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  • Question 1 - A 55-year-old man of Mediterranean descent presented to his GP with complaints of...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man of Mediterranean descent presented to his GP with complaints of increased fatigue, jaundice, and abdominal discomfort. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes, hypertension, gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, hyperlipidaemia, and glucose-6-phosphate deficiency. The patient takes lansoprazole, ramipril, metformin, simvastatin, and glimepiride regularly and drinks about 10 units of alcohol per week. On examination, the patient had mild scleral icterus, splenomegaly, and mild abdominal tenderness in the left upper quadrant. His recent blood results showed low Hb levels, normal platelets and WBC count, high bilirubin, ALP, and γGT levels, and low albumin levels. The blood film showed bite cells and blister cells. Which medication is most likely responsible for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Lansoprazole

      Correct Answer: Glimepiride

      Explanation:

      Glimepiride, a medication used to treat type 2 diabetes and belonging to the sulphonylurea class, can trigger haemolysis in patients with G6PD deficiency. This can be indicated by mild anaemia, elevated bilirubin levels, and the presence of bite cells and blister cells on a blood film, suggesting haemolytic anaemia. Simvastatin, on the other hand, can induce hepatitis and cause jaundice, but this is unlikely if alanine transaminase and alkaline phosphatase levels are normal. Metformin, ramipril, and lansoprazole are not associated with haemolytic anaemia.

      Understanding G6PD Deficiency

      G6PD deficiency is a common red blood cell enzyme defect that is inherited in an X-linked recessive fashion and is more prevalent in people from the Mediterranean and Africa. The deficiency can be triggered by many drugs, infections, and broad (fava) beans, leading to a crisis. G6PD is the first step in the pentose phosphate pathway, which converts glucose-6-phosphate to 6-phosphogluconolactone and results in the production of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADPH). NADPH is essential for converting oxidized glutathione back to its reduced form, which protects red blood cells from oxidative damage by oxidants such as superoxide anion (O2-) and hydrogen peroxide. Reduced G6PD activity leads to decreased reduced glutathione and increased red cell susceptibility to oxidative stress, resulting in neonatal jaundice, intravascular hemolysis, gallstones, splenomegaly, and the presence of Heinz bodies on blood films. Diagnosis is made by using a G6PD enzyme assay, and some drugs are known to cause hemolysis, while others are considered safe.

      Compared to hereditary spherocytosis, G6PD deficiency is more common in males of African and Mediterranean descent and is characterized by neonatal jaundice, infection/drug-induced hemolysis, and gallstones. On the other hand, hereditary spherocytosis affects both males and females of Northern European descent and is associated with chronic symptoms, spherocytes on blood films, and the presence of erythrocyte membrane protein band 4.2 (EMA) binding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 2 - A 70-year-old woman presents to the clinic with complaints of increasing palpitations, fatigue,...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman presents to the clinic with complaints of increasing palpitations, fatigue, and dyspnea on exertion for the past month. She has a well-balanced diet and takes only thyroxine. On examination, she appears pale, and there are no neurological findings. Laboratory results reveal severe anisocytosis and poikilocytosis, large polychromatophilic erythrocytes, and hypersegmented neutrophils. Her hemoglobin is 78 g/L, white cell count is 2.28 x 10^9/L, and platelet count is 42 x 10^9/L. Her ferritin level is 122 ng/mL, serum folate is 7.4 ng/mL, and vitamin B12 is 190 ng/L. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Folic acid

      Correct Answer: Vitamin B12

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Diagnosis and Treatment of Vitamin B12 Deficiency

      Vitamin B12 deficiency can be a challenging condition to diagnose due to the lack of a gold standard test. While the most common test is serum B12, it may not accurately reflect what is happening at the cellular level, as it records both active and inactive B12. Additionally, some patients with clinical features of vitamin B12 deficiency may have false normal vitamin B12 levels. This can be due to antibody interference or inaccuracies in the test.

      People with vitamin B12 levels below 100 nanograms/l usually have clinical or metabolic evidence of deficiency, while levels below 200 nanograms/l are common in most people with deficiency. Diagnosis is supported by macrocytosis, reduced white cell count, platelet count, and reticulocyte count, as well as the blood film.

      Treatment options vary depending on the cause of the deficiency. Erythropoietin is used to treat anaemia due to renal failure, while folic acid is used for folate deficiency. However, in cases where folate levels are normal, folic acid treatment will not improve the anaemia. Iron treatment is also unlikely to be effective if ferritin levels are normal and the anaemia is macrocytic. Prednisolone may be useful in cases of haemolysis, but the pancytopenia seen in vitamin B12 deficiency points away from this as the cause of anaemia.

      Overall, a thorough understanding of the diagnostic challenges and treatment options for vitamin B12 deficiency is crucial for effective management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 3 - A woman with chronic lymphocytic leukaemia underwent splenectomy because she did not respond...

    Correct

    • A woman with chronic lymphocytic leukaemia underwent splenectomy because she did not respond to immunosuppression and chemotherapy.
      What is the most likely long-term risk factor after splenectomy?

      Your Answer: Infections

      Explanation:

      The Risks and Benefits of Splenectomy

      Splenectomy, or the surgical removal of the spleen, is a common procedure for various medical conditions. However, it is not without risks. One of the most significant risks is overwhelming post-splenectomy infection (OPSI), which can be fatal. Patients who have had a splenectomy are at a lifetime risk of 5% for OPSI, with the most common causative organism being the pneumococcus. Therefore, it is crucial for these patients to receive vaccinations and prophylactic antibiotics.

      While splenectomy is not typically performed for cancer or liver fibrosis, it may be beneficial for certain haematological disorders such as autoimmune haemolytic anaemia and hereditary spherocytosis. In rare cases, splenectomy may also be indicated for patients with Hodgkin’s disease who are refractory to medical therapy.

      Overall, the decision to undergo splenectomy should be carefully considered, weighing the potential benefits against the risks. Close monitoring and appropriate preventative measures should be taken to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old man has just joined your practice and came in for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man has just joined your practice and came in for a routine medical check-up. He is in good health but has a history of sickle cell disease. According to his immunisation record, he received the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine five years ago.

      What is the recommended frequency for administering this vaccine to him?

      Your Answer: Every 3 years

      Correct Answer: Every 5 years

      Explanation:

      Individuals with sickle cell disease should be administered the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine every 5 years to prevent pneumococcal infections, as they are at a heightened risk due to the hypofunction of their spleen caused by recurrent splenic infarction. Children should receive their first vaccine at 2 years of age, followed by subsequent doses every 5 years.

      Managing Sickle-Cell Anaemia

      Sickle-cell anaemia is a genetic blood disorder that causes red blood cells to become misshapen and break down, leading to a range of complications. When a crisis occurs, management involves providing analgesia, rehydration, oxygen, and potentially antibiotics if there is evidence of infection. Blood transfusions may also be necessary, and in some cases, an exchange transfusion may be required if there are neurological complications.

      In the longer term, prophylactic management of sickle-cell anaemia involves the use of hydroxyurea, which increases the levels of HbF to prevent painful episodes. Additionally, it is recommended that sickle-cell patients receive the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine every five years to reduce the risk of infection. By implementing these management strategies, individuals with sickle-cell anaemia can better manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 5 - A 15-year-old boy presents with a week-long history of fever, malaise, sore throat,...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy presents with a week-long history of fever, malaise, sore throat, and swollen glands. During the examination, you observe that he is pale, has a heart rate of 110 beats/minute, and a temperature of 38ºC. You notice redness and inflammation in his throat, with bilateral tonsillar enlargement, tender palpable cervical lymphadenopathy, and no exudate. You suspect glandular fever and order a Monospot test and full blood count. What results in the full blood count would indicate the presence of glandular fever?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lymphocytosis

      Explanation:

      Elevated levels of eosinophils or neutrophils can indicate different conditions. Eosinophilia, which is an increase in eosinophils, can be a sign of parasitic infection, an allergic reaction, or a reaction to certain medications. On the other hand, neutrophilia, which is an increase in neutrophils, can indicate acute inflammation or a bacterial infection.

      Understanding Infectious Mononucleosis

      Infectious mononucleosis, also known as glandular fever, is a viral infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) in 90% of cases. It is most commonly seen in adolescents and young adults. The classic symptoms of sore throat, pyrexia, and lymphadenopathy are present in around 98% of patients. Other symptoms include malaise, anorexia, headache, palatal petechiae, splenomegaly, hepatitis, lymphocytosis, haemolytic anaemia, and a rash. The symptoms typically resolve after 2-4 weeks.

      The diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis is confirmed through a heterophil antibody test (Monospot test) in the second week of the illness. Management is supportive and includes rest, drinking plenty of fluids, avoiding alcohol, and taking simple analgesia for any aches or pains. It is recommended to avoid playing contact sports for 4 weeks after having glandular fever to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.

      Interestingly, there is a correlation between EBV and socioeconomic groups. Lower socioeconomic groups have high rates of EBV seropositivity, having frequently acquired EBV in early childhood when the primary infection is often subclinical. However, higher socioeconomic groups show a higher incidence of infectious mononucleosis, as acquiring EBV in adolescence or early adulthood results in symptomatic disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 6 - An 80-year-old man presents with tiredness and increasing back pain over the last...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man presents with tiredness and increasing back pain over the last few months. A routine blood test shows he is anaemic with a haemoglobin of 98 g/L (130-180). He has also lost half a stone in weight over the past two months. Further blood tests reveal a deterioration in his renal function, with his eGFR dropping from 86 to 59 ml/min. His ESR is elevated at 74 mm/hr and his corrected calcium is 2.8 mmol/L (2.2-2.6). All other blood tests are normal and on examination, he appears systemically well with no signs of spinal cord compression, lymphadenopathy or organomegaly. What is the most appropriate next step in determining a diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Send a urine sample for Bence Jones protein

      Explanation:

      Suspected Myeloma Diagnosis

      This patient is presenting with common symptoms of myeloma, including back pain and malaise. However, the early constitutional symptoms can be vague, making it an easy diagnosis to overlook. Further examination reveals anemia, renal impairment, and elevated ESR and calcium levels, all of which point towards myeloma. Despite normal serum protein electrophoresis, it is important to note that one-third of myeloma patients have positive urine Bence Jones protein. Therefore, the next step in establishing a diagnosis is to test the patient’s urine for Bence Jones protein. According to NICE guidelines, protein electrophoresis and a Bence-Jones protein urine test should be considered urgently within 48 hours if the presentation is consistent with possible myeloma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 7 - Which of the following drugs is not associated with thrombocytopenia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following drugs is not associated with thrombocytopenia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Warfarin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Drug-Induced Thrombocytopenia

      Drug-induced thrombocytopenia is a condition where a person’s platelet count drops due to the use of certain medications. This condition is believed to be immune-mediated, meaning that the body’s immune system mistakenly attacks and destroys platelets. Some of the drugs that have been associated with drug-induced thrombocytopenia include quinine, abciximab, NSAIDs, diuretics like furosemide, antibiotics such as penicillins, sulphonamides, and rifampicin, and anticonvulsants like carbamazepine and valproate. Heparin, a commonly used blood thinner, is also known to cause drug-induced thrombocytopenia. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of medications and to consult with a healthcare provider if any concerning symptoms arise. Proper management and monitoring of drug-induced thrombocytopenia can help prevent serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old woman presents with complaints of nonspecific fatigue and has undergone blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with complaints of nonspecific fatigue and has undergone blood tests. She schedules an appointment with you to discuss the results. She denies any sensory loss, weakness, headache, palpitations, or visual disturbance. She reports having a well-balanced diet. Upon examination, including neurological examination, everything appears normal. Her BMI is within the normal range. The following are the results:

      - Hb 104 g/L Female: (115 - 160)
      - Platelets 230 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      - WBC 4.6 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      - MCV 109 fl (80-100)
      - Ferritin 76 ng/mL (20 - 230)
      - Vitamin B12 130 ng/L (200 - 900)
      - Folate 12.3 nmol/L (> 3.0)
      - Intrinsic factor antibodies Positive

      What would be the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe intramuscular (IM) hydroxocobalamin

      Explanation:

      The usual management for Vitamin B12 deficiency involves intramuscular B12 replacement, with a loading regime followed by injections every 2-3 months. In the case of a woman with macrocytic anaemia and low serum B12 levels, the presence of intrinsic factor antibodies (IFAB) suggests pernicious anaemia, which requires lifelong hydroxocobalamin injections at 2-3 monthly intervals. While most patients with B12 deficiency are treated with IM replacement, NICE guidelines during the COVID pandemic recommend oral cyanocobalamin where possible, but this is not appropriate for this patient. Ferrous sulphate is a suitable treatment for iron deficiency anaemia. A haematology referral may be necessary if initial treatment is unsuccessful.

      Pernicious anaemia is a condition that results in a deficiency of vitamin B12 due to an autoimmune disorder affecting the gastric mucosa. The term pernicious refers to the gradual and subtle harm caused by the condition, which often leads to delayed diagnosis. While pernicious anaemia is the most common cause of vitamin B12 deficiency, other causes include atrophic gastritis, gastrectomy, and malnutrition. The condition is characterized by the presence of antibodies to intrinsic factor and/or gastric parietal cells, which can lead to reduced vitamin B12 absorption and subsequent megaloblastic anaemia and neuropathy.

      Pernicious anaemia is more common in middle to old age females and is associated with other autoimmune disorders such as thyroid disease, type 1 diabetes mellitus, Addison’s, rheumatoid, and vitiligo. Symptoms of the condition include anaemia, lethargy, pallor, dyspnoea, peripheral neuropathy, subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord, neuropsychiatric features, mild jaundice, and glossitis. Diagnosis is made through a full blood count, vitamin B12 and folate levels, and the presence of antibodies.

      Management of pernicious anaemia involves vitamin B12 replacement, usually given intramuscularly. Patients with neurological features may require more frequent doses. Folic acid supplementation may also be necessary. Complications of the condition include an increased risk of gastric cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 9 - A 30-year-old woman complains of heavy menstrual bleeding and a constant sore throat....

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman complains of heavy menstrual bleeding and a constant sore throat. Upon examination, she is found to have pancytopenia. Which medication is the most probable cause of this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trimethoprim

      Explanation:

      Causes of Pancytopenia Due to Drug Intake

      Pancytopenia is a medical condition characterized by a decrease in the number of red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets in the blood. It can be caused by various factors, including drug intake. Some drugs can lead to pancytopenia by suppressing the bone marrow’s ability to produce blood cells.

      Cytotoxic drugs, antibiotics such as trimethoprim and chloramphenicol, and anti-rheumatoid drugs like gold and penicillamine are some of the drugs that can cause pancytopenia. Carbimazole, an anti-thyroid drug, can also lead to this condition. Additionally, anti-epileptic drugs like carbamazepine and sulphonylureas such as tolbutamide have been known to cause pancytopenia.

      It is important to monitor blood counts regularly when taking these drugs to detect any potential side effects. If pancytopenia is suspected, the drug should be discontinued immediately, and appropriate treatment should be initiated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 10 - A patient in his 30s with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency seeks advice on...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in his 30s with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency seeks advice on malaria prophylaxis for his upcoming 12-month travel abroad. What is the most crucial medication he should steer clear of?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Primaquine

      Explanation:

      Individuals with G6PD deficiency may experience haemolytic anaemia as a result of taking malaria prophylaxis, such as primaquine.

      Understanding G6PD Deficiency

      G6PD deficiency is a common red blood cell enzyme defect that is inherited in an X-linked recessive fashion and is more prevalent in people from the Mediterranean and Africa. The deficiency can be triggered by many drugs, infections, and broad (fava) beans, leading to a crisis. G6PD is the first step in the pentose phosphate pathway, which converts glucose-6-phosphate to 6-phosphogluconolactone and results in the production of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADPH). NADPH is essential for converting oxidized glutathione back to its reduced form, which protects red blood cells from oxidative damage by oxidants such as superoxide anion (O2-) and hydrogen peroxide. Reduced G6PD activity leads to decreased reduced glutathione and increased red cell susceptibility to oxidative stress, resulting in neonatal jaundice, intravascular hemolysis, gallstones, splenomegaly, and the presence of Heinz bodies on blood films. Diagnosis is made by using a G6PD enzyme assay, and some drugs are known to cause hemolysis, while others are considered safe.

      Compared to hereditary spherocytosis, G6PD deficiency is more common in males of African and Mediterranean descent and is characterized by neonatal jaundice, infection/drug-induced hemolysis, and gallstones. On the other hand, hereditary spherocytosis affects both males and females of Northern European descent and is associated with chronic symptoms, spherocytes on blood films, and the presence of erythrocyte membrane protein band 4.2 (EMA) binding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 11 - A 75-year-old woman presents with fatigue over the past two weeks. Upon examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman presents with fatigue over the past two weeks. Upon examination, there are no notable findings. She has a medical history of polymyalgia rheumatica and ischemic heart disease. After conducting screening blood tests, the full blood count results are as follows:

      - Hemoglobin (Hb): 129 g/l
      - Platelets (Plt): 158 * 109/l
      - White blood cells (WBC): 19.0 * 109/l
      - Neutrophils (Neuts): 4.2 * 109/l
      - Lymphocytes (Lymphs): 14.1 * 109/l

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

      Explanation:

      It is highly probable that chronic lymphocytic leukemia is the cause of lymphocytosis in an elderly patient. Neutrophilia is typically caused by steroids. An elderly person experiencing a significant lymphocytosis due to a viral illness would be uncommon.

      Understanding Chronic Lymphocytic Leukaemia: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. It is caused by the abnormal growth of B-cells, a type of white blood cell. CLL is the most common form of leukaemia in adults and is often asymptomatic, meaning it may be discovered incidentally during routine blood tests. However, some patients may experience symptoms such as weight loss, anorexia, bleeding, infections, and lymphadenopathy.

      To diagnose CLL, doctors typically perform a full blood count to check for lymphocytosis, a condition where there is an abnormally high number of lymphocytes in the blood. Patients may also have anaemia or thrombocytopenia, which can occur due to bone marrow replacement or autoimmune hemolytic anaemia. A blood film may also be taken to look for smudge cells, which are abnormal lymphocytes that appear broken or fragmented.

      The key investigation for CLL diagnosis is immunophenotyping, which involves using a panel of antibodies specific for CD5, CD19, CD20, and CD23. This test helps to identify the type of lymphocyte involved in the cancer and can confirm the diagnosis of CLL. With early detection and proper treatment, patients with CLL can manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 12 - Patients over the age of 40 with sickle cell disease are at highest...

    Incorrect

    • Patients over the age of 40 with sickle cell disease are at highest risk for which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic renal failure

      Explanation:

      Sickle Cell Disease and Renal Complications

      Sickle cell disease is a genetic disorder that affects the shape of red blood cells, leading to various complications. One of the most significant complications is chronic renal failure, which can occur in up to 5% of patients, especially those over 40 years old. Regular monitoring of renal function is essential, as falling hemoglobin levels can indicate lowered erythropoietin levels.

      In sickle cell disease, serum creatinine levels tend to be lower than normal, and levels within the accepted normal range should not be interpreted as indicating normal renal function. Levels of 60-70 μmol/l may reflect significant renal damage.

      Renal medullary carcinoma is a rare but aggressive malignancy that can occur in patients with sickle cell trait or disease. Patients presenting with hematuria should be evaluated to exclude this complication.

      While haematuria is common in sickle cell disease, other causes should be excluded, such as urinary tract infections, which are more commonly asymptomatic bacteriuria. Simple renal cysts may also occur more frequently and at a younger age in patients with sickle cell disease, although the reason is not known.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 13 - You receive a letter about one of your elderly patients who has been...

    Incorrect

    • You receive a letter about one of your elderly patients who has been prescribed methotrexate by one of the rheumatologists for severe rheumatoid arthritis. You have been asked to arrange regular blood tests every 2 weeks until treatment is stabilised. Which of the following groups of tests need to be performed each time?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Full blood count, urea and electrolytes and liver function tests

      Explanation:

      It is important to keep a close watch on the levels of full blood count, urea and electrolytes, as well as liver function tests while using methotrexate.

      Methotrexate is an antimetabolite that hinders the activity of dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme that is crucial for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is a significant drug that can effectively control diseases, but its side-effects can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential. Methotrexate is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. However, it can cause adverse effects such as mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis.

      Women should avoid pregnancy for at least six months after stopping methotrexate treatment, and men using methotrexate should use effective contraception for at least six months after treatment. Prescribing methotrexate requires familiarity with guidelines relating to its use. It is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. Folic acid 5mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after methotrexate dose. The starting dose of methotrexate is 7.5 mg weekly, and only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed.

      It is important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia. High-dose aspirin also increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity due to reduced excretion. In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Overall, methotrexate is a potent drug that requires careful prescribing and monitoring to ensure its effectiveness and safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 14 - A 50-year-old patient comes to your clinic with a complaint of feeling constantly...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old patient comes to your clinic with a complaint of feeling constantly tired. After conducting screening blood tests, the results indicate that the patient may have an issue with alcohol consumption. What specific biochemical characteristic is linked to excessive alcohol intake?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Low platelet count

      Explanation:

      Indicators of Excessive Alcohol Consumption

      Excessive alcohol consumption can be indicated by a combination of elevated MCV, elevated gamma GT, low platelet count, and low folate levels. These indicators are commonly seen in patients with alcoholic hepatitis, which is characterized by raised intracellular enzymes. It is important to monitor these indicators in patients who consume alcohol excessively as it can lead to serious health complications. By identifying these indicators early on, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate interventions and support to help patients reduce their alcohol consumption and improve their overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 15 - A 45-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a red and sticky...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a red and sticky right eye that started yesterday. She mentions experiencing mild discomfort but is generally feeling fine. Upon examination, you observe swollen conjunctiva with redness in the eyelid and yellow-green discharge. Her visual acuity is normal. She has a medical history of rheumatoid arthritis and is currently taking paracetamol, codeine, methotrexate, and folic acid. You suspect that she has bacterial conjunctivitis.

      Which of the following topical eye drops should be avoided in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chloramphenicol

      Explanation:

      Patients who are taking bone marrow suppression drugs, particularly methotrexate, should not use chloramphenicol eye drops.

      Chloramphenicol is the appropriate choice, as it can exacerbate the effects of methotrexate on bone marrow suppression.

      Cefuroxime, ciprofloxacin, gentamicin, and levofloxacin are not associated with bone marrow suppression.

      Aplastic anaemia is a condition characterized by a decrease in the number of blood cells due to a poorly functioning bone marrow. It is most commonly seen in individuals around the age of 30 and is marked by a reduction in red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. While lymphocytes may be relatively spared, the overall effect is a condition known as pancytopenia. In some cases, aplastic anaemia may be the first sign of acute lymphoblastic or myeloid leukaemia. A small number of patients may later develop paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria or myelodysplasia.

      The causes of aplastic anaemia can be idiopathic, meaning that they are unknown, or they can be linked to congenital conditions such as Fanconi anaemia or dyskeratosis congenita. Certain drugs, such as cytotoxics, chloramphenicol, sulphonamides, phenytoin, and gold, as well as toxins like benzene, can also cause aplastic anaemia. Infections such as parvovirus and hepatitis, as well as exposure to radiation, can also contribute to the development of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 16 - John is a 42-year-old man who visits you as his younger brother Robert...

    Incorrect

    • John is a 42-year-old man who visits you as his younger brother Robert has recently been diagnosed with hereditary haemochromatosis. He is concerned that he might also have the condition and wants to undergo a blood test to confirm.

      Initially, you order an iron study profile that includes ferritin, transferrin saturation, and total iron binding capacity (TIBC).

      Which of the following blood test outcomes is most probable to suggest that John has the same ailment as Robert?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Raised transferrin saturation, raised ferritin, low TIBC

      Explanation:

      To diagnose haemochromatosis, it is important to assess the patient’s risk factors and perform tests to determine their susceptibility. This includes evaluating their family history, age, and gender. Additionally, serum ferritin and transferrin saturation levels should be measured, and HFE mutation analysis may be recommended after genetic counselling.

      In haemochromatosis, transferrin saturation and ferritin levels are typically elevated, while TIBC is low. Serum ferritin is a highly sensitive test for iron overload in this condition, and normal levels essentially rule out iron overload. However, it has low specificity, as elevated levels can also be caused by other conditions such as diabetes, alcohol consumption, and liver damage.

      Understanding Haemochromatosis: Investigation and Management

      Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that causes iron accumulation in the body due to mutations in the HFE gene. The best investigation to screen for haemochromatosis is still a topic of debate. For the general population, transferrin saturation is considered the most useful marker, while genetic testing for HFE mutation is recommended for testing family members. Diagnostic tests include molecular genetic testing for the C282Y and H63D mutations and liver biopsy using Perl’s stain.

      A typical iron study profile in patients with haemochromatosis includes high transferrin saturation levels, raised ferritin and iron, and low TIBC. The first-line treatment for haemochromatosis is venesection, which involves removing blood from the body to reduce iron levels. Transferrin saturation should be kept below 50%, and the serum ferritin concentration should be below 50 ug/l to monitor the adequacy of venesection. If venesection is not effective, desferrioxamine may be used as a second-line treatment. Joint x-rays may also show chondrocalcinosis, which is a characteristic feature of haemochromatosis.

      It is important to note that there are rare cases of families with classic features of genetic haemochromatosis but no mutation in the HFE gene. As HFE gene analysis becomes less expensive, guidelines for investigating and managing haemochromatosis may change.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 17 - An 80-year-old man comes in for a follow-up appointment. He recently had his...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man comes in for a follow-up appointment. He recently had his yearly medication review and blood tests were conducted as part of the review. The results of his full blood count show a microcytic anaemia with a haemoglobin level of 100 g/L.

      Further blood tests confirm that he has iron deficiency anaemia with a low ferritin level. However, his B12, folate, anti-TTG, and haemoglobin electrophoresis blood tests are all normal. He reports feeling well, with no changes in weight or gastrointestinal symptoms. His bowel movements are regular, and he has not experienced any rectal bleeding or mucous per rectum. Upon review of his systems, there is no indication of blood loss, and he has no history of haematuria, haemoptysis, or haematemesis.

      Upon clinical examination, there are no notable findings. His abdomen is soft with no palpable masses, his chest is clear, and his urine dipstick test is normal. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently to a lower gastrointestinal specialist

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral for Unexplained Iron Deficiency Anaemia in Men Over 60

      According to NICE guidelines, men over 60 with unexplained iron deficiency anaemia and a haemoglobin level of 120 g/L or less should be urgently referred to a lower gastrointestinal specialist for further assessment. In this case, the patient has been confirmed to have iron deficiency anaemia with a haemoglobin level below 120 g/L, despite being otherwise well with no other focal signs or symptoms, including gastrointestinal symptoms. Therefore, based solely on the unexplained nature and level of the iron deficiency anaemia, urgent referral is necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 18 - A 42-year-old man visits his GP with concerns about decreased libido and erectile...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man visits his GP with concerns about decreased libido and erectile dysfunction. His wife notes that he has a constant tan and lacks energy. He also reports experiencing hand pains. What investigation is most likely to uncover the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ferritin

      Explanation:

      To screen for haemochromatosis in the general population, a transferrin saturation level higher than ferritin is used. For family members, HFE genetic testing is recommended. It is important to note that while the patient in question is experiencing symptoms associated with haemochromatosis, diabetes mellitus alone would not typically result in decreased libido.

      Understanding Haemochromatosis: Investigation and Management

      Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that causes iron accumulation in the body due to mutations in the HFE gene. The best investigation to screen for haemochromatosis is still a topic of debate. For the general population, transferrin saturation is considered the most useful marker, while genetic testing for HFE mutation is recommended for testing family members. Diagnostic tests include molecular genetic testing for the C282Y and H63D mutations and liver biopsy using Perl’s stain.

      A typical iron study profile in patients with haemochromatosis includes high transferrin saturation levels, raised ferritin and iron, and low TIBC. The first-line treatment for haemochromatosis is venesection, which involves removing blood from the body to reduce iron levels. Transferrin saturation should be kept below 50%, and the serum ferritin concentration should be below 50 ug/l to monitor the adequacy of venesection. If venesection is not effective, desferrioxamine may be used as a second-line treatment. Joint x-rays may also show chondrocalcinosis, which is a characteristic feature of haemochromatosis.

      It is important to note that there are rare cases of families with classic features of genetic haemochromatosis but no mutation in the HFE gene. As HFE gene analysis becomes less expensive, guidelines for investigating and managing haemochromatosis may change.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 19 - What is the correct statement regarding warfarin treatment? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct statement regarding warfarin treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Patients with minor bleeding and an INR greater than 8 should receive vitamin K1

      Explanation:

      Understanding Warfarin Therapy: Inhibiting Vitamin K Dependent Factors and Managing Bleeding

      Warfarin is a medication that competitively inhibits the carboxylation of vitamin K dependent factors, including factor II, VII, IX, X, and protein C. Its half-life is approximately 44 hours, and while it is present in breast milk, the amount is too small to have any clinical significance. Unlike heparin therapy, warfarin is less likely to cause autoimmune thrombocytopenia and osteoporosis as side-effects.

      However, it is important to monitor patients on warfarin therapy for major bleeding and an international normalized ratio (INR) greater than 8, with or without bleeding. In such cases, warfarin should be stopped and phytomenadione, a form of vitamin K, should be administered either intravenously or orally. The dose may be repeated after 24 hours if the INR remains high, and warfarin can be restarted once the INR falls below 5. If the INR is between 6-8 with no bleeding, warfarin can be temporarily stopped without the need for phytomenadione.

      In cases of major bleeding, dried prothrombin complex may also be necessary to replace factors II, VII, IX, and X. Understanding the mechanisms of warfarin therapy and proper management of bleeding can help ensure the safety and efficacy of this medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 20 - A 25-year-old woman presented to the antenatal clinic for her booking visit. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presented to the antenatal clinic for her booking visit. She speaks very little English and is 20 weeks into her first pregnancy. No medical history of note can be obtained.
      Patient
      Haemoglobin
      101 g/l (115–155 g/l )
      Haematocrit
      0.38 (0.35–0.55)
      Red blood cell count
      5.24 × 1012/l (3.8–5.8 × 1012/l)
      Mean corpuscular volume
      63 fl (76–98 fl)
      Mean corpuscular haemoglobin
      20 pg (27.0–32.0 pg)
      Mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration
      32 g/dl (32.0–36.0 g/dl)
      White cell count
      6.9 × 109/l (4.0–11.0 × 109/l)
      Platelets
      241 × 109/l (150–400 × 109/l)
      Further testing reveals a fetal haemoglobin (HbF) of 0.6% (normal range < 1%) and haemoglobin A2 (HbA2) of 4.5% (normal range 1.5–3.5%).
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Beta thalassaemia trait

      Explanation:

      Understanding Beta Thalassaemia Trait: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Differences from Other Blood Disorders

      Beta thalassaemia trait is a genetic blood disorder that affects the production of beta globin, a protein that makes up part of the haemoglobin molecule. This condition is autosomal-recessive, meaning that it only occurs when both parents carry the gene mutation. Individuals with beta thalassaemia trait have a mild form of microcytic hypochromic anaemia, which can be detected through blood tests that show a normal red cell count and mean cell haemoglobin concentration, but an elevated level of haemoglobin A2.

      It is important to distinguish beta thalassaemia trait from other blood disorders, such as acute folic acid deficiency, alpha thalassaemia trait, iron deficiency, and sickle cell anaemia. Acute folic acid deficiency typically occurs after tissue damage or renal failure, while alpha thalassaemia trait is caused by a deficiency in alpha globin production. Iron deficiency can coexist with beta thalassaemia trait, but cannot be diagnosed based on microcytosis alone. Sickle cell anaemia is a separate condition that involves homozygosity for the sickle cell haemoglobin mutation.

      Diagnosis of beta thalassaemia trait requires measuring the alpha-beta chain synthesis ratio or performing genetic tests. While beta thalassaemia trait is usually asymptomatic and doesn’t cause problems during pregnancy, it is important to screen both partners to assess the risk of having a child with beta thalassaemia major, a more severe form of the disorder that can lead to life-threatening complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 21 - A 26-year-old Vietnamese woman has been feeling unwell for a few days with...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old Vietnamese woman has been feeling unwell for a few days with a sore throat. She visits her general practitioner who conducts a full blood count and finds the following results:
      Haemoglobin
      125 g/l (normal 115–155 g/l)
      White blood cell count (WCC)
      19 × 109/l (normal 4.0–11.0 × 109/l)
      Neutrophil
      14 × 109/l (normal 2.5–7.5 × 109/l)
      Platelets
      498 × 109/l (normal 150–400 × 109/l)
      What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute bacterial infection

      Explanation:

      Understanding Neutrophilia: Causes and Differential Diagnosis

      Neutrophilia, an increase in absolute neutrophil count, can be acute or chronic and is often seen as an accompanying feature of various medical conditions. Acute bacterial infections, inflammatory response to shock, gout, vasculitis, and malignancies are some of the common causes of neutrophilia. Additionally, certain drugs, activities, pregnancy, myeloproliferative states, and splenectomy can also increase the neutrophil count.

      However, it is important to note that neutrophilia alone cannot provide a definitive diagnosis. A thorough evaluation of the patient’s medical history, symptoms, and other laboratory tests is necessary to determine the underlying cause. For instance, in the case of a sore throat, acute bacterial infection is a likely cause of neutrophilia.

      On the other hand, conditions such as cytomegalovirus infection, chronic myeloid leukaemia, pregnancy, and tuberculosis are unlikely to cause neutrophilia as a primary symptom. Instead, they may present with other characteristic features such as atypical lymphocytosis, raised WCC with granulocytes, elevated IgM antibodies, or normocytic anaemia and lymphopenia.

      In summary, understanding the various causes and differential diagnosis of neutrophilia is crucial in providing accurate and timely medical care to patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 22 - A 14-year-old boy presents with excessive bleeding during a routine dental extraction. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy presents with excessive bleeding during a routine dental extraction. Upon examination, petechial skin haemorrhages are observed. Blood tests reveal:

      - Hb: 12.3 g/dl
      - Plt: 255 * 109/l
      - WBC: 7.9 * 109/l
      - PT: 13.3 secs
      - APTT: 39 secs
      - Factor VIII activity: 87%

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Von Willebrand's disease

      Explanation:

      Von Willebrand’s disease is the most probable diagnosis due to the presence of a petechial skin rash, along with a slightly increased APTT and decreased factor VIII activity.

      Understanding Von Willebrand’s Disease

      Von Willebrand’s disease is a genetic bleeding disorder that is inherited in an autosomal dominant or recessive manner. It is the most common inherited bleeding disorder, and it behaves like a platelet disorder. Patients with this condition often experience epistaxis and menorrhagia, while haemoarthroses and muscle haematomas are rare.

      The disease is caused by a deficiency or abnormality in von Willebrand factor, a large glycoprotein that promotes platelet adhesion to damaged endothelium and serves as a carrier molecule for factor VIII. There are three types of von Willebrand’s disease: type 1, which involves a partial reduction in vWF and accounts for 80% of cases; type 2, which is characterized by an abnormal form of vWF; and type 3, which involves a total lack of vWF and is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner.

      To diagnose von Willebrand’s disease, doctors may perform a bleeding time test, measure APTT, and check factor VIII levels. Defective platelet aggregation with ristocetin is also a common finding. Treatment options include tranexamic acid for mild bleeding, desmopressin to raise levels of vWF, and factor VIII concentrate. The type of von Willebrand’s disease a patient has doesn’t necessarily correlate with their symptoms, but common themes include excessive mucocutaneous bleeding, bruising without trauma, and menorrhagia in females.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 23 - A 68-year-old lady with recently diagnosed rheumatoid arthritis is seen with anaemia.

    She originally...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old lady with recently diagnosed rheumatoid arthritis is seen with anaemia.

      She originally presented three to four months ago with arthralgia affecting her hands and feet and was referred to secondary care for disease management.

      She has recently been started on methotrexate once weekly to try and control her symptoms. She also continues to take oral steroids which are being tapered off since the initiation of DMARD therapy. Her current prednisolone dose is 5 mg daily. Her other medications consist of folic acid 5 mg weekly and PRN ibuprofen 400 mg.

      She had a full blood count performed recently which revealed:

      Haemoglobin 98 g/L (115-155)
      MCV 74.4 fL (76-96)
      Red cell count 4.2 ×1012/L -

      Further tests were then arranged which revealed:

      Ferritin 22 μg/L (15-300)

      Which of the following tests is most useful in identifying the underlying cause of this patient's anaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum iron and total iron binding capacity measurement

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Microcytic Anaemia in a Patient with Rheumatoid Arthritis

      In a patient with rheumatoid arthritis presenting with microcytic anaemia, the possibility of anaemia of chronic disease should be considered. However, further tests should be done as a reversible or treatable factor may be found. B12 deficiency and haemolytic anaemia can be ruled out as they cause elevated MCV measurements. Microcytic anaemia should prompt consideration of iron deficiency, and thalassaemia trait should also be borne in mind if indicated clinically. Iron/TIBC measurement is the most likely test to diagnose microcytic anaemia due to iron deficiency. However, the normal ferritin should be interpreted with caution as it may be elevated due to underlying inflammation or infection. In this case, iron/total iron binding capacity may be more useful markers of iron deficiency. It is also worth mentioning that DMARDs such as methotrexate can cause anaemia, but this is typically macrocytic and not the case in this patient.

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      • Haematology
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  • Question 24 - A 14-year-old boy who underwent a splenectomy after a car accident is being...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy who underwent a splenectomy after a car accident is being seen in the clinic. He received all his childhood immunizations and was given a repeat pneumococcal vaccine 3 days after the surgery. What is the best course of ongoing care for him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Booster dose of Hib and MenC vaccine + annual influenza vaccination + lifelong penicillin V

      Explanation:

      Splenectomy and its Management

      Splenectomy is a surgical procedure that involves the removal of the spleen. After the operation, patients are at a higher risk of infections caused by pneumococcus, Haemophilus, meningococcus, and Capnocytophaga canimorsus. To prevent these infections, patients should receive vaccinations such as Hib, meningitis A & C, annual influenza, and pneumococcal vaccines. Antibiotic prophylaxis with penicillin V is also recommended for at least two years and until the patient is 16 years old, although some patients may require lifelong prophylaxis.

      Splenectomy is indicated for various reasons such as trauma, spontaneous rupture, hypersplenism, malignancy, splenic cysts, hydatid cysts, and splenic abscesses. Elective splenectomy is different from emergency splenectomy, and it is usually performed laparoscopically. Complications of splenectomy include haemorrhage, pancreatic fistula, and thrombocytosis. Post-splenectomy changes include an increase in platelets, Howell-Jolly bodies, target cells, and Pappenheimer bodies. Patients are at an increased risk of post-splenectomy sepsis, which typically occurs with encapsulated organisms. Therefore, prophylactic antibiotics and pneumococcal vaccines are essential to prevent infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 25 - A teenager is noticed to have palpable purpura on the elbows.

    Which one of...

    Incorrect

    • A teenager is noticed to have palpable purpura on the elbows.

      Which one of the following is most compatible with a diagnosis of Henoch-Schönlein syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Petechiae

      Explanation:

      Clinical Manifestations of Henoch-Schönlein Purpura

      Henoch-Schönlein Purpura (HSP) is a type of vasculitis that affects small blood vessels in the body. Its clinical manifestations include subcutaneous oedema of the feet, hands, scalp, and ears, as well as scrotal oedema. Pitting oedema up to the knees may indicate cardiac failure or nephrotic syndrome. Gastrointestinal bleeding may lead to bloody stools, while haematuria and proteinuria may occur. Abdominal pain, intussusception, and arthritis are also common features. Petechiae, purpura, and papules are commonly present in the thighs and buttocks. Notably, thrombocytopenia, haemolysis, and splenomegaly are absent, and clotting is normal. Understanding the clinical manifestations of HSP is crucial for its timely diagnosis and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 26 - A 29-year-old man with a history of moderate ulcerative colitis and mesalazine use...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man with a history of moderate ulcerative colitis and mesalazine use presents with a fever and sore throat lasting for a week. What is the primary investigation that should be conducted initially?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Full blood count

      Explanation:

      If a patient is taking aminosalicylates, they may experience various haematological adverse effects, including agranulocytosis. Therefore, it is crucial to conduct a full blood count promptly if the patient presents with symptoms such as fever, sore throat, fatigue, or bleeding gums.

      While C-reactive protein may be a part of the overall management plan, it is not the most critical initial investigation and is unlikely to alter the management plan.

      Although the monospot test for glandular fever may be useful if glandular fever is suspected, it is not the primary investigation that needs to be conducted urgently.

      Similarly, while a throat swab may be necessary as part of the overall management plan, it is not the most crucial initial investigation that needs to be performed urgently.

      Aminosalicylate Drugs for Inflammatory Bowel Disease

      Aminosalicylate drugs are commonly used to treat inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). These drugs work by releasing 5-aminosalicyclic acid (5-ASA) in the colon, which acts as an anti-inflammatory agent. The exact mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed that 5-ASA may inhibit prostaglandin synthesis.

      Sulphasalazine is a combination of sulphapyridine and 5-ASA. However, many of the side effects associated with this drug are due to the sulphapyridine component, such as rashes, oligospermia, headache, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, and lung fibrosis. Mesalazine is a delayed release form of 5-ASA that avoids the sulphapyridine side effects seen in patients taking sulphasalazine. However, it is still associated with side effects such as gastrointestinal upset, headache, agranulocytosis, pancreatitis, and interstitial nephritis.

      Olsalazine is another aminosalicylate drug that consists of two molecules of 5-ASA linked by a diazo bond, which is broken down by colonic bacteria. It is important to note that aminosalicylates are associated with a variety of haematological adverse effects, including agranulocytosis. Therefore, a full blood count is a key investigation in an unwell patient taking these drugs. Pancreatitis is also more common in patients taking mesalazine compared to sulfasalazine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 27 - A 25-year-old man with sickle cell anaemia complains of fatigue, paleness, and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man with sickle cell anaemia complains of fatigue, paleness, and a headache. Laboratory findings reveal a haemoglobin level of 66 g/L and a reticulocyte count of 0.8%. The patient is suspected to have contracted parvovirus.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aplastic crisis

      Explanation:

      An aplastic crisis, often caused by parvovirus infection, is characterized by a sudden decrease in haemoglobin levels without a corresponding increase in reticulocytes.

      Understanding Sickle-Cell Crises

      Sickle-cell anaemia is a condition that is characterized by periods of good health with intervening crises. There are different types of crises that are recognized, including thrombotic or painful crises, sequestration, acute chest syndrome, aplastic, and haemolytic. Thrombotic crisis, also known as painful crises or vaso-occlusive crises, are usually triggered by infection, dehydration, or deoxygenation. These crises are diagnosed clinically, and infarcts can occur in various organs, including the bones, lungs, spleen, and brain.

      Sequestration crises occur when sickling occurs within organs such as the spleen or lungs, causing pooling of blood and worsening of the anaemia. Acute chest syndrome is another type of crisis that is caused by vaso-occlusion within the pulmonary microvasculature, leading to infarction in the lung parenchyma. This can result in dyspnoea, chest pain, pulmonary infiltrates on chest x-ray, and low pO2. Management of acute chest syndrome includes pain relief, respiratory support, antibiotics, and transfusion.

      Aplastic crises are caused by infection with parvovirus, leading to a sudden fall in haemoglobin. Bone marrow suppression causes a reduced reticulocyte count. Haemolytic crises are rare and are characterized by a fall in haemoglobin due to an increased rate of haemolysis. Understanding the different types of sickle-cell crises is important for effective management and treatment of this condition.

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      • Haematology
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  • Question 28 - A frail 70-year-old woman has had some routine bloods checked after she complained...

    Incorrect

    • A frail 70-year-old woman has had some routine bloods checked after she complained of feeling tired all the time. The only finding of possible concern is a serum vitamin B12 level of 180 pmol/l (Normal range: 160-900 pmol/l). Her haemoglobin level is 131 g/l (Normal range: 115-155 g/l). She has no neurological symptoms and the clinical examination is normal.
      What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repeat the vitamin B12 test in 8 weeks

      Explanation:

      Managing Low Vitamin B12 Levels: Recommendations and Considerations

      When a patient presents with a vitamin B12 level at the lower end of the normal range, it is important to determine whether they are deficient or not. This can be complicated by the fact that people within the normal range can still experience symptoms of deficiency. In this case, the patient may have latent pernicious anaemia, dietary deficiency or food malabsorption, or be taking medications that affect gastric acid production.

      To determine the cause of the low B12 levels, the serum vitamin B12 test should be repeated after 4-8 weeks. If levels remain unchanged or have fallen further, blood should be taken for intrinsic factor antibodies and a short trial of empirical therapy (oral cyanocobalamin 50 micrograms daily for four weeks) should be given. If the antibody test is positive, lifelong therapy with hydroxocobalamin is recommended. If it is negative, a further vitamin B12 check is recommended after 3-4 months. If this is well within the reference range, food malabsorption as the cause is a strong possibility and long-term low dose cobalamin therapy should be considered.

      It is important to provide patients with strict instructions to seek immediate medical attention if symptoms of neuropathy develop. Additionally, failure of the B12 level to rise after oral treatment is an indication for lifelong treatment as for pernicious anaemia. Further investigations (plasma methylmalonic acid or holotranscobalamin) may help confirm biochemical deficiency.

      In summary, managing low vitamin B12 levels requires careful consideration of the possible causes and appropriate testing and treatment. Repeat testing, testing for intrinsic factor antibodies, and a trial of oral cyanocobalamin are all important steps in determining the best course of action for each individual patient.

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      • Haematology
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  • Question 29 - A 20-year-old female presents to the GP with a complaint of ongoing fatigue...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old female presents to the GP with a complaint of ongoing fatigue for the past 5 months. Upon conducting blood tests, the following results were obtained:

      - Hb: 118 g/L (Female: 115 - 160)
      - Platelets: 240 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      - WBC: 6.8 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      - Ferritin: 190 ng/mL (20 - 230)
      - Vitamin B12: 95 ng/L (200 - 900)
      - Folate: 4.8 nmol/L (> 3.0)

      What would be the most appropriate course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hydroxycobalamin IM

      Explanation:

      Pernicious anaemia is a condition that results in a deficiency of vitamin B12 due to an autoimmune disorder affecting the gastric mucosa. The term pernicious refers to the gradual and subtle harm caused by the condition, which often leads to delayed diagnosis. While pernicious anaemia is the most common cause of vitamin B12 deficiency, other causes include atrophic gastritis, gastrectomy, and malnutrition. The condition is characterized by the presence of antibodies to intrinsic factor and/or gastric parietal cells, which can lead to reduced vitamin B12 absorption and subsequent megaloblastic anaemia and neuropathy.

      Pernicious anaemia is more common in middle to old age females and is associated with other autoimmune disorders such as thyroid disease, type 1 diabetes mellitus, Addison’s, rheumatoid, and vitiligo. Symptoms of the condition include anaemia, lethargy, pallor, dyspnoea, peripheral neuropathy, subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord, neuropsychiatric features, mild jaundice, and glossitis. Diagnosis is made through a full blood count, vitamin B12 and folate levels, and the presence of antibodies.

      Management of pernicious anaemia involves vitamin B12 replacement, usually given intramuscularly. Patients with neurological features may require more frequent doses. Folic acid supplementation may also be necessary. Complications of the condition include an increased risk of gastric cancer.

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      • Haematology
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  • Question 30 - A 65-year-old man with a 35-pack-year smoking history presents with a 4-month history...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with a 35-pack-year smoking history presents with a 4-month history of a severe chronic cough and 6kg in weight loss. He is sent to the hospital for further investigations. You suspect a diagnosis of lung cancer.

      What finding on a blood test would support this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Raised platelets

      Explanation:

      Elevated platelet levels may serve as a potential indicator of lung cancer, as evidenced by the symptoms presented by the patient. Conversely, an increase in erythrocytes may suggest primary or secondary polycythemia, while an increase in lymphocytes may indicate an infection. However, given the patient’s age, smoking history, and weight loss, malignancy is more likely than pneumonia. A decrease in lymphocytes or platelets may suggest a hematological malignancy rather than a pulmonary one.

      Investigating Lung Cancer: Methods and Findings

      When investigating suspected lung cancer, there are several methods that doctors may use to obtain a diagnosis. The first investigation is often a chest x-ray, which can reveal abnormalities in the lungs. However, it is important to note that in around 10% of patients subsequently diagnosed with lung cancer, the chest x-ray was reported as normal. Therefore, if lung cancer is still suspected, a CT scan is the investigation of choice. This method provides a more detailed view of the lungs and can help identify any abnormalities that may have been missed on the chest x-ray.

      If a biopsy is needed to obtain a histological diagnosis, a bronchoscopy may be performed. This procedure allows doctors to take a tissue sample from the lungs for further analysis. In some cases, endobronchial ultrasound may be used to aid in the biopsy process.

      In non-small cell lung cancer cases, a PET scan may be done to establish eligibility for curative treatment. This method uses 18-fluoride oxygenase, which is preferentially taken up by neoplastic tissue. PET scanning has been shown to improve diagnostic sensitivity of both local and distant metastasis spread in non-small cell lung cancer.

      Finally, blood tests may also be done to help diagnose lung cancer. Raised platelets may be seen in some cases. By using a combination of these methods, doctors can obtain a more accurate diagnosis of lung cancer and determine the best course of treatment for their patients.

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      • Haematology
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  • Question 31 - Sarah is a 9-year-old girl with sickle cell disease who presents with mild...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 9-year-old girl with sickle cell disease who presents with mild pain in her lower back that has been present for 2 days. Her vital signs include a blood pressure of 95/60 mmHg, heart rate of 108 bpm, respiratory rate of 32/min, and a temperature of 38.1 degrees Celsius. Upon examination, there is no obvious source of infection and her overall physical exam is normal. Sarah is experiencing mild pain and is currently taking regular paracetamol and ibuprofen. What is the appropriate course of action for her management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Admit urgently

      Explanation:

      The patient needs to be urgently admitted due to their sickle cell disease. According to NICE Clinical Knowledge summaries, all individuals with clinical features of a sickle cell crisis should be admitted to the hospital, except for a well adult with mild or moderate pain and a temperature of 38°C or less, or a well child with mild or moderate pain and no increased temperature. This is because a fever with no identified source associated with a sickle cell crisis requires bloods and cultures to be taken to identify the possible source of infection and provide early treatment, as there is a higher risk of severe infections due to hyposplenism. Children with sickle cell disease should also be admitted if they present with a fever but are otherwise generally well, have a temperature over 38°C, have chest symptoms, or have a low threshold for admission. It is important to ensure that individuals with chest symptoms and their families understand the importance of seeking urgent medical advice if their clinical state deteriorates, especially if breathing becomes faster or more laboured. Whenever possible, the person should be admitted to the specialist centre that has their records.

      Managing Sickle-Cell Crises

      Sickle-cell crises can be managed through various interventions. General management includes providing analgesia, rehydration, and oxygen. Antibiotics may also be considered if there is evidence of infection. Blood transfusion may be necessary for severe or symptomatic anemia, pregnancy, or pre-operative cases. However, it is important not to rapidly reduce the percentage of Hb S containing cells.

      In cases of acute vaso-occlusive crisis, such as stroke, acute chest syndrome, multiorgan failure, or splenic sequestration crisis, exchange transfusion may be necessary. This involves rapidly reducing the percentage of Hb S containing cells. It is important to note that the management of sickle-cell crises should be tailored to the individual patient’s needs and medical history. Proper management can help alleviate symptoms and prevent complications.

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      • Haematology
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  • Question 32 - Samantha is a 42-year-old woman who is currently undergoing treatment for metastatic breast...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 42-year-old woman who is currently undergoing treatment for metastatic breast cancer. She is receiving neo-adjuvant chemotherapy before a surgical resection. Her most recent chemotherapy was 5 days ago. Samantha visits your GP clinic complaining of fatigue and muscle pain. She reports no cough, dysuria, or skin rashes. During her visit, her vital signs are as follows: temperature of 38.3 degrees Celsius, blood pressure of 110/80 mmHg, and a heart rate of 110 bpm. What is the appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent admission to hospital

      Explanation:

      An urgent admission is necessary for Lucy due to her high risk of developing neutropenic sepsis, particularly after undergoing chemotherapy within the described time frame. Her observational parameters, including a temperature above 38 degrees celsius and a pulse of 110 bpm, are concerning and suggest the onset of sepsis. According to the NICE guidelines (2012), patients taking anticancer therapy who are suspected of having sepsis should be promptly assessed in a hospital. As the main concern in Lucy’s case is neutropenic sepsis, the other options for her management would not be appropriate.

      Understanding Neutropenic Sepsis in Cancer Patients

      Neutropenic sepsis is a common complication that arises from cancer therapy, particularly chemotherapy. It typically occurs within 7-14 days after chemotherapy and is characterized by a neutrophil count of less than 0.5 * 109 in patients undergoing anticancer treatment who exhibit a temperature higher than 38ºC or other signs of clinically significant sepsis. To prevent this condition, patients who are likely to have a neutrophil count of less than 0.5 * 109 should be offered a fluoroquinolone.

      Immediate antibiotic therapy is crucial in managing neutropenic sepsis. It is recommended to start empirical antibiotic therapy with piperacillin with tazobactam (Tazocin) without waiting for the WBC. While some units add vancomycin if the patient has central venous access, NICE doesn’t support this approach. After the initial treatment, patients are assessed by a specialist and risk-stratified to determine if they can receive outpatient treatment. If patients remain febrile and unwell after 48 hours, an alternative antibiotic such as meropenem may be prescribed, with or without vancomycin. If patients do not respond after 4-6 days, the Christie guidelines suggest ordering investigations for fungal infections (e.g. HRCT) instead of blindly starting antifungal therapy. In selected patients, G-CSF may also be considered.

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      • Haematology
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  • Question 33 - A 55-year-old Greek man is found to have a mild microcytic anaemia on...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old Greek man is found to have a mild microcytic anaemia on routine screening. His red cells have low mean corpuscular volume (MCV) and mean corpuscular haemoglobin (MCH). Serum ferritin is normal. He has no symptoms.
      What is the most appropriate next management step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemoglobin electrophoresis

      Explanation:

      Haemoglobin Electrophoresis: Diagnosis of Thalassaemia Minor

      Thalassaemia is an autosomal-recessive inherited disorder that affects globin chain production, resulting in decreased or absent α or β chains of the normal adult haemoglobin molecule. Homozygous states result in thalassaemia major, which can be fatal. Inheritance of only one affected gene results in a carrier state, called thalassaemia minor or a thalassaemia trait.

      A patient’s ethnic origin and blood picture can help diagnose thalassaemia minor, which is characterized by mild or absent anaemia, hypochromic and microcytic red cells with low MCV and MCH, and normal serum ferritin. Haemoglobin electrophoresis is a useful diagnostic tool that reveals haemoglobin types and their amounts. In people with β-thalassemia, there is reduced or absent production of β-globin chains, resulting in reduced or absent HbA, elevated levels of HbA2, and increased HbF (fetal haemoglobin).

      Other diagnostic tests, such as a barium enema, iron therapy, labelled red-cell scan, and upper and/or lower gastrointestinal endoscopy, are not indicated for thalassaemia minor unless there are coexisting conditions. Haemoglobin electrophoresis remains the gold standard for diagnosing thalassaemia minor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 34 - A 16-year-old male comes to the GP complaining of a sizable bruise on...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old male comes to the GP complaining of a sizable bruise on his upper right thigh. He accidentally hit it against the table while having a meal. Upon inquiry, he reveals that he tends to bleed excessively even after minor cuts and bruises. He also mentions that his family members have experienced similar symptoms across generations.

      Which is the most prevalent genetic clotting disorder that this patient is likely to have?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Von Willebrand's disease (vWD)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Von Willebrand’s Disease

      Von Willebrand’s disease is a genetic bleeding disorder that is inherited in an autosomal dominant or recessive manner. It is the most common inherited bleeding disorder, and it behaves like a platelet disorder. Patients with this condition often experience epistaxis and menorrhagia, while haemoarthroses and muscle haematomas are rare.

      The disease is caused by a deficiency or abnormality in von Willebrand factor, a large glycoprotein that promotes platelet adhesion to damaged endothelium and serves as a carrier molecule for factor VIII. There are three types of von Willebrand’s disease: type 1, which involves a partial reduction in vWF and accounts for 80% of cases; type 2, which is characterized by an abnormal form of vWF; and type 3, which involves a total lack of vWF and is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner.

      To diagnose von Willebrand’s disease, doctors may perform a bleeding time test, measure APTT, and check factor VIII levels. Defective platelet aggregation with ristocetin is also a common finding. Treatment options include tranexamic acid for mild bleeding, desmopressin to raise levels of vWF, and factor VIII concentrate. The type of von Willebrand’s disease a patient has doesn’t necessarily correlate with their symptoms, but common themes include excessive mucocutaneous bleeding, bruising without trauma, and menorrhagia in females.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 35 - A 4-year-old girl from a Turkish family is brought to the local paediatric...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl from a Turkish family is brought to the local paediatric unit by her GP due to recurrent fatigue and paleness. The parents report no other symptoms such as fever, pain, or poor appetite. She had received treatment with a course of amoxicillin for a throat infection three weeks ago. Upon admission, her blood tests reveal:

      Hb 5.5 g/dl
      WBC 11.2 *109/l
      Platelets 320 *109/l
      Reticulocytes 4%

      What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency

      Explanation:

      Patients with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency may experience haemolysis as a result of taking ciprofloxacin.

      Understanding G6PD Deficiency

      G6PD deficiency is a common red blood cell enzyme defect that is inherited in an X-linked recessive fashion and is more prevalent in people from the Mediterranean and Africa. The deficiency can be triggered by many drugs, infections, and broad (fava) beans, leading to a crisis. G6PD is the first step in the pentose phosphate pathway, which converts glucose-6-phosphate to 6-phosphogluconolactone and results in the production of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADPH). NADPH is essential for converting oxidized glutathione back to its reduced form, which protects red blood cells from oxidative damage by oxidants such as superoxide anion (O2-) and hydrogen peroxide. Reduced G6PD activity leads to decreased reduced glutathione and increased red cell susceptibility to oxidative stress, resulting in neonatal jaundice, intravascular hemolysis, gallstones, splenomegaly, and the presence of Heinz bodies on blood films. Diagnosis is made by using a G6PD enzyme assay, and some drugs are known to cause hemolysis, while others are considered safe.

      Compared to hereditary spherocytosis, G6PD deficiency is more common in males of African and Mediterranean descent and is characterized by neonatal jaundice, infection/drug-induced hemolysis, and gallstones. On the other hand, hereditary spherocytosis affects both males and females of Northern European descent and is associated with chronic symptoms, spherocytes on blood films, and the presence of erythrocyte membrane protein band 4.2 (EMA) binding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 36 - A 44-year-old woman has experienced a spontaneous iliofemoral venous thrombosis. She has tested...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old woman has experienced a spontaneous iliofemoral venous thrombosis. She has tested positive for the lupus anticoagulant and her anticardiolipin antibodies are elevated to > 50 U/l. What is the appropriate duration of anticoagulant therapy and what INR level should be targeted?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2.5 Lifelong

      Explanation:

      INR Targets for Antiphospholipid Syndrome

      Antiphospholipid syndrome (APS) is a condition characterized by the presence of lupus anticoagulant and anticardiolipin antibody, and it increases the risk of thrombotic events. The appropriate target for international normalized ratio (INR) varies depending on the patient’s history and risk factors.

      For patients with a single episode of venous thromboembolism (VTE) while being anticoagulated, the target INR should be 2.5. Treatment for significant thrombotic events in patients with APS is generally Lifelong, and the target INR should be maintained at 2.5.

      Patients who experience recurrent thrombotic events while well anticoagulated may require an INR of 3.5. This higher target is appropriate for patients with arterial thrombosis or recurrent VTE despite adequate anticoagulation. In these cases, Lifelong anticoagulation is necessary, given that the risk of VTE is ongoing.

      In high-risk situations, such as surgery or prolonged immobilization, thromboprophylaxis may be necessary in addition to maintaining the appropriate INR target. Close monitoring and individualized treatment plans are essential for managing APS and preventing thrombotic events.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 37 - A 59-year-old woman has been experiencing fatigue and difficulty breathing. She follows a...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old woman has been experiencing fatigue and difficulty breathing. She follows a lacto-vegetarian diet and takes ramipril and indapamide for high blood pressure. Upon examination, she appears pale and has glossitis, but no neurological symptoms. Her blood test results show a low hemoglobin level, low white blood cell count, low platelet count, high mean corpuscular volume, and the presence of oval macrocytes, hypersegmented neutrophils, and circulating megaloblasts. Her ferritin level is within normal range, but her serum folate and vitamin B12 levels are low. What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pernicious anaemia

      Explanation:

      Causes of Vitamin B12 Deficiency and Pernicious Anaemia

      Vitamin B12 deficiency can lead to megaloblastic anaemia, with pernicious anaemia being the most common cause due to impaired absorption of the vitamin. Other causes include coeliac disease, pancreatic disease, malabsorption, ileal resection, Crohn’s disease, chronic tropical sprue, HIV, and radiotherapy affecting the ileum. Folate and iron deficiency may also be present. Helicobacter pylori infection, gastrectomy, gastric resection, and atrophic gastritis can also cause B12 deficiency. A vegan diet may result in deficiency, but many vegan foods are now fortified with vitamins, including B12. Drug-induced deficiency can occur with colchicine, metformin, and long-term use of drugs affecting gastric acid production. This patient has no history or symptoms suggestive of these causes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 38 - A 65-year-old man with a history of ischaemic heart disease becomes more breathless...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with a history of ischaemic heart disease becomes more breathless and looks anaemic.
      Test Result Normal Value
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 95 g/l 130-170 g/l
      Reticulocyte count 0.85% 0.5%-1.5%
      Mean cell volume (MCV) 120.6 fl 82-102 fl
      Vitamin B12 90.0 ng/l 130-700 ng/l
      Intrinsic factor antibodies Positive
      He is commenced on injections of hydroxocobalamin with blood tests to be repeated in seven days.
      What is the most likely change at 1 week which would suggest that the patient is responding to treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A rise in the reticulocyte count

      Explanation:

      Monitoring Response to Vitamin B12 Treatment in Pernicious Anaemia

      Pernicious anaemia is a condition caused by vitamin B12 deficiency, which can lead to a range of symptoms including fatigue, weakness, and neurological problems. Treatment involves intramuscular injections of hydroxocobalamin, with the frequency and duration of treatment depending on the severity of the deficiency.

      To monitor the response to treatment, several indicators can be measured. A rise in the reticulocyte count and haemoglobin level within 7-10 days indicates a positive effect. The mean cell volume (MCV) may initially increase due to the increased reticulocyte count, but should return to normal within 25-78 days. Intrinsic factor antibodies may remain present despite treatment. Measuring cobalamin levels is not always necessary, but can be done 1-2 months after starting treatment if there is no response.

      Overall, monitoring these indicators can help confirm a diagnosis of pernicious anaemia and ensure that treatment is effective in addressing the deficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 39 - A 27-year-old male patient complains of fatigue and noticeable darkening of the skin....

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old male patient complains of fatigue and noticeable darkening of the skin. Upon conducting blood tests, it was discovered that the patient has abnormal liver function and impaired glucose tolerance. The suspected diagnosis is haemochromatosis. What is the recommended initial investigation approach?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transferrin saturation + ferritin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Haemochromatosis: Investigation and Management

      Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that causes iron accumulation in the body due to mutations in the HFE gene. The best investigation to screen for haemochromatosis is still a topic of debate. For the general population, transferrin saturation is considered the most useful marker, while genetic testing for HFE mutation is recommended for testing family members. Diagnostic tests include molecular genetic testing for the C282Y and H63D mutations and liver biopsy using Perl’s stain.

      A typical iron study profile in patients with haemochromatosis includes high transferrin saturation levels, raised ferritin and iron, and low TIBC. The first-line treatment for haemochromatosis is venesection, which involves removing blood from the body to reduce iron levels. Transferrin saturation should be kept below 50%, and the serum ferritin concentration should be below 50 ug/l to monitor the adequacy of venesection. If venesection is not effective, desferrioxamine may be used as a second-line treatment. Joint x-rays may also show chondrocalcinosis, which is a characteristic feature of haemochromatosis.

      It is important to note that there are rare cases of families with classic features of genetic haemochromatosis but no mutation in the HFE gene. As HFE gene analysis becomes less expensive, guidelines for investigating and managing haemochromatosis may change.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 40 - Ms Adebayo, a 26-year-old patient, presents with a complaint of feeling constantly tired....

    Incorrect

    • Ms Adebayo, a 26-year-old patient, presents with a complaint of feeling constantly tired. She believes this has been happening gradually over the past few months and has no other specific physical symptoms. She is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill, a non-smoker, and reports drinking a bottle of wine per week. Ms Adebayo has a family history of thyroid disease and wonders if she is developing a thyroid problem. She also mentions that she has been a vegan for a couple of years and asks if this could be related.

      After conducting various blood tests, an abnormal full blood count was discovered:

      Hb 91 g/L Male: (135-180) Female: (115 - 160)
      Platelets 220 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 6.7 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      MCV 109 fL (80-100)

      What is the likely underlying cause of Ms Adebayo's fatigue?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitamin B12 deficiency

      Explanation:

      A deficiency in Vitamin B12 is a risk factor for megaloblastic anaemia, which is the most likely cause in this case. Vegans are particularly susceptible to B12 deficiency as it is only naturally found in animal products. To prevent this, vegans should consume B12 fortified products or take supplements.

      Excessive alcohol consumption can also lead to megaloblastic anaemia, but there is no indication in the patient’s history to suggest this as the cause.

      Iron deficiency is an incorrect answer as it causes microcytic anaemia. However, vegans should still ensure they consume enough iron in their diet.

      Hyperthyroidism is also an incorrect answer as it is hypothyroidism that causes macrocytic anaemia.

      Vitamin B12 is essential for the development of red blood cells and the maintenance of the nervous system. It is absorbed through the binding of intrinsic factor, which is secreted by parietal cells in the stomach, and actively absorbed in the terminal ileum. A deficiency in vitamin B12 can be caused by pernicious anaemia, post gastrectomy, a vegan or poor diet, disorders or surgery of the terminal ileum, Crohn’s disease, or metformin use.

      Symptoms of vitamin B12 deficiency include macrocytic anaemia, a sore tongue and mouth, neurological symptoms, and neuropsychiatric symptoms such as mood disturbances. The dorsal column is usually affected first, leading to joint position and vibration issues before distal paraesthesia.

      Management of vitamin B12 deficiency involves administering 1 mg of IM hydroxocobalamin three times a week for two weeks, followed by once every three months if there is no neurological involvement. If a patient is also deficient in folic acid, it is important to treat the B12 deficiency first to avoid subacute combined degeneration of the cord.

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      • Haematology
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  • Question 41 - A 6-year-old boy who has been unwell over the preceding two months is...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy who has been unwell over the preceding two months is brought in by his father.

      The father tells you that recently the child has been overly tired and complaining of generalised aches and pains. He has been brought in today with a sore throat. Looking at his record he has been back and forth with recurrent episodes of sore throat.

      On examination, the child looks pale and has enlarged lymph nodes in the neck. You also note a few small petechiae on the child's abdomen.

      What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Check a full blood count (FBC)

      Explanation:

      Suspected Leukaemia in a Young Girl

      This young girl is showing signs that suggest she may have leukaemia. Her lymphadenopathy, petechial rash, and recurrent unwellness, combined with her pale appearance, should raise concerns and prompt an urgent FBC.

      Performing a urine dipstick test would not be appropriate as she doesn’t have any specific renal or urinary symptoms that suggest Henoch-Schönlein purpura. Prescribing antibiotics would also be inadequate as it would neglect the serious underlying disorder present.

      Symptomatic advice and monitoring would not be enough as the red flag features present require immediate action. A throat swab would also fail to address the bigger picture and detect the underlying problem.

      It is crucial to recognize the potential severity of this situation and take appropriate measures to diagnose and treat the suspected leukaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 42 - Following NICE guidance, which one of the following patients should undergo screening for...

    Incorrect

    • Following NICE guidance, which one of the following patients should undergo screening for hereditary thrombophilia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A 54-year-old woman with an unprovoked deep vein thrombosis. Her sister was diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism three years ago

      Explanation:

      The probability of an underlying hereditary thrombophilia is high in the 54-year-old woman who has an unprovoked deep vein thrombosis and a first-degree relative with the same condition.

      Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines in 2020, recommending the use of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) as first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including as interim anticoagulants before a definite diagnosis is made. They also recommend the use of DOACs in patients with active cancer, as opposed to low-molecular weight heparin as was previously recommended. Routine cancer screening is no longer recommended following a VTE diagnosis.

      If a patient is suspected of having a DVT, a two-level DVT Wells score should be performed to assess the likelihood of the condition. If a DVT is ‘likely’ (2 points or more), a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan should be carried out within 4 hours. If the result is positive, then a diagnosis of DVT is made and anticoagulant treatment should start. If the result is negative, a D-dimer test should be arranged. If a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan cannot be carried out within 4 hours, a D-dimer test should be performed and interim therapeutic anticoagulation administered whilst waiting for the proximal leg vein ultrasound scan (which should be performed within 24 hours).

      The cornerstone of VTE management is anticoagulant therapy. The big change in the 2020 guidelines was the increased use of DOACs. Apixaban or rivaroxaban (both DOACs) should be offered first-line following the diagnosis of a DVT. Instead of using low-molecular weight heparin (LMWH) until the diagnosis is confirmed, NICE now advocate using a DOAC once a diagnosis is suspected, with this continued if the diagnosis is confirmed. If neither apixaban or rivaroxaban are suitable, then either LMWH followed by dabigatran or edoxaban OR LMWH followed by a vitamin K antagonist (VKA, i.e. warfarin) can be used.

      All patients should have anticoagulation for at least 3 months. Continuing anticoagulation after this period is partly determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked. If the VTE was provoked, the treatment is typically stopped after the initial 3 months (3 to 6 months for people with active cancer). If the VTE was

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 43 - A 50-year-old man visits his GP after receiving abnormal liver function test results...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man visits his GP after receiving abnormal liver function test results from a private medical screening. Despite consuming approximately 40 units of alcohol per week, he is asymptomatic and in good health. The following results were obtained:

      - Bilirubin: 21 µmol/l
      - ALP: 100 u/l
      - ALT: 67 u/l
      - γGT: 110 u/l
      - Albumin: 40 g/l

      All other blood tests, including FBC, U&Es, and fasting glucose, were normal. A liver screen was arranged, which revealed the following:

      - Hepatitis B: Negative
      - Hepatitis C: Negative
      - Serum ferritin: 550 microg/L (normal range: 25-300 microg/L)
      - Immunoglobulins: Normal
      - Ultrasound liver: Fatty changes
      - Transferrin saturation: 41% (normal range: <50%)

      What is the most likely underlying cause of the elevated ferritin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alcohol excess

      Explanation:

      The elevated ferritin level can be attributed to the patient’s excessive alcohol consumption, as the typical transferrin saturation rules out iron overload as a potential cause.

      Understanding Ferritin Levels in the Body

      Ferritin is a protein found inside cells that binds to iron and stores it for later use. When ferritin levels are increased, it is usually defined as being above 300 µg/L in men and postmenopausal women, and above 200 µg/L in premenopausal women. However, it is important to note that ferritin is an acute phase protein, meaning that it can be synthesized in larger quantities during times of inflammation. This can lead to falsely elevated results, which must be interpreted in the context of the patient’s clinical picture and other blood test results.

      There are two main categories of causes for increased ferritin levels: those without iron overload (which account for around 90% of patients) and those with iron overload (which account for around 10% of patients). Causes of increased ferritin levels without iron overload include inflammation, alcohol excess, liver disease, chronic kidney disease, and malignancy. Causes of increased ferritin levels with iron overload include primary iron overload (hereditary hemochromatosis) and secondary iron overload (which can occur after repeated transfusions).

      On the other hand, reduced ferritin levels can be an indication of iron deficiency anemia. Since iron and ferritin are bound together, a decrease in ferritin levels can suggest a decrease in iron levels as well. Measuring serum ferritin levels can be helpful in determining whether a low hemoglobin level and microcytosis are truly caused by an iron deficiency state. It is important to note that the best test for determining iron overload is transferrin saturation, with normal values being less than 45% in females and less than 50% in males.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 44 - Which of the following is the least probable cause of haemolysis in a...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the least probable cause of haemolysis in a patient with G6PD deficiency?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Penicillin

      Explanation:

      Understanding G6PD Deficiency

      G6PD deficiency is a common red blood cell enzyme defect that is inherited in an X-linked recessive fashion and is more prevalent in people from the Mediterranean and Africa. The deficiency can be triggered by many drugs, infections, and broad (fava) beans, leading to a crisis. G6PD is the first step in the pentose phosphate pathway, which converts glucose-6-phosphate to 6-phosphogluconolactone and results in the production of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADPH). NADPH is essential for converting oxidized glutathione back to its reduced form, which protects red blood cells from oxidative damage by oxidants such as superoxide anion (O2-) and hydrogen peroxide. Reduced G6PD activity leads to decreased reduced glutathione and increased red cell susceptibility to oxidative stress, resulting in neonatal jaundice, intravascular hemolysis, gallstones, splenomegaly, and the presence of Heinz bodies on blood films. Diagnosis is made by using a G6PD enzyme assay, and some drugs are known to cause hemolysis, while others are considered safe.

      Compared to hereditary spherocytosis, G6PD deficiency is more common in males of African and Mediterranean descent and is characterized by neonatal jaundice, infection/drug-induced hemolysis, and gallstones. On the other hand, hereditary spherocytosis affects both males and females of Northern European descent and is associated with chronic symptoms, spherocytes on blood films, and the presence of erythrocyte membrane protein band 4.2 (EMA) binding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 45 - A 54-year-old man comes to you with complaints of fatigue, overall weakness, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man comes to you with complaints of fatigue, overall weakness, and weight loss that have been going on for the past 4 months. He also reports experiencing pain in his second and third fingers for the past month and has been having increasing difficulty with erectile dysfunction. You suspect that he may have hereditary haemochromatosis and order blood tests.

      What result would be most consistent with your suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ferritin - high; serum iron - high; total iron binding capacity - low; transferrin saturation - high

      Explanation:

      Haemochromatosis is characterised by elevated levels of ferritin and transferrin saturation, along with a low total iron-binding capacity on iron studies. This hereditary disorder leads to an excessive accumulation of iron. Any options that do not show raised levels of ferritin and transferrin saturation can be excluded during initial screening. Transferrin is a plasma protein responsible for transporting iron, and its levels increase during iron deficiency to maximise iron utilisation. Total iron-binding capacity reflects the availability of iron-binding sites on transferrin, and its levels increase during iron deficiency and decrease during iron overload. Therefore, a low total iron-binding capacity is expected in haemochromatosis.

      Understanding Haemochromatosis: Investigation and Management

      Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that causes iron accumulation in the body due to mutations in the HFE gene. The best investigation to screen for haemochromatosis is still a topic of debate. For the general population, transferrin saturation is considered the most useful marker, while genetic testing for HFE mutation is recommended for testing family members. Diagnostic tests include molecular genetic testing for the C282Y and H63D mutations and liver biopsy using Perl’s stain.

      A typical iron study profile in patients with haemochromatosis includes high transferrin saturation levels, raised ferritin and iron, and low TIBC. The first-line treatment for haemochromatosis is venesection, which involves removing blood from the body to reduce iron levels. Transferrin saturation should be kept below 50%, and the serum ferritin concentration should be below 50 ug/l to monitor the adequacy of venesection. If venesection is not effective, desferrioxamine may be used as a second-line treatment. Joint x-rays may also show chondrocalcinosis, which is a characteristic feature of haemochromatosis.

      It is important to note that there are rare cases of families with classic features of genetic haemochromatosis but no mutation in the HFE gene. As HFE gene analysis becomes less expensive, guidelines for investigating and managing haemochromatosis may change.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 46 - A 75-year-old man who takes warfarin for atrial fibrillation presents with lethargy. A...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man who takes warfarin for atrial fibrillation presents with lethargy. A blood test is arranged:

      Hb 14.5 g/dl
      Plt 200 * 109/l
      WBC 5.8 * 109/l
      INR 6.3

      What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Withhold 2 doses of warfarin and reduce subsequent maintenance dose

      Explanation:

      If there is no bleeding and the INR falls between 5.0-8.0, it is recommended by the BNF to hold back 1-2 doses of warfarin and decrease the following maintenance dose.

      Managing High INR Levels in Patients Taking Warfarin

      When a patient taking warfarin experiences high INR levels, the management approach depends on the severity of the situation. In cases of major bleeding, warfarin should be stopped immediately and intravenous vitamin K should be administered along with prothrombin complex concentrate or fresh frozen plasma if available. For minor bleeding, warfarin should also be stopped and a lower dose of intravenous vitamin K (1-3 mg) should be given. If the INR remains high after 24 hours, another dose of vitamin K can be administered. Warfarin can be restarted once the INR drops below 5.0.

      In cases where there is no bleeding but the INR is above 8.0, warfarin should be stopped and vitamin K (1-5mg) can be given orally using the intravenous preparation. If the INR remains high after 24 hours, another dose of vitamin K can be given. Warfarin can be restarted once the INR drops below 5.0.

      If the INR is between 5.0-8.0 and there is minor bleeding, warfarin should be stopped and a lower dose of intravenous vitamin K (1-3 mg) should be given. Warfarin can be restarted once the INR drops below 5.0. If there is no bleeding, warfarin can be withheld for 1 or 2 doses and the subsequent maintenance dose can be reduced.

      It is important to note that in cases of intracranial hemorrhage, prothrombin complex concentrate should be considered instead of fresh frozen plasma as it can take time to defrost. These guidelines are based on the recommendations of the British Committee for Standards in Haematology and the British National Formulary.

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      • Haematology
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  • Question 47 - A 70-year-old man is brought to surgery with confusion and pallor. His son...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man is brought to surgery with confusion and pallor. His son reports that he has been getting more confused and tired for the past two months. Blood tests are reported as follows:

      Hb 9.2 g/dl
      MCV 120 fl
      Plt 152 * 109/l
      WBC 4.8 * 109/l

      In light of the macrocytic anaemia some further tests are ordered:

      Intrinsic factor antibodies Negative
      Vitamin B12 90 ng/l (200-900 ng/l)
      Folic acid 1.3 nmol/l (> 3.0 nmol/l)

      What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intramuscular vitamin B12 + start oral folic acid when vitamin B12 levels are normal

      Explanation:

      To prevent subacute combined degeneration of the cord, it is crucial to address the B12 deficiency before treating the folic acid deficiency in a patient who is deficient in both. Additionally, referral to secondary care may be necessary to determine the root cause of the deficiency.

      Understanding Macrocytic Anaemia

      Macrocytic anaemia is a type of anaemia that can be classified into two categories: megaloblastic and normoblastic. Megaloblastic anaemia is caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12 or folate, which leads to the production of abnormally large red blood cells in the bone marrow. This type of anaemia can also be caused by certain medications, alcohol, liver disease, hypothyroidism, pregnancy, and myelodysplasia.

      On the other hand, normoblastic anaemia is caused by an increase in the number of immature red blood cells, known as reticulocytes, in the bone marrow. This can occur as a result of certain medications, such as methotrexate, or in response to other underlying medical conditions.

      It is important to identify the underlying cause of macrocytic anaemia in order to provide appropriate treatment. This may involve addressing any nutritional deficiencies, managing underlying medical conditions, or adjusting medications. With proper management, most cases of macrocytic anaemia can be successfully treated.

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      • Haematology
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  • Question 48 - A 27-year-old man presents with a lump on the right side of his...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man presents with a lump on the right side of his neck which he first noticed two months ago. He tried several homeopathic medications but the lump steadily increased in size. He also noticed some shortness of breath and sweating at night. On examination, he has a large mass that is firm, non-tender and not fixed to deeper structures or to the skin. You suspect the mass is lymph nodes. He is slightly pale but no other masses are palpable. His temperature is 38°C.
      Which of the following investigations is most likely to be diagnostic?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Excision biopsy

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Imaging for Unilateral Lymphadenopathy: Excision Biopsy as the Best Option

      Unilateral lymphadenopathy without pain is most likely caused by lymphoma, either Hodgkin’s or non-Hodgkin’s. Tuberculosis is a less likely diagnosis but should not be ruled out, especially in patients with risk factors. Systemic symptoms (B symptoms) suggest Hodgkin’s disease. Excisional node biopsy is the best diagnostic option as it allows for the identification of lymphomas based on lymph node morphology. CT scans of the thorax and abdomen are used for staging Hodgkin’s lymphoma, while fine-needle aspiration biopsy is less helpful as it fails to reveal the lymph node architecture and may not retrieve Reed-Sternberg cells. MRI scans of the neck are not commonly used for lymphoma assessment, while ultrasonography is commonly used for thyroid lump detection and assessment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 49 - Multiple myeloma is a monoclonal gammopathy that is characterised by proliferation of a...

    Incorrect

    • Multiple myeloma is a monoclonal gammopathy that is characterised by proliferation of a single clone of plasma cells that produce a homogeneous M protein (paraprotein).
      Select from the list the single correct statement relating to M protein in individuals over the age of 60.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It produces a distinctive spike on electrophoresis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Multiple Myeloma: A Clonal Disorder of Plasma Cells

      Multiple myeloma is a rare but serious type of cancer that affects plasma cells in the bone marrow. It is characterized by the presence of monoclonal immunoglobulin, which can be detected through serum electrophoresis. Patients with multiple myeloma often experience painful bone lesions, recurrent infections, weakness, renal failure, and hypercalcemia.

      Plasma cells produce heavy and light chains separately, and an excess of free light chains can enter the bloodstream and be filtered by the kidneys. In cases of multiple myeloma, the amount of monoclonal free light chains can become too high for the kidneys to reabsorb, leading to the presence of Bence Jones protein in the urine.

      While monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance can also cause a spike-like peak in the γ-globulin zone, the levels of antibody are lower and there are no other features of myeloma. Some cases of myeloma may secrete only light chains or no detectable immunoglobulin at all.

      The amount of M protein present can be used to assess the amount of myeloma at diagnosis and track the disease throughout treatment. Understanding the characteristics and detection of multiple myeloma is crucial for effective management and care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 50 - A 23-year-old male presents with episodic nausea and abdominal pain although he has...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old male presents with episodic nausea and abdominal pain although he has maintained a normal weight. The symptoms have been attributed to irritable bowel syndrome. There are no abnormalities on examination.

      Blood tests were performed which reveal:

      Haemoglobin 122 g/L (130-180)
      MCV 92 fL (80-96)
      White cell count 6.5 ×109/L (4-11)
      Platelets 310 ×109/L (150-400)
      Reticulocytes 5% (0.5-2.4)
      Bilirubin 42 µmol/L (1-22)
      AST/ALP Normal
      Coombs' test Negative
      Haptoglobin Mild decrease

      Which of the following is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hereditary spherocytosis

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Elevated Bilirubin and Reticulocyte Count

      This patient presents with an elevated bilirubin concentration and reticulocyte count, indicating haemolysis. The most likely diagnosis is hereditary spherocytosis, which can be confirmed through a blood film. This condition also explains the patient’s symptoms of nausea and abdominal pains, which suggest gallstones, a common occurrence in mild cases.

      Hereditary spherocytosis is typically an incidental finding unless the patient has active hemolysis, gallstones, or uncomfortable splenomegaly. In such cases, gallstones are often the presenting symptom. The haemolysis associated with hereditary spherocytosis is primarily extravascular, resulting in only a slight decrease in haptoglobin levels.

      In contrast, Gilbert’s syndrome results in an isolated increase in unconjugated bilirubin, while Dublin-Johnson syndrome causes conjugated hyperbilirubinemia. Acute intermittent porphyria, which is due to a deficiency in heam production, results in episodes of severe abdominal pain accompanied by significant neurological symptoms. In cases of viral hepatitis, one would expect to see elevated levels of ALT and AST.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 51 - An 80-year-old woman presents to the clinic with complaints of night sweats, lethargy,...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman presents to the clinic with complaints of night sweats, lethargy, and gradual weight loss over the past three months. She has a history of hypertension and had a previous myocardial infarction four years ago. Over the last two months, she has been seeing your colleague for back pain. Other than that, she is in good health.

      During the examination, she appears pale and fatigued, with a blood pressure of 135/82 mmHg, a regular pulse of 85, and an unremarkable abdomen. Notable blood test results include a hemoglobin level of 90 g/L, an ESR of 85 mm/hr, and an impaired creatinine level of 130 µmol/L. Her serum immunoglobulins are unremarkable.

      What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urine protein electrophoresis

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Myeloma

      Up to one-third of patients with myeloma may not show any abnormality in their serum immunoglobulin electrophoresis. In such cases, urine protein electrophoresis is the next appropriate step to confirm the diagnosis. The presence of monoclonal protein in serum often leads to an excess of free light chains in the urine, which can be detected through urine electrophoresis.

      While bone scanning is not very effective in confirming myeloma, plain radiography can be used to evaluate the disease. A skeletal survey is the preferred option for disease evaluation. A trial of iron supplements should be avoided as it can delay the diagnosis of myeloma and lead to a poorer outlook. Endoscopy should only be considered after ruling out myeloma as the cause of anaemia.

      In summary, a combination of serum and urine protein electrophoresis, plain radiography, and skeletal survey can help diagnose myeloma accurately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 52 - A 12-year-old boy is brought to the doctor by his mother due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy is brought to the doctor by his mother due to concerns about his recent behavior. The mother has noticed that he appears paler than usual and has been experiencing increased fatigue over the past few weeks, despite maintaining his regular routine. Additionally, he has been experiencing multiple colds and coughs over the past month, which is unusual for him. Upon examination, the boy's vital signs are all within normal range, and some pallor is noted, but no other abnormalities are observed. What would be the next step in investigating this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: FBC to be performed within 48 hours

      Explanation:

      An urgent full blood count is required to evaluate for leukaemia in children and young adults (0-24 years) who exhibit symptoms suggestive of the disease. These symptoms may include persistent fatigue, unexplained infections, and pallor. The primary concern is to rule out leukaemia, and a full blood count should be conducted within 48 hours. While a lymph node biopsy and bone marrow biopsy may be necessary in the future, they are not currently required.

      Identifying Haematological Malignancy in Young People

      Young people aged 0-24 years who exhibit any of the following symptoms should undergo a full blood count within 48 hours to investigate for leukaemia: pallor, persistent fatigue, unexplained fever, unexplained persistent infections, generalised lymphadenopathy, persistent or unexplained bone pain, unexplained bruising, and unexplained bleeding. These symptoms may indicate the presence of haematological malignancy, which requires prompt diagnosis and management. It is important to identify these symptoms early to ensure timely treatment and improve outcomes for young people with suspected haematological malignancy. Therefore, healthcare professionals should be vigilant in recognising these symptoms and referring patients for urgent investigation. Proper management of haematological malignancy in young people can significantly improve their quality of life and long-term prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 53 - A 42-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of fatigue and looks...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of fatigue and looks to be anaemic. She mentions her periods are regular, but not particularly heavy. There are no other significant findings on history taking or examination. She is treated with an adequate dose of ferrous sulfate and takes the medication without any problem. After one month, her haemoglobin (Hb) level is 98 g/l.

      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal Value
      Hb 98 g/l 115–165 g/l
      White cell count 7.2 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
      Platelet count 320 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Reticulocyte count 0.80% 0.5%–1.5%
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 71.5 fl 82–102 fl
      Vitamin B12 190 ng/l 130–700 ng/l
      Serum folate 7.8 ng/ml 6–20 ng/ml
      Ferritin 10 ng/ml 14–186 ng/ml

      What is the most appropriate management option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Measure IgA anti-tissue transglutaminase antibodies (tTGAs)

      Explanation:

      Management of Iron Deficiency Anemia

      Explanation:
      When managing a patient with iron deficiency anemia, it is important to consider the underlying cause and appropriate treatment options. In this case, as the patient is tolerating ferrous sulfate well but has not seen an increase in hemoglobin levels, malabsorption such as coeliac disease should be suspected. The preferred initial investigation for coeliac disease is the IgA anti-tissue transglutaminase antibodies (tTGAs) test.

      Changing the preparation of iron is not necessary as the patient has tolerated ferrous sulfate well. Doubling the dose of ferrous sulfate is also not recommended as the patient has already been treated with an adequate dose. A blood transfusion is not indicated unless the patient is acutely unwell and meets certain criteria.

      Treatment with iron, folic acid, and vitamin B12 is not necessary as the patient’s folic acid and vitamin B12 levels are normal. The low mean corpuscular volume (MCV) and ferritin levels indicate that the primary cause of anemia is iron deficiency. Therefore, the appropriate management would be to investigate for malabsorption and continue treatment with iron supplementation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 54 - A 25-year-old university student comes to your clinic with a complaint of back...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old university student comes to your clinic with a complaint of back pain that has been bothering her for the past six months. She denies any bladder or bowel dysfunction. She reports experiencing severe pain in her left shoulder that radiates down her left arm whenever she drinks alcohol.

      Upon examination, there is no kyphosis or scoliosis, and palpation of the spine and lumbar area is unremarkable. Sensation in her legs is normal, and her reflexes are intact.

      What condition is indicated by the symptom of pain during or after alcohol consumption?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hodgkin's lymphoma

      Explanation:

      Alcohol-Associated Pain in Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

      Pain during or after drinking alcohol has been linked to Hodgkin’s lymphoma since the 1950s. This pain typically occurs in affected lymph nodes and can be sharp or dull, with a radiating distribution. While it only occurs in 2-3% of people with HL, it is considered pathognomonic due to its high specificity. Alcohol-associated pain has also been noted in other conditions such as TB lymphadenitis, cervical carcinoma, and bronchial adenocarcinoma. In some cases, HL may present with nonspecific back pain. If a patient reports alcohol-associated pain, a full history and examination should be conducted to look for other symptoms of HL, including lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 55 - A 50-year-old woman has been referred to the hospital with several asymmetrically distributed...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman has been referred to the hospital with several asymmetrically distributed patches of what was thought to be eczema on the buttocks and trunk. However, there was only minimal improvement with potent topical corticosteroids. The diagnosis after a biopsy is mycosis fungoides.
      Which of the following best describes mycosis fungoides?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cutaneous T-cell lymphoma

      Explanation:

      Understanding Mycosis Fungoides: A Type of Cutaneous T-Cell Lymphoma

      Mycosis fungoides, also known as cutaneous T-cell lymphoma, is a type of lymphoma that primarily affects the skin. It is the most common form of cutaneous lymphoma and typically presents with eczematous or dermatitis skin lesions that can persist for years before a diagnosis is confirmed.

      This disease is more common in men and black people, with a median age of onset around 50 years. The lymphoma first appears as superficial skin lesions that thicken and eventually ulcerate. In advanced stages, it can involve lymph nodes and other organs.

      Patients with stage IA disease who undergo treatment have a normal life expectancy. However, the median survival is 11 years for patients with more extensive patch and/or plaque (stage IB or IIA) and less for those with advanced disease.

      It is important to note that mycosis fungoides is not a fungal infection, despite its misleading name. It is also distinct from cutaneous B-cell lymphoma, which has a different growth pattern and presentation.

      Overall, understanding mycosis fungoides is crucial for early diagnosis and effective treatment of this type of cutaneous T-cell lymphoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 56 - A 25-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents to the clinic with complaints of constant fatigue,...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents to the clinic with complaints of constant fatigue, joint pains, and stiffness in her hands and feet, which are worse in the morning. She also reports a new rash on both cheeks.

      Upon examination, there are no abnormalities in her respiratory, cardiovascular, or gastrointestinal systems, and her vital signs are normal. Although there is no joint swelling, there is mild tenderness in the metacarpo-phalangeal joints of both hands and metatarso-phalangeal joints of both feet. Additionally, she has a mildly erythematous papular rash on both cheeks.

      To rule out systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), which blood test would be the most helpful?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antinuclear antibody (ANA)

      Explanation:

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can be investigated through various tests, including antibody tests. ANA testing is highly sensitive and useful for ruling out SLE, but it has low specificity. About 99% of SLE patients are ANA positive. Rheumatoid factor testing is positive in 20% of SLE patients. Anti-dsDNA testing is highly specific (>99%) but less sensitive (70%). Anti-Smith testing is also highly specific (>99%) but has a lower sensitivity (30%). Other antibody tests that can be used include anti-U1 RNP, SS-A (anti-Ro), and SS-B (anti-La).

      Monitoring of SLE can be done through various markers, including inflammatory markers such as ESR. During active disease, CRP levels may be normal, and a raised CRP may indicate an underlying infection. Complement levels (C3, C4) are low during active disease due to the formation of complexes that lead to the consumption of complement. Anti-dsDNA titres can also be used for disease monitoring, but it is important to note that they are not present in all SLE patients. Overall, these investigations can help diagnose and monitor SLE, allowing for appropriate management and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 57 - A man in his 30s reports experiencing severe generalised itch for the past...

    Incorrect

    • A man in his 30s reports experiencing severe generalised itch for the past month. He denies having a rash but mentions waking up at night drenched in sweat.

      Which of the following conditions is frequently linked to itching?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hodgkin's disease

      Explanation:

      Hodgkin’s Disease: A Malignant Lymphoid Proliferation

      Hodgkin’s disease is a type of cancer that affects the lymphoid system. It is characterized by the abnormal growth of cells in the lymph nodes, which can cause swelling and tenderness. In addition to lymphadenopathy, patients with Hodgkin’s disease may also experience general pruritus (itchiness) and night sweats. These symptoms can be caused by the release of chemicals from the cancerous cells, which can affect the body’s immune system and cause inflammation. Early diagnosis and treatment are important for managing Hodgkin’s disease and improving outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 58 - A 32-year-old Asian lady presents to you through her midwife. She is currently...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old Asian lady presents to you through her midwife. She is currently in her second trimester of her first pregnancy and has been found to be anaemic through recent blood tests. Despite being on iron supplements for the past eight weeks, her full blood count has not improved. Upon reviewing her most recent full blood count, the following results were found:
      - Haemoglobin (HB) 94 g/L (115-160)
      - Mean cell volume (MCV) 66.1 fL (80-100)
      - Red blood cell count 5.7 ×1012/L (3.5-5.0)

      What investigations would confirm the underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemoglobin electrophoresis

      Explanation:

      Thalassaemia Trait and Microcytic Anaemia

      Patients with microcytic anaemia may have beta-thalassaemia trait, also known as beta-thalassaemia minor. This condition is typically mild and well-tolerated, with a low mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of less than 75. However, the anaemia may worsen during pregnancy. A diagnosis can be confirmed through haemoglobin electrophoresis, which will reveal an increased HbA2. It is important to consider the patient’s ethnicity, as thalassaemia trait is more commonly seen in individuals from the Indian sub-continent, Africa, the Mediterranean, and the far East. Although rare, cases can occur in British Caucasians.

      Other conditions that can cause microcytic anaemia include B12 deficiency, folate deficiency, and haemolytic anaemia, all of which lead to a raised MCV. Serum immunoglobulin electrophoresis is used in the diagnosis of myeloma, which is not suggested by the given clinical information. Anaemia with microcytosis should prompt consideration of iron deficiency, and thalassaemia trait should also be borne in mind. An additional piece of information that can be useful is the red blood cell count. Values less than 5 ×1012/L suggest iron deficiency, whereas values greater than 5 ×1012/L may indicate thalassaemia trait. In this case, the red blood cell count is greater than 5 ×1012/L.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 59 - A 6-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital after experiencing a haemarthrosis in...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital after experiencing a haemarthrosis in his right knee while playing outside. The following blood tests are conducted:

      Platelets 220 * 109/l
      PT 11 secs
      APTT 76 secs
      Factor VIIIc activity Normal

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemophilia B

      Explanation:

      An extremely high APTT can result from the use of heparin, as well as from haemophilia or antiphospholipid syndrome. If factor VIIIc activity is normal, the patient may have haemophilia B (which involves a deficiency of factor IX). Antiphospholipid syndrome is a condition that increases the risk of blood clots.

      Haemophilia is a genetic disorder that affects blood coagulation and is inherited in an X-linked recessive manner. It is possible for up to 30% of patients to have no family history of the condition. Haemophilia A is caused by a deficiency of factor VIII, while haemophilia B, also known as Christmas disease, is caused by a lack of factor IX.

      The symptoms of haemophilia include haemoarthroses, haematomas, and prolonged bleeding after surgery or trauma. Blood tests can reveal a prolonged APTT, while the bleeding time, thrombin time, and prothrombin time are normal. However, up to 10-15% of patients with haemophilia A may develop antibodies to factor VIII treatment.

      Overall, haemophilia is a serious condition that can cause significant bleeding and other complications. It is important for individuals with haemophilia to receive appropriate medical care and treatment to manage their symptoms and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 60 - John, a 35-year-old Afro-Caribbean man visited his GP complaining of various symptoms. He...

    Incorrect

    • John, a 35-year-old Afro-Caribbean man visited his GP complaining of various symptoms. He reported feeling feverish, fatigued, and experiencing unintentional weight loss of around 2kg. He also mentioned having muscle aches and pains. John was not taking any medication.

      Upon examination, all of John's observations were normal.

      The GP ordered a full blood count, and the results were as follows:

      - Hb 110 g/L Male: (130 - 180)
      - Platelets 160 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      - WBC 4.5 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      - Lymphocytes 3.0 * 109/L (1.0 - 4.5)
      - Mean corpuscular volume 92 fL (76 - 98)
      - Mean corpuscular haemoglobin 31 pg (27 - 32)

      Ferritin 40 ng/mL (20 - 230)

      The GP suspected that John may have systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and ordered further blood tests.

      What test, if positive, would provide the best indication that John likely has SLE?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-dsDNA

      Explanation:

      The sensitivity of ANA is high, making it a valuable test for ruling out SLE, but its specificity is low. Anti-histone antibodies are typically utilized as an indicator for drug-induced SLE. ESR is not a serum antibody and is not employed for diagnosing or ruling out SLE.

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can be investigated through various tests, including antibody tests. ANA testing is highly sensitive and useful for ruling out SLE, but it has low specificity. About 99% of SLE patients are ANA positive. Rheumatoid factor testing is positive in 20% of SLE patients. Anti-dsDNA testing is highly specific (>99%) but less sensitive (70%). Anti-Smith testing is also highly specific (>99%) but has a lower sensitivity (30%). Other antibody tests that can be used include anti-U1 RNP, SS-A (anti-Ro), and SS-B (anti-La).

      Monitoring of SLE can be done through various markers, including inflammatory markers such as ESR. During active disease, CRP levels may be normal, and a raised CRP may indicate an underlying infection. Complement levels (C3, C4) are low during active disease due to the formation of complexes that lead to the consumption of complement. Anti-dsDNA titres can also be used for disease monitoring, but it is important to note that they are not present in all SLE patients. Overall, these investigations can help diagnose and monitor SLE, allowing for appropriate management and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 61 - A 16-year-old boy is being examined after experiencing excessive bleeding post a tooth...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy is being examined after experiencing excessive bleeding post a tooth extraction. The test results are as follows:

      Platelet count: 173 * 109/l
      Prothrombin time (PT): 12.9 seconds
      Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT): 84 seconds

      Based on these results, which clotting factor deficiency is the most probable cause of his bleeding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Factor VIII

      Explanation:

      Haemophilia is a genetic disorder that affects blood coagulation and is inherited in an X-linked recessive manner. It is possible for up to 30% of patients to have no family history of the condition. Haemophilia A is caused by a deficiency of factor VIII, while haemophilia B, also known as Christmas disease, is caused by a lack of factor IX.

      The symptoms of haemophilia include haemoarthroses, haematomas, and prolonged bleeding after surgery or trauma. Blood tests can reveal a prolonged APTT, while the bleeding time, thrombin time, and prothrombin time are normal. However, up to 10-15% of patients with haemophilia A may develop antibodies to factor VIII treatment.

      Overall, haemophilia is a serious condition that can cause significant bleeding and other complications. It is important for individuals with haemophilia to receive appropriate medical care and treatment to manage their symptoms and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 62 - You receive the blood results of an 80-year-old man who takes warfarin following...

    Incorrect

    • You receive the blood results of an 80-year-old man who takes warfarin following a pulmonary embolism three months ago. He recently completed a course of antibiotics.

      INR 8.4

      After reviewing the patient, you find that he is in good health with no signs of bleeding or bruising. What would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral vitamin K 5mg + stop warfarin + repeat INR after 24 hours

      Explanation:

      Managing High INR Levels in Patients Taking Warfarin

      When a patient taking warfarin experiences high INR levels, the management approach depends on the severity of the situation. In cases of major bleeding, warfarin should be stopped immediately and intravenous vitamin K should be administered along with prothrombin complex concentrate or fresh frozen plasma if available. For minor bleeding, warfarin should also be stopped and a lower dose of intravenous vitamin K (1-3 mg) should be given. If the INR remains high after 24 hours, another dose of vitamin K can be administered. Warfarin can be restarted once the INR drops below 5.0.

      In cases where there is no bleeding but the INR is above 8.0, warfarin should be stopped and vitamin K (1-5mg) can be given orally using the intravenous preparation. If the INR remains high after 24 hours, another dose of vitamin K can be given. Warfarin can be restarted once the INR drops below 5.0.

      If the INR is between 5.0-8.0 and there is minor bleeding, warfarin should be stopped and a lower dose of intravenous vitamin K (1-3 mg) should be given. Warfarin can be restarted once the INR drops below 5.0. If there is no bleeding, warfarin can be withheld for 1 or 2 doses and the subsequent maintenance dose can be reduced.

      It is important to note that in cases of intracranial hemorrhage, prothrombin complex concentrate should be considered instead of fresh frozen plasma as it can take time to defrost. These guidelines are based on the recommendations of the British Committee for Standards in Haematology and the British National Formulary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 63 - A 51-year-old man who is a non-smoker has routine blood tests as part...

    Incorrect

    • A 51-year-old man who is a non-smoker has routine blood tests as part of a 'well man' check. His full blood count comes back with a haematocrit of 0.59 (Normal: 0.35-0.55) and a haemoglobin level of 182 g/l (Normal: 135-175 g/l).
      Which of the following is the most likely complication of this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stroke

      Explanation:

      Understanding Polycythemia Rubra Vera: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Polycythemia rubra vera is a rare blood disorder that causes the body to produce too many red blood cells. A person with this condition may experience generalized pruritus, splenomegaly, thrombocytosis, and neutrophil leukocytosis. To confirm the diagnosis, a blood test for a specific mutation (JAK2) present in more than 95% of people with polycythemia vera is necessary.

      Without treatment, the life expectancy of a person with polycythemia rubra vera is only 6-18 months. This is due to the high risk of thrombosis, which can lead to ischaemic stroke and myocardial infarction. Venous and arterial thrombosis can also cause other complications such as pulmonary emboli, renal failure, intestinal ischaemia, and peripheral arterial emboli. Bleeding is also a common complication, usually resulting from vascular occlusion due to thrombosis or hyperviscosity. Acute leukaemia, myelofibrosis, and peptic ulcer disease are also possible complications.

      However, with treatment to maintain a normal haematocrit, the life expectancy of a person with polycythemia rubra vera can increase to an average of 20 years. While this is still reduced compared to the general population, it is a significant improvement. It is important for individuals with this condition to receive proper medical care and monitoring to manage their symptoms and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 64 - A 29-year-old woman presents to the surgery with tiredness and lethargy. She had...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman presents to the surgery with tiredness and lethargy. She had read on the internet that people with tiredness can have coeliac disease and had seen one of your partners who arranged some blood tests. She has now come back for the results.

      She has heavy, regular menstrual periods, but no other significant past medical or family history. Specifically there are no symptoms of irritable bowel, indigestion or diarrhoea.

      On examination her BP is 100/60 mmHg, pulse is 85 bpm and regular. She looks a little pale. Abdominal and PR examination normal. There are no other significant findings.

      Investigations conducted by your colleague reveal:

      Haemoglobin 90 g/L (115-165)
      MCV 76 fL (80-96)
      Ferritin 13 μg/L (15-300)
      Anti-TTG antibodies negative
      Urine dip negative

      Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trial of iron supplementation

      Explanation:

      Management of Iron Deficiency Anaemia

      Iron deficiency anaemia is a common condition that can present with symptoms such as fatigue, weakness, and shortness of breath. In a 28-year-old woman with normal menses and no signs of gastrointestinal bleeding, a trial of iron supplementation for three months is appropriate to establish whether ferritin levels increase and haemoglobin normalises. Although a negative anti-TTG test is possible in patients with selective IgA deficiency, the absence of bowel symptoms makes underlying coeliac disease unlikely.

      If there are no other symptoms and signs, urgent referral to colorectal under the two-week wait is necessary for unexplained iron deficiency anaemia in a male with a Hb of <120 g/L or a non-menstruating female with a Hb of <100 g/L. Upper and lower GI endoscopy would only be considered if there is a failure of ferritin level and anaemia to respond to iron supplementation. Proper management of iron deficiency anaemia is crucial to prevent complications and improve quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 65 - A 23-year-old woman comes to your clinic complaining of fatigue and a swelling...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman comes to your clinic complaining of fatigue and a swelling on the left side of her neck. She mentions that she is struggling to keep up with her studies as a 4th year medical student and is considering dropping down a year. She has no significant medical history and is only taking the progesterone only pill.

      During the examination, her blood pressure is 95/60 mmHg, pulse is 85 and regular, and she appears pale. The only notable finding is a large left supraclavicular swelling that is several centimeters across and has a slightly rubbery consistency. Her BMI is 21 kg/m2.

      After conducting some investigations, the following results were obtained:
      - Hb 92 g/L (115-160)
      - WCC 8.4 ×109/L (4.5-10)
      - PLT 162 ×109/L (150-450)
      - Na 137 mmol/L (135-145)
      - K 4.2 mmol/L (3.5-5.5)
      - Cr 88 µmol/L (70-110)
      - ESR 75 mm/hr (<10)

      What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent haematology referral

      Explanation:

      Suspicious Symptoms for Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

      Lower cervical or supraclavicular lymphadenopathy, along with an insidious presentation of anaemia and raised ESR, is a cause for concern in this age group. Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a possible diagnosis, and determining lymph node architecture is crucial for evaluating prognosis. Therefore, an excision biopsy is the next step for disease staging, accompanied by chest x-ray and CT.

      EBV is associated with lymphadenopathy and acute pharyngitis, but there is no indication of acute infection in this case. Endoscopy would be necessary if the patient reported upper GI symptoms, but there is no mention of indigestion.

      Although a surgical team will perform the excision biopsy, it is the haematologists who will provide the initial assessment. Proper evaluation and diagnosis are essential for effective treatment and management of Hodgkin’s lymphoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 66 - A 63-year-old patient presents for follow-up. He underwent aortic valve replacement with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old patient presents for follow-up. He underwent aortic valve replacement with a prosthetic valve five years ago and is currently on warfarin therapy. He has been experiencing fatigue for the past three months and a complete blood count was ordered, revealing:

      - Hemoglobin: 10.3 g/dL
      - Mean corpuscular volume: 68 fl
      - Platelet count: 356 * 10^9/L
      - White blood cell count: 5.2 * 10^9/L
      - Blood film: Hypochromia
      - International normalized ratio: 3.0

      An upper gastrointestinal endoscopy showed no abnormalities. What would be the most appropriate next step in the investigation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Colonoscopy

      Explanation:

      Lower gastrointestinal tract investigation should be conducted on any patient in this age group who has an unexplained microcytic anaemia to rule out the possibility of colorectal cancer.

      Colorectal cancer referral guidelines were updated by NICE in 2015. Patients who are 40 years or older with unexplained weight loss and abdominal pain, those who are 50 years or older with unexplained rectal bleeding, and those who are 60 years or older with iron deficiency anaemia or a change in bowel habit should be referred urgently to colorectal services for investigation. Additionally, patients with positive results for occult blood in their faeces should also be referred urgently.

      An urgent referral should be considered if there is a rectal or abdominal mass, an unexplained anal mass or anal ulceration, or if patients under 50 years old have rectal bleeding and any of the following unexplained symptoms or findings: abdominal pain, change in bowel habit, weight loss, or iron deficiency anaemia.

      The NHS offers a national screening programme for colorectal cancer every two years to all men and women aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland. Patients aged over 74 years may request screening. Eligible patients are sent Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) tests through the post. FIT is a type of faecal occult blood test that uses antibodies to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy.

      The FIT test is also recommended for patients with new symptoms who do not meet the 2-week criteria listed above. For example, patients who are 50 years or older with unexplained abdominal pain or weight loss, those under 60 years old with changes in their bowel habit or iron deficiency anaemia, and those who are 60 years or older who have anaemia even in the absence of iron deficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 67 - A 25-year-old man comes to the clinic for a consultation. He recently had...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man comes to the clinic for a consultation. He recently had a splenectomy following a sports injury and wants to know what this means for him.
      For how long is he at risk of pneumococcal infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: > 10 years

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Lifelong Risk of Infection After Splenectomy

      Splenectomy, the surgical removal of the spleen, is a common procedure for various medical conditions. However, it comes with a lifelong risk of overwhelming post-splenectomy infection (OPSI), which can be fatal. The risk of OPSI is highest in the first year after surgery, but it remains a lifelong complication.

      The most common causative organism is the pneumococcus, but other bacteria, viruses, and parasites can also cause severe infections. Children and patients with immunosuppressive disorders are at the greatest risk, but even those who underwent splenectomy due to trauma carry a lifelong susceptibility.

      To reduce the risk of infection, patients should receive vaccinations against pneumococcus, meningococcus, Haemophilus influenza, and influenza. These immunizations should be given before or after the surgery, and additional doses may be needed. Lifelong antibiotic prophylaxis is also recommended.

      Infections related to splenectomy can occur early on, but they can also occur many years after the procedure. The risk of infection doesn’t significantly decrease even five years post-splenectomy. Therefore, patients should be aware of the lifelong risk of infection and take necessary precautions to prevent OPSI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 68 - A 65-year-old female visits her doctor complaining of intermittent headaches and feeling tired...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old female visits her doctor complaining of intermittent headaches and feeling tired for the past two weeks. Upon conducting blood tests, the following result is obtained:

      ESR 67 mm/hr

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Temporal arteritis

      Explanation:

      Temporal arteritis is a well-known historical condition. Immediate treatment with high doses of steroids, such as prednisolone at 1 mg/kg/day, is crucial to minimize the risk of vision loss.

      Temporal arteritis is a type of large vessel vasculitis that often occurs in patients over the age of 60 and is commonly associated with polymyalgia rheumatica. This condition is characterized by changes in the affected artery that skip certain sections while damaging others. Symptoms of temporal arteritis include headache, jaw claudication, and visual disturbances, with anterior ischemic optic neuropathy being the most common ocular complication. A tender, palpable temporal artery is also often present, and around 50% of patients may experience symptoms of PMR, such as muscle aches and morning stiffness.

      To diagnose temporal arteritis, doctors will typically look for elevated inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 50 mm/hr or elevated CRP levels. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed to confirm the diagnosis, with skip lesions often being present. Treatment for temporal arteritis involves urgent high-dose glucocorticoids, which should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected and before the temporal artery biopsy. If there is no visual loss, high-dose prednisolone is typically used, while IV methylprednisolone is usually given if there is evolving visual loss. Patients with visual symptoms should be seen by an ophthalmologist on the same day, as visual damage is often irreversible. Other treatments may include bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin, although the evidence supporting the latter is weak.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 69 - A 30-year-old man is undergoing treatment for ulcerative colitis and experiences pancytopenia. What...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man is undergoing treatment for ulcerative colitis and experiences pancytopenia. What is the probable reason for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Azathioprine

      Explanation:

      Drugs and Pancytopenia in Ulcerative Colitis: Understanding the Risks

      Ulcerative colitis is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease that affects millions of people worldwide. While there is no cure for the condition, various drugs can help manage symptoms and induce remission. However, some of these drugs can also cause bone marrow suppression, leading to a condition called pancytopenia.

      Azathioprine, methotrexate, ciclosporin, infliximab, and mesalazine are some of the drugs commonly used in ulcerative colitis that can cause bone marrow suppression. Patients taking these drugs should be monitored regularly for symptoms of bleeding or infection, and blood counts should be undertaken.

      Anti-diarrhoeal drugs like codeine phosphate, co-phenotrope, and loperamide may help control symptoms, but they do not cause pancytopenia. Mebeverine may provide symptomatic relief from colic, but it doesn’t cause pancytopenia either.

      While metronidazole may be helpful in people with Crohn’s disease, it is generally not considered useful for those with ulcerative colitis. Pancytopenia has been reported with metronidazole. Prednisolone, on the other hand, can be used to induce remission in ulcerative colitis without causing pancytopenia.

      It is essential to note that other drugs, such as chloramphenicol, sulphonamides, septrin, gold, penicillamine, indometacin, diclofenac, naproxen, piroxicam, phenytoin, carbamazepine, carbimazole, thiouracil, dosulepin, phenothiazines, chlorpropamide, and chloroquine, have also been reported to cause pancytopenia. Therefore, patients with ulcerative colitis should be aware of the risks associated with these drugs and report any symptoms immediately to their healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 70 - A 27-year-old man with sickle cell disease presents to you seeking advice on...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man with sickle cell disease presents to you seeking advice on the pneumococcal vaccination. As per the current NICE CKS guidance, what would be your recommendation for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Advise the patient she needs the pneumococcal vaccination every 5-years

      Explanation:

      It is important to note that sickle cell patients require the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine every 5 years, as per current NICE CKS guidance. Therefore, advising them that they do not need this vaccination would be incorrect. This is because sickle cell patients, along with those with asplenia, splenic dysfunction, and chronic renal disease, are likely to experience a rapid decline in antibody concentration. In contrast, patients with conditions such as chronic respiratory disease or diabetes mellitus may only require vaccination once in their lifetime.

      Managing Sickle-Cell Anaemia

      Sickle-cell anaemia is a genetic blood disorder that causes red blood cells to become misshapen and break down, leading to a range of complications. When a crisis occurs, management involves providing analgesia, rehydration, oxygen, and potentially antibiotics if there is evidence of infection. Blood transfusions may also be necessary, and in some cases, an exchange transfusion may be required if there are neurological complications.

      In the longer term, prophylactic management of sickle-cell anaemia involves the use of hydroxyurea, which increases the levels of HbF to prevent painful episodes. Additionally, it is recommended that sickle-cell patients receive the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine every five years to reduce the risk of infection. By implementing these management strategies, individuals with sickle-cell anaemia can better manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 71 - A 67-year-old man has been diagnosed with restless legs syndrome. What blood test...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man has been diagnosed with restless legs syndrome. What blood test is most pertinent to conduct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ferritin

      Explanation:

      When it comes to diagnosing restless legs syndrome, there are several blood tests that could be considered. However, out of all of them, the most crucial one is the ferritin test. This is because a low level of ferritin in the blood is often the primary cause of secondary restless legs syndrome.

      Restless Legs Syndrome: Symptoms, Causes, and Management

      Restless legs syndrome (RLS) is a common condition that affects between 2-10% of the general population. It is characterized by spontaneous, continuous movements in the lower limbs, often accompanied by paraesthesia. Both males and females are equally affected, and a family history may be present. Symptoms typically occur at night but may progress to occur during the day, and are worse at rest. Movements during sleep may also be noted by a partner, known as periodic limb movements of sleep (PLMS).

      There are several causes and associations with RLS, including a positive family history in 50% of patients with idiopathic RLS, iron deficiency anaemia, uraemia, diabetes mellitus, and pregnancy. Diagnosis is primarily clinical, although blood tests such as ferritin may be appropriate to exclude iron deficiency anaemia.

      Management of RLS includes simple measures such as walking, stretching, and massaging affected limbs, as well as treating any underlying iron deficiency. Dopamine agonists such as Pramipexole and ropinirole are first-line treatments, while benzodiazepines and gabapentin may also be used. With proper management, individuals with RLS can experience relief from their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 72 - A teenager with enlarged lymph nodes is a common situation faced by doctors....

    Incorrect

    • A teenager with enlarged lymph nodes is a common situation faced by doctors. Which of the following descriptions of palpable lymph nodes is most suggestive of the cause being a simple adolescent viral infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Small, discrete, mobile, non-tender and bilateral nodes

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lymphadenopathy in Children: Characteristics to Look Out For

      Lymphadenopathy is a common condition in children, often caused by viral infections. However, it is important to be aware of certain characteristics that may indicate more serious underlying pathology.

      Small, discrete, mobile, non-tender and bilateral nodes are typical of hyperplastic lymph nodes in response to viral infections. Generalised lymphadenopathy, on the other hand, should raise concern for significant pathology such as haematological malignancies or HIV.

      While lymph nodes up to 1.5 cm in the inguinal region and 2 cm in the cervical region are often normal in children, lymphadenopathy larger than this increases the risk of malignancy.

      Localised unilateral lymphadenopathy is usually caused by local infections and is associated with painful, tender lymph nodes. In contrast, lymphadenopathy associated with malignancy is typically firm or rubbery, discrete, non-tender, and fixed to the skin or underlying structures.

      By understanding these characteristics, healthcare professionals can better identify and manage lymphadenopathy in children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 73 - A 16-month-old boy, a recent immigrant of Portuguese ethnicity, was noted to be...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-month-old boy, a recent immigrant of Portuguese ethnicity, was noted to be pale and found to have haemoglobin of 91 g/l with a mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 58 fl. He is otherwise healthy. After a four-week course of an iron supplement, his blood indices remained unchanged.
      What is the most appropriate management option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemoglobin electrophoresis

      Explanation:

      Haemoglobin Electrophoresis for Diagnosis of Thalassaemia

      Thalassaemia is a genetic blood disorder that results in microcytic hypochromic anaemia. There are two types of thalassaemia: alpha and beta. The mode of inheritance is usually autosomal recessive. A child who has failed to respond to oral iron may have thalassaemia and should undergo haemoglobin electrophoresis for diagnosis.

      Beta-thalassaemia minor is a heterozygous carrier type of thalassaemia that results in a 50% decrease in the synthesis of the beta-globin protein. Such patients have raised haemoglobin A2 (HbA2 > 3.5%) and are slightly anaemic with a low MCV and MCH but clinically asymptomatic. This causes lifelong anaemia that typically requires no treatment, other than recognition for the purposes of patient education, to avoid supplemental iron, and for genetic counselling.

      If both gene alleles have thalassemia mutations, there may be a complete absence of the beta-globin protein (ie βo-thalassemia) or a severely reduced synthesis of the beta-globin protein (ie beta+ thalassemia) and such patients are symptomatic.

      It is important to note that iron supplements do not correct anaemia due to thalassemia and can lead to iron overload. Faecal occult bloods and paediatric gastroenterology referral are not necessary before knowing the results of haemoglobin electrophoresis. Reassuring the parents that the indices are within the normal range is also incorrect as the normal range for a child of this age is 115–135 g/l for haemoglobin and 73.5–84.7 fl for MCV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 74 - A 65-year-old male comes to his doctor with a complaint of cough, shortness...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male comes to his doctor with a complaint of cough, shortness of breath, and purulent sputum for the past week. He has a medical history of G6PD deficiency, COPD, and gallstones. The lab report shows that his sputum sample is positive for Streptococcus pneumoniae. What class of medications could potentially cause a severe adverse reaction in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sulpha-containing drugs

      Explanation:

      Sulphur-containing drugs such as sulphonamides, sulphasalazine, and sulfonylureas can cause haemolysis in individuals with G6PD deficiency. On the other hand, penicillins, cephalosporins, macrolides, and tetracyclines are considered safe for use in individuals with G6PD deficiency.

      Understanding G6PD Deficiency

      G6PD deficiency is a common red blood cell enzyme defect that is inherited in an X-linked recessive fashion and is more prevalent in people from the Mediterranean and Africa. The deficiency can be triggered by many drugs, infections, and broad (fava) beans, leading to a crisis. G6PD is the first step in the pentose phosphate pathway, which converts glucose-6-phosphate to 6-phosphogluconolactone and results in the production of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADPH). NADPH is essential for converting oxidized glutathione back to its reduced form, which protects red blood cells from oxidative damage by oxidants such as superoxide anion (O2-) and hydrogen peroxide. Reduced G6PD activity leads to decreased reduced glutathione and increased red cell susceptibility to oxidative stress, resulting in neonatal jaundice, intravascular hemolysis, gallstones, splenomegaly, and the presence of Heinz bodies on blood films. Diagnosis is made by using a G6PD enzyme assay, and some drugs are known to cause hemolysis, while others are considered safe.

      Compared to hereditary spherocytosis, G6PD deficiency is more common in males of African and Mediterranean descent and is characterized by neonatal jaundice, infection/drug-induced hemolysis, and gallstones. On the other hand, hereditary spherocytosis affects both males and females of Northern European descent and is associated with chronic symptoms, spherocytes on blood films, and the presence of erythrocyte membrane protein band 4.2 (EMA) binding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 75 - A 65-year-old man visits his GP for routine blood tests after undergoing an...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man visits his GP for routine blood tests after undergoing an elective hip replacement two weeks ago. He has been self-administering subcutaneous venous thromboembolism prophylaxis and reports feeling well. His medical history includes hypertension and polymyalgia rheumatica, and he is currently taking co-codamol, prednisolone, and ramipril. However, his blood tests reveal a platelet count of 36 * 109/L (150 - 400). What is the most likely cause of his thrombocytopenia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Enoxaparin

      Explanation:

      Thrombocytopenia can be caused by heparin, including the low molecular weight heparin enoxaparin. Prosthetic joints are not a common cause of thrombocytopenia, while the other drugs listed are not typically associated with this condition. If heparin-induced thrombocytopenia is suspected or confirmed, it is important to discontinue heparin and switch to an alternative anticoagulant like danaparoid. Platelet counts should be monitored and normalized before administering warfarin.

      Understanding Drug-Induced Thrombocytopenia

      Drug-induced thrombocytopenia is a condition where a person’s platelet count drops due to the use of certain medications. This condition is believed to be immune-mediated, meaning that the body’s immune system mistakenly attacks and destroys platelets. Some of the drugs that have been associated with drug-induced thrombocytopenia include quinine, abciximab, NSAIDs, diuretics like furosemide, antibiotics such as penicillins, sulphonamides, and rifampicin, and anticonvulsants like carbamazepine and valproate. Heparin, a commonly used blood thinner, is also known to cause drug-induced thrombocytopenia. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of medications and to consult with a healthcare provider if any concerning symptoms arise. Proper management and monitoring of drug-induced thrombocytopenia can help prevent serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 76 - A 75-year-old woman is experiencing fatigue and shortness of breath. She appears to...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman is experiencing fatigue and shortness of breath. She appears to be anaemic and the following blood test results are significant:
      Investigation Result Normal Value
      Haemoglobin 68 g/l 115-155 g/l
      White cell count 2.6 x 109/l 4.0-11.0 x 109/l
      Platelets 160 x 109/l 150-400 x 109/l
      Reticulocyte count 0.75% 0.5%-1.5%
      Mean corpuscular volume 135 fl 76-98 fl
      Ferritin 110 μg/l 10-120 μg/l
      What is the most probable cause of her anaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitamin B12 deficiency

      Explanation:

      Understanding Macrocytosis and its Differential Diagnosis

      Macrocytosis is a condition characterized by the presence of abnormally large red blood cells in the bloodstream. While there are several possible causes of macrocytosis, one of the most common is vitamin B12 deficiency. This deficiency can lead to anaemia and macrocytosis, with a mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 130 femtolitres or more being a strong indicator of B12 deficiency.

      Other potential causes of macrocytosis include drug-induced effects, excessive alcohol intake, and human immunodeficiency virus infection. However, these conditions may not necessarily lead to anaemia unless poor nutrition is also a factor.

      Myelodysplasia and aplastic anaemia are also in the differential diagnosis of vitamin B12 deficiency, but the MCV level can help differentiate between these conditions. If the MCV is between 100-110 femtolitres, other causes of macrocytosis should be considered.

      Overall, understanding the potential causes of macrocytosis and their differential diagnosis is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 77 - A 6-year-old girl was admitted to hospital the previous day following a 3-day...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl was admitted to hospital the previous day following a 3-day history of a diarrhoeal illness, which had then developed into bloody diarrhoea. The mother telephones the clinic to say she is very ill and has developed blood spots in the skin and had nosebleeds. She says they are also worried about her kidneys.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Disseminated intravascular coagulation

      Explanation:

      Understanding Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation: A Guide for General Practitioners

      Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a serious condition that can occur in response to another illness or trauma. In DIC, the coagulation mechanism is activated inappropriately and in a diffuse way, leading to thrombosis or, more commonly, haemorrhage due to the depletion of clotting factors and platelets. DIC is often fatal and associated with organ failure, with bleeding from at least three unrelated sites being typical in the acute form.

      DIC can be triggered by a variety of factors, including infections such as gastroenteritis (e.g. Escherichia coli O157), malignancy (especially leukaemia), and septicaemia (e.g. meningococcal septicaemia). While bleeding is a feature in two-thirds of cases, renal involvement occurs in a quarter of cases, and limb ischaemia can lead to loss of digits or limbs.

      As a general practitioner, it is important to have some knowledge of DIC to respond to any questions that may arise. When presented with a patient with severe and widespread bleeding with kidney injury, DIC is more likely to be the cause than other conditions such as acute leukaemia, haemophilia A, von Willebrand disease, or meningococcal septicaemia.

      By understanding DIC and its potential triggers and symptoms, general practitioners can better support their patients and provide appropriate referrals for further treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 78 - A 6-year-old child is brought to your clinic by their parents due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old child is brought to your clinic by their parents due to concerns about bruising and nosebleeds. The child's medical history shows only a previous case of croup as a toddler. The parents report a cold one week prior to the current symptoms. On examination, the child appears healthy and active, but there is significant bruising and purpura on the trunk and legs. There is no enlargement of lymph nodes or liver and spleen, and a dipstick test of urine is normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Immune-mediated thrombocytopenic purpura

      Explanation:

      Immune-Mediated Thrombocytopenic Purpura in Children

      This child is experiencing immune-mediated thrombocytopenic purpura, which is the most common cause of low platelets in children. It occurs due to immune-mediated platelet destruction and typically affects children between 2 and 10 years old, usually after a viral infection. Symptoms include purpura, bruising, nosebleeds, and mucosal bleeding. While intracranial hemorrhage is a rare complication, it can be serious. However, in most cases, ITP is self-limiting and acute.

      While abnormal bruising can also be a symptom of acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL), the child’s history and clinical features are more consistent with ITP. ALL typically presents with malaise, recurrent infections, pallor, hepatosplenomegaly, and lymphadenopathy, none of which are present in this case.

      Other conditions that can cause purpura include haemolytic uraemic syndrome, Henoch-Schönlein purpura, and meningococcal septicaemia. However, these conditions have distinct symptoms and presentations that differ from ITP.

      In summary, immune-mediated thrombocytopenic purpura is a common cause of low platelets in children, typically occurring after a viral infection. While it can cause purpura and bruising, it is usually self-limiting and acute. Other conditions that can cause purpura have distinct symptoms and presentations that differ from ITP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 79 - This is the full blood count result of a 72-year-old male who presents...

    Incorrect

    • This is the full blood count result of a 72-year-old male who presents with fatigue and weakness:
      Hb 110 g/L (130-180)
      RBC 3.8 ×1012/L (4.5-5.5)
      Haematocrit 0.35 (0.40-0.52)
      MCV 92 fL (80-100)
      MCH 30 pg (27-32)
      Platelets 180 ×109/L (150-450)
      WBC 4.5 ×109/L (4-11)
      Neutrophils 2.5 ×109/L (1.5-7.0)
      Lymphocytes 1.5 ×109/L (1.0-4.0)
      Monocytes 0.3 ×109/L (0.2-1.0)
      Eosinophils 0.1 ×109/L (0.0-0.4)
      Basophils 0.1 ×109/L (0.0-0.1)

      He is brought into the clinic by his wife who is concerned that her husband has been feeling very tired and weak lately. Examination reveals no abnormalities on chest, abdominal or respiratory examination. Neurological examination is normal.
      What is the most likely cause of this blood picture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alcohol excess

      Explanation:

      Delayed Grief Reaction and Elevated MCV in a Patient

      This patient is exhibiting signs of a delayed grief reaction following the recent death of her husband. Her FBC shows a normal picture, except for an elevated MCV, which suggests alcohol excess. Macrocytosis caused by folate or B12 deficiency would typically result in anemia alongside the macrocytosis. Hypothyroidism can also cause macrocytosis, but the patient’s weight loss contradicts this diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 80 - A previously healthy 70-year-old woman presents with lethargy and breathlessness. She looks anaemic...

    Incorrect

    • A previously healthy 70-year-old woman presents with lethargy and breathlessness. She looks anaemic and significant blood results are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 72 g/l 135-175 g/l
      White cell count 2.4 x 109/l 4.0-11.0 x 109/l
      Platelets 155 x 109/l 150-400 x 109/l
      Reticulocytes 0.80% 0.5%-1.5%
      Mean corpuscular volume 92 fl 76-98 fl
      Ferritin 8 μg/l 10-120 μg/l
      Which of the following is the most appropriate next option for further investigation of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum vitamin B12 and folate

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Checking B12 and Folate Levels in Iron Deficiency Anaemia

      Iron deficiency anaemia can mask the development of macrocytic anaemia, leading to a normal mean cell volume despite anaemia and iron deficiency. To avoid missing a potential underlying condition, it is crucial to check serum B12 and folate levels. Thalassaemia trait can also mask macrocytosis, but ferritin levels are elevated in this case. A blood film may not be helpful if macrocytosis has not developed, but in megaloblastic anaemia, oval macrocytes and hypersegmented nuclei in neutrophils can be seen. Therefore, checking B12 and folate levels is essential in the diagnosis and management of iron deficiency anaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 81 - A 38-year-old male is found to have a Hb of 17.8 g/dL. What...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old male is found to have a Hb of 17.8 g/dL. What is the least probable reason for this finding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemochromatosis

      Explanation:

      Polycythaemia is a condition that can be classified as relative, primary (polycythaemia rubra vera), or secondary. Relative polycythaemia can be caused by dehydration or stress, such as in Gaisbock syndrome. Primary polycythaemia rubra vera is a rare blood disorder that causes the bone marrow to produce too many red blood cells. Secondary polycythaemia can be caused by conditions such as COPD, altitude, obstructive sleep apnoea, or excessive erythropoietin production due to certain tumors or growths. To distinguish between true polycythaemia and relative polycythaemia, red cell mass studies may be used. In true polycythaemia, the total red cell mass in males is greater than 35 ml/kg and in women is greater than 32 ml/kg. Uterine fibroids may also cause polycythaemia indirectly by causing menorrhagia, but this is rarely a clinical problem.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 82 - A 30-year-old man has been diagnosed with Hodgkin's disease. He is being treated...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man has been diagnosed with Hodgkin's disease. He is being treated with radiotherapy and chemotherapy.
      What is the most important factor influencing this patient's prognosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Response to treatment

      Explanation:

      Hodgkin’s lymphoma can be cured in the majority of patients, especially those who respond well to treatment. A prompt and complete response to chemotherapy and/or radiotherapy is the most important factor in predicting a patient’s prognosis. Residual masses may not always indicate persisting disease, as fibrosis can persist after effective therapy. Patients who relapse after initial successful treatment can sometimes be treated with further chemotherapy, stem cell transplantation, and/or radiotherapy. The duration of initial remission is a factor in the success of retreatment. Bulky disease, a high ESR, male gender, and stage IV disease are associated with a poorer prognosis. Other adverse prognostic factors include age ≥ 45 years, low haemoglobin, low lymphocyte count, low albumin, high WCC, mixed-cellularity or lymphocyte-depleted histology, and B symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 83 - What advice would you give to the travel companion of a patient who...

    Incorrect

    • What advice would you give to the travel companion of a patient who has been diagnosed and treated for malaria?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Travellers visiting friends and family are more at risk of malaria than tourists

      Explanation:

      Malaria Risk and Prevention

      Travellers visiting friends and family are at a higher risk of contracting malaria compared to tourists due to their likelihood of visiting rural areas. To accurately diagnose malaria, repeat blood films should be taken after 12-24 hours and again at 24 hours. The gold standard for diagnosis is the thick and thin blood films, while the antigen test is less sensitive. It is important to note that even with full adherence to prophylaxis, it is still possible to develop malaria. While most cases of P.falciparum present within 6 months of exposure, infection with other species can present months or even years after exposure due to reactivation of the dormant liver stage. By taking preventative measures and seeking prompt medical attention, the risk of contracting and spreading malaria can be greatly reduced.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 84 - A 65-year-old man presents with a haemoglobin level of 185 g/l, raised serum...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with a haemoglobin level of 185 g/l, raised serum vitamin B12 level, pruritus, neutrophilia, thrombocytosis, and splenomegaly.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polycythaemia rubra vera

      Explanation:

      Polycythaemia Rubra Vera: Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis

      Polycythaemia rubra vera (PRV) is a myeloproliferative disorder characterized by excessive production of red blood cells, leukocytes, and platelets. This condition arises when a single clone of stem cells gains a proliferative advantage over other stem cells. PRV is often discovered through routine blood tests and may present with nonspecific symptoms such as headache, weakness, and joint pain. However, about one-third of patients may present with thrombosis. Physical examination may reveal ruddy cyanosis, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, and hypertension. The haemoglobin level is typically elevated in PRV.

      Differential diagnosis includes von Willebrand’s disease, which presents with mucosal bleeding, and haemochromatosis, which is characterized by iron accumulation in the liver and other organs. Secondary polycythaemia, on the other hand, is caused by an underlying condition and only affects red blood cells. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura is a rare disorder of the blood-coagulation system that causes extensive microscopic clots to form in small blood vessels throughout the body. It is a medical emergency and presents with symptoms such as purpura, fever, dyspnoea, confusion, and headache.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 85 - A 32-year-old woman presents with heavy menstrual bleeding and a haemoglobin level of...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with heavy menstrual bleeding and a haemoglobin level of 102 g/L. Iron studies are ordered. What result would indicate a diagnosis of iron-deficiency anaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ↓ Ferritin, ↑ total iron-binding capacity, ↓ serum iron, ↓ transferrin saturation

      Explanation:

      In cases of iron-deficiency anemia, it is common for both the total iron-binding capacity (TIBC) and transferrin levels to be elevated. However, it should be noted that the transferrin saturation level is typically decreased.

      Iron deficiency anaemia is a prevalent condition worldwide, with preschool-age children being the most affected. The lack of iron in the body leads to a decrease in red blood cells and haemoglobin, resulting in anaemia. The primary causes of iron deficiency anaemia are excessive blood loss, inadequate dietary intake, poor intestinal absorption, and increased iron requirements. Menorrhagia is the most common cause of blood loss in pre-menopausal women, while gastrointestinal bleeding is the most common cause in men and postmenopausal women. Vegans and vegetarians are more likely to develop iron deficiency anaemia due to the lack of meat in their diet. Coeliac disease and other conditions affecting the small intestine can prevent sufficient iron absorption. Children and pregnant women have increased iron demands, and the latter may experience dilution due to an increase in plasma volume.

      The symptoms of iron deficiency anaemia include fatigue, shortness of breath on exertion, palpitations, pallor, nail changes, hair loss, atrophic glossitis, post-cricoid webs, and angular stomatitis. To diagnose iron deficiency anaemia, a full blood count, serum ferritin, total iron-binding capacity, transferrin, and blood film tests are performed. Endoscopy may be necessary to rule out malignancy, especially in males and postmenopausal females with unexplained iron-deficiency anaemia.

      The management of iron deficiency anaemia involves identifying and treating the underlying cause. Oral ferrous sulfate is commonly prescribed, and patients should continue taking iron supplements for three months after the iron deficiency has been corrected to replenish iron stores. Iron-rich foods such as dark-green leafy vegetables, meat, and iron-fortified bread can also help. It is crucial to exclude malignancy by taking an adequate history and appropriate investigations if warranted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 86 - A 60-year-old man presents with increasing fatigue. He reports feeling tired for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents with increasing fatigue. He reports feeling tired for the past few months without any specific symptoms. The following blood tests are ordered:

      Hemoglobin: 12.5 g/dL
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV): 84 fL
      Platelets: 230 * 10^9/L
      White blood cells (WBC): 6.2 * 10^9/L
      Iron studies: Normal
      Vitamin B12/folate: Normal
      C-reactive protein (CRP): 5 mg/L
      Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH): 2.5 mIU/L

      According to NICE guidelines, what is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Offer a Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT)

      Explanation:

      If patients exhibit new symptoms of colorectal cancer but do not meet the 2-week criteria, NICE recommends conducting the FIT test, regardless of whether or not they have iron deficiency.

      Colorectal cancer referral guidelines were updated by NICE in 2015. Patients who are 40 years or older with unexplained weight loss and abdominal pain, those who are 50 years or older with unexplained rectal bleeding, and those who are 60 years or older with iron deficiency anaemia or a change in bowel habit should be referred urgently to colorectal services for investigation. Additionally, patients with positive results for occult blood in their faeces should also be referred urgently.

      An urgent referral should be considered if there is a rectal or abdominal mass, an unexplained anal mass or anal ulceration, or if patients under 50 years old have rectal bleeding and any of the following unexplained symptoms or findings: abdominal pain, change in bowel habit, weight loss, or iron deficiency anaemia.

      The NHS offers a national screening programme for colorectal cancer every two years to all men and women aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland. Patients aged over 74 years may request screening. Eligible patients are sent Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) tests through the post. FIT is a type of faecal occult blood test that uses antibodies to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy.

      The FIT test is also recommended for patients with new symptoms who do not meet the 2-week criteria listed above. For example, patients who are 50 years or older with unexplained abdominal pain or weight loss, those under 60 years old with changes in their bowel habit or iron deficiency anaemia, and those who are 60 years or older who have anaemia even in the absence of iron deficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 87 - Hb 105 g/L (130-180)
    RBC 4.5 ×1012/L -
    Hct 0.353 (0.4-0.52)
    MCV 75 fL (80-96)
    MCH 32.5...

    Incorrect

    • Hb 105 g/L (130-180)
      RBC 4.5 ×1012/L -
      Hct 0.353 (0.4-0.52)
      MCV 75 fL (80-96)
      MCH 32.5 pg (28-32)
      Platelets 325 ×109/L (150-400)
      WBC 7.91 ×109/L (4-11)
      Neutrophils 6.15 ×109/L (1.5-7.0)
      Lymphocytes 1.54 ×109/L (1.5-4.0)
      Monocytes 0.33 ×109/L (0-0.8)
      Eosinophils 0.16 ×109/L (0.04-0.4)
      Basophils 0.08 ×109/L (0-0.1)
      Others 0.14 ×109/L -

      Which of the following investigations would be the most appropriate initial investigation for the above full blood count (FBC) result in a 60-year-old patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ferritin concentration

      Explanation:

      Interpretation of FBC Results

      When analyzing a full blood count (FBC), it is important to consider all the parameters to determine the underlying cause of any abnormalities. In this case, the FBC shows microcytosis, which is a low mean corpuscular volume (MCV), and anaemia, indicated by low hemoglobin levels. These findings are typical of iron deficiency anaemia.

      To confirm iron deficiency, a ferritin test should be requested. If the test confirms iron deficiency, the next step is to identify the source of blood loss. If the faecal occult blood test is positive, an endoscopy may be necessary.

      It is important to note that folate and B12 deficiencies cause macrocytic anaemia, which is characterized by elevated MCV. Hypothyroidism is also associated with elevated MCV. However, in this case, the low MCV indicates iron deficiency anaemia.

      While a bone marrow biopsy can confirm iron deficiency, it is an invasive procedure and is not necessary at this stage, particularly in a primary care setting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 88 - A 35-year old lady in her first pregnancy presents to you for evaluation....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year old lady in her first pregnancy presents to you for evaluation. She is of Pakistani origin and has no notable medical history. She reports taking iron supplements regularly since her midwife diagnosed her with anemia, but her blood count has not improved. Her recent lab results reveal an Hb of 96 g/L, MCV of 67.4 fL, and normal serum iron and ferritin levels. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemoglobinopathy

      Explanation:

      Thalassaemia Minor: A Mild Anaemia with Low MCV

      This lady is experiencing a mild, well-tolerated anaemia with a very low mean corpuscular volume (MCV). Despite having normal iron and ferritin levels, her Pakistani background suggests a possible haemoglobinopathy, specifically thalassaemia minor. This condition is characterized by an MCV less than 75 fL and may worsen during pregnancy.

      To confirm the diagnosis, a haemoglobin electrophoresis test can be performed, which will reveal an increased HbA2. Other potential causes of anaemia, such as anaemia of chronic disease, hypothyroidism, occult gastrointestinal blood loss, and osteomalacia, have been ruled out based on the patient’s history and test results.

      In summary, thalassaemia minor is a mild form of anaemia that can be easily diagnosed through haemoglobin electrophoresis. While it may not require treatment, it is important to monitor the condition, especially during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 89 - A 49 year old teacher comes to you with a recent onset of...

    Incorrect

    • A 49 year old teacher comes to you with a recent onset of nosebleeds and bleeding gums. You order immediate blood tests and the results are as follows:

      Hemoglobin 85 g/L
      White blood cells 2.5 x 10^9/L
      Platelets 17 x 10^9/L
      Abnormal clotting
      Blood smear shows bilobed large mononuclear cells

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute myeloid leukaemia

      Explanation:

      The image depicts bone marrow failure caused by acute myeloid leukemia, which occurs when abnormal white blood cells accumulate in the bone marrow, replacing normal blood cells. This type of leukemia is more common in individuals over the age of 45, whereas acute lymphoblastic leukemia is mostly seen in children. Unlike lymphoma, which typically presents with enlarged lymph nodes, acute myeloid leukemia can lead to bone marrow failure. Von Willebrand’s disease may cause severe cases of epistaxis and bleeding gums, but abnormalities in blood test results are rare.

      Acute myeloid leukaemia is a prevalent form of acute leukaemia in adults that can occur as a primary disease or as a result of a myeloproliferative disorder. The condition is characterized by bone marrow failure, which can lead to anaemia, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia, splenomegaly, and bone pain. Poor prognostic features include being over 60 years old, having more than 20% blasts after the first course of chemotherapy, and deletions of chromosome 5 or 7.

      Acute promyelocytic leukaemia M3 is a subtype of acute myeloid leukaemia that is associated with t(15;17) and the fusion of PML and RAR-alpha genes. This type of leukaemia typically presents at a younger age than other types of AML, with an average age of 25 years old. Auer rods, which are visible with myeloperoxidase stain, are often present, and patients may experience DIC or thrombocytopenia at presentation. However, the prognosis for acute promyelocytic leukaemia M3 is generally good.

      The French-American-British (FAB) classification system categorizes acute myeloid leukaemia into seven subtypes based on the degree of maturation of the cells: MO (undifferentiated), M1 (without maturation), M2 (with granulocytic maturation), M3 (acute promyelocytic), M4 (granulocytic and monocytic maturation), M5 (monocytic), M6 (erythroleukaemia), and M7 (megakaryoblastic).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 90 - An 68-year-old man is referred to you by the practice nurse. During a...

    Incorrect

    • An 68-year-old man is referred to you by the practice nurse. During a routine medical check-up, the nurse noticed an irregular pulse while taking his blood pressure. An ECG confirmed persistent atrial fibrillation. Despite being asymptomatic, he is surprised by the diagnosis as he has always been fairly fit and healthy. He has a medical history of childhood asthma and migraines, for which he uses salbutamol and ibuprofen PRN, respectively. His blood pressure is 136/84 mmHg, and his clinical examination is otherwise normal. Recent blood tests show a HbA1c of 36 mmol/mol, total cholesterol of 5.2, LDL cholesterol of 2.6, and triglycerides of 2.2. What is the first-line antithrombotic treatment that should be considered for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral anticoagulation (for example, warfarin)

      Explanation:

      Understanding the CHA2DS2-VASc Score for Stroke Risk Assessment

      The CHA2DS2-VASc score is a tool used to assess the risk of stroke and guide the use of thromboprophylaxis. It takes into account various risk factors such as congestive heart failure, hypertension, age, diabetes, prior stroke or thromboembolism, vascular disease, and sex. Each factor is assigned a certain number of points, and the total score is used to determine whether oral anticoagulation is necessary.

      If the score is 1 or more, oral anticoagulation is recommended, while a score of 0 indicates that no anticoagulation is needed. However, if the score is 1 but the only point scored is for female gender, then it is treated as a score of 0. It is important to note that aspirin, clopidogrel, and dipyridamole are not recommended alone or in combination.

      In summary, the CHA2DS2-VASc score is a useful tool for assessing stroke risk and guiding thromboprophylaxis use. By taking into account various risk factors, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions about the appropriate treatment for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 91 - A 50-year-old woman has been visiting the clinic multiple times in the past...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman has been visiting the clinic multiple times in the past six months due to a persistent skin rash. She is referred to a Dermatologist, who diagnoses mycosis fungoides after conducting a biopsy of the affected area.
      What is the most probable skin symptom that the patient is experiencing during the initial stages of the disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic patches of dermatitis

      Explanation:

      Cutaneous T-cell lymphoma is a group of lymphoproliferative disorders that involve neoplastic T lymphocytes localizing to the skin. The most common form is mycosis fungoides, which presents as patches, plaques, or tumors on the skin. The disease can progress slowly over years or decades, mimicking benign dermatoses in its early stages. Patches may appear as erythematous pink-brown flat areas with atrophy and fine scaling, and may be non-diagnostic on biopsy. As the disease progresses, patches may become infiltrative and evolve into palpable plaques, and eventually into tumors. Sézary syndrome is a variant of T-cell lymphoma that affects the skin of the entire body, causing erythroderma. This variant has a poor prognosis, with a median survival of two to four years. Late-stage mycosis fungoides may present with ulcerated tumors and lymph node infiltration, and can spread to affect distant organs. Psoriatic-like plaques are a less likely presentation in the early stages of the disease.

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      • Haematology
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  • Question 92 - A 25-year-old woman from Kenya informs you that she has been diagnosed with...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman from Kenya informs you that she has been diagnosed with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency. She underwent testing due to a family history of the condition.
      What is the most probable characteristic that this patient possesses? Choose ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No symptoms at all

      Explanation:

      Understanding G6PD Deficiency: Symptoms and Characteristics

      G6PD deficiency is a common enzyme-deficiency disease that affects 400 million people worldwide. It is inherited as an X-linked disorder and has more than 300 reported variants. The disease protects against malaria, which may explain its high gene frequency. The enzyme is crucial in red blood cell metabolism, and G6PD enzyme activity is the definitive test for diagnosis.

      Most individuals with G6PD deficiency are asymptomatic, but symptomatic patients are almost exclusively male due to the X-linked pattern of inheritance. Female carriers may also be affected, as inactivation of an X chromosome in certain cells creates a population of G6PD-deficient red blood cells co-existing with normal red cells.

      While neonatal jaundice is not a symptom of G6PD deficiency, it may occur in some cases. It usually appears within 24 hours of birth and may require exchange transfusions. Abdominal pain is not a typical symptom, but back pain, abdominal pain, and jaundice may occur during a haemolytic crisis. Gallstones are more common in individuals with G6PD deficiency, and splenomegaly may be present in severe cases of haemolysis.

      Understanding the symptoms and characteristics of G6PD deficiency is crucial for proper diagnosis and management of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 93 - A 16-year-old girl who works in a daycare center comes in for evaluation....

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl who works in a daycare center comes in for evaluation. She reports experiencing joint pain, vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal cramps. Additionally, she has a purplish rash on her legs and around her waistline. Upon urine testing, she shows signs of microscopic hematuria, proteinuria, and red blood cell casts. What is the most probable cause? Choose only ONE option.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Henoch–Schönlein purpura

      Explanation:

      Henoch-Schönlein purpura is a common vasculitis that affects children and young adults, typically between the ages of 4 and 15. The condition is characterized by palpable purpura on dependent areas of the body, such as the lower limbs, and areas exposed to skin pressure. Other symptoms may include subcutaneous edema, joint pain, and gastrointestinal issues. Skin biopsy can reveal a leukocytoclastic vasculitis, and elevated levels of immunoglobulin A (IgA) are present in about half of patients. In some cases, Henoch-Schönlein purpura may follow a respiratory tract infection. Glomerulonephritis may also be present, which can be identified by microscopic hematuria, proteinuria, and red-cell casts. While renal involvement occurs in up to 40% of older children, it is serious in only about 10% of patients. Treatment may involve prednisolone for severe cases, with the addition of azathioprine if glomerulonephritis is present and associated with deteriorating renal function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 94 - A 30-year-old woman has been referred to you by her dentist. She underwent...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman has been referred to you by her dentist. She underwent a tooth extraction 12 days ago and experienced excessive bleeding, requiring transfer to the maxillofacial unit for suturing. She denies any prior history of bleeding and is in good health. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Von Willebrand's disease

      Explanation:

      Von Willebrand’s disease is a commonly inherited clotting disorder that is often characterized by prolonged bleeding after minor injuries, particularly mucosal membrane injuries. This autosomal dominant condition is caused by a reduction or structural abnormality of von Willebrand’s factor, which plays a crucial role in promoting normal platelet function and stabilizing coagulation factor VIII. Although screening tests may yield normal results, a specialist investigation and assay of von Willebrand Factor may be necessary for diagnosis. While most patients with mild disease respond well to desmopressin (DDAVP), clotting factor concentrates may be required for a minority. It is important to note that prolonged bleeding following dental extraction may be a sign of von Willebrand’s disease.

      Understanding Von Willebrand’s Disease

      Von Willebrand’s disease is a genetic bleeding disorder that is inherited in an autosomal dominant or recessive manner. It is the most common inherited bleeding disorder, and it behaves like a platelet disorder. Patients with this condition often experience epistaxis and menorrhagia, while haemoarthroses and muscle haematomas are rare.

      The disease is caused by a deficiency or abnormality in von Willebrand factor, a large glycoprotein that promotes platelet adhesion to damaged endothelium and serves as a carrier molecule for factor VIII. There are three types of von Willebrand’s disease: type 1, which involves a partial reduction in vWF and accounts for 80% of cases; type 2, which is characterized by an abnormal form of vWF; and type 3, which involves a total lack of vWF and is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner.

      To diagnose von Willebrand’s disease, doctors may perform a bleeding time test, measure APTT, and check factor VIII levels. Defective platelet aggregation with ristocetin is also a common finding. Treatment options include tranexamic acid for mild bleeding, desmopressin to raise levels of vWF, and factor VIII concentrate. The type of von Willebrand’s disease a patient has doesn’t necessarily correlate with their symptoms, but common themes include excessive mucocutaneous bleeding, bruising without trauma, and menorrhagia in females.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 95 - A 50-year-old woman presents with menorrhagia and is found to have a haemoglobin...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with menorrhagia and is found to have a haemoglobin level of 80 g/l, microcytosis and a serum ferritin of 10 μg/l. The menorrhagia has been treated by the insertion of the Mirena® intrauterine system. She has commenced ferrous sulphate 200 mg once daily. She has a further blood count performed after three weeks.
      What is the expected increase in haemoglobin level after three weeks of iron treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 20 g/l

      Explanation:

      Management of Iron Deficiency Anemia

      Iron deficiency anemia is a common condition that can be effectively managed with oral iron supplementation. The haemoglobin concentration should rise by about 20 g/l over 3-4 weeks if there is a response. It is important to check the full blood count at 2-4 months to ensure that the haemoglobin level has returned to normal. Treatment should be continued for a further three months to replenish the iron stores once the haemoglobin is in the reference range.

      Epithelial tissue changes such as atrophic glossitis and koilonychia may improve, but the response is often slow. If there is an inadequate response to oral iron, it is important to assess compliance and whether the iron treatment is tolerated. Malabsorption or other complicating factors such as another source of blood loss are also possible and should be considered. Effective management of iron deficiency anemia requires careful monitoring and evaluation to ensure optimal outcomes.

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      • Haematology
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  • Question 96 - A 72-year-old man visits the Practice Nurse for his international normalised ratio (INR)...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man visits the Practice Nurse for his international normalised ratio (INR) test. He is anticoagulated for atrial fibrillation and his INR has historically been unstable (recommended range 2–3). His last INR, 14 days ago, was 2.5. He is taking 4 mg of warfarin daily. The point-of-care INR reads 5.8. He has no active bleeding.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Withhold warfarin for 48 hours, then restart at 4 mg daily

      Explanation:

      Managing High INR Levels in Patients on Warfarin: Choosing the Right Course of Action

      When a patient on warfarin presents with a high international normalised ratio (INR), prompt management is crucial to prevent haemorrhage. The appropriate course of action depends on the severity of the INR elevation and whether the patient is bleeding.

      If the patient has no active bleeding and their INR is between 5-8, warfarin should be withheld for 24-48 hours and restarted at a reduced dose. The INR should be rechecked 2-3 days later, and the cause investigated.

      If the patient is bleeding, warfarin should be stopped and intravenous vitamin K administered. It can be restarted once the INR is below 5.

      For an INR greater than 8 in a patient with no bleeding, the correct management is to stop warfarin, give vitamin K orally, and repeat the INR in 24 hours.

      Dose reduction alone is not sufficient for an INR greater than 5, and warfarin should also be withheld for 1-2 days, with rechecking sooner (3-4 days).

      While a confirmatory laboratory sample may be reasonable, it should not delay action being taken. Point-of-care testing is comparable in accuracy to laboratory samples, and management should reflect this.

      In summary, managing high INR levels in patients on warfarin requires careful consideration of the severity of the INR elevation and whether the patient is bleeding. Prompt action and appropriate monitoring can prevent haemorrhage and ensure optimal patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 97 - A 67-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis, ischaemic heart disease, hypertension,...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis, ischaemic heart disease, hypertension, type two diabetes mellitus, and chronic kidney disease stage three (CKD 3) presents with a unilateral red eye with purulent discharge. You diagnose her with bacterial conjunctivitis. Considering her medication history, which drug should you avoid prescribing as eye drops?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Methotrexate

      Explanation:

      Patients who are taking bone marrow suppression drugs, particularly methotrexate, should steer clear of using chloramphenicol eye drops for treating bacterial conjunctivitis. Co-trimoxazole and trimethoprim should also be avoided as they can increase the risk of methotrexate toxicity and pancytopenia. Aspirin and lisinopril are unlikely to interact seriously with methotrexate. However, caution should be exercised when using gliclazide and metformin in patients with a history of CKD 3, although the concurrent use of chloramphenicol is not expected to pose any problems.

      Aplastic anaemia is a condition characterized by a decrease in the number of blood cells due to a poorly functioning bone marrow. It is most commonly seen in individuals around the age of 30 and is marked by a reduction in red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. While lymphocytes may be relatively spared, the overall effect is a condition known as pancytopenia. In some cases, aplastic anaemia may be the first sign of acute lymphoblastic or myeloid leukaemia. A small number of patients may later develop paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria or myelodysplasia.

      The causes of aplastic anaemia can be idiopathic, meaning that they are unknown, or they can be linked to congenital conditions such as Fanconi anaemia or dyskeratosis congenita. Certain drugs, such as cytotoxics, chloramphenicol, sulphonamides, phenytoin, and gold, as well as toxins like benzene, can also cause aplastic anaemia. Infections such as parvovirus and hepatitis, as well as exposure to radiation, can also contribute to the development of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 98 - A 9-year-old girl develops widespread purpuric spots and is presented to the General...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old girl develops widespread purpuric spots and is presented to the General Practitioner by her parents. She has recently been unwell with a sore throat, which resolved without antibiotics. She is otherwise well but is found to have a platelet count of 20 × 109/l (normal range 150–400 × 109/l). The rest of her full blood count is normal, as is her erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR).
      What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Monitor symptoms and avoid contact sports

      Explanation:

      Management of Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura in Children

      Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is a self-limiting disorder that commonly occurs in children following an infection or immunization. Treatment is based on clinical symptoms rather than platelet count alone. In children with severe thrombocytopenia, who are often asymptomatic, avoiding antiplatelets and non-contact sports and reporting any change in symptoms urgently is recommended. Splenectomy is rarely indicated and only used in life-threatening bleeding or severe symptoms present for 12-24 months. High-dose dexamethasone is a second-line treatment used when first-line treatments, such as prednisolone, have failed. Platelet transfusions are rarely used in emergency management. Prednisolone is the first-line management if significant symptoms or a clinical need to raise the platelet count are present.

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      • Haematology
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  • Question 99 - A 14-year-old patient presents with purpura on his back, buttocks and the extensor...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old patient presents with purpura on his back, buttocks and the extensor surface of his lower limbs. He has dipstick haematuria.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Henoch–Schönlein purpura

      Explanation:

      Understanding Henoch-Schönlein Purpura: A Vasculitic Disorder

      Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP) is a vasculitic disorder that is characterized by the presence of purpura and dipstick haematuria. Unlike other conditions such as immune thrombocytopenia, HSP doesn’t affect platelet count. The condition typically presents with an erythematous macular rash that evolves into purpura, and is most commonly seen in children aged 4-6 years. Joint and abdominal pain may also be present, along with gastrointestinal bleeding. Renal involvement is seen in about 40% of cases, but end-stage renal disease is rare. HSP is usually self-limiting.

      Other conditions such as immune thrombocytopenia, haemophilia A, leukaemia, and thalassaemia trait may present with similar symptoms, but can be ruled out based on the specific features of each condition. Understanding the unique characteristics of HSP is important for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

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      • Haematology
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  • Question 100 - Who among these women needs anti-D prophylaxis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Who among these women needs anti-D prophylaxis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rhesus positive woman with an antepartum bleed

      Explanation:

      Rhesus Negative Pregnancy and Anti-D Prophylaxis

      A rhesus negative pregnant woman should receive anti-D prophylaxis after any sensitising event during pregnancy to prevent the production of antibodies that could cause rhesus haemolytic disease in the baby. Sensitisation can occur if RhD-positive blood cells enter the bloodstream of a RhD-negative woman, which can happen during an antepartum bleed, an invasive procedure, an abdominal injury, or at delivery. Rhesus disease can be avoided if sensitisation is prevented.

      Rhesus disease affects the baby by causing haemolysis of red blood cells and anaemia. It occurs when a pregnant mother is RhD negative, the baby is RhD positive, and sensitisation has previously occurred. An injection of anti-D immunoglobulin can prevent sensitisation in a RhD-negative woman by neutralising any fetal RhD-positive antigens that have entered her blood.

      A rhesus negative woman with a rhesus negative partner cannot have a rhesus positive baby and is not at risk. A rhesus negative baby will not introduce rhesus positive antigens into the mother’s blood, so anti-D is not required in this case.

      Routine antenatal anti-D prophylaxis (RAADP) is administered during the third trimester of pregnancy to prevent sensitisation. This can be a single dose at 28-30 weeks or a two-dose treatment at 28 and 34 weeks. If RAADP is not given, the woman will be offered an injection of anti-D immunoglobulin within 72 hours of giving birth if the baby is RhD positive. This significantly decreases the risk of her next baby having rhesus disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 101 - A 5-year-old boy has been brought into see you. During the last three...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy has been brought into see you. During the last three days of his holiday he was very tired and reluctant to play with his sister and had a temperature without any obvious cause.

      Which of the following other features would prompt you to order a full blood count to investigate further?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Generalised lymphadenopathy

      Explanation:

      Symptoms and Signs that Require Investigation in Children

      Leukaemia can present with symptoms such as pallor, fatigue, unexplained irritability, fever, recurrent infections, lymphadenopathy, bone pain, and unexplained bruising. If any of these symptoms are present, a full blood count and blood film should be conducted to investigate the possibility of leukaemia. If the results indicate leukaemia, an urgent referral should be made.

      Generalised lymphadenopathy with the above symptoms also requires further investigation. On the other hand, a healthy 3-year-old may experience two fevers a month due to exposure to new pathogens, especially if they have older siblings or attend nursery. A fever of 39°C makes a bacterial infection more likely, and a thorough history and examination should be carried out to identify the source of the fever.

      If a child has a vesicular rash, it is often caused by Chickenpox, which is associated with a prodromal period of being non-specifically unwell. If the rash looks like Chickenpox, no further investigations are required. Erythema in the throat and ears is usually caused by a viral illness, and no further investigations are necessary unless there are other concerning symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 102 - What is the correct statement about megaloblastic anaemia from the given list? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct statement about megaloblastic anaemia from the given list?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Folic acid alone should not be given if vitamin B12 deficiency has not been ruled out

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Importance of Vitamin B12 in Megaloblastic Anemia Treatment

      Megaloblastic anemia is a condition characterized by the presence of abnormally large red blood cells. It is commonly caused by deficiencies in vitamin B12 and/or folic acid. However, it is important to note that folic acid deficiency alone is rare in developed countries and a diagnosis should be made with consideration of other nutrient deficiencies.

      When treating megaloblastic anemia, it is crucial to rule out vitamin B12 deficiency before starting folic acid therapy. This is because folic acid can improve anemia but not the neurological complications of vitamin B12 deficiency, which can worsen if left untreated. Both vitamin B12 and folic acid should be given if B12 deficiency has not been ruled out or if treatment with B12 has already been initiated.

      It is also important to note that the neurological and hematological complications of megaloblastic anemia can present independently of each other. Some patients may present with neurological impairment without anemia and vice versa.

      Treatment with vitamin B12 can stop the progression of the condition and improve neurological deficits in most patients. However, the response to treatment may vary depending on the severity of the deficiency and the time elapsed between the onset of symptoms and initiation of therapy. Treatment with folic acid, on the other hand, is usually slow and may take weeks or months to show clinical improvement.

      When using hydroxocobalamin to treat megaloblastic anemia, the dosage and frequency of injections will depend on the presence of neurological involvement. For pernicious anemia and other macrocytic anemias without neurological involvement, the initial dose is 1 mg three times a week for two weeks, followed by 1 mg every 2-3 months. For those with neurological involvement, the initial dose is 1 mg on alternate days until no further improvement, then 1 mg every two months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 103 - What is the correct statement regarding folic acid deficiency? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct statement regarding folic acid deficiency?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is responsible for neural tube defect in the fetus

      Explanation:

      Understanding Folic Acid Deficiency and Supplementation

      Folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in fetal development and overall health. Inadequate intake of folic acid can lead to various health problems, including neural tube defects in the fetus. Pregnant women are particularly at risk and are advised to take folic acid supplements to meet their increased requirements.

      Contrary to popular belief, intestinal bacterial overgrowth is not a common cause of folic acid deficiency. Instead, reduced intake is the primary cause, and deficiency can develop rapidly within four months in people with an inadequate diet. It is important to note that folic acid deficiency can cause megaloblastic anemia, but it doesn’t typically result in neurological symptoms like vitamin B12 deficiency.

      Methotrexate, a drug used to treat various conditions, can impair folate utilization and cause megaloblastic anemia. Concomitant folic acid supplementation can reduce the overall toxicity of the drug without affecting its efficacy. However, it is recommended to avoid taking folic acid on the same day as methotrexate to prevent adverse effects on absorption.

      In summary, understanding folic acid deficiency and supplementation is crucial for maintaining overall health, especially during pregnancy and when taking certain medications. Adequate intake of folic acid can prevent various health problems and improve overall well-being.

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      • Haematology
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  • Question 104 - A 12-year-old boy has sickle cell disease.
    Which of the following complications of sickle...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy has sickle cell disease.
      Which of the following complications of sickle cell disease in a boy of this age most likely to experience?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Priapism

      Explanation:

      Sickle cell disease can cause priapism, a painful and persistent erection that occurs without sexual stimulation. This is due to vaso-occlusive obstruction of the venous drainage of the penis and is most common in males with sickle cell disease under the age of 20. Priapism can be classified as prolonged or stuttering, with prolonged episodes requiring urgent medical intervention and both types potentially leading to impotence. Sickle cell disease also increases susceptibility to infection, particularly from Streptococcus pneumoniae, and can cause hand-foot syndrome in infants due to vaso-occlusion. Acute stroke is a serious complication of sickle cell disease, with a prevalence of 10% by age 50, and regular blood transfusions may be necessary for those with abnormal findings on transcranial Doppler ultrasonography.

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      • Haematology
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  • Question 105 - A 32-year-old female presents with a purpuric rash on the back of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old female presents with a purpuric rash on the back of her legs, frequent nosebleeds, and menorrhagia. She is currently taking Microgynon 30 as her only regular medication. A full blood count is ordered and the results are as follows: Hb 11.7 g/dl, platelets 62 * 109/l, WCC 5.3 * 109/l. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

      Explanation:

      A diagnosis of ITP is suggested by the presence of isolated thrombocytopenia in a healthy patient. Blood dyscrasias are not typically caused by the use of combined oral contraceptive pills.

      Immune Thrombocytopenia (ITP) in Adults: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) is a condition where the immune system attacks platelets, leading to a reduction in their count. This condition is more common in older females and tends to be chronic in adults. Symptoms may include petechiae, purpura, and bleeding, but catastrophic bleeding is not a common presentation. ITP is usually detected incidentally during routine blood tests.

      Diagnosis of ITP is based on a full blood count, which shows isolated thrombocytopenia, and a blood film. A bone marrow examination is no longer routinely used, and antiplatelet antibody testing has poor sensitivity and doesn’t affect clinical management.

      The first-line treatment for ITP is oral prednisolone, which is effective in most cases. Pooled normal human immunoglobulin (IVIG) may also be used, especially if active bleeding or an urgent invasive procedure is required. IVIG raises the platelet count quicker than steroids. Splenectomy, which used to be a common treatment for ITP, is now less commonly used.

      In some cases, ITP may be associated with autoimmune haemolytic anaemia (AIHA), a condition known as Evan’s syndrome. In such cases, treatment may involve addressing both conditions simultaneously.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 106 - Samantha is a 60-year-old woman who presents to her GP with painless swelling...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 60-year-old woman who presents to her GP with painless swelling of lymph nodes in her left armpit. On further questioning, she admits to feeling hot at night and says she has lost some weight. She has a background of rheumatoid arthritis and is on methotrexate. On examination, you can feel a 3 cm rubbery lump in her left axilla. There are no other palpable lumps anywhere else. Her observations are normal.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lymphoma

      Explanation:

      Patients who have been diagnosed with Sjogren’s syndrome are at a higher risk of developing lymphoid malignancies. Therefore, the presence of weight loss, night sweats, and painless swelling may indicate the possibility of lymphoma.

      Given that the patient is male and there is no evidence of a breast lump, breast cancer is an unlikely diagnosis.

      Tuberculosis of the lymph glands typically affects the cervical chains or supraclavicular fossa and is usually bilateral.

      While Hidradenitis suppurativa can cause painful abscesses in the axilla, it is improbable as a diagnosis since the lumps in this case are painless.

      Understanding Sjogren’s Syndrome

      Sjogren’s syndrome is a medical condition that affects the exocrine glands, leading to dry mucosal surfaces. It can either be primary or secondary to other connective tissue disorders, such as rheumatoid arthritis. The condition is more common in females, with a ratio of 9:1. Patients with Sjogren’s syndrome have a higher risk of developing lymphoid malignancy, which is 40-60 times more likely than the general population.

      The symptoms of Sjogren’s syndrome include dry eyes, dry mouth, vaginal dryness, arthralgia, Raynaud’s, myalgia, sensory polyneuropathy, recurrent episodes of parotitis, and subclinical renal tubular acidosis. To diagnose the condition, doctors may perform a Schirmer’s test to measure tear formation, as well as check for the presence of rheumatoid factor, ANA, anti-Ro (SSA) antibodies, and anti-La (SSB) antibodies.

      Management of Sjogren’s syndrome involves the use of artificial saliva and tears, as well as medications like pilocarpine to stimulate saliva production. It is important for patients with Sjogren’s syndrome to receive regular medical care and monitoring to manage their symptoms and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 107 - A 42-year-old man visits his GP for a follow-up on his hereditary haemochromatosis...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man visits his GP for a follow-up on his hereditary haemochromatosis treatment, which involves venesection every two weeks. The GP seeks to evaluate the efficacy of the treatment.

      What tests would be most beneficial in determining its effectiveness?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ferritin and transferrin saturation

      Explanation:

      Ferritin levels greater than 500 ug/L in women indicate iron overload in the blood, as ferritin is the main protein responsible for storing iron within cells. Transferrin saturation, which measures the amount of iron bound to transferrin (the primary iron transporter in the blood), also correlates with iron overload and can be used to assess the effectiveness of venesection.

      Understanding Haemochromatosis: Investigation and Management

      Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that causes iron accumulation in the body due to mutations in the HFE gene. The best investigation to screen for haemochromatosis is still a topic of debate. For the general population, transferrin saturation is considered the most useful marker, while genetic testing for HFE mutation is recommended for testing family members. Diagnostic tests include molecular genetic testing for the C282Y and H63D mutations and liver biopsy using Perl’s stain.

      A typical iron study profile in patients with haemochromatosis includes high transferrin saturation levels, raised ferritin and iron, and low TIBC. The first-line treatment for haemochromatosis is venesection, which involves removing blood from the body to reduce iron levels. Transferrin saturation should be kept below 50%, and the serum ferritin concentration should be below 50 ug/l to monitor the adequacy of venesection. If venesection is not effective, desferrioxamine may be used as a second-line treatment. Joint x-rays may also show chondrocalcinosis, which is a characteristic feature of haemochromatosis.

      It is important to note that there are rare cases of families with classic features of genetic haemochromatosis but no mutation in the HFE gene. As HFE gene analysis becomes less expensive, guidelines for investigating and managing haemochromatosis may change.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 108 - A 25-year-old male student attends the blood transfusion service wishing to donate blood....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male student attends the blood transfusion service wishing to donate blood. He is currently well, has never had a serious illness and weighs 70 kg. He spent the summer doing voluntary work in Ghana and returned three months ago. He also had his ears pierced three years ago and had a tattoo put on his left arm three years ago. He is not acceptable as a donor.
      What is the reason for his rejection for blood donation in the United Kingdom?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Travel to an endemic malaria area

      Explanation:

      Blood Donation Eligibility Criteria

      To ensure the safety of blood transfusions, there are certain eligibility criteria that potential donors must meet. Here are some corrections to common misconceptions:

      Travel to an endemic malaria area: Donors must wait six months after traveling to an endemic malaria area before donating blood. If they fell ill abroad or were resident for more than six months in Sub-Saharan Africa, they must wait even longer.

      Age: Donors must be between 17 and 66 years old (up to 70 if they have given blood before). If they are over 70 years old, they need to have given blood in the last two years to continue donating.

      Body piercing and tattoo: Donors are deferred if they have had body piercing or a tattoo in the previous four months.

      Underweight: Donors should weigh at least 50 kg. For other contraindications, please refer to the provided link.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 109 - A 35-year-old woman with a history of menorrhagia is seeking advice before her...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman with a history of menorrhagia is seeking advice before her upcoming trip from London to New York. Her most recent haemoglobin level was 9.8 g/dl. What is the minimum haemoglobin level recommended by the Civil Aviation Authority for her to be able to fly?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 8 g/dl

      Explanation:

      The CAA has issued guidelines on air travel for people with medical conditions. Patients with certain cardiovascular diseases, uncomplicated myocardial infarction, coronary artery bypass graft, and percutaneous coronary intervention may fly after a certain period of time. Patients with respiratory diseases should be clinically improved with no residual infection before flying. Pregnant women may not be allowed to travel after a certain number of weeks and may require a certificate confirming the pregnancy is progressing normally. Patients who have had surgery should avoid flying for a certain period of time depending on the type of surgery. Patients with haematological disorders may travel without problems if their haemoglobin is greater than 8 g/dl and there are no coexisting conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 110 - John is a 28-year-old man who presents with complaints of fatigue, muscle pain,...

    Incorrect

    • John is a 28-year-old man who presents with complaints of fatigue, muscle pain, and dry eyes. He has also noticed a red-purple rash on his upper cheeks that worsens after sun exposure. Upon further inquiry, he reports frequent mouth ulcers. Based on these symptoms, you suspect systemic lupus erythematosus.

      Initial laboratory tests show anemia and proteinuria on urinalysis. Which of the following tests would be the most appropriate to rule out this diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antinuclear antibody (ANA)

      Explanation:

      The ANA test is commonly used to screen for autoimmune rheumatic disease in adults, but it has limited diagnostic value on its own. The presence of anti-dsDNA antibodies, low complement levels, or anti-Smith (Sm) antibodies, along with relevant clinical features, are highly indicative of a diagnosis of SLE. However, these markers cannot be used to rule out SLE as there is still a chance of a false negative result. Anti-Ro/La antibodies are less specific to SLE and can also be found in other autoimmune rheumatic disorders.

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can be investigated through various tests, including antibody tests. ANA testing is highly sensitive and useful for ruling out SLE, but it has low specificity. About 99% of SLE patients are ANA positive. Rheumatoid factor testing is positive in 20% of SLE patients. Anti-dsDNA testing is highly specific (>99%) but less sensitive (70%). Anti-Smith testing is also highly specific (>99%) but has a lower sensitivity (30%). Other antibody tests that can be used include anti-U1 RNP, SS-A (anti-Ro), and SS-B (anti-La).

      Monitoring of SLE can be done through various markers, including inflammatory markers such as ESR. During active disease, CRP levels may be normal, and a raised CRP may indicate an underlying infection. Complement levels (C3, C4) are low during active disease due to the formation of complexes that lead to the consumption of complement. Anti-dsDNA titres can also be used for disease monitoring, but it is important to note that they are not present in all SLE patients. Overall, these investigations can help diagnose and monitor SLE, allowing for appropriate management and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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