinal study
      E Randomized controlled trial
      Which of the following accurately arranges study types from least to most robust in terms of the evidence they offer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: C B A E D

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Hierarchy of Evidence in Medicine

      Evidence-based medicine is a crucial aspect of modern medical practice. To test hypotheses related to medical interventions, various study types are used, and the findings are then applied to real-life consultations. However, not all study types provide the same level of robustness in terms of evidence.

      The hierarchy of evidence is important as it enables us to interpret the conclusions of a study critically. The least robust evidence is provided by case reports, followed by case-control studies, expert committee reports, randomized control trials, and meta-analyses, which provide the most robust evidence.

      Medical guidelines that we follow in daily practice may be based on evidence from all or some of these study types. Even if a guideline is based solely on an expert committee report, it may be the best approach until more robust analysis is carried out. Understanding the hierarchy of evidence is essential for medical professionals to make informed decisions and provide the best possible care for their patients.

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  • Question 125 - A small study examines the age of patients diagnosed with hypertension. A total...

    Incorrect

    • A small study examines the age of patients diagnosed with hypertension. A total of 64 patients were analyzed. The average age was 55 years, with a standard deviation of 8 years. What is the standard error of the mean?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1.5

      Explanation:

      The formula to calculate the standard error of the mean is to divide the standard deviation by the square root of the number of patients. For example, if the standard deviation is 12 and there are 64 patients, the standard error of the mean would be 12 divided by the square root of 64, which equals 1.5.

      Understanding Confidence Interval and Standard Error of the Mean

      The confidence interval is a widely used concept in medical statistics, but it can be confusing to understand. In simple terms, it is a range of values that is likely to contain the true effect of an intervention. The likelihood of the true effect lying within the confidence interval is determined by the confidence level, which is the specified probability of including the true value of the variable. For instance, a 95% confidence interval means that the range of values should contain the true effect of intervention 95% of the time.

      To calculate the confidence interval, we use the standard error of the mean (SEM), which measures the spread expected for the mean of the observations. The SEM is calculated by dividing the standard deviation (SD) by the square root of the sample size (n). As the sample size increases, the SEM gets smaller, indicating a more accurate sample mean from the true population mean.

      A 95% confidence interval is calculated by subtracting and adding 1.96 times the SEM from the mean value. However, if the sample size is small (n < 100), a 'Student's T critical value' look-up table should be used instead of 1.96. Similarly, if a different confidence level is required, such as 90%, the value used in the formula should be adjusted accordingly. In summary, the confidence interval is a range of values that is likely to contain the true effect of an intervention, and its calculation involves using the standard error of the mean. Understanding these concepts is crucial in interpreting statistical results in medical research.

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  • Question 126 - You record the age of all of your students in your class. You...

    Incorrect

    • You record the age of all of your students in your class. You discover that your data set is skewed. Which of the following would you use to describe the average age of your students?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Median

      Explanation:

      If the data set is quantitative and on a ratio scale, the mean is typically the best measure of central tendency. However, if the data is skewed, the median may be a better choice as it is less affected by the skewness of the data.

      Understanding Measures of Central Tendency

      Measures of central tendency are used in descriptive statistics to simplify data and provide a typical or middle value of a data set. There are three measures of central tendency: the mean, median, and mode. The median is the middle item in a data set arranged in numerical order and is not affected by outliers. The mode is the most frequent item in a data set, and there may be two or more modes in some data sets. The mean is calculated by adding all the items of a data set together and dividing by the number of items. However, unlike the median or mode, the mean is sensitive to outliers and skewed data.

      The appropriate method of summarizing the middle or typical value of a data set depends on the measurement scale. For categorical and nominal data, the mode is the appropriate measure of central tendency. For ordinal data, the median or mode is used. For interval data with a normal distribution, the mean is preferable, but the median or mode can also be used. For interval data with skewed data, the median is the appropriate measure of central tendency. For ratio data, the mean is preferable for normal distribution, but the median or mode can also be used. For skewed ratio data, the median is the appropriate measure of central tendency. Understanding measures of central tendency is essential in analyzing and interpreting data.

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  • Question 127 - A survey is conducted to determine the satisfaction level of customers with the...

    Incorrect

    • A survey is conducted to determine the satisfaction level of customers with the new online ordering system, rating it out of 10. The scores obtained are: 9, 5, 3, 8, 7, 6, 4, 9. What is the median score?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 6.5

      Explanation:

      Understanding Descriptive Statistics

      Descriptive statistics are a set of tools used to summarize and describe data. One of the most commonly used descriptive statistics is the mean, which is the average of a series of observed values. Another important statistic is the median, which is the middle value when a series of observed values are placed in order. The mode is the value that occurs most frequently within a dataset. Finally, the range is the difference between the largest and smallest observed value.

      In summary, descriptive statistics provide a way to understand and communicate important information about a dataset. By calculating the mean, median, mode, and range, researchers can gain insights into the central tendency and variability of their data. These statistics can be used to identify patterns, trends, and outliers, and can help researchers make informed decisions based on their findings.

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  • Question 128 - A 42-year-old man is currently waiting for the results of his recent HIV...

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    • A 42-year-old man is currently waiting for the results of his recent HIV test. The test has a specificity of 99.6%. What can be said about this test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 99.6% of patients without HIV are tested negative

      Explanation:

      The sensitivity of 99.6 suggests that almost all patients with HIV are tested positive.

      Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.

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  • Question 129 - Which statements accurately describe an intention to treat analysis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statements accurately describe an intention to treat analysis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is a study comparing the effects of treatment with placebo or active treatment and also a similar group of non-study participants

      Explanation:

      Intention to Treat Studies

      When conducting a randomised study, the principles of double-blind placebo control may apply, but the preferential fall out of patients who do not perceive a benefit from the placebo may introduce bias. Intention to treat studies argue that all patients who originally participate in the study should be committed to analysis. This approach maintains treatment groups that are similar apart from random variation, which is the reason for randomisation. Failure to perform analysis on the groups produced by the randomisation process may result in the loss of this feature. Additionally, intention to treat studies permit non-compliance and deviations from policy by clinicians. By committing all patients to analysis, intention to treat studies provide a more accurate representation of the effectiveness of a treatment.

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  • Question 130 - Which of the following is not a recognized approach used in qualitative research?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a recognized approach used in qualitative research?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Census survey

      Explanation:

      Quantitative research involves the use of surveys as a method.

      Analytical Approaches in Qualitative Research

      Analytical approaches are an essential part of qualitative research, which aims to understand the meaning and experience dimensions of human lives and social worlds. Content analysis is a common method used in healthcare research, where interviews are transcribed to produce texts that can be used to generate coding categories and test theories. This involves counting word frequencies, sometimes aided by computer software. Another approach is constant comparison, which is based on grounded theory. It allows researchers to identify important themes in a systematic way, providing an audit trail as they proceed. The method involves developing concepts from the data by coding and analyzing at the same time.

      Assessing validity is also crucial in qualitative research. Triangulation compares the results from different methods of data collection or data sources. Respondent validation, or member checking, involves comparing the investigator’s account with those of the research subjects to establish the level of correspondence between the two sets. Bracketing is a methodological device of phenomenological inquiry that requires putting aside one’s own beliefs about the phenomenon under investigation or what one already knows about the subject prior to and throughout the phenomenological investigation. Reflexivity means sensitivity to the ways in which the researcher and the research process have shaped the collected data, including the role of prior assumptions and experience, which can influence even the most avowedly inductive inquiries.

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  • Question 131 - A medical research team is comparing the existing diagnostic scanning method for breast...

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    • A medical research team is comparing the existing diagnostic scanning method for breast cancer with a new type of scan. This research has taken place over a number of years. Currently, patients are scanned once symptoms develop and the mean survival time is 2 years from the point of diagnosis. The new scan allows for the detection of breast cancer by screening high-risk patients before symptoms develop. With this new scan, breast cancer is diagnosed 2 years before symptoms develop and overall survival time from diagnosis is 3 years.

      What bias is this an example of?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lead-time bias

      Explanation:

      The scenario described above exemplifies lead-time bias, which occurs when two tests for a disease are compared and the newer test diagnosis the disease earlier, but there is no actual effect on the outcome of the disease. In this case, regardless of the test used, patients survive for a year after the emergence of symptoms. It is important to note that this is distinct from the Hawthorne effect, which refers to a group changing its behavior due to being studied, and late-look bias, which involves gathering information at an inappropriate time. Additionally, publication bias, which involves the failure to publish results from valid studies, is not relevant to the scenario described.

      Understanding Bias in Clinical Trials

      Bias refers to the systematic favoring of one outcome over another in a clinical trial. There are various types of bias, including selection bias, recall bias, publication bias, work-up bias, expectation bias, Hawthorne effect, late-look bias, procedure bias, and lead-time bias. Selection bias occurs when individuals are assigned to groups in a way that may influence the outcome. Sampling bias, volunteer bias, and non-responder bias are subtypes of selection bias. Recall bias refers to the difference in accuracy of recollections retrieved by study participants, which may be influenced by whether they have a disorder or not. Publication bias occurs when valid studies are not published, often because they showed negative or uninteresting results. Work-up bias is an issue in studies comparing new diagnostic tests with gold standard tests, where clinicians may be reluctant to order the gold standard test unless the new test is positive. Expectation bias occurs when observers subconsciously measure or report data in a way that favors the expected study outcome. The Hawthorne effect describes a group changing its behavior due to the knowledge that it is being studied. Late-look bias occurs when information is gathered at an inappropriate time, and procedure bias occurs when subjects in different groups receive different treatment. Finally, lead-time bias occurs when two tests for a disease are compared, and the new test diagnosis the disease earlier, but there is no effect on the outcome of the disease. Understanding these types of bias is crucial in designing and interpreting clinical trials.

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  • Question 132 - A new on-the-spot test is developed to test for the presence of Alzheimer's...

    Incorrect

    • A new on-the-spot test is developed to test for the presence of Alzheimer's disease in the blood. The results of the blood test were compared with that of brain imaging in 1000 participants, and are shown below.
      Brain Imaging Positive
      Brain Imaging Negative
      Blood Test Positive 60 5
      Blood Test Negative 40 895
      A company would like to use the blood test to identify employees that are safe to handle sensitive information. They are particularly interested in the likelihood of an employee being free of Alzheimer's disease when they provide a negative blood test result. What is the negative predictive value of the blood test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 95.75%

      Explanation:

      Negative Predictive Value (NPV): The probability that subjects with a negative test result truly do not have the disease.

      NPV=True Negatives/(True Negatives+False Negatives)

      Given the data, we have:

      • True Negatives (TN): The number of participants with a negative blood test who also had a negative brain imaging result. From the table, this is 895.
      • False Negatives (FN): The number of participants with a negative blood test who actually had a positive brain imaging result. From the table, this is 40.

      Calculation

      Now, substitute the values into the NPV formula:

      NPV=895/(895+40)

      Calculate the denominator:

      895+40=935

      Then calculate the NPV:

      NPV=895/935≈0.9575

      Convert this to a percentage:

      NPV≈95.75%

      Conclusion

      The negative predictive value (NPV) of the blood test is approximately 95.75%. This means that if an employee tests negative on the blood test, there is a 95.75% chance that they truly do not have Alzheimer’s disease, making the test quite reliable for identifying employees who are free of the disease.

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  • Question 133 - A new type of blood test is being studied that may accurately detect...

    Incorrect

    • A new type of blood test is being studied that may accurately detect the presence of a certain disease in elderly patients. One hundred and fifty patients who have the disease confirmed via the gold standard, a specific medical test, are recruited, along with one hundred and fifty patients who do not have the disease. They are all subjected to the new blood test and the results are as follows:

      Disease present on medical test Disease absent on medical test
      Blood test positive 90 30
      Blood test negative 60 120

      What is the positive predictive value?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.75

      Explanation:

      The positive predictive value (PPV) is calculated by dividing the number of true positives by the total number of positive results. In this case, the total number of positive blood tests is 120, with 90 true positives. Therefore, the PPV is 0.75.
      The sensitivity of the test is the proportion of patients with the condition who have a positive test result. In this scenario, out of the 150 people with the disease identified on CTPA, 90 have a positive blood result, resulting in a sensitivity of 0.6.
      The negative predictive value (NPV) is the proportion of true negative results out of all negative results. In this case, there are 180 negative blood results, with 120 being truly negative as per the disease being absent on CTPA. Therefore, the NPV is 0.67.
      The figure of 0.7 is not relevant to this scenario.

      Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.

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  • Question 134 - Can you rearrange the following types of research studies in their correct order...

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    • Can you rearrange the following types of research studies in their correct order according to their level of evidence, starting with the highest level on the left and ending with the lowest level on the right: systematic review of RCTs, RCTs, cohort, case-control, cross-sectional, case-series? Take your time and try to recall the hierarchy.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Systematic review of RCTs, RCTs, cohort, case-control, cross-sectional, case-series

      Explanation:

      Levels and Grades of Evidence in Evidence-Based Medicine

      In order to evaluate the quality of evidence in evidence-based medicine, levels or grades are often used to organize the evidence. Traditional hierarchies placed systematic reviews or randomized control trials at the top and case-series/report at the bottom. However, this approach is overly simplistic as certain research questions cannot be answered using RCTs. To address this, the Oxford Centre for Evidence-Based Medicine introduced their 2011 Levels of Evidence system which separates the type of study questions and gives a hierarchy for each. On the other hand, the GRADE system is a grading approach that classifies the quality of evidence as high, moderate, low, or very low. The process begins by formulating a study question and identifying specific outcomes. Outcomes are then graded as critical or important, and the evidence is gathered and criteria are used to grade the evidence. Evidence can be promoted or downgraded based on certain circumstances. The use of levels and grades of evidence helps to evaluate the quality of evidence and make informed decisions in evidence-based medicine.

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  • Question 135 - A case-control study is conducted to investigate the effectiveness of Ibuprofen in reducing...

    Incorrect

    • A case-control study is conducted to investigate the effectiveness of Ibuprofen in reducing confirmed arthritis pain compared to a placebo. A marker of 50% or more improvement in a patient's symptoms measured on a numerical scale is considered significant. The following table displays the results of the study:

      Total number of patients Achieved 50% improvement
      Ibuprofen 180 90
      Placebo 200 40

      What is the relative risk of Ibuprofen achieving a 50% improvement in arthritis symptoms in this study?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2.5

      Explanation:

      To calculate the relative risk (RR), we need to determine the event rates in both the experiment group (EER) and the control group (CER). The EER is the number of patients who experience a specific event in the experiment group divided by the total number of patients in that group. Similarly, the CER is the number of patients who experience the same event in the control group divided by the total number of patients in that group. The RR is then calculated by dividing the EER by the CER. For example, in this study, the EER is the number of patients who achieve significant symptom relief after taking ibuprofen, while the CER is the number of patients who achieve the same relief after taking a placebo.

      Understanding Relative Risk in Clinical Trials

      Relative risk (RR) is a measure used in clinical trials to compare the risk of an event occurring in the experimental group to the risk in the control group. It is calculated by dividing the experimental event rate (EER) by the control event rate (CER). If the resulting ratio is greater than 1, it means that the event is more likely to occur in the experimental group than in the control group. Conversely, if the ratio is less than 1, the event is less likely to occur in the experimental group.

      To calculate the relative risk reduction (RRR) or relative risk increase (RRI), the absolute risk change is divided by the control event rate. This provides a percentage that indicates the magnitude of the difference between the two groups. Understanding relative risk is important in evaluating the effectiveness of interventions and treatments in clinical trials. By comparing the risk of an event in the experimental group to the control group, researchers can determine whether the intervention is beneficial or not.

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  • Question 136 - A new blood test is developed to detect pulmonary embolisms (PEs) in elderly...

    Incorrect

    • A new blood test is developed to detect pulmonary embolisms (PEs) in elderly patients with covid-19. A study compares its performance with the current gold standard for diagnosis, CT pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) scanning. A total of 250 elderly patients with covid-19 undergo CTPA scanning. Amongst those, 50 patients are identified as having PEs on CTPA scans and are subsequently tested using the new blood test. Of these, 40 have a positive test, and 10 have a negative test. Of the 200 covid-19 patients who did not have a PE demonstrated on CTPA scanning, 180 have a negative blood test, and 20 have a positive blood test. What is the sensitivity of the new test based on the given results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 80%

      Explanation:

      To determine the sensitivity of the new blood test for detecting pulmonary embolisms (PEs), we need to calculate the proportion of true positive results among all actual positive cases identified by the CTPA scans.

      Definitions

      • Sensitivity: The probability that the test correctly identifies patients with the disease (true positives) among all patients who actually have the disease.

        Sensitivity=True Positives/(True Positives+False Negatives)

      Data from the Study

      • Total patients with PE on CTPA (True Condition Positive): 50 patients
      • True Positives (TP): Patients with PE who tested positive on the blood test: 40
      • False Negatives (FN): Patients with PE who tested negative on the blood test: 10

      Calculation of Sensitivity

      Using the formula for sensitivity:

      Sensitivity=True Positives/(True Positives+False Negatives)

      Sensitivity=40/(40+10)

      Sensitivity=40/50

      Sensitivity=0.8

      Sensitivity=0.8×100=80%

      Conclusion

      The sensitivity of the new blood test for detecting pulmonary embolisms in elderly patients with covid-19 is 80%. This means that the test correctly identifies 80% of patients who have a pulmonary embolism, according to the CTPA results.

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  • Question 137 - A study is designed to compare the cholesterol levels of males and females...

    Incorrect

    • A study is designed to compare the cholesterol levels of males and females who have hypertension. The researchers aim to determine if there is a significant difference between the mean cholesterol level in males and females. It is known from previous studies that the cholesterol levels follow a normal distribution. Which statistical test would be the most suitable to use?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Student's unpaired t-test

      Explanation:

      An unpaired t-test is the most suitable test to use since the data is parametric and involves comparing two independent samples from the identical population.

      Types of Significance Tests

      Significance tests are used to determine whether the results of a study are statistically significant or simply due to chance. The type of significance test used depends on the type of data being analyzed. Parametric tests are used for data that can be measured and are usually normally distributed, while non-parametric tests are used for data that cannot be measured in this way.

      Parametric tests include the Student’s t-test, which can be paired or unpaired, and Pearson’s product-moment coefficient, which is used for correlation analysis. Non-parametric tests include the Mann-Whitney U test, which compares ordinal, interval, or ratio scales of unpaired data, and the Wilcoxon signed-rank test, which compares two sets of observations on a single sample. The chi-squared test is used to compare proportions or percentages, while Spearman and Kendall rank are used for correlation analysis.

      It is important to choose the appropriate significance test for the type of data being analyzed in order to obtain accurate and reliable results. By understanding the different types of significance tests available, researchers can make informed decisions about which test to use for their particular study.

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  • Question 138 - A randomised controlled trial publishes its data and includes all participants in the...

    Incorrect

    • A randomised controlled trial publishes its data and includes all participants in the final analysis dependent on their initial randomisation to a certain age group. Even participants who deviate from the study protocol and drop out are included in the final analysis as part of the data set for their original age group allocation. What is the name given to this analytical method?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intention to treat

      Explanation:

      Common Clinical Trial Terms

      Intention to treat is a method used in clinical trials where all subjects assigned to a specific treatment group are included in the final analysis, regardless of what happens to them during the trial period. This approach aims to reduce bias and provide a more realistic representation of treatment effect. In contrast, per-protocol analysis only includes results from subjects who completed the study according to the protocol, excluding those who dropped out for any reason.

      Crossover studies involve patients starting in one group and then crossing over to the other group at a predetermined point. This allows for comparison of the effects of different treatments within the same group of patients. Double-blind studies are designed so that neither the patient nor the clinician knows which group the patient is in, reducing the potential for bias in the results. Inclusion criteria refer to the set of conditions that must be met for a subject to be eligible for the study. Understanding these common clinical trial terms is essential for interpreting and evaluating the results of clinical research.

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  • Question 139 - The standardised mortality ratio for a group of elderly patients with antisocial personality...

    Incorrect

    • The standardised mortality ratio for a group of elderly patients with antisocial personality disorder is 120 (95% CI 90-130). How should this result be interpreted?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The result is not statistically significant

      Explanation:

      The statistical significance of the result is questionable since the confidence interval encompasses values below 100. This implies that there is a possibility that the actual value could be lower than 100, contradicting the observed value of 120 that indicates a rise in mortality within this group.

      Understanding the Standardised Mortality Ratio

      The standardised mortality ratio (SMR) is a useful tool for comparing mortality rates across different populations. It takes into account confounding factors such as age and sex, which can affect mortality rates. The SMR is calculated by dividing the observed deaths by the expected deaths, sometimes multiplied by 100.

      An SMR of 100 or 1 indicates that the mortality rate in the population being studied is the same as the standard population. If the SMR is greater than 100, it suggests a higher than expected mortality rate. The SMR is a valuable tool for researchers and policymakers to identify populations with higher mortality rates and to develop interventions to address the underlying causes. By understanding the SMR, we can better understand mortality rates and work towards improving health outcomes for all populations.

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  • Question 140 - A 54-year-old businessman has just registered with your practice and has asked the...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old businessman has just registered with your practice and has asked the receptionists for an appointment to discuss prevention of cardiovascular disease.

      He was generally well but had suffered a myocardial infarction six months ago whilst on business in South Africa. He was diagnosed with diabetes three years ago and is on diet control alone.

      He had an eight year history of hypertension with a blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg. He was obese with a BMI of 34 kg/m2.

      Investigations reveal:

      Total cholesterol 5.0 mmol/L (<5.2)

      Which would be the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add a statin (HMG coA reductase inhibitor)

      Explanation:

      Secondary Prevention Scenario: Managing a Type 2 Diabetic with Cardiovascular Disease

      Firstly, it is important to recognize that this scenario involves secondary prevention. Evidence from trials such as the MRC/BHF Heart Protection Study has shown the benefits of lowering cholesterol in Type 2 diabetics with cardiovascular disease, regardless of their initial total cholesterol levels. Similarly, studies like CARE have demonstrated the advantages of maintaining cholesterol levels below 6 mmol/L in secondary prevention.

      As this patient is likely to be hypertensive, it would be appropriate to initiate antihypertensive therapy if their blood pressure remains elevated. The decision regarding insulin therapy would depend on their HbA1c levels, with metformin being the initial treatment of choice to improve insulin resistance.

      It is important to note that there is no significant benefit from using 300 mg over 75 mg of aspirin in these patients, and the higher dose may lead to more side effects. Additionally, there is no evidence to support improved life expectancy with Xenical.

      In summary, managing a Type 2 diabetic with cardiovascular disease in a secondary prevention scenario involves lowering cholesterol levels, initiating antihypertensive therapy if necessary, and considering insulin therapy based on HbA1c levels. It is important to carefully consider the risks and benefits of medications such as aspirin and Xenical.

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  • Question 141 - A psychologist wants to evaluate the effectiveness of cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) in...

    Incorrect

    • A psychologist wants to evaluate the effectiveness of cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) in reducing symptoms of anxiety in a group of 50 patients. She administers an anxiety questionnaire to the patients before starting the therapy and records their scores. After six months of CBT, she repeats the questionnaire to see if there is any change in anxiety levels. The differences in anxiety scores before and after therapy are not normally distributed.

      What statistical analysis should she use to analyze her findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wilcoxon signed-rank test

      Explanation:

      The appropriate statistical test for analyzing non-parametric data before and after an intervention, such as the psychiatrist’s collection of PHQ-9 scores, is the Wilcoxon signed-rank test. This is because the data is not normally distributed and the paired student’s t-test cannot be used. The unpaired student’s t-test is not appropriate for paired data sets, while the Mann-Whitney U test is useful for comparing unpaired sets of non-parametric data.

      Types of Significance Tests

      Significance tests are used to determine whether the results of a study are statistically significant or simply due to chance. The type of significance test used depends on the type of data being analyzed. Parametric tests are used for data that can be measured and are usually normally distributed, while non-parametric tests are used for data that cannot be measured in this way.

      Parametric tests include the Student’s t-test, which can be paired or unpaired, and Pearson’s product-moment coefficient, which is used for correlation analysis. Non-parametric tests include the Mann-Whitney U test, which compares ordinal, interval, or ratio scales of unpaired data, and the Wilcoxon signed-rank test, which compares two sets of observations on a single sample. The chi-squared test is used to compare proportions or percentages, while Spearman and Kendall rank are used for correlation analysis.

      It is important to choose the appropriate significance test for the type of data being analyzed in order to obtain accurate and reliable results. By understanding the different types of significance tests available, researchers can make informed decisions about which test to use for their particular study.

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  • Question 142 - Which of the following tests involves a comparison of within-group variance and between-group...

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    • Which of the following tests involves a comparison of within-group variance and between-group variance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ANOVA

      Explanation:

      Understanding ANOVA: A Statistical Test for Comparing Multiple Group Means

      ANOVA is a statistical test used to determine if there are significant differences between the means of multiple groups. Unlike the t-test, which only compares two means, ANOVA can compare more than two means. However, ANOVA assumes that the variable being tested is normally distributed. If this assumption is not met, nonparametric tests such as the Kruskal-Wallis analysis of ranks, the Median test, Friedman’s two-way analysis of variance, and Cochran Q test can be used instead.

      The ANOVA test works by comparing the variance of the means. It distinguishes between within-group variance, which is the variance of the sample mean, and between-group variance, which is the variance between the separate sample means. The null hypothesis assumes that the variance of all the means is the same, and that within-group variance is the same as between-group variance. The test is based on the ratio of these two variances, which is known as the F statistic.

      In summary, ANOVA is a useful statistical test for comparing multiple group means. However, it is important to ensure that the variable being tested is normally distributed. If this assumption is not met, nonparametric tests can be used instead.

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  • Question 143 - You are consulted by a 50-year-old man with type 2 diabetes diagnosed for...

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    • You are consulted by a 50-year-old man with type 2 diabetes diagnosed for one year.

      His blood pressure is 156/88 mmHg, his cholesterol is 5.3 mmol/L (<5.2), he has a BMI of 29 kg/m2 and doesn't smoke. His HbA1c is 63 mmol/mol (20-42), he currently takes only metformin 500 mg bd.

      What is the single intervention most likely to reduce his overall risk of both microvascular and macrovascular events?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antihypertensive therapy

      Explanation:

      Management of Micro and Macrovascular Complications in Diabetes

      Trials have shown that antihypertensive therapy is effective in reducing the risk of cardiovascular events and microvascular complications in patients with diabetes. However, the intensity of treatment is currently under debate. Lowering HbA1c only results in a significant reduction in microvascular events, and in some trials, after a longer period, it shows cardiovascular benefit. However, the trial showed an excess of deaths in the intensive glycaemic control arm, perhaps because the intensification occurred later in the course of the disease when cardiovascular disease was present, putting participants at increased risk from hypoglycemia.

      Lipid-lowering therapy benefits patients with diabetes as much as those without diabetes in preventing macrovascular events in subgroup analyses but has no effect on microvascular events demonstrated so far. Adding fibrate may have an effect on retinopathy (FIELDS). The jury is out on aspirin as the ADA recommends prescribing only to high-risk patients, but NICE had recommended all normotensive patients over 50 (men) or 60 (women), they now also agree with risk stratification.

      Weight reduction may reduce progression to overt diabetes from states of impaired glucose tolerance but has not been demonstrated to reduce microvascular risk in diabetes. The best evidence for reducing both micro and macrovascular complications is multifactorial intensive therapy, as in the Steno studies from Denmark. However, in this question, as worded, BP is the simplest answer.

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  • Question 144 - A 42-year-old male has recently been diagnosed with prostate cancer and is considering...

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    • A 42-year-old male has recently been diagnosed with prostate cancer and is considering a new chemotherapeutic agent that is currently in a trial phase. However, there are concerns that the drug may increase the risk of developing thrombocytopenia. The patient wants to know his risk of developing thrombocytopenia if he decides to take this new drug.

      In a randomized study of age and sex-matched prostate cancer patients, 245 patients out of 800 patients who were taking the new agent did not develop thrombocytopenia. In the 1,500 patients who did not take the new agent, 1,100 developed thrombocytopenia.

      What is the relative risk of developing thrombocytopenia following treatment with this new chemotherapeutic agent?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1.3

      Explanation:

      The relative risk is the ratio of the proportion of individuals who develop the disease in the exposed group compared to those who develop the disease in the non-exposed group. In this case, the exposed group consists of 1,026 individuals and the non-exposed group consists of 2,017 individuals. Out of the exposed group, 710 individuals developed the disease, while in the non-exposed group, 1,059 individuals developed the disease.

      The calculation for the relative risk is (710/1,026)/(1,059/2,017), which equals 1.3. This means that individuals who were exposed to the new agent have a 1.3 times higher chance of developing aplastic anaemia compared to those who were not exposed.

      It is important to note that if the calculation was done as the ratio of the proportion of individuals who develop the disease in the non-exposed group compared to those who develop the disease in the exposed group, the result would be the reciprocal of the relative risk. Additionally, calculating the odds ratio would provide a different measure of the association between exposure and disease outcome.

      Understanding Relative Risk in Clinical Trials

      Relative risk (RR) is a measure used in clinical trials to compare the risk of an event occurring in the experimental group to the risk in the control group. It is calculated by dividing the experimental event rate (EER) by the control event rate (CER). If the resulting ratio is greater than 1, it means that the event is more likely to occur in the experimental group than in the control group. Conversely, if the ratio is less than 1, the event is less likely to occur in the experimental group.

      To calculate the relative risk reduction (RRR) or relative risk increase (RRI), the absolute risk change is divided by the control event rate. This provides a percentage that indicates the magnitude of the difference between the two groups. Understanding relative risk is important in evaluating the effectiveness of interventions and treatments in clinical trials. By comparing the risk of an event in the experimental group to the control group, researchers can determine whether the intervention is beneficial or not.

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  • Question 145 - A randomised double-blind placebo controlled study of a cholesterol-lowering drug for the primary...

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    • A randomised double-blind placebo controlled study of a cholesterol-lowering drug for the primary prevention of coronary heart disease was conducted. It had a five-year follow up period.
      The results showed an absolute risk of myocardial infarction (MI), in the group receiving placebo, was 10 per cent. The relative risk reduction of those given the cholesterol lowering medication was 0.8.
      Approximately what number of patients will need to be treated with the drug for ten years to prevent one myocardial infarction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 13

      Explanation:

      Understanding Number Needed to Treat (NNT)

      Number needed to treat (NNT) is a calculation used to determine how many patients need to be treated with a particular intervention to prevent one adverse outcome. To calculate NNT, you need to know the absolute risk of the adverse outcome in the control group, as well as the relative risk reduction achieved with the intervention.

      For example, if the absolute risk of myocardial infarction (MI) in a control group is 10%, and the relative risk reduction achieved with a cholesterol-lowering agent is 80%, then the NNT can be calculated as follows:

      – The absolute risk reduction (ARR) is 0.80 x 0.10 = 0.08
      – The NNT is 1/ARR = 1/0.08 = 12.5, which is rounded up to 13

      Alternatively, you can work with real numbers to understand the concept of NNT. For instance, if a group of 100 patients is treated with the cholesterol-lowering agent, there would be a reduction in MI events by 80% (of 10 patients) = 8 patients. The number of patients suffering an MI in the treatment group would therefore be 10 – 8 = 2 patients. This means that treating 100 patients with the new drug would result in eight fewer MIs, and the NNT would be 100/8 = 12.5 patients.

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  • Question 146 - Which of the following techniques is used in qualitative research to assess validity?...

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    • Which of the following techniques is used in qualitative research to assess validity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Triangulation

      Explanation:

      Subdividing participant data into smaller groups, known as subgroup analyses, is often used to compare and contrast different subsets. These subgroups can be based on various factors, such as gender or location, and may be used to explore inconsistent findings or to address specific research questions related to patient demographics, interventions, or study types.

      Analytical Approaches in Qualitative Research

      Analytical approaches are an essential part of qualitative research, which aims to understand the meaning and experience dimensions of human lives and social worlds. Content analysis is a common method used in healthcare research, where interviews are transcribed to produce texts that can be used to generate coding categories and test theories. This involves counting word frequencies, sometimes aided by computer software. Another approach is constant comparison, which is based on grounded theory. It allows researchers to identify important themes in a systematic way, providing an audit trail as they proceed. The method involves developing concepts from the data by coding and analyzing at the same time.

      Assessing validity is also crucial in qualitative research. Triangulation compares the results from different methods of data collection or data sources. Respondent validation, or member checking, involves comparing the investigator’s account with those of the research subjects to establish the level of correspondence between the two sets. Bracketing is a methodological device of phenomenological inquiry that requires putting aside one’s own beliefs about the phenomenon under investigation or what one already knows about the subject prior to and throughout the phenomenological investigation. Reflexivity means sensitivity to the ways in which the researcher and the research process have shaped the collected data, including the role of prior assumptions and experience, which can influence even the most avowedly inductive inquiries.

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  • Question 147 - A 62-year-old retired Caucasian solicitor visits your clinic. He is overweight and leads...

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    • A 62-year-old retired Caucasian solicitor visits your clinic. He is overweight and leads a sedentary lifestyle. He has been on medication for hypertension for the past five years and is currently taking 5 mg of ramipril. Additionally, he takes 20 mg of simvastatin to manage his hypercholesterolemia. Recently, he underwent a 75 g oral glucose tolerance test which revealed impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) with a two-hour plasma glucose concentration of 9.3 mmol/L (7.8-11.0 mmol/L). The patient is curious to know his risk of developing type 2 diabetes. What information do you provide him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 33% over 6 years

      Explanation:

      Risk of Progression from IGT to Type 2 Diabetes

      Individuals with impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) are at a significant risk of developing type 2 diabetes. Studies have shown that the absolute risk of progression from IGT to type 2 diabetes is high. The Hoorn study, which followed 1342 non-diabetic Caucasian subjects, found that 33.8% of individuals with IGT progressed to type 2 diabetes over six years. This risk increased to 64.5% if individuals had both IGT and impaired fasting glycaemia (IFG). Similarly, the Vaccaro study in Italy found a similar rate of progression for individuals with IGT.

      However, there is hope for those with IGT. Intensive lifestyle changes, such as dietary modifications, regular exercise, and weight loss, have been shown to reduce the rate of progression to type 2 diabetes. It is important for individuals with IGT to take action and make these lifestyle changes to prevent the development of type 2 diabetes.

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  • Question 148 - A researcher is conducting a study into the concentration (in units/ml) of the...

    Incorrect

    • A researcher is conducting a study into the concentration (in units/ml) of the hormone cortisol in the saliva of young adults with and without a history of anxiety disorders. Cortisol levels are measured in 20 individuals with a history of anxiety disorders (the anxiety group) and in 30 age-matched individuals without a history of anxiety disorders (the control group). The researcher finds that the data from both groups follow a normal distribution.

      The researcher wants to investigate whether there is a statistically significant difference in cortisol concentration between the saliva of the anxiety group and the control group.

      What would be the most appropriate statistical test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mann-Whitney U test

      Explanation:

      The appropriate test to compare ordinal, interval, or ratio scales of unpaired data is the Mann-Whitney U test. This test is used when each observation is independent of the others, making the data unpaired. Paired sample t-test and Wilcoxon signed rank test are used for paired data, such as a ‘before’ and ‘after’ test on the same population following an intervention.

      Student’s t-test is not suitable for this scenario as it assumes that the dependent variable in each group is normally distributed, which is not the case for the carrier group in this question. In some cases, Student’s t-test can be used if the data are near-normal or a suitable transformation is applied to make them normal, but this is not mentioned in the question.

      To remember which non-parametric test to use, think of the U statistic in the Mann Whitney U test, which is used for unpaired data.

      Types of Significance Tests

      Significance tests are used to determine whether the results of a study are statistically significant or simply due to chance. The type of significance test used depends on the type of data being analyzed. Parametric tests are used for data that can be measured and are usually normally distributed, while non-parametric tests are used for data that cannot be measured in this way.

      Parametric tests include the Student’s t-test, which can be paired or unpaired, and Pearson’s product-moment coefficient, which is used for correlation analysis. Non-parametric tests include the Mann-Whitney U test, which compares ordinal, interval, or ratio scales of unpaired data, and the Wilcoxon signed-rank test, which compares two sets of observations on a single sample. The chi-squared test is used to compare proportions or percentages, while Spearman and Kendall rank are used for correlation analysis.

      It is important to choose the appropriate significance test for the type of data being analyzed in order to obtain accurate and reliable results. By understanding the different types of significance tests available, researchers can make informed decisions about which test to use for their particular study.

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  • Question 149 - A 42-year-old male presents with fever, productive cough, and difficulty breathing. During his...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old male presents with fever, productive cough, and difficulty breathing. During his workup, a urine pneumococcal antigen test is performed. According to a study, this test has a sensitivity of 68% and a specificity of 99%. What does the specificity value of 99% refer to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The proportion of patients without the condition who have a negative test result

      Explanation:

      Specificity refers to the percentage of patients who do not have the disease but test negative. A highly specific test would yield a high number of true negative results and a low rate of false positives. Sensitivity, on the other hand, refers to the percentage of patients with the disease who test positive. The negative predictive value represents the likelihood of patients without the condition receiving a negative test result, while the positive predictive value represents the opposite.

      Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.

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  • Question 150 - What is the definition of the term that refers to the proportion of...

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    • What is the definition of the term that refers to the proportion of a disease that would be eliminated in a population if its disease rate were reduced to that of the unexposed group?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Attributable proportion

      Explanation:

      Understanding Disease Rates and Relative Risk

      Disease rates are measurements used to monitor and establish causation of diseases, as well as to evaluate interventions. These rates are calculated by comparing the number of individuals with a disease to the total population. The attributable risk is a measure of the proportion of deaths in the exposed group that were caused by the exposure. It is calculated by subtracting the rate of the disease in the unexposed group from the rate in the exposed group.

      The relative risk, also known as the risk ratio, is a measure of the risk of an event relative to exposure. It is calculated by dividing the rate of the disease in the exposed group by the rate in the unexposed group. A relative risk of 1 indicates no difference between the two groups, while a relative risk of less than 1 means that the event is less likely to occur in the exposed group, and a relative risk of greater than 1 means that the event is more likely to occur in the exposed group.

      The population attributable risk is a measure of the reduction in incidence that would be observed if the population were entirely unexposed. It is calculated by multiplying the attributable risk by the prevalence of exposure in the population. The attributable proportion is the proportion of the disease that would be eliminated in a population if its disease rate were reduced to that of the unexposed group. Understanding these measures is important for evaluating the effectiveness of interventions and identifying risk factors for diseases.

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  • Question 151 - A new screening tool for lower gastrointestinal malignancies has been developed known as...

    Incorrect

    • A new screening tool for lower gastrointestinal malignancies has been developed known as the Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT). The test is hoped to be an improvement on the previous stool tests as the FIT targets human haemoglobin.

      The researchers would like to determine the specificity of the FIT test for colorectal cancer in a study involving 3000 participants aged 50 and above. All participants undergo a FIT and are subsequently evaluated with colonoscopy, which is considered the gold standard test.

      Out of the 1200 participants who tested positive on the FIT, 800 were later confirmed to have colorectal cancer on colonoscopy.

      On the other hand, out of the 1800 participants who tested negative on the FIT, 100 were later found to have colorectal cancer on colonoscopy.

      What is the specificity of the FIT test for colorectal cancer in this study?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 95%

      Explanation:

      The specificity of the test is 0.95 or 95%.

      Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.

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  • Question 152 - A contingency table is created for a new blood protein marker to screen...

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    • A contingency table is created for a new blood protein marker to screen for breast cancer in women aged between 40 and 60 years:

      Breast cancer present Breast cancer absent
      New test positive 25 30
      New test negative 20 900

      What is the positive predictive value of the new test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 19/39

      Explanation:

      The positive predictive value can be calculated by dividing the number of true positives by the sum of true positives and false positives. In this case, the positive predictive value is 19 out of 39, or approximately 0.487.

      Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.

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  • Question 153 - A 55-year-old man was admitted to hospital two weeks ago with a myocardial...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man was admitted to hospital two weeks ago with a myocardial infarction. He is now readmitted complaining of breathlessness on minimal exertion.

      He is diagnosed with left ventricular failure, and given furosemide, which produces a marked improvement. Echocardiogram shows poor left ventricular function and wall motion abnormalities.

      Which of the following drugs would be most expected to improve survival in this man?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ace inhibitors

      Explanation:

      The Benefits of Angiotensin Converting Enzyme Inhibitors in Heart Failure Management

      Studies have shown that the use of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors can increase survival rates in heart failure patients. These inhibitors work by blocking the action of angiotensin converting enzyme, which leads to a reduction in peripheral vascular resistance. This results in a decrease in left ventricular afterload, an increase in cardiac output, and a decreased tendency towards left ventricular and vascular hypertrophy. Additionally, ACE inhibitors are believed to encourage vascular remodelling. However, it is important to note that first dose hypotension may occur, particularly when diuretics are also being administered.

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  • Question 154 - In the UK, there are several screening programs for significant health concerns, such...

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    • In the UK, there are several screening programs for significant health concerns, such as prostate cancer. A new screening test for prostate cancer is being assessed in comparison to the traditional use of PSA testing. There are concerns that this test may lead to overdiagnosis and overtreatment, as it detects many cases of prostate cancer that may never cause harm.

      What type of bias is this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lead time bias

      Explanation:

      Lead-time bias occurs when a new test for a disease is compared to an older test, and the new test diagnosis the disease earlier. However, this earlier diagnosis doesn’t necessarily lead to an improvement in the outcome of the disease.

      Length time bias is a phenomenon where a disease may progress at different rates, and slower-growing or less aggressive diseases have a higher chance of being detected through screening than faster-growing or more aggressive diseases.

      Self-selection or volunteer bias occurs when people who participate in screening programs are not representative of the general population. Typically, those who participate in screening programs tend to have a higher socio-economic status and engage in other healthy lifestyle choices.

      Procedure bias is a type of bias that can occur in comparative studies. It happens when patients are treated differently based on their group allocation.

      Recall bias is a type of bias that can affect the accuracy of data collected retrospectively. For example, when examining past asbestos exposure, a patient may not be able to accurately recall the exact years they were exposed.

      Understanding Bias in Clinical Trials

      Bias refers to the systematic favoring of one outcome over another in a clinical trial. There are various types of bias, including selection bias, recall bias, publication bias, work-up bias, expectation bias, Hawthorne effect, late-look bias, procedure bias, and lead-time bias. Selection bias occurs when individuals are assigned to groups in a way that may influence the outcome. Sampling bias, volunteer bias, and non-responder bias are subtypes of selection bias. Recall bias refers to the difference in accuracy of recollections retrieved by study participants, which may be influenced by whether they have a disorder or not. Publication bias occurs when valid studies are not published, often because they showed negative or uninteresting results. Work-up bias is an issue in studies comparing new diagnostic tests with gold standard tests, where clinicians may be reluctant to order the gold standard test unless the new test is positive. Expectation bias occurs when observers subconsciously measure or report data in a way that favors the expected study outcome. The Hawthorne effect describes a group changing its behavior due to the knowledge that it is being studied. Late-look bias occurs when information is gathered at an inappropriate time, and procedure bias occurs when subjects in different groups receive different treatment. Finally, lead-time bias occurs when two tests for a disease are compared, and the new test diagnosis the disease earlier, but there is no effect on the outcome of the disease. Understanding these types of bias is crucial in designing and interpreting clinical trials.

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  • Question 155 - A medical researcher wants to investigate the quality of life of patients with...

    Incorrect

    • A medical researcher wants to investigate the quality of life of patients with lung cancer, many years after their initial diagnosis. The researcher plans to identify patients who were diagnosed at least 10 years ago and administer a questionnaire to gather information about their quality of life since the diagnosis.

      What potential bias could affect the results of this study?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Late-look bias

      Explanation:

      The gathering of information at an inappropriate time is known as late-look bias. In the given scenario, the researcher is interviewing individuals who have had lung cancer for at least 15 years, which means that many of them may have already passed away. This could result in a skewed outcome as those who are still alive may have had milder forms of cancer, leading to a better quality of life.

      Lead-time bias is not applicable in this case as it pertains to the illusion of people living longer when a new test is used for diagnosis. Procedure bias is also not relevant as it pertains to different groups receiving different treatments in a study. Publication bias is not mentioned in the scenario.

      Understanding Bias in Clinical Trials

      Bias refers to the systematic favoring of one outcome over another in a clinical trial. There are various types of bias, including selection bias, recall bias, publication bias, work-up bias, expectation bias, Hawthorne effect, late-look bias, procedure bias, and lead-time bias. Selection bias occurs when individuals are assigned to groups in a way that may influence the outcome. Sampling bias, volunteer bias, and non-responder bias are subtypes of selection bias. Recall bias refers to the difference in accuracy of recollections retrieved by study participants, which may be influenced by whether they have a disorder or not. Publication bias occurs when valid studies are not published, often because they showed negative or uninteresting results. Work-up bias is an issue in studies comparing new diagnostic tests with gold standard tests, where clinicians may be reluctant to order the gold standard test unless the new test is positive. Expectation bias occurs when observers subconsciously measure or report data in a way that favors the expected study outcome. The Hawthorne effect describes a group changing its behavior due to the knowledge that it is being studied. Late-look bias occurs when information is gathered at an inappropriate time, and procedure bias occurs when subjects in different groups receive different treatment. Finally, lead-time bias occurs when two tests for a disease are compared, and the new test diagnosis the disease earlier, but there is no effect on the outcome of the disease. Understanding these types of bias is crucial in designing and interpreting clinical trials.

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  • Question 156 - A psychology student conducts a study amongst her peers investigating the effect of...

    Incorrect

    • A psychology student conducts a study amongst her peers investigating the effect of age on memory. She found that participants over the age of 50 showed significantly worse memory performance compared to participants under the age of 50 with a significance level of p<0.05. Later on in her project, she conducts a systematic review which finds no significant effect of age on memory.

      What statistical mistake is the student likely to have made in her initial study?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type I error

      Explanation:

      In statistical hypothesis testing, a type I error occurs when the null hypothesis is rejected when it is actually true. This is also known as a false positive. For example, if a student found a significant effect of previous covid-19 infection on task performance when there actually was no effect, this would be a type I error.

      A false negative, on the other hand, is when no significant result is found when there actually is one. This is the same as a type II error. For instance, if the student found no effect of previous covid-19 infection on task performance when actually there was an effect, this would be a false negative or a type II error.

      Sampling errors can occur when there is a systematic error in recruiting research participants, resulting in a sample population that is not representative of the population to which the results will be applied. However, there is no indication that this is the case in this scenario.

      A type II error occurs when the null hypothesis is accepted when it is actually false. In this case, if the student found no effect of previous covid-19 infection on task performance when later research demonstrates there is an effect, this would be a type II error.

      Finally, a type III error is not commonly used. It occurs when the null hypothesis is rejected correctly but for the wrong reason.

      Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.

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  • Question 157 - What is the interpretation of an SMR of 125 for a particular town...

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    • What is the interpretation of an SMR of 125 for a particular town in England, with England and Wales as the comparison standard?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The town has 25% more deaths than expected if age specific death rates for England and Wales are applied to the population

      Explanation:

      Understanding Standardized Mortality Ratio (SMR)

      To compare mortality rates in different populations, we use the Standardized Mortality Ratio (SMR). This ratio compares the observed deaths in a study population to the number of deaths that would be expected if the standard population’s age-specific mortality rates were applied. The result is multiplied by 100 for convenience, but SMR is not a rate or percentage. An SMR of 100 means the study population has the same number of deaths as expected by national standards. A value less than 100 indicates fewer observed deaths than expected, while a value greater than 100 indicates more observed deaths than expected.

      The SMR is useful for comparing different towns, cities, or districts, as well as certain groups like social classes. It can also be used for serial comparisons over several years. The data used to calculate SMR is age-standardized, so it corrects for differences in age structures between populations. This means that the crude death rate, which doesn’t use age-specific data, may not necessarily be higher in the study population. Age-specific data is crucial in correcting for differences in age structures and allows for more accurate comparisons of mortality rates.

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  • Question 158 - A small-randomised control trial is conducted to examine the impact of a new...

    Incorrect

    • A small-randomised control trial is conducted to examine the impact of a new medication on the frequency of headaches in individuals aged 50 and above. Participants are randomly assigned to receive either the new medication or a placebo. The frequency of their headaches is evaluated after a two-week period using the following scale: “Never”, “Rarely”, “Sometimes”, “Often”, “Always”.

      Which statistical test is most appropriate for analyzing the findings of this study?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mann-Whitney U-test

      Explanation:

      The appropriate statistical test for comparing the ordinal data from this small-randomised control trial is the Mann-Whitney U-test. This test is used for non-parametric data from two independent groups. McNemar’s test is not appropriate as it is used for paired nominal data, while the Student’s t-tests require parametric data.

      Types of Significance Tests

      Significance tests are used to determine whether the results of a study are statistically significant or simply due to chance. The type of significance test used depends on the type of data being analyzed. Parametric tests are used for data that can be measured and are usually normally distributed, while non-parametric tests are used for data that cannot be measured in this way.

      Parametric tests include the Student’s t-test, which can be paired or unpaired, and Pearson’s product-moment coefficient, which is used for correlation analysis. Non-parametric tests include the Mann-Whitney U test, which compares ordinal, interval, or ratio scales of unpaired data, and the Wilcoxon signed-rank test, which compares two sets of observations on a single sample. The chi-squared test is used to compare proportions or percentages, while Spearman and Kendall rank are used for correlation analysis.

      It is important to choose the appropriate significance test for the type of data being analyzed in order to obtain accurate and reliable results. By understanding the different types of significance tests available, researchers can make informed decisions about which test to use for their particular study.

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  • Question 159 - What is the term for a drug that has its own effects but...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term for a drug that has its own effects but doesn't treat the condition it is prescribed for?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An active placebo

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Placebo Effect

      The placebo effect refers to the phenomenon where a patient experiences an improvement in their condition after receiving an inert substance or treatment that has no inherent pharmacological activity. This can include a sugar pill or a sham procedure that mimics a real medical intervention. The placebo effect is influenced by various factors, such as the perceived strength of the treatment, the status of the treating professional, and the patient’s expectations.

      It is important to note that the placebo effect is not the same as receiving no care, as patients who maintain contact with medical services tend to have better outcomes. The placebo response is also greater in mild illnesses and can be difficult to separate from spontaneous remission. Patients who enter randomized controlled trials (RCTs) are often acutely unwell, and their symptoms may improve regardless of the intervention.

      The placebo effect has been extensively studied in depression, where it tends to be abrupt and early in treatment, and less likely to persist compared to improvement from antidepressants. Placebo sag refers to a situation where the placebo effect is diminished with repeated use.

      Overall, the placebo effect is a complex phenomenon that is influenced by various factors and can have significant implications for medical research and treatment. Understanding the placebo effect can help healthcare professionals provide better care and improve patient outcomes.

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  • Question 160 - Regarding confounding, which of the following statements is incorrect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding confounding, which of the following statements is incorrect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: In the analytic stage of a study confounding can be controlled for by randomisation

      Explanation:

      Stratification can control for confounding in the analytic stage of a study.

      Understanding Confounding in Statistics

      Confounding is a term used in statistics to describe a situation where a variable is correlated with other variables in a study, leading to inaccurate or spurious results. For instance, in a case-control study that examines whether low-dose aspirin can prevent colorectal cancer, age could be a confounding factor if the case and control groups are not matched for age. This is because older people are more likely to take aspirin and also more likely to develop cancer. Similarly, in a study that finds a link between coffee consumption and heart disease, smoking could be a confounding factor as it is associated with both drinking coffee and heart disease.

      Confounding occurs when there is a non-random distribution of risk factors in the populations being studied. Common causes of confounding include age, sex, and social class. To control for confounding in the design stage of an experiment, randomization can be used to produce an even distribution of potential risk factors in two populations. In the analysis stage, confounding can be controlled for by stratification. Understanding confounding is crucial in ensuring that research findings are accurate and reliable.

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  • Question 161 - You are reviewing a study that is comparing a new flu vaccine against...

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing a study that is comparing a new flu vaccine against a regular vaccine currently prescribed. The study aims to determine if the new vaccine reduces the number of people getting the flu over a year. The results show 100 people got the flu out of 500 people on the regular vaccine and 50 people got the flu out of 500 people on the new vaccine.

      What is the relative risk reduction in this study?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.6

      Explanation:

      The formula for relative risk reduction is (EER – CER) / CER, where EER is the experimental event rate and CER is the control event rate. To calculate the relative risk reduction, subtract the control event rate from the experimental event rate, then divide the result by the control event rate.

      For example, if the experimental event rate is 20 out of 100 and the control event rate is 50 out of 100, the relative risk reduction would be (20/100 – 50/100) / 50/100 = 0.6.

      Understanding Relative Risk in Clinical Trials

      Relative risk (RR) is a measure used in clinical trials to compare the risk of an event occurring in the experimental group to the risk in the control group. It is calculated by dividing the experimental event rate (EER) by the control event rate (CER). If the resulting ratio is greater than 1, it means that the event is more likely to occur in the experimental group than in the control group. Conversely, if the ratio is less than 1, the event is less likely to occur in the experimental group.

      To calculate the relative risk reduction (RRR) or relative risk increase (RRI), the absolute risk change is divided by the control event rate. This provides a percentage that indicates the magnitude of the difference between the two groups. Understanding relative risk is important in evaluating the effectiveness of interventions and treatments in clinical trials. By comparing the risk of an event in the experimental group to the control group, researchers can determine whether the intervention is beneficial or not.

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  • Question 162 - A 32-year-old woman with a body mass index of 51 kg/m2 presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman with a body mass index of 51 kg/m2 presents to you seeking guidance on weight management, including the use of medication. You recently reviewed a systematic review of RCTs comparing orlistat to placebo for weight management, which included an asymmetrical funnel plot. What type of bias could this indicate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Publication bias

      Explanation:

      The failure to publish results from valid studies, particularly if they show a negative or uninteresting result, is known as publication bias. This can result in a skewed representation of the effectiveness of a treatment or intervention. To assess for publication bias, a funnel plot can be used, which plots the effect estimates from individual studies against their size or precision. If publication bias has occurred, smaller studies with no evidence of an effect may not have been published, resulting in an asymmetric appearance of the funnel plot. Other types of bias include attrition bias, performance bias, and selection bias, which refer to systematic differences in withdrawals from a study, care provided or exposure to other factors, and baseline characteristics of the groups being compared, respectively. Effective randomisation and blinding can help prevent these types of bias.

      Understanding Bias in Clinical Trials

      Bias refers to the systematic favoring of one outcome over another in a clinical trial. There are various types of bias, including selection bias, recall bias, publication bias, work-up bias, expectation bias, Hawthorne effect, late-look bias, procedure bias, and lead-time bias. Selection bias occurs when individuals are assigned to groups in a way that may influence the outcome. Sampling bias, volunteer bias, and non-responder bias are subtypes of selection bias. Recall bias refers to the difference in accuracy of recollections retrieved by study participants, which may be influenced by whether they have a disorder or not. Publication bias occurs when valid studies are not published, often because they showed negative or uninteresting results. Work-up bias is an issue in studies comparing new diagnostic tests with gold standard tests, where clinicians may be reluctant to order the gold standard test unless the new test is positive. Expectation bias occurs when observers subconsciously measure or report data in a way that favors the expected study outcome. The Hawthorne effect describes a group changing its behavior due to the knowledge that it is being studied. Late-look bias occurs when information is gathered at an inappropriate time, and procedure bias occurs when subjects in different groups receive different treatment. Finally, lead-time bias occurs when two tests for a disease are compared, and the new test diagnosis the disease earlier, but there is no effect on the outcome of the disease. Understanding these types of bias is crucial in designing and interpreting clinical trials.

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  • Question 163 - The Delphi method is utilized to assess what? ...

    Incorrect

    • The Delphi method is utilized to assess what?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Expert consensus

      Explanation:

      The Delphi Method: Achieving Convergence of Expert Opinions

      The Delphi method is a widely used technique for gathering and converging expert opinions on real-world knowledge within specific topic areas. The process typically involves three rounds of data collection, starting with an open-ended questionnaire in the first round. The collected information is then structured into a questionnaire for the second round, where participants review and rate the items. In the third round, participants revise their judgments and provide further clarifications.

      Choosing the appropriate subjects is crucial for generating high-quality results, but there is no exact criterion for selecting Delphi participants. They should be highly trained and competent in the specialized area of knowledge related to the target issue.

      However, the Delphi method also has potential issues, such as being time-consuming and potentially enabling investigators to mold opinions. Maintaining robust feedback can also be a challenge, and the expertise of Delphi panelists may be unevenly distributed. Despite these challenges, the Delphi method remains a valuable tool for achieving convergence of expert opinions.

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  • Question 164 - A 28-year-old individual seeks your guidance on mental wellness. They were interested in...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old individual seeks your guidance on mental wellness. They were interested in trying mindfulness until they stumbled upon a study that demonstrated no impact. Upon reading the study, a randomized controlled trial with only 10 participants and no mention of a power calculation, it was found that there was no difference between mindfulness and no intervention for mental well-being.

      What potential error could have taken place in this study?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type II error

      Explanation:

      Increasing the sample size can reduce the likelihood of type II error and increase the power of the study.

      Understanding the Concept of Power in Research Studies

      Power is a statistical concept that refers to the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false. In other words, it is the ability of a study to detect a clinically meaningful difference or effect. The value of power ranges from 0 to 1, with 0 indicating 0% and 1 indicating 100%. It is often expressed as 1 – beta, where beta is the probability of a Type II error. A power of 0.80 is generally considered the minimum acceptable level.

      Several factors influence the power of a study, including sample size, meaningful effect size, and significance level. Larger sample sizes lead to more accurate parameter estimations and increase the study’s ability to detect a significant effect. The meaningful effect size is determined at the beginning of the study and represents the size of the difference between two means that would lead to the rejection of the null hypothesis. Finally, the significance level, also known as the alpha level, is the probability of a Type I error. Understanding the concept of power is crucial in determining the appropriate sample size and designing a study that can accurately detect meaningful differences or effects.

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  • Question 165 - A pediatrician is presented with a report of a clinical trial for a...

    Incorrect

    • A pediatrician is presented with a report of a clinical trial for a new medication for children. The report states:

      In a comparison between the new medication and a placebo, a higher proportion of pediatric patients taking the new medication experienced relief from symptoms (p <0.05).

      What can be concluded about the study?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The result may have occurred by chance alone in less than one in 20 occasions

      Explanation:

      Understanding Statistical Significance in Medical Studies

      In medical studies, statistical significance is used to determine whether the results of a study are likely to have occurred by chance or if they are truly meaningful. The correct answer to a statistical significance test is that the result may have occurred by chance alone in less than one in 20 occasions. This means that the observed difference between the placebo and treatment groups is deemed statistically significant if the likelihood of it happening by chance is less than one in 20.

      It is important to note that statistical significance is not the same as clinical significance. A statistically significant result may not necessarily have practical clinical value if the clinical change is tiny or negligible. Therefore, it is crucial to consider both statistical and clinical significance when interpreting the results of a medical study.

      To determine whether a study was well designed, it is necessary to have the full details of the study design, including the method of subject selection, type of study, randomisation, study regime, blinding, and assessment of clinical results. Only with this information can we assess the validity and reliability of the study’s findings.

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  • Question 166 - A researcher is conducting a study that compares a new exercise program for...

    Incorrect

    • A researcher is conducting a study that compares a new exercise program for improving cognitive function in adults over 60 with existing methods. Her null hypothesis is that there is no difference between the efficacy of the new exercise program and existing cognitive function improvement methods. After collecting sufficient data, she wants to calculate the probability of finding a statistically significant difference between the efficacy of the new exercise program and the existing methods.

      Which value is this referring to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Power

      Explanation:

      The correct term for the probability of detecting a statistically significant difference is power. It is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false and can be calculated as ‘1 – probability of a type II error’. The null hypothesis value is not a specific value used in statistics, but rather a statement that two treatments are equally effective. P-value is not the correct answer as it refers to the probability of obtaining a result by chance. Type I error value is the probability of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is actually true, while a type II error is accepting the null hypothesis when it is false.

      Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.

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  • Question 167 - You review a study measuring a patient's age against their diastolic blood pressure....

    Incorrect

    • You review a study measuring a patient's age against their diastolic blood pressure. The data is normally distributed and you wish to determine the degree of correlation between these two factors.

      What is the most appropriate significance test for this study?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pearson's product-moment coefficient

      Explanation:

      For normally distributed data, the most appropriate correlation test is Pearson’s product-moment coefficient. This parametric test measures the linear correlation between two sets of data, such as BMI and systolic blood pressure. It provides a normalised measurement of the covariance, with a value between −1 and 1.

      Non-parametric tests, such as the chi-squared test, Mann-Whitney U test, and Spearman’s rank-order correlation, are more appropriate for data that is not normally distributed. The chi-squared test compares categorical data to evaluate the likelihood of any observed difference between sets arising by chance. The Mann-Whitney U test compares ordinal, interval, or ratio scales of unpaired data to determine the probability that one variable is greater than another. Spearman’s rank-order correlation measures the strength and direction of association between two ranked variables, rather than a linear relationship between two variables.

      Types of Significance Tests

      Significance tests are used to determine whether the results of a study are statistically significant or simply due to chance. The type of significance test used depends on the type of data being analyzed. Parametric tests are used for data that can be measured and are usually normally distributed, while non-parametric tests are used for data that cannot be measured in this way.

      Parametric tests include the Student’s t-test, which can be paired or unpaired, and Pearson’s product-moment coefficient, which is used for correlation analysis. Non-parametric tests include the Mann-Whitney U test, which compares ordinal, interval, or ratio scales of unpaired data, and the Wilcoxon signed-rank test, which compares two sets of observations on a single sample. The chi-squared test is used to compare proportions or percentages, while Spearman and Kendall rank are used for correlation analysis.

      It is important to choose the appropriate significance test for the type of data being analyzed in order to obtain accurate and reliable results. By understanding the different types of significance tests available, researchers can make informed decisions about which test to use for their particular study.

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  • Question 168 - A 52-year-old woman visits her GP with concerns about her risk of developing...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman visits her GP with concerns about her risk of developing osteoporosis. She underwent a hysterectomy and oophorectomy due to uterine fibroids a year ago, which was followed by mild hot flashes that have since resolved. The patient is worried about the possibility of fracture after her mother broke her hip at the age of 72. She inquires about medications for osteoporosis. Her T score is <−2.5, and her body mass index is 17.3 kg/m2. She was on Depo-Provera from the age of 39 to 45, during which time she was amenorrhoeic. The physical examination, including breast examination, is normal. What would you suggest to her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bisphosphonate

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Osteoporosis in a High-Risk Patient

      This patient has several risk factors for osteoporosis, including a low BMI, a positive family history, and oophorectomy at an appropriate menopausal age. Although she no longer experiences menopausal symptoms, she may still be at risk for severe osteoporosis if she has a T score of <−2.5 SD and one or more fragility fractures. Therefore, the most appropriate therapy for this patient would be a bisphosphonate.

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  • Question 169 - A 4-year-old boy has presented several times over a 10 day period with...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy has presented several times over a 10 day period with extreme tiredness and fevers. The GP arranges some urgent tests as he is concerned that it may be a malignancy.

      Which of the following is the most common childhood cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Leukaemia

      Explanation:

      Childhood Cancer Incidence

      Leukaemia is the most prevalent form of childhood cancer, accounting for 31% of all cases. Brain and central nervous system tumours follow closely behind at 21%, while lymphoma, neuroblastoma, and Wilms’ tumours make up 10%, 7%, and 5% respectively. It is important to understand the incidence rates of childhood cancers in order to better allocate resources for research and treatment.

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  • Question 170 - Which statistical test is appropriate for analyzing normally distributed data that is measured?...

    Incorrect

    • Which statistical test is appropriate for analyzing normally distributed data that is measured?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Student's t-test

      Explanation:

      Types of Significance Tests

      Significance tests are used to determine whether the results of a study are statistically significant or simply due to chance. The type of significance test used depends on the type of data being analyzed. Parametric tests are used for data that can be measured and are usually normally distributed, while non-parametric tests are used for data that cannot be measured in this way.

      Parametric tests include the Student’s t-test, which can be paired or unpaired, and Pearson’s product-moment coefficient, which is used for correlation analysis. Non-parametric tests include the Mann-Whitney U test, which compares ordinal, interval, or ratio scales of unpaired data, and the Wilcoxon signed-rank test, which compares two sets of observations on a single sample. The chi-squared test is used to compare proportions or percentages, while Spearman and Kendall rank are used for correlation analysis.

      It is important to choose the appropriate significance test for the type of data being analyzed in order to obtain accurate and reliable results. By understanding the different types of significance tests available, researchers can make informed decisions about which test to use for their particular study.

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  • Question 171 - The serum potassium levels of 1,000 patients who are prescribed an ACE inhibitor...

    Incorrect

    • The serum potassium levels of 1,000 patients who are prescribed an ACE inhibitor were measured. The average potassium level was found to be 4.6 mmol/l with a standard deviation of 0.3 mmol/l. What is the correct statement regarding this study?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 68.3% of values lie between 4.3 and 4.9 mmol/l

      Explanation:

      The range of values within 1 standard deviation of the mean for a normally distributed variable is 4.3 to 4.9 mmol/l.

      The normal distribution, also known as the Gaussian distribution or ‘bell-shaped’ distribution, is commonly used to describe the spread of biological and clinical measurements. It is symmetrical, meaning that the mean, mode, and median are all equal. Additionally, a large percentage of values fall within a certain range of the mean. For example, 68.3% of values lie within 1 standard deviation (SD) of the mean, 95.4% lie within 2 SD, and 99.7% lie within 3 SD. This is often reversed, so that 95% of sample values lie within 1.96 SD of the mean. The range of the mean plus or minus 1.96 SD is called the 95% confidence interval, meaning that if a repeat sample of 100 observations were taken from the same group, 95 of them would be expected to fall within that range. The standard deviation is a measure of how much dispersion exists from the mean, and is calculated as the square root of the variance.

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  • Question 172 - You have collected blood pressure data of patients given a new medication being...

    Incorrect

    • You have collected blood pressure data of patients given a new medication being tested as a treatment for hypertension. The data includes the patient's initial blood pressure reading, followed by a second measurement taken 10 minutes after administering the medication.

      Upon initial analysis, it was found that the differences between the two measurements do not conform to a normal distribution.

      What statistical test would be the most suitable to determine if there is a significant difference between the blood pressure readings before and after the administration of the new medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wilcoxon signed-rank test

      Explanation:

      The Wilcoxon signed-rank test is the most appropriate non-parametric test to use when comparing two sets of paired observations on a single sample, such as a ‘before’ and ‘after’ test on the same population following an intervention. This test ranks the differences between the values and determines whether they are likely to come from the same population. The paired sample t-test is not appropriate for non-normally distributed data, the Mann-Whitney U test is not used for paired data, and one-way ANOVA is used for comparing means of parametric data with more than two groups.

      Types of Significance Tests

      Significance tests are used to determine whether the results of a study are statistically significant or simply due to chance. The type of significance test used depends on the type of data being analyzed. Parametric tests are used for data that can be measured and are usually normally distributed, while non-parametric tests are used for data that cannot be measured in this way.

      Parametric tests include the Student’s t-test, which can be paired or unpaired, and Pearson’s product-moment coefficient, which is used for correlation analysis. Non-parametric tests include the Mann-Whitney U test, which compares ordinal, interval, or ratio scales of unpaired data, and the Wilcoxon signed-rank test, which compares two sets of observations on a single sample. The chi-squared test is used to compare proportions or percentages, while Spearman and Kendall rank are used for correlation analysis.

      It is important to choose the appropriate significance test for the type of data being analyzed in order to obtain accurate and reliable results. By understanding the different types of significance tests available, researchers can make informed decisions about which test to use for their particular study.

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  • Question 173 - A study examines whether playing golf increases the likelihood of developing medial epicondylitis....

    Incorrect

    • A study examines whether playing golf increases the likelihood of developing medial epicondylitis. Sixty individuals who frequently play golf are paired with sixty individuals who do not play golf. Out of the golfers, thirty have experienced medial epicondylitis at some point, while only ten of the non-golfers have. What is the odds ratio for developing medial epicondylitis among individuals who play golf?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5

      Explanation:

      When calculating the odds, it is important to distinguish them from the risk. For instance, the odds of a golfer developing medial epicondylitis are 1, which is obtained by dividing the number of golfers who develop the condition (30) by the number of golfers in the sample (30). If we were to calculate the risk, we would divide the number of golfers who develop the condition (30) by the total number of individuals in the sample (60), resulting in a risk of 0.5.

      Similarly, the odds of a non-golfer developing medial epicondylitis are 0.2, which is obtained by dividing the number of non-golfers who develop the condition (10) by the number of non-golfers in the sample (50). The risk, on the other hand, would be obtained by dividing the number of non-golfers who develop the condition (10) by the total number of individuals in the sample (60), resulting in a risk of 0.16.

      To calculate the odds ratio, we divide the odds of golfers developing the condition (1) by the odds of non-golfers developing the condition (0.2), resulting in an odds ratio of 5.

      Understanding Odds and Odds Ratio

      When analyzing data, it is important to understand the difference between odds and probability. Odds are a ratio of the number of people who experience a particular outcome to those who do not. On the other hand, probability is the fraction of times an event is expected to occur in many trials. While probability is always between 0 and 1, odds can be any positive number.

      In case-control studies, odds ratios are the usual reported measure. This ratio compares the odds of a particular outcome with experimental treatment to that of a control group. It is important to note that odds ratios approximate to relative risk if the outcome of interest is rare.

      For example, in a trial comparing the use of paracetamol for dysmenorrhoea compared to placebo, the odds of achieving significant pain relief with paracetamol were 2, while the odds of achieving significant pain relief with placebo were 0.5. Therefore, the odds ratio was 4.

      Understanding odds and odds ratio is crucial in interpreting data and making informed decisions. By knowing the difference between odds and probability and how to calculate odds ratios, researchers can accurately analyze and report their findings.

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  • Question 174 - A new treatment for juvenile arthritis has been developed and shown to be...

    Incorrect

    • A new treatment for juvenile arthritis has been developed and shown to be effective in animal models, plus its effects in small numbers of patients appears promising.
      However, there are some concerns with regard to possible hepatotoxicity but no cases have been observed in studies thus far.
      Which is the most appropriate next step in this drug's development?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Double blind randomised placebo controlled study

      Explanation:

      Development of a New Drug

      This new drug has successfully completed animal trials and has been tested in both human volunteers (phase 1) and patients (phase 2). The next stage in its development is a phase 3 study, which is the final stage before seeking approval from regulatory agencies. The most effective way to conduct this study would be through a randomized control study, which would provide the most reliable and unbiased results. This study design would involve randomly assigning participants to either the treatment group or a control group, allowing for a comparison of the drug’s effectiveness against a placebo or standard treatment. A successful phase 3 study would provide the necessary evidence to support the drug’s safety and efficacy, paving the way for its approval and eventual release to the market.

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  • Question 175 - A new screening test called FingerChol has been developed to diagnose hyperlipidaemia with...

    Incorrect

    • A new screening test called FingerChol has been developed to diagnose hyperlipidaemia with a point-of-care finger-prick test. To evaluate the effectiveness of the test, 200 participants aged 50 and above are screened with the FingerChol test. These patients also undergo the gold-standard test (formal lipid profile blood test) for comparison.

      The results obtained are shown in the table below:

      Hyperlipidaemic Not hyperlipidaemic
      Positive FingerChol test 60 40
      Negative FingerChol test 20 80

      What is the positive predictive value of the FingerChol test for this population?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 60%

      Explanation:

      The positive predictive value (PPV) is calculated by dividing the number of true positives by the total number of positive test results, which represents the probability of actually having the disease if the test result is positive. For example, if there are 30 true positives and 20 false positives, the PPV would be 60%.

      Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.

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  • Question 176 - A study is conducted to evaluate the efficacy of the faecal immunochemical test...

    Incorrect

    • A study is conducted to evaluate the efficacy of the faecal immunochemical test as a screening tool for bowel cancer in individuals over the age of 50. The study involves 1000 patients, and 100 of them test positive for the test. Out of these 100 patients, 60 are diagnosed with bowel cancer through colonoscopy. On the other hand, 10 patients who tested negative for the test were later found to have bowel cancer.

      What is the nearest whole number likelihood ratio for a positive test result?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 20

      Explanation:

      The likelihood ratio for a positive test result is 20. This is calculated by dividing the sensitivity (85.7%) by 1 minus the specificity (4.3%).

      Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.

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  • Question 177 - For which conditions have randomised controlled trials demonstrated that long term oxygen therapy...

    Incorrect

    • For which conditions have randomised controlled trials demonstrated that long term oxygen therapy (LTOT) decreases mortality?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Asthma

      Explanation:

      LTOT Prolongs Survival in COPD

      Adequate evidence supporting the use of long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) to prolong survival is only available for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). However, it is commonly assumed that this therapy can also be beneficial for other chronic hypoxaemic lung conditions.

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  • Question 178 - A public health doctor is studying the occurrence and frequency of hypertension in...

    Incorrect

    • A public health doctor is studying the occurrence and frequency of hypertension in the local region. In 2017, there were 100,000 people with hypertension in the area, and 1,500 new cases were reported that year. In 2018, there were 110,000 people with hypertension in the area, and 2,500 new cases were reported that year.

      What conclusions can be drawn about the occurrence and frequency of hypertension in this region?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Incidence increasing, prevalence equal

      Explanation:

      The incidence of diabetes has increased, indicating a rise in the number of new cases, while the prevalence remains unchanged as it represents the total number of existing cases.

      Understanding Incidence and Prevalence

      Incidence and prevalence are two terms used to describe the frequency of a condition in a population. The incidence refers to the number of new cases per population in a given time period, while the prevalence refers to the total number of cases per population at a particular point in time. Prevalence can be further divided into point prevalence and period prevalence, depending on the time frame used to measure it.

      To calculate prevalence, one can use the formula prevalence = incidence * duration of condition. This means that in chronic diseases, the prevalence is much greater than the incidence, while in acute diseases, the prevalence and incidence are similar. For example, the incidence of the common cold may be greater than its prevalence.

      Understanding the difference between incidence and prevalence is important in epidemiology and public health, as it helps to identify the burden of a disease in a population and inform healthcare policies and interventions. By measuring both incidence and prevalence, researchers can track the spread of a disease over time and assess the effectiveness of prevention and treatment strategies.

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  • Question 179 - A trial is conducted to evaluate the effectiveness of a new screening test...

    Incorrect

    • A trial is conducted to evaluate the effectiveness of a new screening test for detecting early signs of heart disease in a group of patients. The contingency table below shows the results of the trial:

      Heart disease present Heart disease absent
      Test positive 120 15
      Test negative 10 255

      What is the positive predictive value of the new screening test (rounded to 2 decimal places)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.98

      Explanation:

      To calculate the negative predictive value (NPV) of a test, the formula is NPV = true negative / (true negative + false negative). This represents the chance that a patient doesn’t have the condition if the test is negative. For example, if 225 patients test negative for colon cancer and do not have the condition (true negative), while 5 patients test negative but do have colon cancer (false negative), the NPV would be calculated as follows: NPV = 225 / (225 + 5) = 0.98. It is important to use the correct formula to avoid incorrect results. The positive predictive value (PPV) is calculated using the formula PPV = true positives / (true positives + false positives), which represents the chance that a patient has the condition if the test is positive.

      Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.

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  • Question 180 - An academic researcher is investigating the efficacy of a new treatment for elderly...

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    • An academic researcher is investigating the efficacy of a new treatment for elderly patients with osteoporosis. Prior to commencing her own study, she intends to conduct a meta-analysis to consolidate existing findings on the subject. As part of her meta-analysis, she must evaluate whether publication bias exists in the literature.

      What is the most effective method for the researcher to detect this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Funnel plot

      Explanation:

      The forest plot and Kaplan-Meier curve in the report are not appropriate for the data presented. The forest plot is typically used in meta-analyses to display the weight and confidence intervals of individual studies and the overall results. The Kaplan-Meier curve is commonly used to show the data of a single survival analysis study. Instead, the report should include appropriate graphs or charts that clearly display the confidence intervals for the data.

      Understanding Funnel Plots in Meta-Analyses

      Funnel plots are graphical representations used to identify publication bias in meta-analyses. These plots typically display treatment effects on the horizontal axis and study size on the vertical axis. The shape of the funnel plot can provide insight into the presence of publication bias. A symmetrical, inverted funnel shape suggests that publication bias is unlikely. On the other hand, an asymmetrical funnel shape indicates a relationship between treatment effect and study size, which may be due to publication bias or systematic differences between smaller and larger studies (known as small study effects).

      In summary, funnel plots are a useful tool for identifying potential publication bias in meta-analyses. By examining the shape of the plot, researchers can gain insight into the relationship between treatment effect and study size, and determine whether further investigation is necessary to ensure the validity of their findings.

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  • Question 181 - A researcher wants to investigate dietary variations between patients aged 50-60 years with...

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    • A researcher wants to investigate dietary variations between patients aged 50-60 years with impaired glucose tolerance (HbA1c 42-47 mmol/mol) and those without impaired glucose tolerance (HbA1c <42 mmol/mol). The participants who agree to take part are requested to maintain a food journal for two weeks. The researcher is worried that the participants' eating habits during this observed period may deviate from their regular routine, impacting the accuracy of the study.

      What is the term used to describe this phenomenon?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hawthorne effect

      Explanation:

      The Hawthorne effect refers to a situation where a group alters its behavior because it is aware of being observed. This could manifest in participants in a study eating more healthily during the observation period. A ceiling effect occurs when an independent variable no longer has an impact on a dependent variable because the maximum effect has been reached. Observer bias occurs when a researcher records information that differs from reality due to their expectations or desires. The Gibbons-Hawking effect is a theory of general relativity that may be better suited for discussion in a different forum.

      Understanding Bias in Clinical Trials

      Bias refers to the systematic favoring of one outcome over another in a clinical trial. There are various types of bias, including selection bias, recall bias, publication bias, work-up bias, expectation bias, Hawthorne effect, late-look bias, procedure bias, and lead-time bias. Selection bias occurs when individuals are assigned to groups in a way that may influence the outcome. Sampling bias, volunteer bias, and non-responder bias are subtypes of selection bias. Recall bias refers to the difference in accuracy of recollections retrieved by study participants, which may be influenced by whether they have a disorder or not. Publication bias occurs when valid studies are not published, often because they showed negative or uninteresting results. Work-up bias is an issue in studies comparing new diagnostic tests with gold standard tests, where clinicians may be reluctant to order the gold standard test unless the new test is positive. Expectation bias occurs when observers subconsciously measure or report data in a way that favors the expected study outcome. The Hawthorne effect describes a group changing its behavior due to the knowledge that it is being studied. Late-look bias occurs when information is gathered at an inappropriate time, and procedure bias occurs when subjects in different groups receive different treatment. Finally, lead-time bias occurs when two tests for a disease are compared, and the new test diagnosis the disease earlier, but there is no effect on the outcome of the disease. Understanding these types of bias is crucial in designing and interpreting clinical trials.

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  • Question 182 - A 50-year-old woman with chronic pain is undergoing evaluation. The effectiveness of pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman with chronic pain is undergoing evaluation. The effectiveness of pain management strategies is discussed with her, but she expresses doubt about the data. Upon closer examination, studies are presented that include a visual pain scale with paired data before and after non-pharmacological interventions are implemented. The data reveals a negative skew towards reduced pain levels with the use of non-pharmacological pain management techniques.

      What statistical test would be appropriate to demonstrate the efficacy of this approach in managing pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wilcoxon signed-rank test

      Explanation:

      When the data sets are not normally distributed, non-parametric tests are more suitable. This is evident in the negative skew of the data being analyzed. As there is a comparison of paired data pre- and post-intervention, a non-parametric test is necessary.

      Types of Significance Tests

      Significance tests are used to determine whether the results of a study are statistically significant or simply due to chance. The type of significance test used depends on the type of data being analyzed. Parametric tests are used for data that can be measured and are usually normally distributed, while non-parametric tests are used for data that cannot be measured in this way.

      Parametric tests include the Student’s t-test, which can be paired or unpaired, and Pearson’s product-moment coefficient, which is used for correlation analysis. Non-parametric tests include the Mann-Whitney U test, which compares ordinal, interval, or ratio scales of unpaired data, and the Wilcoxon signed-rank test, which compares two sets of observations on a single sample. The chi-squared test is used to compare proportions or percentages, while Spearman and Kendall rank are used for correlation analysis.

      It is important to choose the appropriate significance test for the type of data being analyzed in order to obtain accurate and reliable results. By understanding the different types of significance tests available, researchers can make informed decisions about which test to use for their particular study.

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  • Question 183 - You plan to investigate the effectiveness of a new asthma management programme for...

    Incorrect

    • You plan to investigate the effectiveness of a new asthma management programme for children aged 6-12 years. The programme is not implemented in all of the clinics in the region. What study design would be most suitable to determine the programme's effectiveness?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Comparing average target achievement for CV risk factors in intervention surgeries, versus target achievement over a historical period prior to introduction of the programme

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Study Designs for Type 2 Diabetes Management

      Historical controls are not suitable for evaluating the management of type 2 diabetes as targets have become more stringent over time. Additionally, it is not valid to assess an intervention without a comparator. National targets do not consider local factors such as ethnicity, deprivation, and resource provision. Therefore, the most appropriate study design is to compare the intervention’s effect in surgeries versus local controls, matched for other resources, age mix, ethnic mix, and social deprivation level.

      Cross-over trials are ideal when there is reasonable evidence that patients will benefit from the treatment, and it would be unethical to withhold it from all patients. These trials are also useful when the treatment effect can be observed quickly. By using appropriate study designs, researchers can accurately evaluate the effectiveness of type 2 diabetes management strategies.

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  • Question 184 - A pharmaceutical company approaches you to inquire if you would like to participate...

    Incorrect

    • A pharmaceutical company approaches you to inquire if you would like to participate in a study that evaluates the efficacy of a new medication for hypertension. Upon reviewing the investigator's brochure, you notice that it outlines the method for analyzing the findings.

      What is the most suitable approach to compare the treatment and control groups for a disparity, given that the study involves a different age group?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Student's t test

      Explanation:

      Statistical Tests for Comparing Means

      Blood pressure is a continuous variable that follows a normal distribution. Therefore, the most appropriate statistical test to compare the mean blood pressures between two groups is Student’s t-test. However, this test assumes that individuals in both groups are randomly distributed. ANCOVA is another statistical test that is useful when variables such as age, sex, or race may affect the treatment effectiveness. It tests for covariance between populations. Mann-Whitney U test is suitable for non-parametric data that do not follow a normal distribution. Finally, ANOVA testing is used to assess the statistical significance of the difference between means. It is essential to choose the appropriate statistical test based on the type of data and research question to obtain accurate results.

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  • Question 185 - A quick finger-prick blood test is created to aid in the detection of...

    Incorrect

    • A quick finger-prick blood test is created to aid in the detection of deep vein thrombosis. A study involving 1,000 patients is conducted to compare the test to current standard methods:

      DVT present DVT absent
      New test positive 200 100
      New test negative 20 680

      What is the new test's specificity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 680/780

      Explanation:

      Specificity = 0.872

      Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.

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  • Question 186 - A pharmaceutical representative visits the practice and discusses with you a new treatment...

    Incorrect

    • A pharmaceutical representative visits the practice and discusses with you a new treatment for osteoporosis in elderly patients.
      A recently performed randomised control trial has looked at using the new treatment in preventing vertebral fractures in patients over 70 years old. They leave you a copy of a study for you to read in more detail.

      On reading the paper, you see that there were 8,000 patients in both the treatment and control arms of the study. The number of patients sustaining a vertebral fracture in the treatment arm was 200 and the number of patients sustaining a vertebral fracture in the control arm was 250.
      What is the number needed to treat with the new drug in order to prevent one vertebral fracture in elderly patients over 70 years old?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 200

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Number Needed to Treat (NNT)

      The Number Needed to Treat (NNT) is a useful measure in determining the effectiveness of a treatment. It represents the number of patients that need to be treated to prevent one additional event, such as a disease or complication. This takes into account the absolute risk of the event, making it a clinically meaningful way of comparing different interventions.

      To calculate the NNT, we first need to determine the absolute risk reduction (ARR). This is done by subtracting the absolute risk of events in the control group from the absolute risk of events in the treatment group. For example, if 350 out of 10,000 patients in the control group sustained a vertebral fracture (3.5%), and 300 out of 10,000 patients in the treatment group sustained a vertebral fracture (3%), the ARR would be 0.5%.

      The NNT is then calculated by taking the reciprocal of the ARR. In this case, the NNT would be 1/0.5% = 200. This means that 200 patients would need to be treated with the new drug to prevent one vertebral fracture. Understanding the NNT can help clinicians make informed decisions about the most effective treatment options for their patients.

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  • Question 187 - You design a clinical trial to test a new shingles vaccine. You begin...

    Incorrect

    • You design a clinical trial to test a new shingles vaccine. You begin by collecting data on the age shingles was contracted by members of your local population. You notice this data set is positively skewed.

      What does that mean?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mean > median > mode

      Explanation:

      When data is positively skewed, the mean is greater than the median, which is also greater than the mode. Skewness refers to how much a dataset deviates from a symmetrical bell curve, which is seen in normally distributed data. In positively skewed data, the tail is longer on the positive side of the peak. This is in contrast to normally distributed data, where the median, mode, and mean are all equal. To remember the order of these values, write them in alphabetical order and use ‘>’ to indicate greater than for positively skewed data. For negatively skewed data, use ‘<' to indicate less than. The mean is the average of all the numbers, the mode is the most frequently occurring number, and the median is the middle number in a sequential list of the data. Skewed Data: Understanding the Relationship between Mean, Median, and Mode Skewness is a measure of the degree of asymmetry of a distribution. In a negatively skewed data set, the bulk of data is concentrated to the right of the figure, and the left tail is longer. Conversely, in a positively skewed data set, the bulk of data is concentrated to the left of the figure, and the right tail is longer. In such cases, the median is always positioned between the mode and the mean, as it represents the halfway point. The mode corresponds to the peak of the distribution, representing the most common value. However, the mean moves away from the median in the direction of the tail, as it is affected by extreme values or outliers. In contrast, in a normally distributed data set, a bell-shaped curve is seen that is symmetrical. In such cases, the median, mode, and mean are all equal. Understanding the relationship between mean, median, and mode is crucial in analyzing skewed data sets. For positively skewed data, the mean is greater than the median, which is greater than the mode. Conversely, for negatively skewed data, the mode is greater than the median, which is greater than the mean.

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  • Question 188 - A new test to screen for heart disease is used in 100 patients...

    Incorrect

    • A new test to screen for heart disease is used in 100 patients who present to the Cardiology Clinic. The test is positive in 30 of the 40 patients who are proven to have heart disease. Of the remaining 60 patients, only 5 have a positive test. What is the sensitivity of the new test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 75%

      Explanation:

      A contingency table was created using the given data, which is presented below:
      PE diagnosed No PE
      Test positive 30 5
      Test negative 10 55
      To calculate the sensitivity, we divide the number of true positives (30) by the sum of true positives and false negatives (10), resulting in a sensitivity of 0.75 or 75%.

      Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.

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  • Question 189 - Which one of the following statements best describes a type II statistical error?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements best describes a type II statistical error?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The null hypothesis is accepted when it is false

      Explanation:

      Type II error – the false hypothesis is not rejected when it is true.

      Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.

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  • Question 190 - What is the primary purpose of funnel plots? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary purpose of funnel plots?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Demonstrate the existence of publication bias in meta-analyses

      Explanation:

      Funnel plots are used to detect publication bias in meta-analyses.

      Understanding Funnel Plots in Meta-Analyses

      Funnel plots are graphical representations used to identify publication bias in meta-analyses. These plots typically display treatment effects on the horizontal axis and study size on the vertical axis. The shape of the funnel plot can provide insight into the presence of publication bias. A symmetrical, inverted funnel shape suggests that publication bias is unlikely. On the other hand, an asymmetrical funnel shape indicates a relationship between treatment effect and study size, which may be due to publication bias or systematic differences between smaller and larger studies (known as small study effects).

      In summary, funnel plots are a useful tool for identifying potential publication bias in meta-analyses. By examining the shape of the plot, researchers can gain insight into the relationship between treatment effect and study size, and determine whether further investigation is necessary to ensure the validity of their findings.

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