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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man with diabetes comes in for his annual check-up. He reports occasional cramping in his calf after walking about a mile on flat ground, but is otherwise feeling well. He admits to smoking five cigarettes a day. During the exam, his blood pressure is measured at 166/98 mmHg, with a pulse of 86 bpm and a BMI of 30.2. Neurological exam is normal and his fundi appear normal. However, examination of his peripheral circulation reveals absent feet pulses and weak popliteal pulses. He is started on antihypertensive therapy and his U+Es are measured over a two-week period, with the following results:
Baseline:
Sodium - 138 mmol/L
Potassium - 4.6 mmol/L
Urea - 11.1 mmol/L
Creatinine - 138 µmol/L
2 weeks later:
Sodium - 140 mmol/L
Potassium - 5.0 mmol/L
Urea - 19.5 mmol/L
Creatinine - 310 µmol/L
Which class of antihypertensives is most likely responsible for this change?Your Answer: Diuretic
Correct Answer: Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor therapy
Explanation:Renal Artery Stenosis and ACE Inhibitors
This individual with diabetes is experiencing hypertension and arteriopathy, as indicated by mild claudication symptoms and absent pulses in the feet. These factors, combined with macrovascular disease and mild renal impairment, suggest a potential diagnosis of renal artery stenosis (RAS). The introduction of an antihypertensive medication, specifically an ACE inhibitor, resulted in a decline in renal function, further supporting the possibility of RAS. In RAS, hypertension occurs due to the activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system in an attempt to maintain renal perfusion. However, ACE inhibition can lead to relative renal ischemia, exacerbating the condition. This highlights the importance of considering RAS as a potential cause of hypertension and carefully monitoring the use of ACE inhibitors in individuals with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of breathlessness, dry cough and occasional wheezing.
What investigation finding would indicate a diagnosis of asthma?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fraction exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO) 50 parts per billion (ppb)
Explanation:Diagnostic Criteria for Asthma: Key Indicators to Consider
Asthma is a chronic respiratory disease that affects millions of people worldwide. It is characterized by airway inflammation, bronchoconstriction, and increased mucous production, leading to symptoms such as wheezing, coughing, and shortness of breath. Diagnosing asthma can be challenging, as its symptoms can mimic those of other respiratory conditions. However, several key indicators can help healthcare professionals make an accurate diagnosis.
Fraction exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO) 50 parts per billion (ppb): An FeNO level > 40 ppb is indicative of asthma.
Forced expiratory volume in 1 second/forced vital capacity ratio (FEV1/FVC ratio) ≥ 75%: An obstructive FEV1/FVC ratio < 70% would support a diagnosis of asthma in this patient. A 10% or higher improvement in FEV1 following a nebulised bronchodilator: A 12% or higher improvement in FEV1 following a nebulised bronchodilator supports a diagnosis of asthma. A 150 ml or higher improvement in FEV1 following a nebulised bronchodilator: A 200 ml or higher improvement in FEV1 following a nebulised bronchodilator supports a diagnosis of asthma. Greater than 15% variability in peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) on monitoring: Greater than 20% variability in PEFR on monitoring supports a diagnosis of asthma. In conclusion, healthcare professionals should consider these key indicators when diagnosing asthma. However, it is important to note that asthma is not the only cause of these indicators, and a comprehensive evaluation of the patient’s medical history, physical examination, and other diagnostic tests may be necessary to make an accurate diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A mother brings her child to the pediatrician's office concerned about her child's development. Her child is 20 months old and has been slow to meet all developmental milestones. Her health visitor advised that she come to see you. You learn that the child has experienced feeding difficulties throughout her life.
During the examination of the child, you observe that she is drooling and is making lots of slow, writhing movements of her hands and feet. The mother tells you that this is common and that her daughter struggles to hold onto objects such as toys.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dyskinetic cerebral palsy
Explanation:The child in the stem is displaying symptoms of dyskinetic cerebral palsy, which is a subtype of cerebral palsy characterized by athetoid movements and oro-motor problems. The slow writhing movements of the child’s hands and feet and difficulty in holding objects are indicative of athetoid movements, while drooling is a sign of oro-motor problems. Ataxic cerebral palsy, Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy, and hydrocephalus are incorrect diagnoses as they do not match the symptoms presented in the stem.
Understanding Cerebral Palsy
Cerebral palsy is a condition that affects movement and posture due to damage to the motor pathways in the developing brain. It is the most common cause of major motor impairment and affects 2 in 1,000 live births. The causes of cerebral palsy can be antenatal, intrapartum, or postnatal. Antenatal causes include cerebral malformation and congenital infections such as rubella, toxoplasmosis, and CMV. Intrapartum causes include birth asphyxia or trauma, while postnatal causes include intraventricular hemorrhage, meningitis, and head trauma.
Children with cerebral palsy may exhibit abnormal tone in early infancy, delayed motor milestones, abnormal gait, and feeding difficulties. They may also have associated non-motor problems such as learning difficulties, epilepsy, squints, and hearing impairment. Cerebral palsy can be classified into spastic, dyskinetic, ataxic, or mixed types.
Managing cerebral palsy requires a multidisciplinary approach. Treatments for spasticity include oral diazepam, oral and intrathecal baclofen, botulinum toxin type A, orthopedic surgery, and selective dorsal rhizotomy. Anticonvulsants and analgesia may also be required. Understanding cerebral palsy and its management is crucial in providing appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman comes to her GP with a few months of gradual symmetrical swelling and stiffness in her fingers. She experiences more discomfort in cold weather. Additionally, she reports having more frequent episodes of 'heartburn' lately. During the examination, the doctor observes three spider naevi on her face, and her fingers appear red, slightly swollen, and shiny. The examination of her heart and lungs reveals no abnormalities. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Limited systemic sclerosis
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis for this patient is limited systemic sclerosis, also known as CREST syndrome. This subtype includes Raynaud’s phenomenon, oesophageal dysmotility, sclerodactyly, and telangiectasia, although calcinosis may not always be present. There is no evidence of systemic fibrosis, which rules out diffuse systemic sclerosis. Rheumatoid arthritis is a possible differential diagnosis, but the systemic features are more indicative of systemic sclerosis. Primary Raynaud’s phenomenon is unlikely given the suggestive symptoms of sclerotic disease.
Understanding Systemic Sclerosis
Systemic sclerosis is a condition that affects the skin and other connective tissues, but its cause is unknown. It is more common in females, with three patterns of the disease. Limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis is characterised by Raynaud’s as the first sign, affecting the face and distal limbs, and associated with anti-centromere antibodies. CREST syndrome is a subtype of limited systemic sclerosis that includes Calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, oEsophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, and Telangiectasia. Diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis affects the trunk and proximal limbs, associated with scl-70 antibodies, and has a poor prognosis. Respiratory involvement is the most common cause of death, with interstitial lung disease and pulmonary arterial hypertension being the primary complications. Renal disease and hypertension are also possible complications, and patients with renal disease should be started on an ACE inhibitor. Scleroderma without internal organ involvement is characterised by tightening and fibrosis of the skin, manifesting as plaques or linear. Antibodies such as ANA, RF, anti-scl-70, and anti-centromere are associated with different types of systemic sclerosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old woman who is 28 weeks pregnant arrives at the emergency department with painless vaginal bleeding. She had her second baby three years ago, which was delivered via a c-section, but otherwise was a normal pregnancy. Upon obstetric examination, her uterus was non-tender, however, her baby was in breech presentation. The foetal heart rate was also normal, and she denied experiencing any contractions during the bleeding episode. What is the recommended next investigation for the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Transvaginal ultrasound
Explanation:Understanding Placenta Praevia
Placenta praevia is a condition where the placenta is located wholly or partially in the lower uterine segment. It is a relatively rare condition, with only 5% of women having a low-lying placenta when scanned at 16-20 weeks gestation. However, the incidence at delivery is only 0.5%, as most placentas tend to rise away from the cervix.
There are several factors associated with placenta praevia, including multiparity, multiple pregnancy, and embryos implanting on a lower segment scar from a previous caesarean section. Clinical features of placenta praevia include shock in proportion to visible loss, no pain, a non-tender uterus, abnormal lie and presentation, and a usually normal fetal heart. Coagulation problems are rare, and small bleeds may occur before larger ones.
Diagnosis of placenta praevia should not involve digital vaginal examination before an ultrasound, as this may provoke severe haemorrhage. The condition is often picked up on routine 20-week abdominal ultrasounds, but the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommends the use of transvaginal ultrasound for improved accuracy and safety. Placenta praevia is classified into four grades, with grade IV being the most severe, where the placenta completely covers the internal os.
In summary, placenta praevia is a rare condition that can have serious consequences if not diagnosed and managed appropriately. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the associated factors and clinical features, and to use appropriate diagnostic methods for accurate grading and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman comes to the doctor complaining of muscle weakness and a rash that has been developing over the past month. Upon examination, the doctor notes symmetrical weakness in the shoulders and hips, as well as red papules on the proximal interphalangeal joints. What skin manifestation is likely being described in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gottron's papules
Explanation:The correct answer is Gottron’s papules, which are roughened red papules mainly seen over the knuckles in patients with dermatomyositis. In this case, the patient’s symmetrical proximal muscle weakness and skin involvement indicate dermatomyositis. Gottron’s papules are small violaceous papules that can also be seen on the proximal interphalangeal and metacarpophalangeal joints. While Gottron’s sign is also associated with dermatomyositis, it refers to violaceous macules over the knees and elbows and is not being described in this case. The heliotrope rash, a violaceous or dusky red rash surrounding the eye, is another highly characteristic sign of dermatomyositis, but it is not present in this case. Similarly, a malar rash, which is a butterfly-shaped rash over the cheeks and nose commonly seen in patients with SLE, is not relevant to this case.
Dermatomyositis is a condition that causes inflammation and muscle weakness, as well as distinct skin lesions. It can occur on its own or be associated with other connective tissue disorders or underlying cancers, particularly ovarian, breast, and lung cancer. Screening for cancer is often done after a diagnosis of dermatomyositis. Polymyositis is a variant of the disease that does not have prominent skin manifestations.
The skin features of dermatomyositis include a photosensitive macular rash on the back and shoulders, a heliotrope rash around the eyes, roughened red papules on the fingers’ extensor surfaces (known as Gottron’s papules), extremely dry and scaly hands with linear cracks on the fingers’ palmar and lateral aspects (known as mechanic’s hands), and nail fold capillary dilation. Other symptoms may include proximal muscle weakness with tenderness, Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease (such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia), dysphagia, and dysphonia.
Investigations for dermatomyositis typically involve testing for ANA antibodies, which are positive in around 80% of patients. Approximately 30% of patients have antibodies to aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases, including antibodies against histidine-tRNA ligase (also called Jo-1), antibodies to signal recognition particle (SRP), and anti-Mi-2 antibodies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man comes to his doctor for a regular check-up after experiencing a heart attack 6 weeks ago. During the examination, he appears unwell, sweaty, and clammy, and mentions feeling constantly feverish. His recent blood work reveals an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and anemia. What is the most probable post-heart attack complication that this man is experiencing?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dressler’s syndrome
Explanation:Complications Following Myocardial Infarction
One of the complications that can occur 2-6 weeks after a myocardial infarction (MI) is Dressler’s syndrome. This autoimmune reaction happens as the myocardium heals and can present with pyrexia, pleuritic chest pain, and an elevated ESR. Pulmonary embolism is not suggested by this presentation. Another complication is myomalacia cordis, which occurs 3-14 days post-MI and involves the softening of dead muscles leading to rupture and death. Ventricular aneurysm may also form due to weakened myocardium, resulting in persistent ST elevation and left ventricular failure. Anticoagulation is necessary to prevent thrombus formation within the aneurysm and reduce the risk of stroke. Heart failure is unlikely to cause the above presentation and blood test results.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old basketball player presents with difficulty moving after an injury during a game. He reports hearing a 'popping' sound when the incident occurred and experienced a sudden onset of severe pain in the back of his right leg.
Clinical examination showed swelling of the right calf and no movement of his right foot whilst squeezing the corresponding calf, whilst lying face down on the examining bench.
What is the most appropriate initial investigation to request for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ultrasound
Explanation:When a patient presents with symptoms and a positive Thompson’s test indicating a possible Achilles tendon rupture, ultrasound is the recommended initial imaging test. However, ultrasound may not be able to distinguish between a partial rupture and tendonitis. CRP is not useful in managing Achilles tendon ruptures as it only shows the level of inflammation in the blood. US Doppler is not necessary in this case as it is primarily used to assess peripheral arterial supply. If ultrasound is not available, MRI can be used as a confirmatory test and can differentiate between a partial rupture and tendonitis.
Achilles tendon disorders are a common cause of pain in the back of the heel. These disorders can include tendinopathy, partial tears, and complete ruptures of the Achilles tendon. Certain factors, such as the use of quinolone antibiotics and high cholesterol levels, can increase the risk of developing these disorders. Symptoms of Achilles tendinopathy typically include gradual onset of pain that worsens with activity, as well as morning stiffness. Treatment for this condition usually involves pain relief, reducing activities that exacerbate the pain, and performing calf muscle eccentric exercises.
In contrast, an Achilles tendon rupture is a more serious condition that requires immediate medical attention. This type of injury is often caused by sudden, forceful movements during sports or running. Symptoms of an Achilles tendon rupture include an audible popping sound, sudden and severe pain in the calf or ankle, and an inability to walk or continue the activity. To help diagnose an Achilles tendon rupture, doctors may use Simmond’s triad, which involves examining the foot for abnormal angles and feeling for a gap in the tendon. Ultrasound is typically the first imaging test used to confirm a diagnosis of Achilles tendon rupture. If a rupture is suspected, it is important to seek medical attention from an orthopaedic specialist as soon as possible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 9
Incorrect
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What are the typical changes in the haematogenous system during infancy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Extramedullary haematopoiesis stops
Explanation:Haematopoiesis and Immunological Development in Infancy
At birth, the liver is responsible for producing blood cells, but this process stops within the first year of life. Haematopoiesis, or the production of blood cells, can also occur outside of the bone marrow, known as Extramedullary haematopoiesis. During fetal development, the liver and spleen are responsible for haematopoiesis while the bone marrow develops. However, once the infant is born, the bone marrow takes over the production of blood cells, and haematopoiesis in the liver and spleen ceases. In some cases, such as beta-thalassaemia major, Extramedullary haematopoiesis can continue and expand to other areas of the body.
Immunoglobulin production begins after six months, with maternal IgG providing most of the antibody coverage for the first three months of life. This means that infants are most vulnerable to encapsulated bacterial infections between three and nine months of age. Lymphatic tissue mass remains relatively unchanged during infancy but increases during early childhood, which may account for the increase in viral infections experienced by children. Neutrophil production does not increase unless there is a bacterial infection present, and the total white cell count decreases during infancy. Additionally, the production of fetal haemoglobin, or HbF, decreases steadily during the first year of life as it is replaced by HbA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency department with a red rash. Her mother reports that it started behind her ears and then spread down her head and neck before spreading to the rest of her body. The mother is unsure if her daughter has received all of her vaccinations. Upon further questioning, the mother reveals that her daughter had been feeling unwell with cold-like symptoms and a low-grade fever in the week leading up to the rash.
During the examination, you observe grey/white spots in the girl's mouth and throat, indicating an infectious illness. What is the most severe complication that can arise from this illness?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
Explanation:Measles and its Complications
Measles is a highly contagious viral illness caused by an RNA paramyxovirus. Patients usually experience non-specific cold-like symptoms such as cough, fever, coryza, and conjunctivitis for a week before the appearance of a rash. Koplik spots, grey/white spots in the oral mucous membranes, are a telltale sign of the disease. Treatment is supportive, and symptoms usually resolve within one to two weeks in mild cases.
However, measles can lead to various complications, including diarrhea, vomiting, conjunctivitis, and laryngitis. Less common complications include meningitis, pneumonia, encephalitis, hepatitis, bronchitis, thrombocytopenia, and croup. Rare complications such as optic neuritis and subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) can also occur. SSPE is a fatal condition that can develop several years after the measles infection and is characterized by gradual psycho-neurological deterioration, seizures, ataxia, and coma. Fortunately, SSPE is rare, occurring in only 1 in 100,000 cases of measles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old yoga instructor presents to the General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of feeling constantly fatigued. During the consultation, she also mentions experiencing widespread, non-specific itching.
Upon examination, the GP observes generalised excoriation, but no other significant findings. Blood tests reveal an elevated alkaline phosphatase level, leading to a suspicion of primary sclerosing cholangitis.
What is the most specific symptom of primary sclerosing cholangitis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-mitochondrial antibodies
Explanation:Autoantibodies and their association with autoimmune conditions
Autoimmune conditions are characterized by the body’s immune system attacking its own tissues and organs. Autoantibodies, or antibodies that target the body’s own cells, are often present in these conditions and can be used as diagnostic markers. Here are some examples of autoantibodies and their association with specific autoimmune conditions:
1. Anti-mitochondrial antibodies (type M2) are highly specific for primary biliary cholangitis, an autoimmune condition affecting the liver.
2. Anti-smooth muscle antibodies are associated with type 1 autoimmune hepatitis, a condition in which the immune system attacks the liver.
3. Anti-liver kidney microsomal antibodies are classically associated with type 2 autoimmune hepatitis, another condition affecting the liver.
4. Anti-double-stranded DNA antibodies are associated with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), a systemic autoimmune condition that can affect multiple organs.
5. p-ANCA antibodies occur in several autoimmune conditions, including microscopic polyangiitis, eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis, and primary sclerosing cholangitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old African-American man undergoes a pre-employment health check. Chest radiograph demonstrates bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy. More detailed history and examination reveals painful red papules on both shins of recent onset. He is otherwise well. Basic blood tests are normal.
What rash does the patient have?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Erythema nodosum
Explanation:Differentiating Skin Rashes: A Comparison of Erythema Nodosum, Erythema Multiforme, Kaposi’s Sarcoma, Tinea Corporis, and Steven-Johnson’s Syndrome
Erythema nodosum is a rash characterized by painful red papules caused by inflammation of the subcutaneous fat. It is commonly seen on the extensor surfaces of the lower limbs and can be linked to various conditions such as streptococcal and tuberculous infection, inflammatory bowel disease, lymphoma, drug-related causes, and sarcoidosis.
Erythema multiforme, on the other hand, presents with typical target lesions on the extremities. It is an uncommon condition that can be mistaken for other skin rashes.
Kaposi’s sarcoma is an AIDS-defining malignancy caused by human herpes virus 8. It appears as red/purple papules on the skin or mucosal surfaces. However, the description of the rash, normal blood results, and an otherwise healthy patient make this diagnosis unlikely.
Tinea corporis, also known as ringworm, is a fungal infection transmitted from common pets or human-to-human. It presents as an erythematosus, scaly ring-like rash with central clearing.
Steven-Johnson’s syndrome is a severe form of erythema multiforme with multiple erythematosus macules on the face and trunk, epidermal detachment, and mucosal ulceration. It is a rare condition that can cause significant morbidity and mortality.
In summary, differentiating between these skin rashes is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment. A thorough evaluation of the patient’s medical history, physical examination, and laboratory tests can help identify the underlying cause of the rash.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman is being evaluated by her physician for potential issues in her hypothalamic-pituitary-thyroid axis. The following findings were noted: TSH <0.1 mu/l (0.4-4.0 mu/l), fT4 32 pmol/l (9.0-26.0 pmol/l), fT3 12 pmol/l (3.0-9.0 pmol/l). What condition is indicated by these results?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Graves’ disease
Explanation:Thyroid Disorders: Causes and Effects
Graves’ Disease: This condition is characterized by the presence of circulating thyroid hormones under the influence of thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH). The release of thyroid hormones in response to TRH causes TSH antibodies to bind to TSH receptors, leading to smooth thyroid enlargement and increased hormone production. This results in raised fT4 and fT3 levels, which act via negative feedback to reduce TSH release from the pituitary.
Early Treatment of Hyperthyroidism: In the early stages of hyperthyroidism treatment, fT4 levels normalize while TSH remains low.
Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis: This autoimmune condition is caused by autoantibodies to thyroid peroxidase and thyroglobulin, and sometimes TSH receptor-blocking antibodies. It results in goitre due to lymphocytic and plasma cell infiltration. It is common in women aged 60-70 years. Patients may be euthyroid or hypothyroid, and rarely, there is an initial period of hyperthyroidism (Hashitoxicosis).
Post-Thyroidectomy: After a thyroidectomy, without replacement therapy, fT4 levels would be low and TSH raised.
Sick Euthyroidism: Non-thyroidal illness causes a reduction in TSH, fT3, and fT4 levels, leading to sick euthyroidism.
Understanding Thyroid Disorders and Their Effects
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man visits his doctor seeking assistance in quitting smoking. He has been smoking 20 cigarettes daily for the past six years and has a history of epilepsy. Which smoking cessation aid is most likely to result in adverse effects for this individual?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bupropion
Explanation:Options for Smoking Cessation in Patients with Seizure History
Patients with a predisposition or past history of seizures should avoid bupropion due to an increased risk of seizures. The Medicines and Health products Regulatory Authority (MHRA) warns against prescribing bupropion to patients who experience seizures. However, behavioural therapy is encouraged for all patients who wish to quit smoking. E-cigarettes can be a safer alternative and may eventually help patients quit entirely, but they are not currently funded by the NHS. Nicotine replacement therapy in the form of patches or gum can also be used. Varenicline is cautioned but not contraindicated for use in patients with seizures, so it should only be used if the benefits outweigh the risk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents to gastro-enterology outpatients with worsening epigastric pain. Despite being prescribed omeprazole by his GP, he reports experiencing several episodes of blood-stained vomitus in recent weeks. An urgent OGD is performed, revealing multiple peptic ulcers. Biopsies are negative for H. pylori, but further investigations show elevated serum gastrin levels. The possibility of Zollinger–Ellison syndrome is being considered.
What is the most common location for gastrin-secreting tumors that lead to Zollinger–Ellison syndrome?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: First/second parts of duodenum
Explanation:Gastrin-Secreting Tumors: Locations and Diagnosis
Gastrin-secreting tumors, also known as gastrinomas, are rare and often associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (MEN1) syndrome. These tumors cause excessive gastrin levels, leading to high levels of acid in the stomach and multiple refractory gastric ulcers. The majority of gastrinomas are found in the head of the pancreas or proximal duodenum, with around 20-30% being malignant.
Clinical features of gastrinomas are similar to peptic ulceration, including severe epigastric pain, blood-stained vomiting, melaena, or perforation. A diagnosis of gastrinoma should prompt further work-up to exclude MEN1. The key investigation is the finding of elevated fasting serum gastrin, ideally sampled on three separate days to definitively exclude a gastrinoma.
If a gastrinoma is confirmed, tumor location is ideally assessed by endoscopic ultrasound. CT of the thorax, abdomen, and pelvis, along with OctreoScan®, are used to stage the tumor. If the tumor is localized, surgical resection is curative. Otherwise, aggressive proton pump inhibitor therapy and octreotide offer symptomatic relief.
While the vast majority of gastrinomas are found in the pancreas and duodenum, rare ectopic locations such as the kidney, heart, and liver can also occur. It is important to consider gastrinomas in the differential diagnosis of peptic ulceration and to perform appropriate diagnostic work-up to ensure prompt and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man visits his General Practitioner complaining of shortness of breath, nocturnal cough and wheezing for the past week. He reports that these symptoms began after he was accidentally exposed to a significant amount of hydrochloric acid fumes while working in a chemical laboratory. He has no prior history of respiratory issues or any other relevant medical history. He is a non-smoker.
What initial investigation may be the most useful in confirming the diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Methacholine challenge test
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Reactive Airways Dysfunction Syndrome (RADS)
Reactive Airways Dysfunction Syndrome (RADS) is a condition that presents with asthma-like symptoms after exposure to irritant gases, vapours or fumes. To diagnose RADS, several tests may be performed to exclude other pulmonary diagnoses and confirm the presence of the condition.
One of the diagnostic criteria for RADS is the absence of pre-existing respiratory conditions. Additionally, the onset of asthma symptoms should occur after a single exposure to irritants in high concentration, with symptoms appearing within 24 hours of exposure. A positive methacholine challenge test (< 8 mg/ml) following exposure and possible airflow obstruction on pulmonary function tests can also confirm the diagnosis. While a chest X-ray and full blood count may be requested to exclude other causes of symptoms, they are usually unhelpful in confirming the diagnosis of RADS. Peak flow is also not useful in diagnosis, as there is no pre-existing reading to compare values. The skin prick test may be useful in assessing reactions to common environmental allergens, but it is not helpful in diagnosing RADS as it occurs after one-off exposures. In conclusion, a combination of diagnostic tests can help confirm the diagnosis of RADS and exclude other pulmonary conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents with sudden onset of abdominal pain. She has a medical history of polycystic kidney disease and is currently taking alfacalcidol, ramipril, Renagel, and EPO injections. Her eGFR upon admission is 24 ml/min/1.73 m2. What analgesic would you recommend for her pain?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Paracetamol 1 g QDS
Explanation:Medication Considerations for Patients with Renal Dysfunction
Patients with renal dysfunction should avoid taking NSAIDs as they can worsen their condition and increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding, which is already a common complication of chronic renal failure. Instead, alternative pain management options should be explored. If opiates are necessary, they should be prescribed with caution as they can accumulate in the body due to reduced renal excretion, especially in patients who have not previously taken them. It is important for healthcare providers to carefully consider the potential risks and benefits of any medication before prescribing it to a patient with renal dysfunction. Proper medication management can help prevent further damage to the kidneys and improve overall patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency department by emergency ambulance following a deliberate overdose of an unknown drug.
She is accompanied by her husband who tells you that she has a long history of anxiety and depression and takes fluoxetine 20 mg od and lorazepam 2 mg bd.
On primary assessment, her airway is clear but she only groans when sternal rub is applied. Her chest is clear to auscultation but her respiratory rate is 6 ventilations per minute and oxygen saturations are 93% on air.
Heart sounds are normal with a rate of 80 bpm and blood pressure is 82/44 mmHg. ECG shows sinus rhythm. Capillary blood glucose is 6.3 mmol/L. Her GCS is 8/15 (E1, V2, M5) but her pupils are slowly reactive bilaterally and size 4. All limbs appear to move equally and there is no apparent injury. She smells of alcohol.
What is the first most appropriate step in the immediate management of this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Insert a nasopharyngeal airway and commence high flow oxygen
Explanation:The ABCDE approach is important for assessing acutely unwell patients. Protecting the airway is paramount in this case, as the patient’s level of consciousness threatens it. Oxygen and a nasopharyngeal airway are the first steps. Flumazenil and naloxone are not indicated, as the drug taken is unknown and opioid overdose is unlikely. Activated charcoal may not be effective if the time of ingestion is unknown. Prophylactic intubation is reasonable but not mandatory. Arterial blood gases can help determine ventilation, but supplemental oxygen and airway adjuncts are reasonable first steps.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old woman comes in for her dating scan after discovering she was pregnant 6 weeks ago through a urine pregnancy test. However, her ultrasound reveals that the pregnancy is ectopic and located in her left fallopian tube. The size of the pregnancy is 20mm, unruptured, and has no cardiac activity. The patient is not experiencing any symptoms such as bleeding, cramping, vomiting, or systemic symptoms, and her vitals are normal. Her blood test results show that her β-hCG levels have decreased from 940 IU/L at her booking appointment to 740 IU/L today. She has no significant medical history. What is the most appropriate management plan for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Give safety netting advice and ask to return in 48 hours for serum β-hCG levels
Explanation:Expectant management of an ectopic pregnancy is only suitable for an embryo that is unruptured, <35mm in size, has no heartbeat, is asymptomatic, and has a β-hCG level of <1,000 IU/L and declining. In this case, the woman has a small ectopic pregnancy without cardiac activity and a declining β-hCG level. Therefore, expectant management is appropriate, and the woman should be given safety netting advice and asked to return for a follow-up blood test in 48 hours. Admitting her for 12-hourly β-hCG monitoring is unnecessary, and performing a salpingectomy or salpingostomy is not indicated. Prescribing medical management is also inappropriate in this case. Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test. There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingostomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility. Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women without other risk factors for infertility, while salpingostomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingostomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents with multiple, ring-shaped, papular rashes on her forearms. She has recently noticed a white lacy intra-oral lesion.
What is the most likely cause of this?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lichen planus
Explanation:Skin Conditions: Lichen Planus, Erythema Multiforme, Tinea Versicolour, Psoriasis, and Ringworm
Lichen planus is an inflammatory skin condition that affects both cutaneous and mucosal surfaces. It is characterized by flat-topped plaques and papules with a purple hue and white striae. Topical steroids and immunomodulators are used to treat it, as it can increase the risk of squamous cell carcinoma if left untreated.
Erythema multiforme is a skin condition that presents with targetoid lesions with a central depression, usually starting on the acral extensor surfaces. It can be caused by medications, infections, or underlying conditions such as sarcoidosis and non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
Tinea versicolour, also known as pityriasis versicolor, is a fungal skin infection that causes pale or dark patches on the arms, neck, and trunk. It does not involve mucosal surfaces.
Psoriasis is an autoimmune chronic skin condition that presents with erythematous plaques with overlying grey scale on the extensor surfaces of extremities. It is not associated with intra-oral mucosal lesions.
Ringworm, also known as tinea corporis, is a fungal skin infection that causes erythematosus, scaly patches on the skin surface of the trunk, back, and extremities. It is not usually seen on the scalp, groin, palms, and soles. The patches progressively enlarge and worsen, and can lead to the formation of pustules or vesicles. Following central resolution, the lesions can remain annular.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old girl is rushed to the emergency department by ambulance after experiencing difficulty breathing during a sports event. Despite using her salbutamol inhaler, she could not catch her breath. She has a history of asthma.
Upon initial assessment, her heart rate is 110 bpm, and her respiratory rate is 28 /min. She is unable to complete full sentences, and there is a widespread wheeze on chest auscultation.
Further investigations reveal the following results:
- PEFR 52% (>75%)
- pH 7.43 (7.35-7.45)
- pO2 10.9 kPa (11-14.4)
- pCO2 4.7 kPa (4.6-6.0)
What is the classification of this patient's acute asthma episode?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Life-threatening
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms indicate a life-threatening severity of asthma, as evidenced by their inability to complete full sentences and a PEFR measurement within the severe range. This is further supported by their normal pCO2 levels, which confirm the severity classification. The classification of moderate severity is incorrect in this case.
Management of Acute Asthma
Acute asthma is classified by the British Thoracic Society (BTS) into three categories: moderate, severe, and life-threatening. Patients with any of the life-threatening features should be treated as having a life-threatening attack. A fourth category, Near-fatal asthma, is also recognized. Further assessment may include arterial blood gases for patients with oxygen saturation levels below 92%. A chest x-ray is not routinely recommended unless the patient has life-threatening asthma, suspected pneumothorax, or failure to respond to treatment.
Admission criteria include a previous near-fatal asthma attack, pregnancy, an attack occurring despite already using oral corticosteroid, and presentation at night. All patients with life-threatening asthma should be admitted to the hospital, and patients with features of severe acute asthma should also be admitted if they fail to respond to initial treatment. Oxygen therapy should be started for hypoxaemic patients. Bronchodilation with short-acting betaâ‚‚-agonists (SABA) is recommended, and all patients should be given 40-50 mg of prednisolone orally daily. Ipratropium bromide and IV magnesium sulphate may also be considered for severe or life-threatening asthma. Patients who fail to respond require senior critical care support and should be treated in an appropriate ITU/HDU setting. Criteria for discharge include stability on discharge medication, checked and recorded inhaler technique, and PEF levels above 75% of best or predicted.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman contacts her doctor seeking guidance on stopping all of her medications abruptly. She has a medical history of asthma, depression, and occasional tennis elbow pain, for which she takes a salbutamol inhaler, citalopram, and paracetamol, respectively. What is the most probable outcome if she discontinues her medications suddenly?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diarrhoea
Explanation:When it comes to discontinuing medication, it’s important to note the specific drug being used. Abruptly stopping a salbutamol inhaler or paracetamol is unlikely to cause any adverse effects. However, stopping a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) like citalopram can lead to discontinuation symptoms. Gastrointestinal side-effects, such as diarrhoea, are commonly seen in SSRI discontinuation syndrome. To avoid this, it’s recommended to gradually taper off SSRIs. Blunted affect is not likely to occur as a result of sudden discontinuation, but emotional lability and mood swings may be observed. Cyanopsia, or blue-tinted vision, is not a known symptom of SSRI discontinuation, but it can be a side effect of other drugs like sildenafil. While hypertension has been reported in some cases, it’s less common than gastrointestinal symptoms. Weight loss, rather than weight gain, is often reported upon sudden discontinuation of SSRIs.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.
The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.
When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old woman without significant medical history visits her primary care physician complaining of a harsh, deep voice and painful swallowing that has persisted for four weeks. She also reports experiencing ear pain when swallowing. The patient has a history of smoking 20 packs of cigarettes per year and consuming 20 units of wine per week. Physical examination reveals no visible neck lumps or cervical lymphadenopathy, and direct visualization of the oropharynx is unremarkable. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma of the larynx
Explanation:Diagnosis of Squamous Cell Carcinoma of the Larynx
Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) of the larynx is the most likely diagnosis for a patient with a history of smoking, drinking, and referred pain to the ear from swallowing. The convergence projection theory explains the mechanism of referred pain from the larynx to the ear, where sensory afferent nerve fibers from cranial nerves and spinal roots converge along a common sensory neuronal pathway when entering the central nervous system. This convergence makes it difficult for the CNS to pinpoint the source of pain.
Although a Pancoast tumor is a plausible differential diagnosis, it typically causes Horner’s syndrome, which was not present in this patient. Additionally, the left recurrent laryngeal nerve has a long course and loops under the arch of the aorta, making it unlikely for an apical Pancoast tumor to cause hoarseness. Reinke’s edema, typically caused by recent strain on the vocal cords, was ruled out due to the lack of history suggesting this as the cause of the patient’s hoarseness.
There was also no history to suggest a viral cause of the patient’s hoarseness, which is typically associated with viral laryngitis. Vocal cord nodules, which often occur bilaterally after chronic strain on the vocal cords, were also ruled out. Overall, SCC of the larynx remains the most likely diagnosis for this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with hypotension and maelena despite receiving 6 units of blood. He has a medical history of arthritis and takes methotrexate and ibuprofen. What is the next most appropriate course of action from the following options?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Endoscopy
Explanation:The Importance of Endoscopy in Diagnosing and Treating Upper GI Bleeds
When a patient presents with an upper GI bleed, it is important to determine the cause and provide appropriate treatment. In cases where the bleed is likely caused by a duodenal ulcer from non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug use, an OGD (oesophago-gastro-duodenoscopy) is necessary for diagnosis and initial therapeutic management. Endoscopy allows for the identification of a bleeding ulcer, which can then be injected with adrenaline and clipped to prevent re-bleeding.
Continued transfusion may help resuscitate the patient, but it will not stop the bleeding. A CT scan with embolisation could be useful, but a CT scan alone would not be sufficient. Laparotomy should only be considered if endoscopic therapy fails. Diagnostic laparoscopy is not necessary as a clinical diagnosis can be made based on the patient’s history and condition.
In conclusion, endoscopy is crucial in diagnosing and treating upper GI bleeds, particularly in cases where a duodenal ulcer is suspected. It allows for immediate intervention to stop the bleeding and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Which type of cell is responsible for the production of stomach acid?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Parietal cell
Explanation:Types of Cells Involved in Digestion
There are several types of cells involved in the process of digestion. One of these types is the APUD cells, which are endocrine cells that secrete hormones such as gastrin and cholecystokinin. These hormones play a crucial role in regulating the digestive system. Another type of cell involved in digestion is the chief cells, which produce pepsinogen to aid in the breakdown of food.
Kupffer cells are a specialized form of macrophage found in the liver. These cells play an important role in removing bacteria and other harmful substances from the blood. Finally, mucous cells produce mucous, which helps to protect the lining of the digestive tract from damage caused by stomach acid and other digestive enzymes.
Overall, these different types of cells work together to ensure that the digestive system functions properly. By producing hormones, enzymes, and protective substances, they help to break down food and absorb nutrients while also protecting the body from harmful substances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman is scheduled for a hip replacement at 2 pm. It is currently 11:30 am and she admits to having a cup of black coffee earlier. What should be the next course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inform him he should not drink anything from now on
Explanation:Patients are allowed to consume clear fluids up to 2 hours prior to their surgery. As black coffee is considered a clear fluid, the patient can proceed with their scheduled operation at 1 pm, provided they refrain from drinking anything further. It would be incorrect to contact the theatre to cancel or reschedule the operation, as it is still permissible for the patient to undergo the procedure. However, if the patient had consumed fluids within 2 hours of the operation, it would be appropriate to contact the anaesthetist to seek their advice on whether the surgery can proceed. It is important to note that informing the patient that they can consume fluids up to 1 hour before the operation is incorrect, as the permissible time frame is 2 hours.
Preparation for surgery varies depending on whether the patient is undergoing an elective or emergency procedure. For elective cases, it is important to address any medical issues beforehand through a pre-admission clinic. Blood tests, urine analysis, and other diagnostic tests may be necessary depending on the proposed procedure and patient fitness. Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis should also be assessed, and a plan for thromboprophylaxis formulated. Patients are advised to fast from non-clear liquids and food for at least 6 hours before surgery, and those with diabetes require special management to avoid potential complications. Emergency cases require stabilization and resuscitation as needed, and antibiotics may be necessary. Special preparation may also be required for certain procedures, such as vocal cord checks for thyroid surgery or bowel preparation for colorectal cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 51-year-old male presents with painful colour changes of his hands precipitated by cold. He also reports difficulty swallowing and has noticed tightness of his skin especially on his face and his fingers.
What is the most appropriate test from the options below?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-centromere antibody
Explanation:The symptoms indicate the possibility of scleroderma, and a detection of anti-centromere antibody can aid in confirming the diagnosis.
Understanding Systemic Sclerosis
Systemic sclerosis is a condition that affects the skin and other connective tissues, but its cause is unknown. It is more common in females, with three patterns of the disease. Limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis is characterised by Raynaud’s as the first sign, affecting the face and distal limbs, and associated with anti-centromere antibodies. CREST syndrome is a subtype of limited systemic sclerosis that includes Calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, oEsophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, and Telangiectasia. Diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis affects the trunk and proximal limbs, associated with scl-70 antibodies, and has a poor prognosis. Respiratory involvement is the most common cause of death, with interstitial lung disease and pulmonary arterial hypertension being the primary complications. Renal disease and hypertension are also possible complications, and patients with renal disease should be started on an ACE inhibitor. Scleroderma without internal organ involvement is characterised by tightening and fibrosis of the skin, manifesting as plaques or linear. Antibodies such as ANA, RF, anti-scl-70, and anti-centromere are associated with different types of systemic sclerosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A woman presents to Accident and Emergency with a decreased level of consciousness. Her conscious state is formally assessed. She withdraws to a painful stimulus and is mumbling incoherent words randomly, irrespective of people attempting to speak to her in conversation, and her eyes open only in response to painful stimuli.
What is the breakdown of this patient’s Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Motor response 4/6, verbal response 3/5, eye opening response 2/4
Explanation:Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale: Interpreting a Patient’s Level of Consciousness
The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool used to assess a patient’s level of consciousness. It consists of three scores: best motor response, best verbal response, and eye opening response. Each score is given a value out of a maximum score, and the total score is used to determine the patient’s level of consciousness.
In this case, the patient’s motor response is a score of 4 out of 6, indicating a withdrawal response to pain. The verbal response is a score of 3 out of 5, indicating mumbling words or nonsense. The eye opening response is a score of 2 out of 4, indicating opening to pain. Therefore, the patient’s total GCS score is 9, indicating a comatose state.
It is important to understand the GCS and how to interpret the scores in order to properly assess a patient’s level of consciousness and provide appropriate medical care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A father brings his 5-year-old daughter to the paediatric emergency department. She has a fever and he has noticed raised nodes on her neck. Despite giving her paracetamol and ibuprofen, her temperature is not decreasing. Her lips have become extremely dry and cracked, and her tongue is red and slightly swollen. The father has also noticed that her feet are now red and puffy, and she is developing a widespread fine rash. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Kawasaki's disease
Explanation:An eruption characterized by tender papules and vesicles can develop on the hands and feet. Measles typically presents with a fever and symptoms of a cold. Koplik’s spots, which are bright red with a bluish white center, may appear on the oral mucosa. A maculopapular rash usually appears 3-5 days later. Parvovirus B19 is commonly referred to as slapped cheek syndrome. Scarlet fever may also cause an inflamed tongue, but it would not account for the red and swollen feet that later peel.
Understanding Kawasaki Disease
Kawasaki disease is a rare type of vasculitis that primarily affects children. It is important to identify this disease early on as it can lead to serious complications, such as coronary artery aneurysms. The disease is characterized by a high-grade fever that lasts for more than five days and is resistant to antipyretics. Other symptoms include conjunctival injection, bright red, cracked lips, strawberry tongue, cervical lymphadenopathy, and red palms and soles that later peel.
Diagnosis of Kawasaki disease is based on clinical presentation as there is no specific diagnostic test available. Management of the disease involves high-dose aspirin, which is one of the few indications for aspirin use in children. Intravenous immunoglobulin is also used as a treatment option. Echocardiogram is the initial screening test for coronary artery aneurysms, rather than angiography.
Complications of Kawasaki disease can be serious, with coronary artery aneurysm being the most common. It is important to recognize the symptoms of Kawasaki disease early on and seek medical attention promptly to prevent potential complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old male presents to the emergency department after crashing his motorcycle into a bus stop. He is alert and oriented to person, place, and time, but reports extreme pain in multiple areas. On physical examination, he exhibits tenderness and pain in his right leg, significant abdominal bruising, and diffuse tenderness over his ribcage. His vital signs are as follows: heart rate of 105 beats/min, blood pressure of 105/62 mmHg, respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min, and SpO2 of 98% on room air. Imaging reveals multiple fractures, including a fractured right femur, multiple fractured ribs, and a fractured left tibia. The patient is consented and sent for emergency surgery. Which induction agent is the most preferable for anesthesia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ketamine
Explanation:Ketamine is a suitable choice for anesthesia in trauma patients as it does not lead to a decrease in blood pressure. This is particularly important for patients like the one in this case who have borderline low blood pressure and are at risk of experiencing low blood pressure during surgery. Ketamine is an NMDA receptor antagonist that can increase blood pressure, making it a useful option for anesthesia in trauma patients. Etomidate, although it has milder cardiovascular effects than propofol, is still not recommended for use in trauma or bleeding patients compared to ketamine. Midazolam, when used as an induction agent, can also cause a drop in blood pressure. Propofol, on the other hand, can cause hypotension in a dose-dependent manner and is therefore not ideal for patients who are already bleeding, have polytrauma, or have borderline blood pressure.
Overview of General Anaesthetics
General anaesthetics are drugs used to induce a state of unconsciousness in patients undergoing surgical procedures. There are two main types of general anaesthetics: inhaled and intravenous. Inhaled anaesthetics, such as isoflurane, desflurane, sevoflurane, and nitrous oxide, are administered through inhalation. These drugs work by acting on various receptors in the brain, including GABAA, glycine, NDMA, nACh, and 5-HT3 receptors. Inhaled anaesthetics can cause adverse effects such as myocardial depression, malignant hyperthermia, and hepatotoxicity.
Intravenous anaesthetics, such as propofol, thiopental, etomidate, and ketamine, are administered through injection. These drugs work by potentiating GABAA receptors or blocking NDMA receptors. Intravenous anaesthetics can cause adverse effects such as pain on injection, hypotension, laryngospasm, myoclonus, and disorientation. However, they are often preferred over inhaled anaesthetics in cases of haemodynamic instability.
It is important to note that the exact mechanism of action of general anaesthetics is not fully understood. Additionally, the choice of anaesthetic depends on various factors such as the patient’s medical history, the type of surgery, and the anaesthetist’s preference. Overall, general anaesthetics play a crucial role in modern medicine by allowing for safe and painless surgical procedures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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