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  • Question 1 - A 25-year-old man comes back from a visit to India with symptoms of...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man comes back from a visit to India with symptoms of nausea, anorexia, and fatigue. During a physical examination, his doctor observes clinical jaundice and moderate palpable liver and spleen. After conducting blood tests and viral markers, the diagnosis is hepatitis A. What is the mode of transmission for hepatitis A?

      Your Answer: Faeco-oral

      Explanation:

      Modes of Transmission for Hepatitis A, B, and C

      Hepatitis is a common cause of jaundice and should be considered in patients with abnormal liver function tests. The clinical features of acute hepatitis include a non-specific prodromal illness followed by jaundice. Hepatitis A and E are highly infectious and spread through the faeco-oral route. Infected individuals excrete the virus in their faeces for up to 5 weeks. Infection is more common in areas of poor sanitation. Hepatitis B and C can be spread through vertical transmission, sexual contact, blood products, and saliva. It is important to ask patients with jaundice if they had any blood products prior to 1991, as blood products in the UK have been screened for hepatitis C since then.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      9.4
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  • Question 2 - A 22-year-old gang member was brought to the Emergency Department with a knife...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old gang member was brought to the Emergency Department with a knife still in his abdomen after being stabbed in the left upper quadrant. A CT scan revealed that the tip of the knife had punctured the superior border of the greater omentum at the junction of the body and pyloric antrum of the stomach.
      What is the most likely direct branch artery that has been severed by the knife?

      Your Answer: Splenic artery

      Correct Answer: Gastroduodenal artery

      Explanation:

      The knife likely cut the right gastro-omental artery, which is a branch of the gastroduodenal artery. This artery runs along the greater curvature of the stomach within the superior border of the greater omentum and anastomoses with the left gastro-omental artery, a branch of the splenic artery. The coeliac trunk, which supplies blood to the foregut, is not related to the greater omentum but to the lesser omentum. The hepatic artery proper, one of the terminal branches of the common hepatic artery, courses towards the liver in the free edge of the lesser omentum. The splenic artery, a tortuous branch of the coeliac trunk, supplies blood to the spleen and gives off the left gastro-omental artery. The short gastric artery, on the other hand, supplies blood to the fundus of the stomach and branches off the splenic artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 21-year-old student presents to the University Health Service with jaundice. He had...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old student presents to the University Health Service with jaundice. He had been to a party three nights earlier and since then has been laid up in bed with flu-like symptoms. On examination, he has mild jaundice, but otherwise the examination is normal.
      Bloods:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Bilirubin 62 μmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
      Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 21 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
      Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 15 IU/l 10–40 IU/l
      Haemoglobin 131 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 4.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 320 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Cholecystitis

      Correct Answer: Gilbert's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Gilbert’s Syndrome and Its Differential Diagnosis

      Gilbert’s syndrome is a genetic condition that affects the conjugation of bilirubin due to a defect in the bilirubin-uridine diphosphate (UDP) glucuronyl transferase enzyme. This results in an isolated rise in bilirubin levels during times of stress, fatigue, or viral illness. A 48-hour fast can confirm the diagnosis if it is unclear. The condition is benign and does not require specific treatment.

      Crigler-Najjar syndrome is another condition that affects UDP glucuronyl transferase, but it presents with jaundice and typically results in death during the neonatal period.

      Cholecystitis causes right upper quadrant abdominal pain and fever but does not typically result in jaundice. Acute ethanol poisoning can lead to alcoholic hepatitis, but the mild jaundice and overall well-being of the patient are more consistent with Gilbert’s syndrome.

      Viral hepatitis can also cause jaundice, but the clinical picture is more in line with Gilbert’s syndrome. Understanding the differential diagnosis is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment and management for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      42.6
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  • Question 4 - During a cholecystectomy, the consultant ligates the cystic artery. Which vessel is the...

    Correct

    • During a cholecystectomy, the consultant ligates the cystic artery. Which vessel is the cystic artery typically a branch of, supplying the gallbladder?

      Your Answer: Right hepatic artery

      Explanation:

      The Hepatic Arteries and Their Branches

      The liver is a vital organ that requires a constant supply of oxygen and nutrients. This is provided by the hepatic arteries and their branches. Here are some important branches of the hepatic arteries:

      1. Right Hepatic Artery: This artery supplies the right side of the liver and is the main branch of the hepatic artery proper. It usually gives rise to the cystic artery, which supplies the gallbladder.

      2. Gastroduodenal Artery: This artery is a branch of the common hepatic artery and supplies the pylorus of the stomach and the proximal duodenum.

      3. Right Gastric Artery: This artery is a branch of the hepatic artery proper and supplies the lesser curvature of the stomach.

      4. Hepatic Proper Artery: This artery is a branch of the common hepatic artery and divides into the right and left hepatic arteries. These arteries supply the right and left sides of the liver, respectively.

      5. Left Hepatic Artery: This artery is a branch of the hepatic artery proper and supplies the left side of the liver.

      In summary, the hepatic arteries and their branches play a crucial role in maintaining the health and function of the liver.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 5 - A 25-year-old woman is seen in the Gastroenterology Clinic with complaints of weight...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman is seen in the Gastroenterology Clinic with complaints of weight loss, diarrhoea, and a severely itchy rash on her buttocks and upper legs. Upon conducting an endoscopy with small bowel biopsy, villous atrophy is discovered. What is the most crucial step in managing her underlying condition?

      Your Answer: Gluten-free diet

      Explanation:

      Understanding Treatment Options for Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease is a condition that requires strict avoidance of gluten to resolve symptoms. Failure to avoid gluten can lead to persistent symptoms and increase the risk of small bowel lymphoma. Dermatitis herpetiformis is a common symptom of coeliac disease. While lactose intolerance may also be present, avoiding lactose alone will not resolve symptoms. Cyclophosphamide and mesalamine are not effective treatments for coeliac disease, but may be used in combination regimens for gastrointestinal lymphoma and inflammatory bowel disease, respectively. Prednisolone may be used as an acute intervention for patients with refractory symptoms despite following a gluten-free diet. Overall, the most important intervention for coeliac disease is strict avoidance of gluten.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      35.6
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  • Question 6 - As the F1 on call, you have been summoned to attend to a...

    Incorrect

    • As the F1 on call, you have been summoned to attend to a 36-year-old man who has been admitted with decompensated alcoholic liver disease. Upon examination, you observe widespread stigmata of chronic liver disease with tense ascites and mild peripheral oedema. There is no indication of encephalopathy, and all vital signs are within acceptable limits. The most recent blood tests reveal a haemoglobin level of 115 g/L (120-140), a white cell count of 5.6 ×109/L (4.0-11.0), and a platelet count of 79 ×109/L (150-400), among other things. The patient is experiencing abdominal pain. What is the safest analgesic agent to prescribe to this patient?

      Your Answer: Tramadol hydrochloride

      Correct Answer: Paracetamol

      Explanation:

      Special Considerations for Drug Prescribing in Patients with Advanced Liver Disease

      Patients with advanced liver disease require special attention when it comes to drug prescribing due to the altered pathophysiology of the liver. The liver’s poor synthetic function can lead to impaired enzyme formation, reducing the ability to excrete hepatically metabolized drugs. Concurrent use of enzyme-inducing drugs can lead to the accumulation of toxic metabolites. Additionally, reduced synthesis of blood clotting factors by a damaged liver means that these patients can often auto-anticoagulate, and drugs that interfere with the clotting process are best avoided.

      Aspirin and other non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as ibuprofen and diclofenac should be avoided in liver disease patients. These drugs promote gastric irritation, increasing the likelihood of gastrointestinal bleeding, which is significantly increased if there are upper gastrointestinal varices present. NSAIDs can also promote fluid retention and worsen peripheral edema and ascites. Morphine sulfate and tramadol hydrochloride are both opioid analgesics that should only be considered in patients with advanced liver disease by hepatologists as they can promote the development of hepatic encephalopathy. Paracetamol is considered the safest analgesic to use in these patients, even in severe liver disease, as long as the doses are halved.

      In conclusion, patients with advanced liver disease require special care in drug prescribing due to the altered pathophysiology of the liver. It is important to avoid drugs that interfere with the clotting process, promote gastric irritation, and worsen peripheral edema and ascites. Opioid analgesics should only be considered by hepatologists, and paracetamol is considered the safest analgesic to use in these patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      49.4
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  • Question 7 - A 50-year-old man presents to the upper gastrointestinal surgeon with a 9-month history...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the upper gastrointestinal surgeon with a 9-month history of difficulty swallowing both liquids and solid foods. He also complains of regurgitating food. He has been eating smaller and smaller meals given the above symptoms. He has a past medical history of depression for which he takes citalopram. He has never smoked or drank alcohol. He has trialled over-the-counter proton-pump inhibitor (PPI) medication without any symptom relief.
      Physical examination is normal. A recent chest radiograph also appears to be normal. His electrocardiogram (ECG) is also normal.
      His observations are shown below:
      Temperature 36.8 °C
      Blood pressure 127/79 mmHg
      Heart rate 75 beats per minute
      Respiratory rate 16 breaths per minute
      Sp(O2) 98% (room air)
      A diagnosis of achalasia is likely.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive management for this condition?

      Your Answer: Botulinum toxin A injections

      Correct Answer: Pneumatic dilation

      Explanation:

      Achalasia is a condition where the lower esophageal sphincter fails to relax, causing difficulty in swallowing and regurgitation. Pneumatic dilation is a treatment option that involves using a balloon to stretch the sphincter and reduce pressure in the esophagus. However, this procedure carries a risk of perforation and is only recommended for patients who are good surgical candidates. Botulinum toxin A injections can also be used to inhibit the neurons that increase sphincter tone, but may require repeat treatments. Gastrostomy, or creating an artificial opening into the stomach, is reserved for severe cases where other treatments have failed and the patient is not a surgical candidate. Sublingual isosorbide dinitrate and nifedipine are pharmacological options that can temporarily relax the sphincter and may be used as a bridge while waiting for definitive treatment or for patients who cannot tolerate invasive procedures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      81.3
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  • Question 8 - What statement is true about infants who have gastroenteritis? ...

    Correct

    • What statement is true about infants who have gastroenteritis?

      Your Answer: Should be admitted to hospital if they are unable to tolerate fluid orally

      Explanation:

      Management of Gastroenteritis in Children

      Gastroenteritis is a common illness in children that is usually caused by a viral infection. Antibiotics are not necessary in most cases as they are only effective against bacterial infections. Changing formula feeds is also not recommended as it may cause further digestive problems. However, if the child is unable to tolerate oral fluids, intravenous fluid therapy may be necessary to prevent dehydration.

      Lactose intolerance is a common occurrence in children with gastroenteritis, but it is not inevitable. It is important to monitor the child’s symptoms and adjust their diet accordingly. Barium meals are not useful in the investigation of gastroenteritis as they are more commonly used to diagnose structural abnormalities in the digestive system.

      In summary, the management of gastroenteritis in children involves providing supportive care such as oral rehydration therapy and monitoring for signs of dehydration. Antibiotics are not necessary unless there is a bacterial infection present. It is important to be aware of the possibility of lactose intolerance and adjust the child’s diet accordingly. Barium meals are not useful in the investigation of gastroenteritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      19.5
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  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old accountant has been recently diagnosed with haemochromatosis following a year-long history...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old accountant has been recently diagnosed with haemochromatosis following a year-long history of fatigue, irritability and bronzing of the skin. She would like to know more about the prognosis of the condition and is concerned about the risks of passing on the condition to any children that she may have in the future.

      Which of the following statements best describes haemochromatosis?

      Your Answer: There is an increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that causes the body to absorb too much iron, leading to iron overload and deposition in vital organs such as the liver and pancreas. It is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner, with a frequency of homozygotes in the population of 1:500. The disorder is most commonly found in Celtic nations. Symptoms typically present in the third to fourth decade of life in men and post-menopause in women and include weakness, fatigue, skin bronzing, diabetes, cirrhosis, and cardiac disease. Treatment involves venesection, and in severe cases, liver transplantation may be necessary. Haemochromatosis increases the risk of developing liver cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma by up to 200-fold. Iron deposition in the pancreas can also lead to diabetes, and patients with haemochromatosis who develop diabetes usually require insulin treatment. Arthropathy associated with haemochromatosis is the result of pseudogout, as iron deposits impair cartilage nutrition and enhance the formation and deposition of calcium pyrophosphate dehydrate crystals. Heterozygotes for the HFE gene typically do not develop cirrhosis and remain asymptomatic due to the disorder’s low penetrance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      42.2
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  • Question 10 - A 43-year-old man presents with painless jaundice 2 months after returning from a...

    Correct

    • A 43-year-old man presents with painless jaundice 2 months after returning from a trip to Thailand. He has no known history of liver disease. Laboratory results reveal bilirubin levels of 210 µmol/l, ALT levels of 1206 iu/l, ALP levels of 405 iu/l, PT of 10 s, and albumin levels of 41 g/dl. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute hepatitis B

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Acute Hepatitis with Jaundice

      Acute hepatitis with jaundice can have various causes, and a differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the underlying condition. In this case, the blood tests indicate significant hepatocellular damage as the cause of the patient’s jaundice, making viral hepatitis the most likely option.

      Acute hepatitis B is a common cause of jaundice, especially in endemic regions like Asia. The patient may have acquired the infection through sexual contact or needle-sharing. The acute infection usually lasts for 1-3 months, and most patients make a full recovery.

      Acute hepatitis C is less likely as it is usually asymptomatic in adults, and only a small percentage develops symptoms. Primary biliary cholangitis, on the other hand, presents with an insidious onset of pruritus and lethargy, followed by jaundice, and causes a cholestatic picture. Acute alcoholic hepatitis rarely causes an ALT >500 and should be suspected if another cause or concomitant cause is present. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is chronic and usually leads to mildly abnormal liver function tests in patients with risk factors for the metabolic syndrome.

      In conclusion, a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the underlying cause of acute hepatitis with jaundice, and in this case, viral hepatitis is the most likely option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      74
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastroenterology (6/10) 60%
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