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  • Question 1 - A 40-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner (GP) with a scaly erythematous...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner (GP) with a scaly erythematous rash on his right foot. There is no rash on his left foot. The GP suspects a dermatophyte fungal infection (Tinea pedis) and wants to confirm the diagnosis.
      What is the correct statement about the skin scraping specimen?

      Your Answer: The presence of branching hyphae on microscopy confirms the diagnosis

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Fungal Skin Infections: Microscopy and Culture

      To confirm a dermatophyte fungal infection, skin samples are collected for microscopy and culture. A scalpel blade is used to scrape off superficial scales from the leading edge of the rash. Lack of scale may indicate a misdiagnosis. Microscopy involves staining the sample with potassium hydroxide and examining it for fungal hyphae. Culture identifies the specific organism responsible for the infection, but may take several weeks and can produce false negatives. Yeast infections can be identified by seeing budding yeast cells under the microscope, but yeasts and moulds may also be harmless colonizers. It is important to confirm the diagnosis before treatment, but if a dermatophyte infection is suspected, treatment should begin promptly. Samples should be transported in a sterile container or black paper envelope.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      64.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old woman develops chest pain after an argument with her 16-year-old daughter.

    She...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman develops chest pain after an argument with her 16-year-old daughter.

      She is brought to the surgery where you are asked to see her. She is hyperventilating and looks very anxious. She is tender to light pressure on the front of her chest, but examination is otherwise unremarkable. Breathing room air, her oxygen saturation (finger probe) is 99%. Her ECG is normal.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for this woman?

      Your Answer: Explain that she has had a panic attack and that her symptoms are a consequence of this. Help her to control her breathing rate, and say that you think everything will settle down and she will be able to go home.

      Correct Answer: Check troponin and send with routine samples. Plan to repeat ECG in two hours. Explain that you think that there is probably nothing serious going on, but you want to make sure that she has not had a heart attack.

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Panic Attack

      The ECG and pulse oximetry tests were normal, and the clinical context and examination findings all point to the diagnosis of a panic attack. It is appropriate to explain the diagnosis to the patient and provide reassurance.

      Psychological symptoms of an anxiety state include irritability, intolerance of noise, poor concentration/memory, fearfulness, apprehensiveness, restlessness, and continuous worrying thoughts. On the other hand, physical symptoms of an anxiety state include dry mouth, difficulty in swallowing, chest pain, shakiness, diarrhoea, urinary frequency, paraesthesiae, and hot flashes. Physical signs of an anxiety state include tenseness, sweating, shaking, pallor, restlessness, and sighing.

      It is important to recognize the symptoms and signs of a panic attack to provide appropriate care and support to the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urgent And Unscheduled Care
      191.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old man presents with bilateral eye irritation, foreign body sensation, itching and...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with bilateral eye irritation, foreign body sensation, itching and erythema of the lids and partial loss of eyelashes. He also has scalp itching and flaking.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Conjunctivitis

      Correct Answer: Blepharitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Blepharitis: Inflammation of the Eyelids

      Blepharitis is a condition that involves inflammation of the eyelids. It can be categorized into two types: anterior and posterior blepharitis. Anterior blepharitis affects the eyelashes and follicles, while posterior blepharitis involves the meibomian gland orifices. Staphylococcal and seborrhoeic variants are the two subtypes of anterior blepharitis, which often overlap. Blepharitis is commonly associated with other ocular diseases such as dry eye syndromes, chalazion, conjunctivitis, and keratitis, as well as skin conditions like rosacea and seborrhoeic dermatitis.

      While contact dermatitis is a common cause of eyelid inflammation, it is not usually confined to the eyelid margins. Conjunctivitis, on the other hand, is characterized by acute onset of conjunctival erythema, a gritty or foreign body sensation, and eye discharge that may produce crusts on the lids. Dry eye syndrome may also develop in people with blepharitis. Trichiasis, a condition where the eyelashes are misdirected towards the globe, is often associated with blepharitis.

      Understanding blepharitis and its subtypes is crucial in managing the condition and preventing complications. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help alleviate symptoms and improve overall eye health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      55.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 55-year-old man presents after a fall with an acutely swollen knee and...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents after a fall with an acutely swollen knee and difficulty bending the joint. The knee became swollen within two hours of the injury. He can still stand on the leg, although it is painful. He takes no regular medication and is otherwise fit and well, although a little overweight.
      What diagnosis can best be made, based on this patient's history?

      Your Answer: Traumatic synovitis

      Correct Answer: A haemarthrosis

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of joint effusion

      Joint effusion, the accumulation of fluid within a joint, can have various causes. A rapid onset of pain and swelling after trauma suggests a haemarthrosis, which may be associated with clotting disorders or anticoagulant use. Dislocation of the patella typically causes severe pain, a popping sensation, and difficulty bearing weight. Ligamentous injuries, such as anterior cruciate ligament tears, often occur during sports and may be accompanied by haemarthrosis. Osteoarthritis usually causes a gradual development of effusion. Traumatic synovitis, which involves inflammation of the synovial membrane, may also cause a gradual accumulation of fluid, especially if there is a meniscal tear. A careful history, physical examination, and imaging studies can help differentiate these conditions and guide appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      30.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following statements about discontinuing anti-epileptic drugs (AED) is the most...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements about discontinuing anti-epileptic drugs (AED) is the most accurate?

      Your Answer: Can be considered if seizure free for > 2 years, with AEDs being stopped over 2-3 months

      Explanation:

      The 2004 NICE guidelines recommend that the process be carried out with the assistance of a specialist and that benzodiazepine withdrawal should be conducted over an extended period.

      Treatment Options for Epilepsy

      Epilepsy is a neurological disorder that affects millions of people worldwide. Treatment for epilepsy typically involves the use of antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) to control seizures. The decision to start AEDs is usually made after a second seizure, but there are certain circumstances where treatment may be initiated after the first seizure. These include the presence of a neurological deficit, structural abnormalities on brain imaging, unequivocal epileptic activity on EEG, or if the patient or their family considers the risk of having another seizure to be unacceptable.

      It is important to note that there are specific drug treatments for different types of seizures. For generalized tonic-clonic seizures, males are typically prescribed sodium valproate, while females may be given lamotrigine or levetiracetam. For focal seizures, first-line treatment options include lamotrigine or levetiracetam, with carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine, or zonisamide used as second-line options. Ethosuximide is the first-line treatment for absence seizures, with sodium valproate or lamotrigine/levetiracetam used as second-line options. For myoclonic seizures, males are usually given sodium valproate, while females may be prescribed levetiracetam. Finally, for tonic or atonic seizures, males are typically given sodium valproate, while females may be prescribed lamotrigine.

      It is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the best treatment plan for each individual with epilepsy. Additionally, it is important to be aware of potential risks associated with certain AEDs, such as the use of sodium valproate during pregnancy, which has been linked to neurodevelopmental delays in children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      34.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 78-year-old man has an average home blood pressure of 156/88 mmHg. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man has an average home blood pressure of 156/88 mmHg. He is in good health for his age and takes only finasteride for benign prostatic hyperplasia. As per the NICE guidelines, what is the recommended target clinic blood pressure for this individual?

      Your Answer: 140/90 mmHg

      Correct Answer: 150/90 mmHg

      Explanation:

      Understanding NICE Guidance on Hypertension

      The management of hypertension is a crucial aspect of general practice, and it is essential to have a good understanding of the NICE guidance on the subject. According to NICE, patients over 80 should be treated to a revised target of 150/90 mmHg to reduce the risk of falls. For those with diabetes mellitus or chronic renal disease, specific targets apply. However, it is important to note that NICE guidance has attracted criticism from some clinicians who argue that it is overcomplicated and insufficiently evidence-based.

      When preparing for the MRCGP exam, it is essential to have a good understanding of the NICE guidance on hypertension. However, it is also important to remember that there are other guidelines and that NICE guidance is not exempt from criticism. While it is unlikely that you will be asked to select answers that contradict NICE guidance, it is essential to have a balanced view and consider the bigger picture. The college states that their questions test your knowledge of national guidance and consensus opinion, not just the latest NICE guidance. Therefore, it is crucial to have a comprehensive understanding of the subject to perform well in the exam.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - You assess a 48-year-old woman who has recently been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis....

    Correct

    • You assess a 48-year-old woman who has recently been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis. She was initiated on methotrexate three months ago and prednisolone was added to achieve quick symptom control. Currently, she is taking methotrexate 15mg once a week and prednisolone 10 mg once daily. However, she is encountering several adverse effects. What is the most probable side effect caused by prednisolone?

      Your Answer: 'My shoulder and leg muscles feel weak'

      Explanation:

      Proximal myopathy is a frequent occurrence in individuals who use steroids for an extended period. It is possible that some of the other adverse effects are a result of either the ongoing rheumatoid disease or the use of methotrexate.

      Corticosteroids are commonly prescribed medications that can be taken orally or intravenously, or applied topically. They mimic the effects of natural steroids in the body and can be used to replace or supplement them. However, the use of corticosteroids is limited by their numerous side effects, which are more common with prolonged and systemic use. These side effects can affect various systems in the body, including the endocrine, musculoskeletal, gastrointestinal, ophthalmic, and psychiatric systems. Some of the most common side effects include impaired glucose regulation, weight gain, osteoporosis, and increased susceptibility to infections. Patients on long-term corticosteroids should have their doses adjusted during intercurrent illness, and the medication should not be abruptly withdrawn to avoid an Addisonian crisis. Gradual withdrawal is recommended for patients who have received high doses or prolonged treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      27.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - You are consulting with a 28-year-old male who is experiencing difficulties with his...

    Correct

    • You are consulting with a 28-year-old male who is experiencing difficulties with his erections. He is generally healthy, a non-smoker, and consumes 8-10 units of alcohol per week. He has been in a relationship for 3 years, and this issue is beginning to impact their intimacy.

      After conducting a thorough psychosexual history, which findings from the following list would indicate an organic cause rather than a psychogenic cause for his issue?

      Your Answer: A normal libido

      Explanation:

      Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a person is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for satisfactory sexual performance. The causes of ED can be categorized into organic, psychogenic, mixed, or drug-induced.

      Symptoms that indicate a psychogenic cause of ED include a sudden onset of the condition, early loss of erection, self-stimulated or waking erections, premature ejaculation or inability to ejaculate, relationship problems, major life events, and psychological issues.

      On the other hand, symptoms that suggest an organic cause of ED include a gradual onset of the condition, normal ejaculation, normal libido (except in hypogonadal men), risk factors in medical history such as cardiovascular, endocrine or neurological conditions, previous operations, radiotherapy, or trauma to the pelvis or scrotum, current use of drugs known to cause ED, smoking, high alcohol consumption, and use of recreational or bodybuilding drugs.

      Therefore, having a normal libido is indicative of an organic cause of ED.

      Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual performance. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with factors such as a gradual onset of symptoms and lack of tumescence favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms and decreased libido favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.

      To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk. Free testosterone should also be measured in the morning, and if low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors. Referral to urology may be appropriate for young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, and those who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      115.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A father is worried that his 10-month-old baby boy has a squint. His...

    Correct

    • A father is worried that his 10-month-old baby boy has a squint. His left eye appears crossed inwards. He tracks toys well using both eyes. With the left eye covered, he fixes and follows easily. However, he fusses when the right eye is covered and has more trouble following with his left eye. On covering the right eye, there is an outward shift of the left eye. When the eye is uncovered, the left eye shifts back inward.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Esotropia

      Explanation:

      The cover-uncover test is the definitive method for testing for strabismus, which is a condition where the eyes are not properly aligned. During the test, an object is held in front of the patient to fixate on, and one eye is covered while the other is observed. If the covered eye shifts outward, it is an esotropia, and if it shifts inward, it is an exotropia. If there is a deviation of the opposite eye, it is a tropia.

      In the case of infantile esotropia, treatment begins with addressing amblyopia, which is a condition where one eye has weaker vision than the other. The stronger eye is patched for several hours each day to develop vision in the weaker eye. Once the vision is approximately equal, surgical alignment is more likely to be successful.

      Fourth nerve palsy is a condition that causes weakness or paralysis of the superior oblique muscle, resulting in weakness of downward eye movement and vertical diplopia. It is most commonly caused by head trauma or a congenital defect.

      Heterophoria is a slight tendency for the eyes to deviate from their normal alignment, which is common in most people. Pseudoesotropia is a condition where one or both eyes appear to be out of line, but there is no true squint, and the eyes are actually straight. This can be caused by a broad and flat nose bridge or an epicanthic fold that covers the inner corner of the eye.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      64.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - An 80-year-old man presents to the clinic with complaints of recurrent falls and...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man presents to the clinic with complaints of recurrent falls and syncopal attacks. He reports that a few of these episodes have occurred while he was getting dressed for church, putting on his shirt and tie; others have happened while he was out shopping, and one at the church itself. He explains that sometimes he doesn't actually lose consciousness, but just feels extremely dizzy, and on other occasions he passes out completely.

      The patient has a medical history of hypertension, which is being managed with amlodipine, and dyslipidaemia, for which he takes 10 mg of atorvastatin. On examination, his blood pressure is 150/88, his pulse is 65 and regular, and his heart sounds are normal. His chest is clear.

      Investigations reveal a haemoglobin level of 130 g/L (135-180), a white cell count of 4.9 ×109/L (4-10), platelets of 222 ×109/L (150-400), sodium of 139 mmol/L (134-143), potassium of 5.0 mmol/L (3.5-5), and creatinine of 139 μmol/L (60-120). His ECG shows sinus rhythm with an inferior lead Q wave (lead III only), and a 72-hour ECG doesn't identify any significant rhythm disturbance.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sick sinus syndrome

      Explanation:

      Carotid Sinus Hypersensitivity and Differential Diagnosis

      The history of syncope during dressing for church, particularly when putting on a collared shirt, may suggest the possibility of carotid sinus hypersensitivity. To diagnose this condition, a tilt table test is the optimal method, but it is important to exclude significant carotid artery stenosis before performing carotid sinus massage. In patients with bradycardia carotid sinus hypersensitivity, cardiac pacing is the preferred treatment.

      Ménière’s disease is unlikely to be the cause of syncope in this case, as it typically presents with a triad of dizziness, deafness, and tinnitus. Sick sinus syndrome is also less likely, as it often manifests with sinus bradycardia, sinoatrial block, and alternating bradycardia and tachycardia. However, a Q wave in one inferior lead (III) may be a normal finding.

      In summary, when evaluating syncope, it is important to consider carotid sinus hypersensitivity as a potential cause and to differentiate it from other conditions such as Ménière’s disease and sick sinus syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      130.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 38-year-old teacher presents with lower back pain. She had a similar episode...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old teacher presents with lower back pain. She had a similar episode a year ago and took paracetamol and diazepam. The pain eventually subsided but has now returned. She reports feeling pain mainly on the lower right side for the past two weeks, which worsens with movement and lifting heavy objects. She denies any muscle spasms, urinary or bowel symptoms, or perianal paresthesia. Paracetamol has not provided relief. On examination, there is no tenderness in the spine, and she has a reasonable range of motion, but experiences pain at the extremes of motion. Power and sensation in her lower legs are normal.
      What is the recommended management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Prescribe amitriptyline

      Correct Answer: Advise ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      Managing Mechanical Back Pain with Anti-Inflammatory Medication

      When a patient presents with mechanical back pain, it is important to rule out any red flags before considering treatment options. Once it has been established that there are no serious underlying conditions, the WHO pain ladder recommends starting with paracetamol and then moving on to anti-inflammatory medication if necessary. Since most back pain is inflammatory in nature, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are often the most effective option.

      It is important to note that not all NSAIDs are created equal. Piroxicam, for example, is associated with a higher risk of gastrointestinal events, while ibuprofen has a lower risk. When prescribing NSAIDs for back pain, it is important to take into account the patient’s individual risk factors, including age and any pre-existing medical conditions.

      It is also worth noting that tramadol, which was previously a common treatment for back pain, is now a controlled drug and is not typically recommended for this purpose. Amitriptyline may be used for nerve-related sciatica symptoms, but is not typically used as a first-line treatment for mechanical back pain.

      In summary, when managing mechanical back pain, it is important to consider the potential benefits and risks of different treatment options. NSAIDs are often the most effective option, but it is important to choose the right medication and to take into account the patient’s individual risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      30.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 30-year-old office worker has come to the clinic with a painful swollen...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old office worker has come to the clinic with a painful swollen face that has developed over 24 hours. He is particularly swollen in the parotid area on the left. He has a fever of 38.2oC. He also has malaise, headache and has lost his appetite.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mumps

      Explanation:

      Mumps: Symptoms, Complications, and Differential Diagnosis

      Mumps is a viral infection that is rare in vaccinated individuals but can affect those who have not been vaccinated or exposed to the virus. The onset of mumps can be sudden, and one-third of cases present with unilateral parotitis. Unlike parotid adenomas, which develop slowly, mumps is characterized by acute inflammation of the parotid gland. Glandular fever, on the other hand, typically affects the neck glands and is often accompanied by a sore throat. In children, parvovirus can cause slapped cheek syndrome, which is characterized by nonspecific viral symptoms followed by the appearance of firm red cheeks a few days later. Sialadenosis, a generalized swelling of the glands, is associated with hypertrophy of the acinar component of the gland and is commonly seen in individuals with systemic diseases such as Sjogren syndrome. Complications of mumps can include epididymo-orchitis, viral meningitis, pancreatitis, and, in rare cases, myocarditis. It is important to differentiate mumps from other conditions with similar symptoms to ensure proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 65-year-old man visits his GP for his annual health check-up. During the...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man visits his GP for his annual health check-up. During the check-up, the GP diagnosed him with hypertension and prescribed ramipril 2.5mg OD. The patient is also taking lansoprazole 30 mg OD, furosemide 20 mg OD, and atorvastatin 40 mg ON.

      The patient's U+E levels have been stable, but a recent blood test showed:
      - Na+ 139 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      - K+ 4.8 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      - Urea 7.5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      - Creatinine 140 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      - eGFR 47 ml/min/1.73m2

      One month later, the GP requested a repeat U+E test, which showed:
      - Na+ 139 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      - K+ 6.1 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      - Urea 8.5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      - Creatinine 150 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      - eGFR 43 ml/min/1.73m2

      The patient's ECG was normal. What is the most appropriate management plan, in addition to re-checking the U+E levels?

      Your Answer: Swap ramipril for another Antihypertensive

      Explanation:

      If a patient with CKD has a potassium level above 6 mmol/L, discontinuing ACE inhibitors should be considered, as per NICE Clinical Guideline 182. However, it is important to ensure that any other medications that may contribute to hyperkalemia have already been stopped before making this decision. In this particular case, there are no other medications that can be discontinued to lower potassium levels without deviating from the NICE guidelines.

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.

      While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.

      Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.

      The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      104.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - What is meant by the term 'power of the study' in the design...

    Incorrect

    • What is meant by the term 'power of the study' in the design of a randomised controlled trial?

      Your Answer: The probability of rejecting the null hypothesis that the treatments have the same effect

      Correct Answer: The probability of a statistically significant treatment effect if the true treatment difference is at a prespecified level

      Explanation:

      Understanding Power Analysis in Statistical Studies

      Power analysis is a statistical tool used to determine the sample size required in a study to detect a significant difference at a predetermined level of significance and size of effect. It is an essential step in planning a study and helps researchers to avoid underpowered or overpowered studies.

      The predetermined level of significance is usually set at 0.05, which means that there is a 5% chance of obtaining a significant result by chance alone. The size of effect is the difference between the treatment and control groups that is considered clinically significant.

      It is important to note that the size of effect used in power analysis may not necessarily correspond to a clinically significant difference. Therefore, it is crucial to consult with experts in the field to determine an appropriate size of effect.

      In summary, power analysis is a crucial step in planning a study and helps researchers to determine the appropriate sample size needed to detect a significant difference at a predetermined level of significance and size of effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 68-year-old woman presents with a 2-day history of left earache, vertigo and...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman presents with a 2-day history of left earache, vertigo and loss of taste. There is left-sided weakness of both the upper and the lower facial muscles. Facial sensation is normal. There is a vesicular rash on the eardrum, ear canal, earlobe, tongue and roof of the mouth (palate) on the same side as the weakness of the face.
      Select the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Ramsay Hunt syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Ramsay Hunt Syndrome and Other Facial Nerve Conditions

      Ramsay Hunt syndrome is a condition caused by the reactivation of the varicella zoster virus in the geniculate ganglion of the facial nerve. This can lead to ear pain, hearing loss, vertigo, facial nerve paralysis, and even involvement of other cranial nerves. The presence of lymphocytes in the cerebrospinal fluid and vesicles on the skin of the ear canal or pinna may also be observed. However, it is important to note that this condition can also occur without a skin rash.

      Bell’s palsy, on the other hand, is the most common cause of unilateral facial nerve paralysis. It may also present with otalgia and pain behind the ear, but vesiculation is absent. Acute otitis media can also lead to facial paralysis, but this usually responds well to antibiotics and corticosteroids.

      Postherpetic neuralgia is a nerve pain that occurs after the herpes zoster vesicles have crusted over and begun to heal. However, the description provided doesn’t suggest that this stage has been reached. Trigeminal neuralgia, on the other hand, is characterised by recurrent episodes of facial pain following the sensory distribution of the trigeminal nerve, but without facial paralysis or rash.

      It is important to understand the differences between these conditions in order to properly diagnose and treat them. While some may share similar symptoms, the underlying causes and treatments can vary greatly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 16-year-old girl has been diagnosed with glandular fever. What advice should be...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl has been diagnosed with glandular fever. What advice should be given regarding participation in sports?

      Your Answer: Avoid contact sports for 4 weeks after having glandular fever if clinical evidence of splenomegaly

      Correct Answer: Avoid contact sports for 4 weeks after having glandular fever

      Explanation:

      Screening for splenomegaly cannot be effectively done through clinical examination alone. Additionally, individuals with glandular fever should refrain from participating in contact sports for a period of 4 weeks.

      Understanding Infectious Mononucleosis

      Infectious mononucleosis, also known as glandular fever, is a viral infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) in 90% of cases. It is most commonly seen in adolescents and young adults. The classic symptoms of sore throat, pyrexia, and lymphadenopathy are present in around 98% of patients. Other symptoms include malaise, anorexia, headache, palatal petechiae, splenomegaly, hepatitis, lymphocytosis, haemolytic anaemia, and a rash. The symptoms typically resolve after 2-4 weeks.

      The diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis is confirmed through a heterophil antibody test (Monospot test) in the second week of the illness. Management is supportive and includes rest, drinking plenty of fluids, avoiding alcohol, and taking simple analgesia for any aches or pains. It is recommended to avoid playing contact sports for 4 weeks after having glandular fever to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.

      Interestingly, there is a correlation between EBV and socioeconomic groups. Lower socioeconomic groups have high rates of EBV seropositivity, having frequently acquired EBV in early childhood when the primary infection is often subclinical. However, higher socioeconomic groups show a higher incidence of infectious mononucleosis, as acquiring EBV in adolescence or early adulthood results in symptomatic disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      27.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - You see a 44-year-old lady whose brother and nephew both died of pancreatic...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 44-year-old lady whose brother and nephew both died of pancreatic cancer. The lady was diagnosed with diabetes from a range of tests. In addition, she noticed that her skin started to have a yellow tinge and she complained of itching over her body.

      Which is the best management option?

      Your Answer: Refer urgently to a gastroenterologist (within the two week wait pathway)

      Correct Answer: Arrange an MRI of the pancreas

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral for Suspected Pancreatic Cancer

      With a strong family history of pancreatic cancer, it is important to have a low threshold for investigating any concerning symptoms. In addition, if a patient aged 60 or over presents with weight loss and any of the following symptoms – diarrhoea, back pain, abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, constipation, or new-onset diabetes – a CT scan should be carried out urgently.

      In this case, the patient has also been diagnosed with diabetes and jaundice, which further warrants an urgent referral for suspected cancer. It is important to note that an MRI should not be arranged in primary care, and the decision can be left with the specialist. Additionally, an ultrasound is not the preferred investigation in this instance.

      A routine referral would be inappropriate due to the red flags highlighted in the patient’s history. With such a strong family history, it is crucial to investigate this patient further and take appropriate action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      54.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 25-year-old woman, who is a mature university student, has difficulty getting off...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman, who is a mature university student, has difficulty getting off to sleep and feels tired.
      Select from the list the single most useful piece of advice.

      Your Answer: Take regular daytime exercise

      Explanation:

      Tips for Better Sleep: Understanding Sleep Hygiene

      Sleep hygiene refers to a set of general guidelines that can help individuals achieve better quality sleep. One of the key recommendations is to avoid daytime naps, as they can disrupt the body’s natural sleep-wake cycle. Establishing a regular morning routine is also important, which involves waking up at the same time every day, even if an alarm clock is needed. To avoid constantly checking the time during periods of wakefulness, it may be helpful to place the clock under the bed.

      Going to bed when feeling sleepy, rather than at a fixed time, is another important aspect of sleep hygiene. It’s also advisable to avoid mentally or physically demanding activities, such as studying, within 90 minutes of bedtime. Engaging in daytime exercise has been shown to improve sleep quality, reduce the time it takes to fall asleep, and increase the amount of time spent asleep.

      Overall, sleep hygiene encompasses various aspects of sleep control, including homeostatic, adaptive, and circadian factors. It also provides guidance on how to avoid sleep deprivation and how to respond to unwanted awakenings during the night. By following these tips, individuals can improve their sleep habits and enjoy better overall health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      69.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 50-year-old lady comes to the clinic with tortuous, dilated, superficial leg veins....

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old lady comes to the clinic with tortuous, dilated, superficial leg veins. These have been present for a few years and do not cause any discomfort, but she is unhappy with their appearance.

      Upon examination, there are no skin changes, leg ulcers, or signs of thrombophlebitis.

      What is the MOST SUITABLE NEXT step in management?

      Your Answer: Refer to secondary care

      Correct Answer: Aspirin 75 mg OD

      Explanation:

      Conservative Management of Varicose Veins

      Conservative management is recommended for patients with asymptomatic varicose veins, meaning those that are not causing pain, skin changes, or ulcers. This approach includes lifestyle changes such as weight loss, light/moderate physical activity, leg elevation, and avoiding prolonged standing. Compression stockings are also recommended to alleviate symptoms.

      There is no medication available for varicose veins, and ultrasound is not necessary in the absence of thrombosis. Referral to secondary care may be necessary based on local guidelines, particularly if the patient is experiencing discomfort, swelling, heaviness, or itching, or if skin changes such as eczema are present due to chronic venous insufficiency. Urgent referral is required for venous leg ulcers and superficial vein thrombosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      337.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 56-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus is initiated on exenatide. What...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus is initiated on exenatide. What statement about exenatide is false?

      Your Answer: May be combined with a sulfonylurea

      Correct Answer: The major adverse effect is flu-like symptoms

      Explanation:

      Vomiting is a common side effect of exenatide, with nausea being the primary adverse reaction.

      Diabetes mellitus is a condition that has seen the development of several drugs in recent years. One hormone that has been the focus of much research is glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1), which is released by the small intestine in response to an oral glucose load. In type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), insulin resistance and insufficient B-cell compensation occur, and the incretin effect, which is largely mediated by GLP-1, is decreased. GLP-1 mimetics, such as exenatide and liraglutide, increase insulin secretion and inhibit glucagon secretion, resulting in weight loss, unlike other medications. They are sometimes used in combination with insulin in T2DM to minimize weight gain. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors, such as vildagliptin and sitagliptin, increase levels of incretins by decreasing their peripheral breakdown, are taken orally, and do not cause weight gain. Nausea and vomiting are the major adverse effects of GLP-1 mimetics, and the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings on the use of exenatide, reporting that it has been linked to severe pancreatitis in some patients. NICE guidelines suggest that a DPP-4 inhibitor might be preferable to a thiazolidinedione if further weight gain would cause significant problems, a thiazolidinedione is contraindicated, or the person has had a poor response to a thiazolidinedione.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      28.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic with a complaint of worsening voiding-predominant...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic with a complaint of worsening voiding-predominant lower urinary tract symptoms for the past year, including poor flow, hesitancy, and terminal dribbling. There are no red flag features present. The patient's international prostate symptom score is 15, and prostate examination reveals a slightly enlarged, smooth prostate. Urine dipstick results are normal, and blood tests show normal renal function and a normal prostate-specific antigen level.

      What is the most appropriate class of medication to consider starting for this patient?

      Your Answer: Alpha-1 antagonists

      Explanation:

      For patients with troublesome symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia, alpha-1 antagonists are the first-line medication to consider. This is particularly true for patients with predominantly voiding symptoms, such as the patient in this case who has an IPPS of 15. Alpha-1 agonists like tamsulosin and alfuzosin are recommended for patients with moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms (IPSS ≥ 8) and are likely to provide relief for this patient’s troublesome symptoms.

      However, 5-alpha reductase inhibitors are only indicated for patients with significantly enlarged prostates, which is not the case for this patient. Therefore, they are not currently appropriate for him.

      Antimuscarinic medication is only appropriate if there is a combination of storage and voiding symptoms that persist after treatment with an alpha-blocker. Since this patient only describes voiding symptoms and is not currently on any treatment, this class of medication is not indicated at this time.

      Finally, GnRH analogues are commonly used in prostate cancer treatment, but they were previously investigated as a potential treatment for benign prostatic hypertrophy and found to have a side effect profile that outweighed any clinical improvement. Therefore, they are not appropriate for this patient.

      Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition that affects older men, with around 50% of 50-year-old men showing evidence of BPH and 30% experiencing symptoms. The risk of BPH increases with age, with around 80% of 80-year-old men having evidence of the condition. Ethnicity also plays a role, with black men having a higher risk than white or Asian men. BPH typically presents with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS), which can be categorised into obstructive (voiding) symptoms and irritative (storage) symptoms. Complications of BPH can include urinary tract infections, retention, and obstructive uropathy.

      Assessment of BPH may involve dipstick urine testing, U&Es, and PSA testing if obstructive symptoms are present or if the patient is concerned about prostate cancer. A urinary frequency-volume chart and the International Prostate Symptom Score (IPSS) can also be used to assess the severity of LUTS and their impact on quality of life. Management options for BPH include watchful waiting, alpha-1 antagonists, 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors, combination therapy, and surgery. Alpha-1 antagonists are considered first-line for moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms and can improve symptoms in around 70% of men, but may cause adverse effects such as dizziness and dry mouth. 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors may slow disease progression and reduce prostate volume, but can cause adverse effects such as erectile dysfunction and reduced libido. Combination therapy may be used for bothersome moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms and prostatic enlargement. Antimuscarinic drugs may be tried for persistent storage symptoms. Surgery, such as transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), may also be an option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      22.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 54-year-old perimenopausal woman presents to the clinic with a range of menopausal...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old perimenopausal woman presents to the clinic with a range of menopausal symptoms, including vaginal soreness, hot flashes, poor libido, and urinary issues. She has a BMI of 31 kg/m² and a family history of unprovoked deep vein thrombosis (her father). The patient is only interested in hormone replacement therapy (HRT) and refuses to consider other treatments like antidepressants. What is the most appropriate management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Haematologist opinion with view to start transdermal HRT

      Explanation:

      According to NICE, women who are at a high risk of developing VTE and are seeking HRT should be referred to haematology before starting any treatment, even if it is transdermal.

      While there is no evidence to suggest that transdermal HRT preparations such as patches or gels increase the risk of VTE, it is recommended to seek specialist advice before starting treatment if there are any risk factors present.

      For patients with a high risk of VTE, oral HRT, whether it is combined or oestrogen-only, would be risky. Although per vaginal oestrogen would be a safer option, it would only provide local relief and may not alleviate all of the patient’s symptoms.

      Adverse Effects of Hormone Replacement Therapy

      Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves the use of a small dose of oestrogen, often combined with a progestogen, to alleviate menopausal symptoms. However, this treatment can have side-effects such as nausea, breast tenderness, fluid retention, and weight gain.

      Moreover, there are potential complications associated with HRT. One of the most significant risks is an increased likelihood of breast cancer, particularly when a progestogen is added. The Women’s Health Initiative (WHI) study found that the relative risk of developing breast cancer was 1.26 after five years of HRT use. The risk of breast cancer is related to the duration of HRT use, and it begins to decline when the treatment is stopped. Additionally, HRT use can increase the risk of endometrial cancer, which can be reduced but not eliminated by adding a progestogen.

      Another potential complication of HRT is an increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), particularly when a progestogen is added. However, transdermal HRT doesn’t appear to increase the risk of VTE. Women who are at high risk for VTE should be referred to haematology before starting any HRT treatment, even transdermal. Finally, HRT use can increase the risk of stroke and ischaemic heart disease if taken more than ten years after menopause.

      In conclusion, while HRT can be an effective treatment for menopausal symptoms, it is essential to be aware of the potential adverse effects and complications associated with this treatment. Women should discuss the risks and benefits of HRT with their healthcare provider before starting any treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      257.4
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  • Question 23 - A five-year-old girl is brought to the General Practitioner Surgery by her mother...

    Incorrect

    • A five-year-old girl is brought to the General Practitioner Surgery by her mother who is 32-years-old for a routine check. She was born at 37 weeks’ gestation and weighed 1.7 kg.
      On examination, the child’s head circumference is on the 3rd centile, there is a cleft palate, low-set ears and rocker-bottom feet.
      Given the likely diagnosis, what is the likelihood of the mother having another child with the same condition?

      Your Answer: 25%

      Correct Answer: 1%

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Probability of Inheriting Genetic Conditions

      Trisomy 18, also known as Edwards syndrome, is a genetic condition that is usually inherited randomly and has a prevalence of around 1 in 6000 births in the UK. The condition is characterized by various physical abnormalities, including microcephaly, micrognathia, cleft palate, low-set, deformed ears, and rocker-bottom feet. The risk of trisomy 18 increases with maternal age, with the biggest increase after age 35.

      If a couple has had one affected pregnancy, they are slightly more likely to have another affected pregnancy than the general population. In such cases, screening for a balanced translocation is recommended, which would further increase the risk.

      The probability of inheriting a genetic condition depends on the type of inheritance pattern. For autosomal-recessive conditions, such as cystic fibrosis, if both parents are affected, there is a 25% chance of having an affected child. For autosomal-dominant conditions, such as Huntington’s disease, there is a 50% chance of inheriting the faulty gene, which will always be expressed if present.

      However, in pre-implantation screening of embryos, genetic certainty of a condition being either present or absent can be achieved, resulting in a probability of 100%. It is important to understand the inheritance pattern and seek genetic counseling to assess the risk of passing on genetic conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      25.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A couple bring their 20-month-old baby girl to the clinic. They are concerned...

    Incorrect

    • A couple bring their 20-month-old baby girl to the clinic. They are concerned that she is not making the required progress with respect to speech development.

      What could you tell the parents about speech and language expectations in this child?

      Your Answer: A vocabulary of 4-7 words would be expected at this age

      Correct Answer: Around 20-30 words vocabulary would be expected by this age

      Explanation:

      Speech Delay in Children: Possible Causes and Exclusions

      Speech delay is a common issue that affects 3-10% of all children, with boys being 3-4 times more likely to experience it than girls. One possible cause of speech delay in older children is elective mutism, which can be assessed through proper diagnosis. However, before progressing to other investigations, it is important to exclude deafness as a possible cause. Other factors that should be excluded include social and environmental deprivation, disorders of metabolism, and degenerative nervous diseases, which are rare possibilities. By identifying and addressing the underlying cause of speech delay, children can receive the necessary support and intervention to improve their communication skills.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      104.3
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 32-year-old man presents to the local General Practice out-of-hours service after experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents to the local General Practice out-of-hours service after experiencing a seizure earlier. He has a history of epilepsy since childhood. While waiting to be seen, he has another seizure, which has lasted for more than five minutes.
      What is the most suitable initial pharmacological treatment option for this patient? Choose ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Intravenous lorazepam

      Correct Answer: Buccal midazolam

      Explanation:

      When someone experiences a prolonged or repeated convulsive seizure, immediate emergency care is necessary. The first step is to ensure general protective measures and maintain an open airway. Buccal midazolam is the preferred first-line treatment in the community, administered by placing the medication between the cheek and gum. If this is not effective, rectal diazepam or intravenous lorazepam or diazepam may be used. If the seizure continues despite medication or there is a history of repeated seizures, an ambulance should be called. In the hospital setting, intravenous lorazepam is the first-line treatment, with midazolam or diazepam used as alternatives if necessary. For refractory convulsive status epilepticus, intravenous midazolam or thiopental sodium may be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      48.4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - You see a 45-year-old gentleman that presents with a 3-week history of neck...

    Correct

    • You see a 45-year-old gentleman that presents with a 3-week history of neck pain. He reports occasional shooting pains in his right arm. The symptoms have been improving since they first started. He reports no weight loss, gait disturbance, clumsiness, loss of sexual, bladder or bowel function. On examination, no neurological signs are noted.

      According to NICE, what would be the next appropriate step in his management?

      Your Answer: Reassurance, encourage activity, analgesia

      Explanation:

      Management of Cervical Radiculopathy

      Cervical radiculopathy is a condition that affects the nerves in the neck, causing pain, weakness, and numbness in the arms. For patients with this condition that has been present for less than 4-6 weeks and no objective neurological signs present, NICE advises conservative management. This includes reassurance, encouragement of activity, and analgesia. The long-term prognosis for patients with radiculopathy is good, and most cases improve without surgery.

      However, clinicians should be aware of red flags that warrant an urgent referral. These include patients who are younger than 20 years or older than 55 years, severe or increasing pain, weakness involving more than one myotome, signs and symptoms suggestive of compression of the spinal cord, signs and symptoms suggestive of cancer, infection or inflammation, and signs and symptoms suggestive of severe trauma or skeletal injury. It is important to identify these red flags to ensure prompt and appropriate management of cervical radiculopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      30.1
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  • Question 27 - A 35-year-old man visits the General Practitioner seeking assistance in quitting alcohol after...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man visits the General Practitioner seeking assistance in quitting alcohol after a prolonged period of heavy drinking. He reports experiencing moderate withdrawal symptoms in the past, but has never had seizures or delirium tremens. His wife is supportive and he is in good health. What is the most suitable medication to use in a community-based assisted alcohol withdrawal program?

      Your Answer: Chlordiazepoxide

      Explanation:

      Medications for Alcohol Withdrawal: Types and Uses

      Alcohol withdrawal can be a challenging process, and medications are often used to manage symptoms and prevent complications. Here are some common medications used for alcohol withdrawal:

      Chlordiazepoxide: This long-acting benzodiazepine is used to reduce withdrawal symptoms in people with moderate alcohol dependence.

      Lorazepam: For people with liver impairment, lorazepam is suggested as it requires limited liver metabolism. It is also used intravenously for alcohol withdrawal seizures.

      Acamprosate: This medication is effective in preventing relapse in patients with alcohol dependence.

      Clomethiazole: While licensed for use in acute alcohol withdrawal, benzodiazepines are preferred. Clomethiazole should only be used in an inpatient setting and not prescribed if the patient is likely to continue drinking alcohol.

      Haloperidol: Antipsychotic drugs like haloperidol or olanzapine may be prescribed as adjunctive therapy to benzodiazepines for patients with marked agitation or hallucinations and those at risk of delirium tremens.

      It is important to note that these medications should only be used under the guidance of a healthcare professional and in conjunction with other forms of treatment, such as therapy and support groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      28.5
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - You see a 65-year-old man with vertigo. He describes the repeated sensation that...

    Correct

    • You see a 65-year-old man with vertigo. He describes the repeated sensation that his surroundings are spinning when he moves his head. This has been occurring for the last 2 weeks and the episodes last approximately 30 seconds. He has hypertension but no other past medical history. He had a viral illness 3 weeks ago. You believe the history is consistent with benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV).

      Which statement is correct regarding BPPV?

      Your Answer: BPPV often has a relapsing and remitting course

      Explanation:

      BPPV can have a recurrent pattern of symptoms that come and go. To diagnose BPPV, the Dix-Hallpike maneuver is used, which can trigger vertigo and a specific type of eye movement called torsional upbeating nystagmus. Treatment for BPPV includes the Epley maneuver and Brandt-Daroff exercises, but medication is typically not effective. While many people recover from BPPV within a few weeks, symptoms can persist and return over time.

      Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is a common cause of vertigo that occurs suddenly when there is a change in head position. It is more prevalent in individuals over the age of 55 and is less common in younger patients. Symptoms of BPPV include dizziness and vertigo, which can be accompanied by nausea. Each episode typically lasts for 10-20 seconds and can be triggered by rolling over in bed or looking upwards. A positive Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre, which is indicated by vertigo and rotatory nystagmus, can confirm the diagnosis of BPPV.

      Fortunately, BPPV has a good prognosis and usually resolves on its own within a few weeks to months. Treatment options include the Epley manoeuvre, which is successful in around 80% of cases, and vestibular rehabilitation exercises such as the Brandt-Daroff exercises. While medication such as Betahistine may be prescribed, it tends to have limited effectiveness. However, it is important to note that around half of individuals with BPPV may experience a recurrence of symptoms 3-5 years after their initial diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      98.8
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  • Question 29 - A 72-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of chronic neck pain...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of chronic neck pain that has recently become more severe, making it difficult for her to find a comfortable sleeping position at night. Upon examination, there is no tenderness in the area, but her range of motion is limited in all directions. She has been taking regular paracetamol, but it has not been effective in relieving her pain. When codeine was added to her regimen, she experienced constipation. What is the most appropriate next step in managing her condition?

      Your Answer: Short course of an oral NSAID

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Cervical Spondylosis Pain

      Cervical spondylosis is a chronic degenerative condition affecting the cervical spine. The pain can be caused by poor posture, muscle strain, and other factors. Here are some treatment options:

      Short Course of Oral NSAID: A standard non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), such as ibuprofen, can be prescribed for a short period. This should be co-prescribed with a proton pump inhibitor and the patient must have no contraindications to using NSAIDs.

      Capsaicin: Some local guidelines support the use of capsaicin, particularly for hand or knee osteoarthritis, but a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) would be tried first.

      Long-term Regular Treatment with Oral NSAIDs: An oral NSAID is the best next step, but at the lowest effective dose for the shortest possible period of time, due to the extra risks associated with taking them regularly.

      Oral Glucosamine: Oral glucosamine is not recommended in guidelines and has no consistent evidence supporting its use as an analgesic.

      Transcutaneous Electrical Nerve Stimulation: A transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation machine may be effective but often is not readily available, and affordability may be an issue for patients.

      Treatment Options for Cervical Spondylosis Pain

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      200.8
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  • Question 30 - A 56-year-old man presents with general malaise. He has recently been prescribed carbimazole...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man presents with general malaise. He has recently been prescribed carbimazole for hyperthyroidism. What is the most crucial blood test to conduct?

      Your Answer: Full blood count

      Explanation:

      Exclusion of agranulocytosis is necessary when using carbimazole.

      Carbimazole is a medication used to treat thyrotoxicosis, a condition where the thyroid gland produces too much thyroid hormone. It is usually given in high doses for six weeks until the patient’s thyroid hormone levels become normal, after which the dosage is reduced. The drug works by blocking thyroid peroxidase, an enzyme that is responsible for coupling and iodinating the tyrosine residues on thyroglobulin, which ultimately leads to a reduction in thyroid hormone production. In contrast, propylthiouracil has a dual mechanism of action, inhibiting both thyroid peroxidase and 5′-deiodinase, which reduces the peripheral conversion of T4 to T3.

      However, carbimazole is not without its adverse effects. One of the most serious side effects is agranulocytosis, a condition where the body’s white blood cell count drops significantly, making the patient more susceptible to infections. Additionally, carbimazole can cross the placenta and affect the developing fetus, although it may be used in low doses during pregnancy under close medical supervision. Overall, carbimazole is an effective medication for managing thyrotoxicosis, but its potential side effects should be carefully monitored.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      8.3
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Urgent And Unscheduled Care (0/1) 0%
Eyes And Vision (1/2) 50%
Musculoskeletal Health (3/5) 60%
Neurology (2/3) 67%
Cardiovascular Health (1/3) 33%
Kidney And Urology (3/3) 100%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (1/2) 50%
Population Health (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
Mental Health (1/1) 100%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (1/2) 50%
Gynaecology And Breast (1/1) 100%
Genomic Medicine (0/1) 0%
Children And Young People (0/1) 0%
Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse (1/1) 100%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (1/1) 100%
Passmed