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  • Question 1 - A 70-year-old man is observed by his family to be experiencing increasing confusion....

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man is observed by his family to be experiencing increasing confusion. His mental state fluctuates significantly and he appears to be experiencing hallucinations at times. His daughter mentioned that his walking has become abnormal over the past few months and that his doctor had prescribed a medication for his nighttime confusion that seemed to make him much worse. During the examination, he scored 20/30 on the Mini-Mental test, displayed increased tone, and had difficulty performing rapidly alternating movements. His tendon reflexes were slightly brisk, but his plantar responses were normal, and no primitive reflexes were detected.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Senile dementia of Alzheimer's type

      Correct Answer: Dementia with Lewy bodies

      Explanation:

      Dementia with Lewy Bodies: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB) is a neurodegenerative disease that is the second most common cause of dementia in older people after Alzheimer’s disease. DLB is characterized by extrapyramidal features, variable psychiatric symptoms, and complex hallucinations. To diagnose DLB, two of three core diagnostic features must be present, including fluctuating confusion, persistent visual hallucinations, and spontaneous Parkinsonism. Antipsychotic drugs like haloperidol can worsen DLB, while cholinesterase inhibitors like rivastigmine can help treat cognitive decline.

      Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is another neurodegenerative disease that can cause cognitive and functional impairment, along with myoclonus, visual disturbances, and cerebellar, pyramidal, and extrapyramidal signs. To diagnose different types of dementia, clinicians can refer to the Scottish Intercollegiate Guidelines Network (SIGN) guidance from February 2006, which lists the full clinical diagnostic features.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      40.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A parent brings her 5-year-old son to the pediatrician's office. She informs you...

    Correct

    • A parent brings her 5-year-old son to the pediatrician's office. She informs you that her son has head lice and the school nurse has recommended keeping him at home until the treatment is finished to prevent the spread of head lice to other children. The parent asks for your advice on what to do next.

      Your Answer: No school exclusions apply

      Explanation:

      There is no need to exclude children with head lice from school, so the answer to the question is no. The mother should be comforted that her daughter can still attend school, and there is no reason for the patient to stay home. Therefore, the other answer options for this question are incorrect.

      The Health Protection Agency has provided guidance on when children should be excluded from school due to infectious conditions. Some conditions, such as conjunctivitis, fifth disease, roseola, infectious mononucleosis, head lice, threadworms, and hand, foot and mouth, do not require exclusion. Scarlet fever requires exclusion for 24 hours after commencing antibiotics, while whooping cough requires exclusion for 2 days after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are taken. Measles requires exclusion for 4 days from onset of rash, rubella for 5 days from onset of rash, and Chickenpox until all lesions are crusted over. Mumps requires exclusion for 5 days from onset of swollen glands, while diarrhoea and vomiting require exclusion until symptoms have settled for 48 hours. Impetigo requires exclusion until lesions are crusted and healed, or for 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment, and scabies requires exclusion until treated. influenza requires exclusion until the child has recovered for 48 hours.

      Regarding Chickenpox, Public Health England recommends that children should be excluded until all lesions are crusted over, while Clinical Knowledge Summaries suggest that infectivity continues until all lesions are dry and have crusted over, usually about 5 days after the onset of the rash. It is important to follow official guidance and consult with healthcare professionals if unsure about exclusion periods for infectious conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old woman presents with dysuria, frequency of urination, and suprapubic discomfort. Urine...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman presents with dysuria, frequency of urination, and suprapubic discomfort. Urine dipstick testing shows:
      nitrites+
      leucocytes++
      blood++

      She has had four urinary tract infections in the last six months, with each episode confirmed by laboratory testing. On each occasion, urine dipstick testing has shown microscopic blood as well as nitrite and leucocyte positivity. After treatment with antibiotics, the infections have settled, but on the last occasion, she experienced visible haematuria.

      The patient asks if there is anything she can do to prevent these infections. She had only one previous UTI about six years ago. What is the best approach in this case?

      Your Answer: Refer her to a urologist as urgent suspected cancer at this point in time

      Explanation:

      Referral Guidelines for Recurrent UTI with Non-Visible Haematuria

      Recurrent UTI is defined as three or more episodes in a year. In the case of a woman with her fourth episode in the last six months, it is important to investigate further. If visible or non-visible haematuria is present on dipstick testing when a UTI is suspected, a urine sample should be sent to the laboratory for mc+s testing in all patients. If infection is confirmed, a urine sample should be dipstick tested for blood after antibiotic treatment has been completed. If haematuria persists, further investigation is warranted.

      According to NICE guidelines, urgent referral is necessary for bladder cancer if a person aged 45 and over has unexplained visible haematuria without urinary tract infection or visible haematuria that persists or recurs after successful treatment of urinary tract infection. For renal cancer, urgent referral is necessary if a person aged 45 and over has unexplained visible haematuria without urinary tract infection or visible haematuria that persists or recurs after successful treatment of urinary tract infection.

      In the case of a woman with recurrent UTIs associated with non-visible haematuria each time, urgent referral to a urologist is necessary. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure timely diagnosis and treatment of potential cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      54.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which statement regarding methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement regarding methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is correct?

      Your Answer: MRSA is always pathogenic

      Correct Answer: MRSA is often sensitive to trimethoprim

      Explanation:

      Understanding MRSA: Causes, Transmission, and Treatment

      MRSA, or Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus, is a type of bacteria that can be acquired in both hospital and community settings. While it is carried by many people without causing harm, it can also cause serious infections. MRSA can be spread through direct contact or airborne infection. When treatment is necessary, a combination of doxycycline, fusidic acid, or trimethoprim with rifampicin is typically effective. However, it is important to note that fusidic acid and rifampicin should not be used alone due to the risk of resistance developing. Understanding the causes, transmission, and treatment of MRSA is crucial in preventing its spread and managing infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 49-year-old patient sees you as part of a health check-up.
    He asks you...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old patient sees you as part of a health check-up.
      He asks you your views about whether he should have a PSA (prostate-specific antigen) check.

      Your Answer: The patient should be reassured that a PSA check is unnecessary in patients in his age group

      Correct Answer: The patient should be dissuaded from a PSA check as there is no evidence that screening for prostate cancer improves mortality rates from the disease

      Explanation:

      PSA Testing and Prostate Cancer Screening

      Current advice from the Department of Health states that patients should not be refused a PSA test if they request one. However, patients should be informed about the implications of the test. While there is no clear evidence to support mass prostate cancer screening, studies have shown that diagnosing patients through case presentation has led to improved cancer mortality rates in the USA. It is important to note that many patients with prostate cancer do not experience symptoms, and urinary symptoms are not always indicative of the disease. Additionally, prostate cancer can develop in patients as young as their fifth decade of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      42.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 32-year-old man has an ‘allergic condition’ and wants to know if desensitising...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man has an ‘allergic condition’ and wants to know if desensitising injections can help him overcome it.
      Which of the following ‘allergic conditions’ is the one for which allergen immunotherapy (desensitising vaccines) is most commonly recommended?

      Your Answer: Allergic rhinitis

      Correct Answer: Hypersensitivity to bee and wasp stings

      Explanation:

      Allergy Treatment Options for Different Types of Allergies

      Bee and Wasp Sting Hypersensitivity:
      Patients who have a systemic reaction to bee or wasp stings should be referred to an allergy specialist. The first line of investigation is to demonstrate specific IgE by skin testing to both bee and wasp venom. Serum tryptase should also be measured to indicate the risk of future severe reactions. Patients should receive a written emergency management plan, an adrenaline auto-injector, and be educated in its use. Venom immunotherapy is effective in treating this type of allergy.

      Peanut Allergy:
      Desensitization is not widely used to treat food allergy because of the risk of anaphylaxis. The British National Formulary approves its use only for bee and wasp venom and pollen allergy.

      Allergic Rhinitis:
      Desensitization is available for severe seasonal rhinitis that has not responded to drugs. Sublingual or subcutaneous administration can be used, but it is recommended that only specialists use them due to concerns about the safety of desensitizing vaccines.

      Chronic Urticaria:
      Chronic urticaria doesn’t normally have an allergic cause. Chronic spontaneous urticaria may be autoimmune, while chronic inducible urticaria is due to physical stimuli such as heat, cold, pressure, and sweating.

      Contact Allergic Dermatitis:
      This type of allergy is not IgE-mediated but rather a delayed hypersensitivity reaction. In contrast, bee and wasp venom and pollen allergies are IgE-mediated immediate hypersensitivity reactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 16-year-old girl is brought for review. She is typically healthy and hasn't...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl is brought for review. She is typically healthy and hasn't had a doctor's appointment in over four years. Her parents have become increasingly worried about her behavior in the past few weeks. They report her staying up late at night, talking rapidly, and being very irritable. Yesterday she told her parents she was planning to take over the school assembly and give constructive criticism to her teachers in front of the other students. She feels many of her teachers are underperforming and need to be re-taught their subjects by her. She admits to trying cannabis once around eight months ago and has drank alcohol a few times in the past year, the last time being three weeks ago. Prior to her decline a few weeks ago, her parents describe her as a happy, well-adjusted, sociable young woman. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Asperger's syndrome

      Correct Answer: Mania

      Explanation:

      It is highly improbable for him to experience issues related to cannabis and alcohol as it has been a considerable amount of time since he last consumed these substances.

      Understanding the Difference between Hypomania and Mania

      Hypomania and mania are two terms that are often used interchangeably, but they are not the same. While both conditions share some common symptoms, there are significant differences between them. Mania is a severe form of mood disorder that lasts for at least seven days and can cause significant functional impairment in social and work settings. It may require hospitalization due to the risk of harm to self or others and may present with psychotic symptoms such as delusions of grandeur or auditory hallucinations.

      On the other hand, hypomania is a milder form of mania that lasts for less than seven days, typically 3-4 days. It doesn’t impair functional capacity in social or work settings and is unlikely to require hospitalization. Hypomania doesn’t exhibit any psychotic symptoms. The length of symptoms, severity, and presence of psychotic symptoms help differentiate mania from hypomania.

      Despite their differences, both hypomania and mania share some common symptoms. These include predominantly elevated or irritable mood, pressured speech, flight of ideas, poor attention, insomnia, loss of inhibitions, increased appetite, and risk-taking behavior.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      128.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The parents of a 7-year-old child diagnosed with autism are concerned about the...

    Incorrect

    • The parents of a 7-year-old child diagnosed with autism are concerned about the potential impact on their child's overall health. They have heard that autism may be associated with various medical issues. Which of the following characteristics is not more prevalent in a child with autism than in the general population? Choose only ONE option.

      Your Answer: Epilepsy

      Correct Answer: Coeliac disease

      Explanation:

      Common Co-Occurring Conditions in Children with Autism

      Children with autism often experience co-occurring conditions that can impact their overall health and well-being. While some parents have reported success with a gluten-free diet for their child’s autism symptoms, there is no solid evidence to support this approach. Additionally, children with autism may also have ADHD, epilepsy, and sensory impairments such as hearing or vision impairment. It’s important for parents and caregivers to be aware of these potential co-occurring conditions and work with healthcare professionals to address them appropriately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 75-year-old female presents following a recent hospital admission with a small stroke.

    She...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old female presents following a recent hospital admission with a small stroke.

      She informs you that she has had some difficulty finding her way to your surgery in the car. On closer questioning it is quite apparent that she has some problems with memory impairment and has become slower after this small stroke.

      She had a medical examination one year ago and has three years left on her driving licence before she next needs a further medical. You inform her that you feel she should give up driving but she adamantly refuses to give up as she is dependent upon the car for getting about.

      What should you do?

      Your Answer: Advise the patient to apply for a disabled driver's badge from the local authority

      Correct Answer: Inform the DVLA that in your opinion the patient is not fit to drive

      Explanation:

      Duty to Report Elderly Drivers

      Elderly drivers are at a higher risk of accidents, even in good conditions and involving only two vehicles. This risk is further increased by any disabilities they may have. While doctors have a duty of confidentiality, this is outweighed by their duty to the wider community. If a patient is considered a risk and cannot be persuaded to give up driving voluntarily, the doctor should inform the DVLA. The patient should also be informed that if they do not inform the DVLA, the doctor will do so in the best interests of the public. Additionally, regulations require that elderly drivers give up driving for a month after a stroke. It is important for doctors to prioritize public safety and take action when necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      59.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 67-year-old man comes in for his yearly vaccinations.
    Which pathogen is he most...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man comes in for his yearly vaccinations.
      Which pathogen is he most likely to receive immunisation against on an annual basis?

      Your Answer: influenza virus

      Explanation:

      Vaccinations for Elderly Patients: A Review of influenza, Varicella Zoster, Legionella Pneumophila, Streptococcus Pneumoniae, and Neisseria Meningitidis

      As individuals age, their immune systems weaken, making them more susceptible to certain diseases. Vaccinations are an important tool in preventing these diseases, particularly in the elderly population. influenza vaccination is recommended annually for all individuals over the age of 65, with those with underlying chronic diseases at highest risk. While the vaccine’s efficacy is reduced in the elderly population, it still significantly reduces hospital admission and mortality rates. Varicella zoster virus vaccination is recommended for patients aged between 70 to 79 to prevent shingles. There is currently no vaccine available for Legionella pneumophila. Streptococcus pneumoniae vaccination is recommended for individuals over 65 years of age, with one dose providing lifelong immunity. Neisseria meningitidis vaccination is not routinely recommended for the over-65s but is given to infants, children, and adults with certain medical conditions. Overall, vaccinations are an important preventative measure for elderly patients to reduce the risk of disease and improve health outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Parents of a 7-year-old boy present concerned that their son may be carrying...

    Correct

    • Parents of a 7-year-old boy present concerned that their son may be carrying the gene for Huntington's disease.

      The father was diagnosed with the disease at age 32. The mother has been genetically screened and is not a carrier of the gene.

      What is the probability of their son developing Huntington's disease?

      Your Answer: 1 in 2

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Genetics of Huntington’s Disease

      Huntington’s disease (HD) is a degenerative neurological disease that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. This means that only one copy of the faulty gene is required for an individual to develop the disease. In the case of a heterozygous father and a mother with no copies of the gene, there is a 50% chance that their offspring will inherit the faulty gene and develop the disease.

      Symptoms of HD typically appear in early middle age and include unsteady gait, involuntary movements, behavioral changes, and progressive dementia. The defective gene responsible for HD is located on chromosome 4, and a phenomenon known as genetic anticipation can occur, where the disease develops earlier in life in subsequent generations.

      Fortunately, genetic screening is now available to identify individuals who carry the faulty gene. This can help individuals make informed decisions about family planning and allow for early intervention and treatment. Understanding the genetics of HD is crucial in managing the disease and providing support for affected individuals and their families.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 25-year-old woman with acne vulgaris has tried several topical treatments and oral...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman with acne vulgaris has tried several topical treatments and oral antibiotics in primary care without improvement. She is referred to secondary care and started on isotretinoin.
      What is the most appropriate advice she should be given regarding isotretinoin treatment? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Pregnancy should be avoided during treatment and for one month after treatment

      Explanation:

      Understanding Isotretinoin: Important Information to Know

      Isotretinoin is a medication used to treat severe inflammatory acne. However, there are important considerations to keep in mind before starting treatment. Here are some key points to be aware of:

      Pregnancy should be avoided: Isotretinoin is known to be teratogenic, meaning it can cause birth defects. Women of childbearing age should use at least one form of contraception during treatment and for one month after treatment.

      Serum lipids may decrease: While taking isotretinoin, minor changes in serum lipids and liver function may occur. These are monitored during treatment and the medication may be stopped if the tests worsen.

      Emollients should not be used: Isotretinoin can cause dryness of the skin and mucous membranes, especially the lips. While patients may need to apply emollients, they should be cautious as they can interfere with the medication’s effectiveness.

      Depression is a rare side effect: While depression is listed as a rare side effect of isotretinoin, there is no clear link between the medication and depression. Patients should be asked about mood and any changes should be reported to their healthcare provider.

      The skin becomes greasier: Isotretinoin reduces sebum secretion, which can cause dryness of the skin and mucous membranes. However, some patients may experience an initial increase in oil production before seeing improvement in their acne.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which medication is not suitable for subcutaneous administration and should not be used...

    Correct

    • Which medication is not suitable for subcutaneous administration and should not be used in a syringe driver?

      Your Answer: Levomepromazine

      Explanation:

      Medications for Syringe Drivers

      Not all medications can be used in syringe drivers for subcutaneous infusion due to the risk of injection site skin reactions. Diazepam, chlorpromazine, and prochlorperazine are contraindicated. Diamorphine is the most commonly used medication in syringe drivers, and it can be mixed with other medications such as cyclizine, dexamethasone, haloperidol, hyoscine butylbromide and hydrobromide, levomepromazine, metoclopramide, and midazolam. The British National Formulary (BNF) provides detailed information on mixing and compatibility of medications used in syringe drivers. It is important to note that phenobarbital and diclofenac are not compatible with diamorphine and should be given using a separate syringe driver. Understanding the appropriate medications for syringe drivers is crucial for healthcare professionals, and it is a common topic in the MRCGP examination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 28-year-old man experiences a sudden onset of hearing voices narrating his actions...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man experiences a sudden onset of hearing voices narrating his actions and strongly believes he has been sent by God as a prophet, despite it not aligning with his religious beliefs. He displays tangentiality and clanging during a mental state examination. After two weeks, his symptoms completely resolve. The patient had a history of depression during his late teenage years and no prior similar episodes. What was the diagnosis for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Schizophrenia

      Correct Answer: Brief psychotic disorder

      Explanation:

      The patient was experiencing symptoms of psychosis, including hallucinations, delusions, and thought disorganization. The most likely diagnosis is brief psychotic disorder, which is characterized by a short episode of psychosis followed by a return to baseline functioning. Bipolar affective disorder, drug abuse, and schizoaffective disorder are less likely diagnoses based on the information provided. It is important to take a thorough history to rule out any potential underlying causes of the patient’s symptoms.

      Understanding Psychosis: Symptoms and Associated Features

      Psychosis is a term used to describe a person’s experience of perceiving things differently from those around them. This can manifest in a variety of ways, including hallucinations, delusions, thought disorganization, alogia, tangentiality, clanging, and word salad. These symptoms can be associated with agitation, aggression, neurocognitive impairment, depression, and thoughts of self-harm.

      Psychotic symptoms can occur in a number of conditions, including schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, puerperal psychosis, brief psychotic disorder, neurological conditions like Parkinson’s disease and Huntington’s disease, and as a result of prescribed drugs or certain illicit drugs like cannabis and phencyclidine.

      The peak age of first-episode psychosis is around 15-30 years. It is important to understand the symptoms and associated features of psychosis in order to recognize and seek appropriate treatment for those experiencing these symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A digital rectal examination and PSA test should be offered to which of...

    Correct

    • A digital rectal examination and PSA test should be offered to which of the following patients?

      Your Answer: A 62-year-old man with unexplained lower back pain

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, men experiencing unexplained symptoms such as erectile dysfunction, haematuria, lower back pain, bone pain, and weight loss (especially in the elderly) should be offered a PR and PSA test. However, before conducting a PSA test, a urine dipstick/MSU should be done to rule out any infection. If a UTI is treated, PSA testing should be avoided for at least a month.

      If the age-specific PSA is high or increasing, even in asymptomatic patients with a normal PR examination, an urgent referral should be made. In cases where the PSA is at the upper limit of normal in asymptomatic patients, a repeat PSA should be conducted after 1-3 months. If the PSA is increasing, an urgent referral should be made. These guidelines are outlined in the NICE referral guidelines for suspected cancer.

      Understanding Prostate Cancer: Features and Risk Factors

      Prostate cancer is a prevalent type of cancer among adult males in the UK, and it is the second leading cause of cancer-related deaths in men, next to lung cancer. Several risk factors increase the likelihood of developing prostate cancer, including increasing age, obesity, Afro-Caribbean ethnicity, and a family history of the disease. In fact, around 5-10% of cases have a strong family history.

      Localised prostate cancer is often asymptomatic, which means that it doesn’t show any symptoms. This is because the cancer cells tend to develop in the periphery of the prostate, which doesn’t cause obstructive symptoms early on. However, some possible features of prostate cancer include bladder outlet obstruction, hesitancy, urinary retention, haematuria, haematospermia, pain in the back, perineal or testicular area, and an asymmetrical, hard, nodular enlargement with loss of median sulcus during a digital rectal examination.

      Understanding the features and risk factors of prostate cancer is crucial in detecting and treating the disease early on. In some cases, prostate cancer may metastasize or spread to other parts of the body, such as the bones. A bone scan using technetium-99m labelled diphosphonates can detect multiple osteoblastic metastasis, which is a common finding in patients with metastatic prostate cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 25-year-old woman who is 8 weeks pregnant visits the GP clinic complaining...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman who is 8 weeks pregnant visits the GP clinic complaining of a burning sensation while urinating. She reports no vaginal bleeding and is in good health otherwise. She has no recorded drug allergies. Urinalysis shows positive results for nitrates and 3+ leucocytes. The GP suspects a urinary tract infection.

      What is the best course of action in primary care?

      Your Answer: Arrange for a urine culture, and treat with a 7-day course of oral cefalexin. Repeat the urine culture seven days after antibiotics have completed as a test of cure

      Explanation:

      To avoid the risk of birth defects, trimethoprim should not be used during the first trimester of pregnancy. When a urinary tract infection is suspected in women, it is recommended to start treatment before waiting for culture results. However, a urine culture and sensitivity test should be done before starting antibiotics and again seven days after completing treatment to ensure it was effective. Local guidelines for prescribing antibiotics should be followed, and cefalexin is a safe alternative to trimethoprim. The current recommendation is to take antibiotics for seven days.

      Understanding Trimethoprim: Mechanism of Action, Adverse Effects, and Use in Pregnancy

      Trimethoprim is an antibiotic that is commonly used to treat urinary tract infections. Its mechanism of action involves interfering with DNA synthesis by inhibiting dihydrofolate reductase. This may cause an interaction with methotrexate, which also inhibits dihydrofolate reductase. However, the use of trimethoprim may also lead to adverse effects such as myelosuppression and a transient rise in creatinine. The drug competitively inhibits the tubular secretion of creatinine, resulting in a temporary increase that reverses upon stopping the medication. Additionally, trimethoprim blocks the ENaC channel in the distal nephron, causing a hyperkalaemic distal RTA (type 4). It also inhibits creatinine secretion, which often leads to an increase in creatinine by around 40 points, but not necessarily causing AKI.

      When it comes to the use of trimethoprim in pregnancy, caution is advised. The British National Formulary (BNF) warns of a teratogenic risk in the first trimester due to its folate antagonist properties. Manufacturers advise avoiding the use of trimethoprim during pregnancy. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any medication, especially during pregnancy, to ensure the safety of both the mother and the developing fetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      47.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which one of the following statements regarding the shingles vaccine (Zostavax) is accurate?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding the shingles vaccine (Zostavax) is accurate?

      Your Answer: It should be given to all 65-year-olds

      Correct Answer: It is given subcutaneously

      Explanation:

      Varicella-Zoster Vaccination: Protection Against Chickenpox and Shingles

      Varicella-zoster is a herpesvirus that causes Chickenpox and shingles. There are two types of vaccines available to protect against these infections. The first type is a live attenuated vaccine that prevents primary varicella infection or Chickenpox. This vaccine is recommended for healthcare workers who are not immune to VZV and for individuals who are in close contact with immunocompromised patients.

      The second type of vaccine is designed to reduce the incidence of herpes zoster or shingles caused by reactivation of VZV. This live-attenuated vaccine is given subcutaneously and is offered to patients aged 70-79 years. The vaccine is also available as a catch-up campaign for those who missed out on their vaccinations in the previous two years of the program. However, the shingles vaccine is not available on the NHS to anyone aged 80 and over because it seems to be less effective in this age group.

      The main contraindication for both vaccines is immunosuppression. Side effects of the vaccines include injection site reactions, and less than 1 in 10,000 individuals may develop Chickenpox. It is important to note that vaccination is the most effective way to prevent varicella-zoster infections and their complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 30-year-old man with Down syndrome undergoes his annual health check and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man with Down syndrome undergoes his annual health check and a cardiac abnormality is discovered. Which of the following cardiac abnormalities is most commonly found in adults with Down syndrome? Choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer: Ventricular septal defect

      Correct Answer: Mitral valve prolapse

      Explanation:

      Cardiac Abnormalities in Adults with Down Syndrome

      Down syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects approximately 1 in 700 babies born in the United States. While congenital defects are common in children with Down syndrome, affecting 47%, most babies born with these defects will have surgery at an early age. However, around 40-50% of adults with Down syndrome will develop valvular disease, even if they did not have a defect at birth.

      Atrial fibrillation, a common heart condition characterized by an irregular heartbeat, doesn’t have a significant increase in risk among the Down syndrome population compared to the general population. However, the risk of infective endocarditis, a potentially life-threatening infection of the heart’s inner lining, is increased in individuals with Down syndrome who have a structural cardiac abnormality.

      Interestingly, rates of ischaemic heart disease, a condition caused by reduced blood flow to the heart, are lower among people with Down syndrome when compared to the general population. Ventricular septal defect, a hole in the wall separating the heart’s lower chambers, occurs in 32% of babies born with Down syndrome, but it is relatively rare in adults due to early surgical correction.

      In conclusion, while adults with Down syndrome may be at an increased risk for certain cardiac abnormalities, early surgical intervention and lower rates of ischaemic heart disease suggest that proper medical care can help manage these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 65-year old man comes to the clinic complaining of a gradual decline...

    Correct

    • A 65-year old man comes to the clinic complaining of a gradual decline in his vision over the past month. He reports difficulty reading small print and noticing that straight lines appear distorted. Additionally, he has noticed a grey spot in the center of his vision. Upon examination, his visual acuity is 20/30 in both eyes. Ophthalmoscopy reveals choroidal neovascularization. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Age-related macular degeneration

      Explanation:

      If an individual experiences a combination of age, gradual loss of vision, blurring of small words, and straight lines appearing ‘curvy’, it is important to consider the possibility of age-related macular degeneration. It is possible for visual acuity to remain normal in this case. Wet age-related macular degeneration is characterized by neovascularization.

      Acute closed angle glaucoma is typically accompanied by pain, headache, red eye, and the classic symptom of ‘halos around objects’. Retinal artery occlusion is an acute event that usually results in dense central visual loss (if the central retinal artery is occluded) or a sectional visual field defect (if a branch retinal artery is occluded). Diabetic retinopathy is typically seen in individuals with a known diagnosis of diabetes. They may be asymptomatic for a significant period before experiencing symptoms such as floaters, blurring, and distortion. A macular hole presents similarly to age-related macular degeneration, with slow onset central visual loss and sometimes distortion. However, ophthalmoscopy would reveal a well-defined round or oval lesion in the macula with yellow deposits at the base. Choroidal neovascularization is not a characteristic symptom in the scenario described.

      Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. The risk of ARMD increases with age, smoking, family history, and conditions associated with an increased risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD is classified into dry and wet forms, with the latter carrying the worst prognosis. Clinical features include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual hallucinations. Signs include distortion of line perception, the presence of drusen, and well-demarcated red patches in wet ARMD. Investigations include slit-lamp microscopy, colour fundus photography, fluorescein angiography, indocyanine green angiography, and ocular coherence tomography. Treatment options include a combination of zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents for wet ARMD. Laser photocoagulation is also an option, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 35-year-old lady, with stable schizophrenia, had a routine ECG which showed a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old lady, with stable schizophrenia, had a routine ECG which showed a QTc interval of 480 ms. She takes only takes oral quetiapine regularly. She reported no symptoms and was otherwise well. Blood tests including electrolytes were normal.

      Which is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step?

      Your Answer: Stop quetiapine

      Correct Answer: Repeat ECG

      Explanation:

      Management of QTc Prolongation in a Psychiatric Patient

      It is important to seek advice from psychiatry before making any changes to medications in a psychiatric patient. Abruptly stopping an antipsychotic medication could lead to acute deterioration in the patient’s mental health.

      When managing QTc prolongation, it is important to consider the normal values for QTc, which are < 440 ms in men and <470 ms in women. The degree to which the QTc is increased is relevant to the next step of management. If the QTc is >500 ms or there is abnormal T-wave morphology, it would require discussion with the on-call cardiology team and consideration of stopping the suspected causative drug(s).

      Lithium would not typically be initiated by a general practitioner and would not be indicated in this case. Therefore, it is most appropriate to discuss with psychiatry for their advice. They may recommend lowering the antipsychotic dose and repeating the ECG. Proper management of QTc prolongation in a psychiatric patient requires collaboration between psychiatry and cardiology.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
      26.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - What are the duties of the Caldicott guardian? ...

    Correct

    • What are the duties of the Caldicott guardian?

      Your Answer: Complying with the Data Protection Act

      Explanation:

      The Caldicott Report and Patient Confidentiality

      The Caldicott report emphasizes the significance of safeguarding patient confidentiality. It outlines six principles that healthcare professionals must follow to ensure patient data is protected. These principles include justifying the purpose for using patient data, avoiding the use of patient-identifiable information unless necessary, using the minimum necessary patient-identifiable information, limiting access to patient-identifiable information to those who need it, ensuring everyone is aware of their confidentiality responsibilities, and complying with the law, particularly the Data Protection Act.

      By following these principles, healthcare professionals can maintain patient trust and confidence in the healthcare system. It is essential to prioritize patient confidentiality to ensure that sensitive information is not misused or disclosed without consent. The Caldicott report serves as a guide for healthcare professionals to uphold patient confidentiality and protect patient data.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 45-year-old man presents with a 3-day history of a progressively diminishing urinary...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man presents with a 3-day history of a progressively diminishing urinary stream, dysuria and urinary frequency. He denies any possibility of a sexually transmitted disease. He feels quite unwell. On examination, he has temperature of 38.7°C and digital rectal examination (DRE) reveals a very tender and slightly enlarged prostate.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute prostatitis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Dysuria and a Tender Prostate on DRE in Men

      When a man presents with dysuria and a tender prostate on digital rectal examination (DRE), several conditions may be considered. Acute prostatitis is a likely diagnosis, especially if the patient also has lower urinary tract symptoms and fever. The cause is often a urinary tract infection, with Escherichia coli being the most common culprit. In sexually active men under 35, Neisseria gonorrhoeae should also be considered.

      Prostate cancer is less likely to present with acute symptoms and is more commonly associated with a gradual onset of symptoms or urinary retention. Cystitis is rare in men and would not explain the tender prostate on examination. Urethritis may cause dysuria and urinary frequency but is not typically associated with a tender prostate on DRE. Prostatic abscess should be suspected if symptoms worsen despite treatment for acute bacterial prostatitis or if a fluctuant mass is palpable in the prostate gland.

      In summary, when a man presents with dysuria and a tender prostate on DRE, acute prostatitis is the most likely diagnosis, but other conditions should also be considered based on the patient’s history and clinical presentation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a painful skin rash...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a painful skin rash that started as circular lesions on his trunk and limbs and has now spread to his face, lips, and mouth. He also reports flu-like symptoms and headache. On examination, he has marked facial and lip swelling with crusty sores, blistering, and ulceration in the oral cavity, as well as an erythematous rash on the trunk with small vesicles and bullae. What medication is linked to this condition?

      Your Answer: Lamotrigine

      Explanation:

      Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a rare but known negative effect of lamotrigine treatment. This skin condition typically manifests within a few days of starting the medication and can cause flu-like symptoms such as fever, malaise, myalgia, and arthralgia. Painful erythema with blisters or ulcers is a hallmark of the syndrome, which can progress to areas of confluent erythema with skin loss. Mucosal involvement is also common, affecting the eyes, lips, mouth, oesophagus, upper respiratory tract (causing cough and respiratory distress), genitalia, and gastrointestinal tract (resulting in diarrhoea).

      Other drugs, such as aspirin, macrolides, opiates, and cyclosporin, can also cause drug rashes. Exanthematous eruptions are a common type of drug rash, characterised by pink-to-red macules that blanch on pressure.

      Urticaria and erythema multiforme are other types of drug-related rashes. Aspirin and anticonvulsants are associated with erythema multiforme, which typically presents as spot or target lesions and doesn’t involve mucosal tissues.

      Lamotrigine is a medication that is primarily used as an antiepileptic drug. It is typically prescribed as a second-line treatment for a range of generalised and partial seizures. The drug works by blocking sodium channels in the body, which helps to reduce the occurrence of seizures.

      Despite its effectiveness in treating seizures, lamotrigine can also cause a number of adverse effects. One of the most serious of these is Stevens-Johnson syndrome, a rare but potentially life-threatening skin condition. Other possible side effects of the drug include dizziness, headache, nausea, and blurred vision. It is important for patients taking lamotrigine to be aware of these potential risks and to report any unusual symptoms to their healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      34.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - The guidance produced by the General Medical Council (GMC) pertains to the treatment...

    Incorrect

    • The guidance produced by the General Medical Council (GMC) pertains to the treatment and care provided during the end of life. Which of the following options aligns best with this guidance?

      Your Answer: A doctor cannot withdraw from providing care because religious beliefs conflict with a patient’s refusal of treatment

      Correct Answer: Patients can make advanced requests for treatment that they feel may be denied them

      Explanation:

      Ethical Considerations in End-of-Life Care

      End-of-life care can present complex ethical dilemmas for healthcare professionals. Here are some important considerations:

      – Advanced Requests: Patients can make advanced requests for treatments they fear may be denied to them. While these requests cannot bind future decisions, they must be given weight by decision-makers if the patient has lost capacity.
      – Religious Beliefs: A doctor cannot withdraw from providing care because their religious beliefs conflict with a patient’s refusal of treatment. However, if their beliefs conflict with a decision about overall benefit, arrangements must be made for another doctor to take over.
      – Decision-Making: Patients with capacity may devolve decision-making to their doctor if they find it distressing. However, they still need basic information to give consent to any proposed treatment.
      – Starting and Withdrawing Treatment: Emotional distress should not override clinical judgement when deciding whether to start or withdraw treatment.
      – Withholding Information: Information about a terminal prognosis should not be withheld unless giving it would likely cause the patient serious harm. Serious harm means more than just upsetting the patient or causing them to refuse treatment.

      Overall, ethical considerations in end-of-life care require a delicate balance between respecting patient autonomy and ensuring that decisions are made in the patient’s best interests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      27.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of irritated gritty eyes and...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of irritated gritty eyes and mild photophobia that have been bothering her for the past three months. She has a history of acne rosacea but is generally healthy. Upon examination with a slit lamp, the doctor observes inflammation of the meibomian glands, injected conjunctiva, and fluorescein staining of both corneas.
      What is the most likely finding consistent with this condition?

      Your Answer: Purulent discharge

      Correct Answer: Rapid tear film break up time

      Explanation:

      Understanding Eye Conditions

      Dry eye syndrome is a common condition that occurs when the eyes do not produce enough tears or the tears evaporate too quickly. This can lead to inflammation and discomfort. Posterior capsular opacification is another condition that can occur after cataract surgery, causing clouding of vision. It is often treated with YAG laser capsulotomy. Posterior synechiae is a condition where the iris sticks to the lens of the eye, usually caused by trauma or inflammation. Bacterial conjunctivitis may cause purulent discharge, but this is not a symptom of dry eye syndrome unless there is a secondary infection. Small lacrimal puncta can lead to poor tear drainage and epiphora, but this is not the same as dry eye syndrome. Understanding these different eye conditions can help with proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      40.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 40-year-old woman is severely disabled by agoraphobia
    Select from the list the single...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old woman is severely disabled by agoraphobia
      Select from the list the single correct statement regarding agoraphobia.

      Your Answer: Commonly involves anticipatory anxiety

      Explanation:

      Understanding Agoraphobia: The Fear of Open Spaces and Leaving Home

      Agoraphobia is an irrational fear that affects up to one third of patients with panic disorders. It is characterized by a fear of open spaces and leaving home, especially those places from which escape may be difficult. Anxiety attacks are often triggered by provoking situations, and the anxiety experienced is disproportionate to the actual threat. Anticipatory anxiety is also common, with sufferers worrying about the anxiety itself and avoiding situations that may provoke it.

      The onset of agoraphobia is bimodal, with peaks in the mid-20s and mid-30s. Prevalence rates of panic disorder suggest that it is a common disorder, affecting 1-5% of the population. Anxiety disorders are twice as common in females and more prevalent in deprived areas. There is also an association with mitral valve prolapse.

      The treatments of choice for agoraphobia are self-help techniques and cognitive behavioural therapy, often in combination with antidepressant medication. Understanding agoraphobia and seeking appropriate treatment can help individuals overcome their fears and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - When should the pneumococcal conjugate (PCV) vaccine be given to a healthy individual...

    Correct

    • When should the pneumococcal conjugate (PCV) vaccine be given to a healthy individual based on the UK immunisation schedule?

      Your Answer: 8 weeks and 12 weeks

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Pneumococcal Vaccine

      The pneumococcal vaccine is an important immunization that helps protect against pneumococcal disease, which can cause serious illnesses such as pneumonia, meningitis, and blood infections. However, it’s important to note that there are two types of pneumococcal vaccines – the pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV) and the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPV).

      The PCV vaccine is given to children under the age of 2, with a booster at 1 year old. On the other hand, the PPV vaccine is given to individuals over the age of 2, particularly those who are 65 years old and above. It’s important to know which vaccine to administer, as the immune response to each vaccine is different.

      Aside from the recommended age groups, individuals with certain medical conditions are also eligible for the pneumococcal vaccine. These include those with asplenia or splenic dysfunction, cochlear implants, chronic respiratory or heart disease, chronic neurological conditions, diabetes, chronic kidney disease stage 4/5, chronic liver disease, immunosuppression due to disease or treatment, and complement disorders.

      In summary, understanding the pneumococcal vaccine and its different types and recommended age groups is crucial in ensuring proper administration and protection against pneumococcal disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      26.8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 60-year-old man with rheumatoid arthritis presents with nephrotic syndrome. Minimal change disease...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man with rheumatoid arthritis presents with nephrotic syndrome. Minimal change disease is diagnosed.
      Which of the following drugs is most likely to be responsible for this?

      Your Answer: Gold

      Explanation:

      Side Effects of Commonly Used Medications

      Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by proteinuria, oedema, hyperlipidaemia, and hypoalbuminaemia. It can be caused by various primary and secondary glomerular diseases, as well as certain drugs. Some drugs that can cause nephrotic syndrome include non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, captopril, lithium, gold, diamorphine, interferon alfa, penicillamine, and probenecid.

      Gold, specifically sodium aurothiomalate, is used to treat active progressive rheumatoid arthritis. However, it can cause immune complex nephritis, leading to unexplained proteinuria above 300 mg/l, and blood dyscrasias and gastrointestinal bleeding.

      Chloroquine is associated with several side effects, such as visual disturbances, skin reactions, nausea and vomiting, hepatitis, and abdominal pain. However, nephrotic syndrome and renal impairment are not known complications.

      Methotrexate can cause various blood dyscrasias and liver toxicity, but nephropathy is a rare complication.

      Paracetamol, when used in its oral form, has rare side effects. However, overdose can lead to liver damage, but kidney damage is infrequent.

      Prednisolone is associated with numerous side effects, including anxiety, abnormal behavior, cataracts, cognitive impairment, Cushing syndrome, hypertension, increased risk of infection, and weight gain. Renal complications are not commonly associated with prednisolone use.

      In summary, while these medications can be effective in treating certain conditions, it is important to be aware of their potential side effects and to monitor for any adverse reactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 65-year-old woman visits the clinic having experienced stress urinary incontinence for 2...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman visits the clinic having experienced stress urinary incontinence for 2 years. She visited you for the first time 8 months ago and after a thorough evaluation, you recommended lifestyle modifications and referred her for a 3-month supervised pelvic floor muscle training (PFMT) trial.

      She returns to your clinic and reports that her symptoms persist. She declines surgical intervention and requests medication instead.

      What is the most suitable medication to suggest?

      Your Answer: Duloxetine

      Explanation:

      Patients with stress incontinence who do not respond to pelvic floor muscle exercises and refuse surgical intervention may be prescribed duloxetine as a second-line treatment, according to NICE guidelines. If conservative treatments fail or the patient desires further management, referral to a urogynaecologist, gynaecologist, or urologist for assessment and surgical management may be considered. For urgency incontinence, anticholinergic drugs such as darifenacin, oxybutynin, and tolterodine are typically used as first-line treatments, while mirabegron may be prescribed if antimuscarinic drugs are ineffective, not tolerated, or contraindicated.

      Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects approximately 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. There are several risk factors that can contribute to the development of urinary incontinence, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. The condition can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of urinary incontinence involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, performing a vaginal examination to exclude pelvic organ prolapse, and conducting urine dipstick and culture tests. Urodynamic studies may also be necessary. Management of urinary incontinence depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures may be necessary. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be offered to women who decline surgical procedures.

      In summary, urinary incontinence is a common condition that can be caused by various risk factors. It can be classified into different types, and management depends on the predominant type of incontinence. Initial investigation involves completing bladder diaries, performing a vaginal examination, and conducting urine tests. Treatment options include bladder retraining, bladder stabilizing drugs, pelvic floor muscle training, surgical procedures, and duloxetine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A father brings his 14-year-old son to see you. The boy is a...

    Correct

    • A father brings his 14-year-old son to see you. The boy is a high achiever and is about to take his 'GCSEs'.
      In recent months he has broken up with his girlfriend, has lost interest in his usual hobbies, and has lost a stone in weight so that his BMI is now 17. He cries frequently, struggles to focus on his school work, and is not interested in playing video games, one of his favourite pastimes.
      His father feels he is depressed, and you are inclined to agree.
      Which of the following symptoms would make you suspect this was more than a straightforward depression?

      Your Answer: Feelings of guilt

      Explanation:

      Anorexia Nervosa and Disproportionate Body Image Perception

      Disproportionate perception of one’s body image, often characterized by the belief of being overweight, is a common feature of anorexia nervosa. This condition is often accompanied by symptoms of depression, but treating it with antidepressants alone may not yield significant improvement. It is important to consider alternative diagnoses, especially in age groups where depression is not prevalent.

      In summary, anorexia nervosa is a serious condition that affects one’s perception of their body image. It is crucial to seek appropriate treatment and consider other potential diagnoses to ensure proper care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      26.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurology (0/1) 0%
Children And Young People (2/2) 100%
Kidney And Urology (6/7) 86%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (0/1) 0%
Allergy And Immunology (0/1) 0%
Mental Health (2/4) 50%
Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability (0/2) 0%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (0/1) 0%
Population Health (1/1) 100%
Genomic Medicine (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (2/3) 67%
End Of Life (1/2) 50%
Eyes And Vision (1/2) 50%
Older Adults (0/1) 0%
Consulting In General Practice (1/1) 100%
Passmed