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Question 1
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man has been experiencing dysphagia and regurgitation of undigested food for the past 2 months. He also complains of halitosis and a chronic cough. During examination, a small neck swelling is observed which gurgles on palpation. Barium studies reveal a diverticulum or pouch forming at the junction of the pharynx and the esophagus. Can you identify between which muscles this diverticulum commonly occurs?
Your Answer: Salpingopharyngeus and palatopharyngeus muscles
Correct Answer: Thyropharyngeus and cricopharyngeus muscles
Explanation:A posteromedial diverticulum located between the thyropharyngeus and cricopharyngeus muscles is the cause of a pharyngeal pouch, also known as Zenker’s diverticulum. This triangular gap, called Killian’s dehiscence, is where the pouch develops. When food or other materials accumulate in this area, it can lead to symptoms such as neck swelling, regurgitation, and bad breath.
A pharyngeal pouch, also known as Zenker’s diverticulum, is a condition where there is a protrusion in the back of the throat through a weak area in the pharynx wall. This weak area is called Killian’s dehiscence and is located between two muscles. It is more common in older men and can cause symptoms such as difficulty swallowing, regurgitation, aspiration, neck swelling, and bad breath. To diagnose this condition, a barium swallow test combined with dynamic video fluoroscopy is usually performed. Treatment typically involves surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 2
Correct
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A senior citizen has been diagnosed with Parkinson's disease and has been referred to the neurology clinic. Based on the underlying pathology, what class of drugs is expected to be prescribed initially?
Your Answer: Dopamine agonist
Explanation:The primary approach to treating Parkinson’s disease is to increase dopamine levels and dopaminergic transmission, as the disease is caused by the loss of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra. While monoamine oxidase inhibitors can achieve this, their numerous interactions and side effects make dopamine agonists a better option. Typically, patients are first prescribed dopamine agonists before levodopa, as the latter has more complex side effects that require careful management.
Understanding Dopamine: Its Production, Effects, and Role in Diseases
Dopamine is a neurotransmitter that is produced in the substantia nigra pars compacta, a region in the brain that is responsible for movement control. It plays a crucial role in regulating various bodily functions, including movement, motivation, and reward. Dopamine is also associated with feelings of pleasure and satisfaction, which is why it is often referred to as the feel-good neurotransmitter.
However, dopamine levels can be affected by certain diseases. For instance, patients with schizophrenia have increased levels of dopamine, which can lead to symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions. On the other hand, patients with Parkinson’s disease have depleted levels of dopamine in the substantia nigra, which can cause movement problems such as tremors and rigidity.
Aside from its effects on the brain, dopamine also has an impact on the kidneys. It causes renal vasodilation, which means that it widens the blood vessels in the kidneys, leading to increased blood flow and improved kidney function.
In summary, dopamine is a vital neurotransmitter that affects various bodily functions. Its production and effects are closely linked to certain diseases, and understanding its role can help in the development of treatments for these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 3
Correct
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A 35-year-old man is stabbed in the right chest and requires a thoracotomy. During the procedure, the right lung is mobilized and the pleural reflection at the lung hilum is opened. Which of the following structures is not located in this area?
Your Answer: Azygos vein
Explanation:The pulmonary ligament extends from the pleural reflections surrounding the hilum of the lung and covers the pulmonary vessels and bronchus. However, it does not contain the azygos vein.
Anatomy of the Lungs
The lungs are a pair of organs located in the chest cavity that play a vital role in respiration. The right lung is composed of three lobes, while the left lung has two lobes. The apex of both lungs is approximately 4 cm superior to the sternocostal joint of the first rib. The base of the lungs is in contact with the diaphragm, while the costal surface corresponds to the cavity of the chest. The mediastinal surface contacts the mediastinal pleura and has the cardiac impression. The hilum is a triangular depression above and behind the concavity, where the structures that form the root of the lung enter and leave the viscus. The right main bronchus is shorter, wider, and more vertical than the left main bronchus. The inferior borders of both lungs are at the 6th rib in the mid clavicular line, 8th rib in the mid axillary line, and 10th rib posteriorly. The pleura runs two ribs lower than the corresponding lung level. The bronchopulmonary segments of the lungs are divided into ten segments, each with a specific function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 4
Correct
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A 6-year-old girl is brought to her pediatrician by her father. Her father reports that for the past 5 days, she has been experiencing swelling in her lower limbs. The girl is otherwise healthy, has not had any recent illnesses, and her blood pressure during the visit was normal. The results of her urinalysis are as follows:
Leucocytes: Negative
Nitrites: Negative
Urobilinogen: Negative
Proteins: 3+
Blood: Negative
Ketones: Negative
Glucose: Negative
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Minimal change disease
Explanation:The boy’s symptoms are typical of nephrotic syndrome, which is characterized by a triad of proteinuria, hypoalbuminaemia, and oedema. Oedema is usually seen in the lower limbs, and proteinuria may cause frothy urine. Minimal change disease, focal segmental glomerulosclerosis, and membranous nephropathy are examples of nephrotic syndrome. Minimal change disease is a common cause of nephrotic syndrome, and it is characterized by effacement of the podocyte foot processes, which increases the permeability of the glomerular basement membrane and causes proteinuria.
It is important to differentiate nephrotic syndrome from nephritic syndrome, which is characterized by the presence of protein and blood in the urine. Nephritic syndrome typically presents with haematuria, oliguria, and hypertension. Alport syndrome is not a correct answer as it causes nephritic syndrome, and it is a genetic condition that affects kidney function, hearing, and vision. IgA nephropathy is also an incorrect answer as it causes nephritic syndrome and is typically associated with upper respiratory tract infections. A careful history is required to distinguish it from post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, another cause of nephritic syndrome that occurs after a streptococcal infection.
Understanding Nephrotic Syndrome and its Presentation
Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by a triad of symptoms, namely proteinuria, hypoalbuminaemia, and oedema. Proteinuria refers to the presence of excessive protein in the urine, typically exceeding 3g in a 24-hour period. Hypoalbuminaemia is a condition where the levels of albumin in the blood fall below 30g/L. Oedema, on the other hand, is the accumulation of fluid in the body tissues, leading to swelling.
Nephrotic syndrome is associated with the loss of antithrombin-III, proteins C and S, and an increase in fibrinogen levels, which increases the risk of thrombosis. Additionally, the loss of thyroxine-binding globulin leads to a decrease in total thyroxine levels, although free thyroxine levels remain unaffected.
The diagram below illustrates the different types of glomerulonephritides and how they typically present. Understanding the presentation of nephrotic syndrome and its associated risks is crucial in the diagnosis and management of this condition.
[Insert diagram here]
Overall, nephrotic syndrome is a complex condition that requires careful management to prevent complications. By understanding its presentation and associated risks, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate treatment and support to patients with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman has been referred to an endocrinologist due to her symptoms of muscle aches, weight gain, menorrhagia, and fatigue. After undergoing a series of blood tests, including an evaluation of thyroid function, she was diagnosed with hypothyroidism and found to have anti-thyroid peroxidase (anti-TPO) antibodies. The endocrinologist informed her that she likely has Hashimoto's thyroiditis and will require long-term replacement of thyroxine with a synthetic analogue of this hormone. What is the mechanism of action of the drug she is expected to be prescribed?
Your Answer: Activates tyrosine kinase receptors
Correct Answer: Activates nuclear receptors
Explanation:Levothyroxine activates nuclear receptors within the nucleus to stimulate DNA replication and protein synthesis. It does not act via ligand-gated ion channels or tyrosine kinase inhibitors, as those are transmembrane proteins that respond to extracellular signals. Inhibiting nuclear receptors is also not the mechanism of action for levothyroxine.
Pharmacodynamics refers to the effects of drugs on the body, as opposed to pharmacokinetics which is concerned with how the body processes drugs. Drugs typically interact with a target, which can be a protein located either inside or outside of cells. There are four main types of cellular targets: ion channels, G-protein coupled receptors, tyrosine kinase receptors, and nuclear receptors. The type of target determines the mechanism of action of the drug. For example, drugs that work on ion channels cause the channel to open or close, while drugs that activate tyrosine kinase receptors lead to cell growth and differentiation.
It is also important to consider whether a drug has a positive or negative impact on the receptor. Agonists activate the receptor, while antagonists block the receptor preventing activation. Antagonists can be competitive or non-competitive, depending on whether they bind at the same site as the agonist or at a different site. The binding affinity of a drug refers to how readily it binds to a specific receptor, while efficacy measures how well an agonist produces a response once it has bound to the receptor. Potency is related to the concentration at which a drug is effective, while the therapeutic index is the ratio of the dose of a drug resulting in an undesired effect compared to that at which it produces the desired effect.
The relationship between the dose of a drug and the response it produces is rarely linear. Many drugs saturate the available receptors, meaning that further increased doses will not cause any more response. Some drugs do not have a significant impact below a certain dose and are considered sub-therapeutic. Dose-response graphs can be used to illustrate the relationship between dose and response, allowing for easy comparison of different drugs. However, it is important to remember that dose-response varies between individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 6
Correct
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Which cell type provides support to the blood brain barrier through its foot processes?
Your Answer: Astrocytes
Explanation:Glial Cells in the Nervous System
There are various types of supporting cells in the nervous system, including astrocytes, ependymal cells, microglia, oligodendrocytes, and Schwann cells. Astrocytes play a crucial role in supporting the blood-brain barrier by wrapping their long foot processes around every capillary in the brain. This barrier separates the systemic circulation from the cerebral tissue and regulates the movement of water and glucose between them.
Ependymal cells are responsible for producing cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in the choroid plexus. Microglia have an immune function and are involved in phagocytosis. Oligodendrocytes are responsible for myelinating cells in the CNS, while Schwann cells perform the same function in the PNS.
In summary, glial cells play a vital role in supporting and protecting the nervous system. Each type of glial cell has a unique function, from supporting the blood-brain barrier to producing CSF and myelinating cells. the roles of these cells is crucial in the complex workings of the nervous system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Histology
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Question 7
Correct
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Samantha, a 52-year-old female, visits her doctor with a lump in her groin that becomes more prominent when she coughs. The lump is not painful, but the doctor notes that it is located inferior and lateral to the pubic tubercle during the examination. This leads to a diagnosis of a femoral hernia, where a portion of the bowel has entered the femoral canal and caused a bulge in the femoral triangle, an area in the upper thigh.
What are the contents of this anatomical region from lateral to medial?Your Answer: Femoral nerve, femoral artery, femoral vein, empty space, lymphatics
Explanation:To remember the contents of the femoral triangle from lateral to medial, use the acronym NAVEL: femoral NERVE, femoral ARTERY, femoral VEIN, EMPTY space, and LYMPHATICS. The femoral triangle is located in the anterior thigh and is bordered by the inguinal ligament superiorly, the medial border of the sartorius muscle laterally, and the medial border of the adductor longus muscle medially. A femoral hernia occurs when bowel enters the femoral ring and canal, which are located beneath the inguinal ligament, causing a bulge in the femoral triangle. The femoral nerve is located more laterally than the femoral artery and vein, while the femoral artery is more lateral than the femoral vein.
Understanding the Anatomy of the Femoral Triangle
The femoral triangle is an important anatomical region located in the upper thigh. It is bounded by the inguinal ligament superiorly, the sartorius muscle laterally, and the adductor longus muscle medially. The floor of the femoral triangle is made up of the iliacus, psoas major, adductor longus, and pectineus muscles, while the roof is formed by the fascia lata and superficial fascia. The superficial inguinal lymph nodes and the long saphenous vein are also found in this region.
The femoral triangle contains several important structures, including the femoral vein, femoral artery, femoral nerve, deep and superficial inguinal lymph nodes, lateral cutaneous nerve, great saphenous vein, and femoral branch of the genitofemoral nerve. The femoral artery can be palpated at the mid inguinal point, making it an important landmark for medical professionals.
Understanding the anatomy of the femoral triangle is important for medical professionals, as it is a common site for procedures such as venipuncture, arterial puncture, and nerve blocks. It is also important for identifying and treating conditions that affect the structures within this region, such as femoral hernias and lymphadenopathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 8
Correct
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Which nerve provides innervation to the interossei of the fifth finger?
Your Answer: Deep ulnar
Explanation:PAD and DAB can be remembered as a mnemonic for the actions of the palmar and dorsal interossei muscles. The palmar interossei muscles ADduct the fingers towards the midline of the hand, while the dorsal interossei muscles ABduct the fingers away from the midline.
Interossei: Muscles of the Hand
Interossei are a group of muscles located in the hand that occupy the spaces between the metacarpal bones. There are three palmar and four dorsal interossei, each with a specific origin and insertion point. Palmar interossei originate from the metacarpal of the digit on which it acts, while dorsal interossei come from the surface of the adjacent metacarpal on which it acts. The interosseous tendons, except the first palmar, pass to one or other side of the metacarpophalangeal joint posterior to the deep transverse metacarpal ligament. They become inserted into the base of the proximal phalanx and partly into the extensor hood.
All interossei are innervated by the ulnar nerve and have specific actions. Dorsal interossei abduct the fingers, while palmar interossei adduct the fingers. Along with the lumbricals, the interossei flex the metacarpophalangeal joints and extend the proximal and distal interphalangeal joints. They are responsible for fine-tuning these movements.
In cases where the interossei and lumbricals are paralyzed, the digits are pulled into hyperextension by extensor digitorum, resulting in a claw hand. Understanding the function and innervation of the interossei is important in diagnosing and treating hand injuries and conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A truck mechanic is discovered by his supervisor sitting on the ground of the garage workshop, complaining of a severe headache, vertigo, and difficulty breathing. As they wait for the ambulance, he starts to breathe rapidly. After being given oxygen in the ambulance, his breathing returns to normal. The paramedics suspect carbon monoxide poisoning. Where in the brain are the central chemoreceptors located that detected the alterations in interstitial fluid and the patient's heightened respiratory rate?
Your Answer: Lower pons
Correct Answer: Medulla oblongata
Explanation:The central chemoreceptors located in the medulla oblongata can detect alterations in the levels of carbon dioxide and hydrogen ions in the cerebrospinal fluid. They can then adjust the respiratory rate accordingly, superseding any voluntary signals from the cerebral cortex. Compared to the peripheral chemoreceptors found in the aortic and carotid bodies, the central chemoreceptors have a higher degree of sensitivity.
Carbon monoxide poisoning occurs when carbon monoxide binds to haemoglobin and myoglobin, leading to tissue hypoxia. Symptoms include headache, nausea, vomiting, vertigo, confusion, and in severe cases, pink skin and mucosae, hyperpyrexia, arrhythmias, extrapyramidal features, coma, and death. Diagnosis is made through measuring carboxyhaemoglobin levels in arterial or venous blood gas. Treatment involves administering 100% high-flow oxygen via a non-rebreather mask for at least six hours, with hyperbaric oxygen therapy considered for more severe cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old male is referred to the medical assessment unit by his physician to investigate the possibility of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) after presenting with a fever of 38.5ºC. His recent urea and electrolyte results indicate declining kidney function, with a creatinine level three times higher than his usual baseline. What is the pathophysiology underlying TTP?
Your Answer: Autoimmune destruction of platelets
Correct Answer: Failure to cleave von Willebrand factor normally
Explanation:The absence of a plasma protease responsible for breaking down ultra-large multimers of von Willebrand factor (vWF) is the cause of TTP. This results in the accumulation of unusually large vWF multimers in the plasma of TTP patients. It is important to note that autoimmune destruction of red blood cells is a different form of autoimmune hemolytic anaemia and is not related to TTP. Similarly, autoimmune destruction of platelets is seen in ITP, not TTP.
Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura: Understanding its Pathogenesis, Features, and Causes
Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) is a rare condition that typically affects adult females. Its pathogenesis involves the abnormal formation of large and sticky multimers of von Willebrand’s factor, which causes platelets to clump within vessels. In TTP, there is a deficiency of ADAMTS13, a metalloprotease enzyme that breaks down these large multimers. This deficiency leads to the formation of microemboli, resulting in fluctuating neuro signs, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia, thrombocytopenia, and renal failure. TTP overlaps with haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS).
TTP can be caused by various factors, including post-infection (e.g., urinary, gastrointestinal), pregnancy, drugs (such as ciclosporin, oral contraceptive pill, penicillin, clopidogrel, and acyclovir), tumours, SLE, and HIV. It is essential to identify the underlying cause of TTP to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.
In summary, TTP is a rare condition that affects adult females and is caused by the abnormal formation of large and sticky multimers of von Willebrand’s factor. Its features include fluctuating neuro signs, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia, thrombocytopenia, and renal failure. TTP can be caused by various factors, and identifying the underlying cause is crucial for proper treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 11
Correct
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An 80-year-old man comes to the emergency department after experiencing a fall. He reports a recent decline in his vision, including distortion of lines and loss of central vision, which was particularly noticeable tonight.
During the eye examination, you observe the presence of drusen and new vessel formation around the macula.
As part of his discharge plan, you schedule a follow-up appointment with an ophthalmologist, suspecting that monoclonal antibody treatment targeting vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) may be necessary.
What type of monoclonal antibody functions through this mechanism of action?Your Answer: Bevacizumab
Explanation:Bevacizumab is a monoclonal antibody that targets vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF). It is used to slow down the progression of wet age-related macular degeneration (ARMD), which is the condition described in this case. Treatment with bevacizumab should begin within the first two months of diagnosis of wet ARMD.
Abciximab is a monoclonal antibody that targets platelet IIb/IIIa receptors, preventing platelet aggregation. It is used to prevent blood clots in unstable angina or after coronary artery stenting.
Adalimumab is a monoclonal antibody that targets tumor necrosis factor (TNF) and is primarily used to treat inflammatory arthritis.
Omalizumab is a monoclonal antibody that targets the IgE receptor, reducing the IgE response. It is used to treat severe allergic asthma.
Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. The risk of ARMD increases with age, smoking, family history, and conditions associated with an increased risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD is classified into dry and wet forms, with the latter carrying the worst prognosis. Clinical features include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual hallucinations. Signs include distortion of line perception, the presence of drusen, and well-demarcated red patches in wet ARMD. Investigations include slit-lamp microscopy, colour fundus photography, fluorescein angiography, indocyanine green angiography, and ocular coherence tomography. Treatment options include a combination of zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents for wet ARMD. Laser photocoagulation is also an option, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 12
Correct
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A 50-year-old male complains of stiffness and joint pains in his hands and feet for the past month, which is worse in the morning. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any medication. Upon examination, there is some mild swelling in the proximal interphalangeal joints of both hands, metacarpo-phalangeal joints, and wrist. No other abnormalities are detected. What would be the most suitable investigation for this patient?
Your Answer: Rheumatoid factor
Explanation:Rheumatoid Factor and Diagnostic Markers for Rheumatoid Arthritis
The clinical scenario presented is a common manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis, with a positive rheumatoid factor found in approximately 70% of cases. This factor is an IgM antibody directed against IgG, and while false positives can occur, its presence is highly supportive of the diagnosis and carries prognostic significance. In addition to rheumatoid factor, non-specific markers of inflammation such as erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C reactive protein (CRP) are expected to be elevated in patients with rheumatoid arthritis. These diagnostic markers can aid in the diagnosis and management of the disease. Proper interpretation and utilization of these markers can lead to earlier diagnosis and better outcomes for patients with rheumatoid arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 13
Correct
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An 80-year-old man comes to the emergency department with abrupt onset weakness of his left arm and leg along with double vision. During the examination, you observe that his right eye is held in a 'down-and-out' position and his pupil is dilated and unresponsive to light.
Which artery would most plausibly account for this presentation?Your Answer: Right posterior cerebral artery
Explanation:The correct answer is the right posterior cerebral artery. When branches of this artery that supply the midbrain are affected by a stroke, it can result in ipsilateral oculomotor palsy and contralateral weakness of the upper and lower extremities. This explains the right-sided oculomotor palsy and left-sided weakness of the arm and leg mentioned in the stem.
The left posterior cerebral artery is incorrect because it would cause left-sided oculomotor palsy and right-sided weakness of the upper and lower extremities.
The left posterior inferior cerebellar artery is also incorrect because it would cause left-sided facial pain and temperature loss, right-sided limb/torso pain and temperature loss, vertigo, vomiting, dysphagia, ataxia, and nystagmus.
The right middle cerebral artery is incorrect because it would cause contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss (with the upper extremity being more affected than the lower), contralateral homonymous hemianopia, and aphasia. This would not explain the left oculomotor palsy mentioned in the stem.
Stroke can affect different parts of the brain depending on which artery is affected. If the anterior cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience weakness and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, with the lower extremities being more affected than the upper. If the middle cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience weakness and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, with the upper extremities being more affected than the lower. They may also experience vision loss and difficulty with language. If the posterior cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience vision loss and difficulty recognizing objects.
Lacunar strokes are a type of stroke that are strongly associated with hypertension. They typically present with isolated weakness or loss of sensation on one side of the body, or weakness with difficulty coordinating movements. They often occur in the basal ganglia, thalamus, or internal capsule.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 14
Correct
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A mother brings her 6-year-old daughter into hospital worried that she is slower than the other girls when standing up. Upon further inquiry, the mother discloses that her daughter walks in an unusual manner and that her grandmother passed away when she was very young. What is the probable cause of the young girl's condition?
Your Answer: Mutation in the gene coding for dystrophin
Explanation:Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) is characterised by a waddling gait and Gower’s sign, and follows an X-linked recessive pattern of inheritance. Cystic fibrosis is caused by improper chloride ion channel formation, myasthenia gravis by an autoimmune process against acetylcholine receptors, phenylketonuria by a lack of phenylalanine breakdown, and sickle cell anaemia by a mutation in the gene coding for haemoglobin.
Dystrophinopathies are a group of genetic disorders that are inherited in an X-linked recessive manner. These disorders are caused by mutations in the dystrophin gene located on the X chromosome at position Xp21. Dystrophin is a protein that is part of a larger membrane-associated complex in muscle cells. It connects the muscle membrane to actin, which is a component of the muscle cytoskeleton.
Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a severe form of dystrophinopathy that is caused by a frameshift mutation in the dystrophin gene. This mutation results in the loss of one or both binding sites, leading to progressive proximal muscle weakness that typically begins around the age of 5 years. Children with Duchenne muscular dystrophy may also exhibit calf pseudohypertrophy and Gower’s sign, which is when they use their arms to stand up from a squatted position. Approximately 30% of patients with Duchenne muscular dystrophy also have intellectual impairment.
In contrast, Becker muscular dystrophy is a milder form of dystrophinopathy that typically develops after the age of 10 years. It is caused by a non-frameshift insertion in the dystrophin gene, which preserves both binding sites. Intellectual impairment is much less common in individuals with Becker muscular dystrophy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 15
Correct
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What is the estimated percentage of oxygen in the blood that is attached to haemoglobin?
Your Answer: 100%
Explanation:Calculation of Oxygen in Blood
The majority of oxygen in the blood is bound to haemoglobin, with the exact amount varying based on the oxygen saturation and haemoglobin level. To calculate the amount of oxygen per litre of blood, the formula (13.9 × Hb × sats/100) + (PaO2 × 0.03) can be used. For example, an average man with an Hb of 14, saturations of 98% on room air, and a PaO2 of 12 would have 191 ml of oxygen per litre of blood. It is important to note that only 0.36 ml of this oxygen is dissolved in the blood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 16
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman is being assessed in the delivery room for lack of progress in labour. The release of oxytocin during labour and delivery is facilitated by a positive feedback loop. Which part of the brain is responsible for producing this hormone?
Your Answer: Paraventricular nucleus of the hypothalamus
Explanation:The paraventricular nucleus of the hypothalamus is responsible for producing oxytocin. This is achieved through the release of magnocellular neurosecretory neurons. Vasopressin (ADH) is also produced by these neurons.
The mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus play a crucial role in recollective memory. Damage to these bodies, such as in cases of thiamine deficiency in Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, can result in memory impairment.
Located at the lowest part of the brainstem and continuous with the spinal cord, the medulla oblongata contains the cardiac and respiratory groups, as well as vasomotor centers that regulate heart rate, blood pressure, and breathing.
The substantia nigra is responsible for producing dopamine, which plays a role in regulating movement and emotion.
The hypothalamus is a part of the brain that plays a crucial role in maintaining the body’s internal balance, or homeostasis. It is located in the diencephalon and is responsible for regulating various bodily functions. The hypothalamus is composed of several nuclei, each with its own specific function. The anterior nucleus, for example, is involved in cooling the body by stimulating the parasympathetic nervous system. The lateral nucleus, on the other hand, is responsible for stimulating appetite, while lesions in this area can lead to anorexia. The posterior nucleus is involved in heating the body and stimulating the sympathetic nervous system, and damage to this area can result in poikilothermia. Other nuclei include the septal nucleus, which regulates sexual desire, the suprachiasmatic nucleus, which regulates circadian rhythm, and the ventromedial nucleus, which is responsible for satiety. Lesions in the paraventricular nucleus can lead to diabetes insipidus, while lesions in the dorsomedial nucleus can result in savage behavior.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old male patient comes to the clinic with a history of dyspepsia that he has ignored for a long time. He reports no symptoms of dysphagia or haematemesis. During an oesophagoduodenoscopy (OGD), mucosal changes are observed in the lower part of the oesophagus near the sphincter, and a biopsy is taken from this area. What is the probable result of the biopsy?
Your Answer: Adenocarcinoma
Correct Answer: Columnar epithelial cells
Explanation:The patient has Barrett’s oesophagus, which is a metaplastic condition where the normal oesophageal epithelium is replaced by columnar cells. This increases the risk of adenocarcinoma.
Barrett’s oesophagus is a condition where the lower oesophageal mucosa is replaced by columnar epithelium, which increases the risk of oesophageal adenocarcinoma by 50-100 fold. It is usually identified during an endoscopy for upper gastrointestinal symptoms such as dyspepsia, as there are no screening programs for it. The length of the affected segment determines the chances of identifying metaplasia, with short (<3 cm) and long (>3 cm) subtypes. The prevalence of Barrett’s oesophagus is estimated to be around 1 in 20, and it is identified in up to 12% of those undergoing endoscopy for reflux.
The columnar epithelium in Barrett’s oesophagus may resemble that of the cardiac region of the stomach or that of the small intestine, with goblet cells and brush border. The single strongest risk factor for Barrett’s oesophagus is gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD), followed by male gender, smoking, and central obesity. Alcohol is not an independent risk factor for Barrett’s, but it is associated with both GORD and oesophageal cancer. Patients with Barrett’s oesophagus often have coexistent GORD symptoms.
The management of Barrett’s oesophagus involves high-dose proton pump inhibitor, although the evidence base for its effectiveness in reducing the progression to dysplasia or inducing regression of the lesion is limited. Endoscopic surveillance with biopsies is recommended every 3-5 years for patients with metaplasia but not dysplasia. If dysplasia of any grade is identified, endoscopic intervention is offered, such as radiofrequency ablation, which is the preferred first-line treatment, particularly for low-grade dysplasia, or endoscopic mucosal resection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 18
Correct
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A 10-year-old boy is recuperating the day after a tonsillectomy. His parents report that he hasn't had anything to eat for 6 hours prior to the surgery and he is feeling famished. However, he is declining any attempts to consume food or water. There are no prescribed medications or known drug allergies listed on his medical records.
What would be the most appropriate first step to take?Your Answer: Prescribe analgesia and encourage oral intake
Explanation:Effective pain management is crucial after a tonsillectomy to promote the consumption of food and fluids.
Prescribing analgesics and encouraging oral intake is the best course of action. This will alleviate pain and enable the patient to eat and drink, which is essential for a speedy recovery.
Starting maintenance fluids or partial nutritional feeds, obtaining IV access, or waiting for two hours before reviewing the patient are not the most appropriate options. Analgesia should be the primary consideration to facilitate oral fluid therapy and promote healing.
Tonsillitis and Tonsillectomy: Complications and Indications
Tonsillitis is a condition that can lead to various complications, including otitis media, peritonsillar abscess, and, in rare cases, rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis. Tonsillectomy, the surgical removal of the tonsils, is a controversial procedure that should only be considered if the person meets specific criteria. According to NICE, surgery should only be considered if the person experiences sore throats due to tonsillitis, has five or more episodes of sore throat per year, has been experiencing symptoms for at least a year, and the episodes of sore throat are disabling and prevent normal functioning. Other established indications for a tonsillectomy include recurrent febrile convulsions, obstructive sleep apnoea, stridor, dysphagia, and peritonsillar abscess if unresponsive to standard treatment.
Despite the benefits of tonsillectomy, the procedure also carries some risks. Primary complications, which occur within 24 hours of the surgery, include haemorrhage and pain. Secondary complications, which occur between 24 hours to 10 days after the surgery, include haemorrhage (most commonly due to infection) and pain. Therefore, it is essential to weigh the benefits and risks of tonsillectomy before deciding to undergo the procedure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 19
Correct
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A 65-year-old male presents to the preoperative hernia clinic with complaints of visual difficulty. During the examination, a homonymous hemianopia is observed. What is the most probable location of the lesion?
Your Answer: Optic tract
Explanation:Although the students don’t seem to be fond of them, the college appears to approve. It’s important to note that a homonymous hemianopia suggests an optic tract injury, while inferior quadranopias are typically caused by parietal lobe lesions. Optic chiasm lesions or pituitary tumors, on the other hand, result in bitemporal hemianopias.
Understanding Visual Field Defects
Visual field defects can occur due to various reasons, including lesions in the optic tract, optic radiation, or occipital cortex. A left homonymous hemianopia indicates a visual field defect to the left, which is caused by a lesion in the right optic tract. On the other hand, homonymous quadrantanopias can be categorized into PITS (Parietal-Inferior, Temporal-Superior) and can be caused by lesions in the inferior or superior optic radiations in the temporal or parietal lobes.
When it comes to congruous and incongruous defects, the former refers to complete or symmetrical visual field loss, while the latter indicates incomplete or asymmetric visual field loss. Incongruous defects are caused by optic tract lesions, while congruous defects are caused by optic radiation or occipital cortex lesions. In cases where there is macula sparing, it is indicative of a lesion in the occipital cortex.
Bitemporal hemianopia, on the other hand, is caused by a lesion in the optic chiasm. The type of defect can indicate the location of the compression, with an upper quadrant defect being more common in inferior chiasmal compression, such as a pituitary tumor, and a lower quadrant defect being more common in superior chiasmal compression, such as a craniopharyngioma.
Understanding visual field defects is crucial in diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions. By identifying the type and location of the defect, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate interventions to improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 20
Correct
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What are the two essential components found in all viruses?
Your Answer: Genomic material and capsid
Explanation:The Structure of Viruses
Viral structure can differ greatly, but all viruses contain some form of genetic material (either DNA or RNA, single or double-stranded) enclosed in a protein coat called the capsid. The capsid is responsible for packaging the replicated genome inside and can theoretically transcribe only two or three proteins to make it.
Some viruses have a lipid coating, known as an envelope, which aids in evading the immune system and entering cells. The envelope can also have surface glycoproteins that are involved in attachment, but these glycoproteins are different from and external to the capsid.
Certain RNA viruses have reverse transcriptase, which allows for the formation of DNA from RNA, such as HIV. However, not all viruses have RNA or reverse transcriptase.
Overall, the structure of viruses can vary, but they all contain genetic material enclosed in a protein coat, with some having an additional lipid coating and surface glycoproteins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 6 month-old infant brought to the clinic for a routine check-up. The child was born via a normal vaginal delivery at 40 weeks of gestation.
During the examination, the infant was found to be jaundiced.
Further investigations revealed abnormal liver function tests and a diagnosis of classic galactosaemia was confirmed through a heel prick test.
What is the underlying reason for the infant's condition?Your Answer: Galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase (GALT) deficiency
Explanation:The condition known as classic galactosaemia is the result of a deficiency in the enzyme galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase (GALT). Other enzyme deficiency conditions include pyruvate kinase deficiency, galactokinase deficiency (also known as galactosemia type 2), and neonatal diabetes mellitus caused by a deficiency in glucokinase.
Disorders of Galactose Metabolism
Galactose metabolism is a complex process that involves the breakdown of galactose, a type of sugar found in milk and dairy products. There are two main disorders associated with galactose metabolism: classic galactosemia and galactokinase deficiency. Both of these disorders are inherited in an autosomal recessive manner.
Classic galactosemia is caused by a deficiency in the enzyme galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase, which leads to the accumulation of galactose-1-phosphate. This disorder is characterized by symptoms such as failure to thrive, infantile cataracts, and hepatomegaly.
On the other hand, galactokinase deficiency is caused by a deficiency in the enzyme galactokinase, which results in the accumulation of galactitol. This disorder is characterized by infantile cataracts, as galactitol accumulates in the lens. Unlike classic galactosemia, there is no hepatic involvement in galactokinase deficiency.
In summary, disorders of galactose metabolism can have serious consequences and require careful management. Early diagnosis and treatment are essential for improving outcomes and preventing complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Ella, a 69-year-old female, arrives at the emergency department with abrupt tearing abdominal pain that radiates to her back.
Ella has a medical history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and diabetes. Her body mass index is 31 kg/m². She smokes 10 cigarettes a day.
The emergency physician orders an ECG and MRI, which confirm the diagnosis of an aortic dissection.
Which layer or layers of the aorta are impacted?Your Answer: Tear in tunica intima and media
Correct Answer: Tear in tunica intima
Explanation:An aortic dissection occurs when there is a tear in the innermost layer (tunica intima) of the aorta’s wall. This tear allows blood to flow into the space between the tunica intima and the middle layer (tunica media), causing pooling. The tear only affects the tunica intima layer and does not involve the outermost layer (tunica externa) or all three layers of the aortic wall.
Aortic dissection is a serious condition that can cause chest pain. It occurs when there is a tear in the inner layer of the aorta’s wall. Hypertension is the most significant risk factor, but it can also be associated with trauma, bicuspid aortic valve, and certain genetic disorders. Symptoms of aortic dissection include severe and sharp chest or back pain, weak or absent pulses, hypertension, and aortic regurgitation. Specific arteries’ involvement can cause other symptoms such as angina, paraplegia, or limb ischemia. The Stanford classification divides aortic dissection into type A, which affects the ascending aorta, and type B, which affects the descending aorta. The DeBakey classification further divides type A into type I, which extends to the aortic arch and beyond, and type II, which is confined to the ascending aorta. Type III originates in the descending aorta and rarely extends proximally.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 23
Correct
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A 67-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with central crushing chest pain and undergoes a coronary angiogram. Arterial blockage can result from atherosclerosis, which can cause changes in the endothelium. What is an anticipated change in the endothelium?
Your Answer: Reduced nitric oxide bioavailability
Explanation:Fatty infiltration in the subendothelial space is associated with LDL particles, but the endothelium undergoes changes that include reduced nitric oxide bioavailability, proliferation, and pro-inflammatory and pro-oxidant effects.
Understanding Atherosclerosis and its Complications
Atherosclerosis is a complex process that occurs over several years. It begins with endothelial dysfunction triggered by factors such as smoking, hypertension, and hyperglycemia. This leads to changes in the endothelium, including inflammation, oxidation, proliferation, and reduced nitric oxide bioavailability. As a result, low-density lipoprotein (LDL) particles infiltrate the subendothelial space, and monocytes migrate from the blood and differentiate into macrophages. These macrophages that phagocytose oxidized LDL, slowly turning into large ‘foam cells’. Smooth muscle proliferation and migration from the tunica media into the intima result in the formation of a fibrous capsule covering the fatty plaque.
Once a plaque has formed, it can cause several complications. For example, it can form a physical blockage in the lumen of the coronary artery, leading to reduced blood flow and oxygen to the myocardium, resulting in angina. Alternatively, the plaque may rupture, potentially causing a complete occlusion of the coronary artery and resulting in a myocardial infarction. It is essential to understand the process of atherosclerosis and its complications to prevent and manage cardiovascular diseases effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 24
Correct
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How many unpaired branches does the abdominal aorta have to provide blood supply to the abdominal organs?
Your Answer: Three
Explanation:The abdominal viscera has three branches that are not paired, namely the coeliac axis, the SMA, and the IMA. Meanwhile, the branches to the adrenals, renal arteries, and gonadal vessels are paired. It is worth noting that the fourth unpaired branch of the abdominal aorta, which is the median sacral artery, does not provide direct supply to the abdominal viscera.
Branches of the Abdominal Aorta
The abdominal aorta is a major blood vessel that supplies oxygenated blood to the abdominal organs and lower extremities. It gives rise to several branches that supply blood to various organs and tissues. These branches can be classified into two types: parietal and visceral.
The parietal branches supply blood to the walls of the abdominal cavity, while the visceral branches supply blood to the abdominal organs. The branches of the abdominal aorta include the inferior phrenic, coeliac, superior mesenteric, middle suprarenal, renal, gonadal, lumbar, inferior mesenteric, median sacral, and common iliac arteries.
The inferior phrenic artery arises from the upper border of the abdominal aorta and supplies blood to the diaphragm. The coeliac artery supplies blood to the liver, stomach, spleen, and pancreas. The superior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the small intestine, cecum, and ascending colon. The middle suprarenal artery supplies blood to the adrenal gland. The renal arteries supply blood to the kidneys. The gonadal arteries supply blood to the testes or ovaries. The lumbar arteries supply blood to the muscles and skin of the back. The inferior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the descending colon, sigmoid colon, and rectum. The median sacral artery supplies blood to the sacrum and coccyx. The common iliac arteries are the terminal branches of the abdominal aorta and supply blood to the pelvis and lower extremities.
Understanding the branches of the abdominal aorta is important for diagnosing and treating various medical conditions that affect the abdominal organs and lower extremities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Which diabetes medication is the least likely to cause weight gain?
Your Answer: Gliclazide
Correct Answer: Exenatide
Explanation:Exenatide and its Benefits for Overweight Patients
Exenatide is a medication that mimics the effects of GLP-1, a hormone released by the gut in response to food intake. This hormone triggers insulin secretion in the pancreatic beta-cells, which makes GLP-1 mimetics like exenatide effective in stimulating insulin release. Additionally, exenatide is associated with weight loss, making it a good choice for patients who are significantly overweight.
According to NICE guidelines, exenatide should be used in patients with a BMI exceeding 35 kg/m2 or in those with significant weight-related comorbidity, even if their BMI is less than 35 kg/m2. After six months of therapy, exenatide should only be continued if the patient’s HbA1c has fallen by 11 mmol/mol and their weight has decreased by 3%.
However, exenatide does have some side effects, including nausea and vomiting. It should also be avoided in patients with renal failure, impaired liver function, and gastroparesis. On the other hand, other diabetes medications like gliptins, glitazones, and sulphonylureas are associated with significant weight gain, while repaglinide may result in minimal or no weight gain.
Overall, exenatide is a promising option for overweight patients with diabetes, as it not only stimulates insulin release but also promotes weight loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old hospitalized patient is prescribed a combination of irinotecan and 5-fluorouracil with added folinic acid for metastatic colon cancer. The patient is informed about the significant side effects associated with these drugs, including severe diarrhea, nausea, and fatigue. What is the mechanism of action of irinotecan?
Your Answer: Purine analogue
Correct Answer: Inhibition of topoisomerase I
Explanation:Irinotecan prevents relaxation of supercoiled DNA by inhibiting topoisomerase I, an enzyme that regulates DNA supercoiling during mitosis and meiosis. Other topoisomerase inhibitors include topotecan, etoposide, and teniposide.
Azathioprine is a purine analogue that inhibits DNA polymerase, thereby halting DNA synthesis.
5-fluorouracil is a pyrimidine antagonist that inhibits thymidylate synthase, leading to a reduction in pyrimidine nucleotides.
Tyrosine kinase inhibitors like imatinib and erlotinib have significantly improved the prognosis for patients with chronic myeloid leukemia (CML).
Cytotoxic agents are drugs that are used to kill cancer cells. There are several types of cytotoxic agents, each with their own mechanism of action and potential adverse effects. Alkylating agents, such as cyclophosphamide, work by causing cross-linking in DNA. However, they can also cause haemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression, and transitional cell carcinoma. Cytotoxic antibiotics, like bleomycin and anthracyclines, degrade preformed DNA and stabilize DNA-topoisomerase II complex, respectively. However, they can also cause lung fibrosis and cardiomyopathy. Antimetabolites, such as methotrexate and fluorouracil, inhibit dihydrofolate reductase and thymidylate synthesis, respectively. However, they can also cause myelosuppression, mucositis, and liver or lung fibrosis. Drugs that act on microtubules, like vincristine and docetaxel, inhibit the formation of microtubules and prevent microtubule depolymerisation & disassembly, respectively. However, they can also cause peripheral neuropathy, myelosuppression, and paralytic ileus. Topoisomerase inhibitors, like irinotecan, inhibit topoisomerase I, which prevents relaxation of supercoiled DNA. However, they can also cause myelosuppression. Other cytotoxic drugs, such as cisplatin and hydroxyurea, cause cross-linking in DNA and inhibit ribonucleotide reductase, respectively. However, they can also cause ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, hypomagnesaemia, and myelosuppression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic with a left groin swelling that is identified as a direct inguinal hernia. Can you indicate the position of the ilioinguinal nerve in relation to the spermatic cord within the inguinal canal?
Your Answer: Within the spermatic cord
Correct Answer: Anterior to the spermatic cord
Explanation:The inguinal canal is a crucial anatomical feature that houses the spermatic cord in males, while the ilioinguinal nerve runs in front of it. Both the ilioinguinal and iliohypogastric nerves stem from the L1 nerve root. Unlike the deep (internal) inguinal ring, the ilioinguinal nerve enters the inguinal canal through the abdominal muscles and exits through the superficial (external) inguinal ring.
The inguinal canal is located above the inguinal ligament and measures 4 cm in length. Its superficial ring is situated in front of the pubic tubercle, while the deep ring is found about 1.5-2 cm above the halfway point between the anterior superior iliac spine and the pubic tubercle. The canal is bounded by the external oblique aponeurosis, inguinal ligament, lacunar ligament, internal oblique, transversus abdominis, external ring, and conjoint tendon. In males, the canal contains the spermatic cord and ilioinguinal nerve, while in females, it houses the round ligament of the uterus and ilioinguinal nerve.
The boundaries of Hesselbach’s triangle, which are frequently tested, are located in the inguinal region. Additionally, the inguinal canal is closely related to the vessels of the lower limb, which should be taken into account when repairing hernial defects in this area.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 28
Correct
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An 85-year-old woman visits her doctor with a complaint of worsening breathlessness in the past 6 months. She has been smoking 10 cigarettes a day for the last 40 years. The doctor suspects that she may have chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. What is one of the mechanisms by which smoking damages the lungs and leads to emphysema?
Your Answer: Inactivation of alpha-1 antitrypsin
Explanation:The function of alpha-1 antitrypsin is to inhibit elastase. However, smoke has a negative impact on this protein in the lungs, resulting in increased activity of elastases and the breakdown of elastic tissue, which leads to emphysema.
Contrary to popular belief, smoke actually activates polymorphonuclear leucocytes, which contributes to the development of emphysema.
Mucous gland hyperplasia, basal cell metaplasia, and basement membrane thickening are all examples of how smoke affects the lungs to cause chronic bronchitis, not emphysema.
COPD, or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, can be caused by a variety of factors. The most common cause is smoking, which can lead to inflammation and damage in the lungs over time. Another potential cause is alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency, a genetic condition that can result in lung damage. Additionally, exposure to certain substances such as cadmium (used in smelting), coal, cotton, cement, and grain can also contribute to the development of COPD. It is important to identify and address these underlying causes in order to effectively manage and treat COPD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 29
Correct
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A 63-year-old male with a lengthy history of schizophrenia presents at the clinic. He displays rapid darting movements of his tongue and appears to be grimacing. What is the mechanism of action of the medication that is most likely responsible for his symptoms?
Your Answer: Long term dopamine receptor blockade causing hypersensitivity of dopamine receptors in the nigrostriatal pathway
Explanation:Tardive dyskinesia is a condition that can occur as a result of long-term use of antipsychotic drugs, which is likely in this patient due to his history of mental illness. It is believed that blocking the dopamine receptor can cause hypersensitivity of the D2 receptor in the nigrostriatal pathway, leading to excessive movements.
It should be noted that antiemetic medications that use dopamine antagonism in the chemoreceptor trigger zone are more likely to cause acute dystonias rather than tardive dyskinesia. Additionally, degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra is associated with Parkinson’s disease and would not produce these symptoms. Abrupt withdrawal of dopaminergic agents is also not expected to result in tardive dyskinesia. Finally, carbidopa inhibits the conversion of L-DOPA into dopamine and does not cause tardive dyskinesia.
Antipsychotics are a type of medication used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. However, they are known to cause extrapyramidal side-effects such as Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. These side-effects can be managed with procyclidine. Other side-effects of typical antipsychotics include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients due to an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 30
Correct
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A 30-year-old male refugee arrives at the emergency department complaining of night sweats and a productive cough that has been ongoing for 2 weeks. Upon performing a chest X-ray, signs of tuberculosis are detected. The patient is prescribed a combination of antibiotics, including rifampicin. How does rifampicin work to combat the bacteria's protein synthesis?
Your Answer: Inhibits RNA polymerase
Explanation:Rifampin causes cell death by inhibiting DNA-dependent RNA polymerase, which leads to the suppression of RNA synthesis.
Rifampicin disrupts DNA synthesis by halting the action of RNA polymerase, resulting in the suppression of RNA synthesis and cell death.
Quinolones inhibit DNA gyrase to function.
Tetracyclines and aminoglycosides inhibit the 30s subunit to work.
Macrolides work by inhibiting the 50s subunit of bacteria, leading to their death.
Beta lactams, such as penicillin, disrupt cell wall synthesis to function.
Understanding Rifampicin: An Antibiotic for Treating Infections
Rifampicin is an antibiotic that is commonly used to treat various infections, including tuberculosis. It is often prescribed in combination with other medications to effectively combat the disease. Rifampicin can also be used as a prophylactic treatment for individuals who have been in close contact with tuberculosis or meningitis.
The mechanism of action of Rifampicin involves inhibiting bacterial DNA-dependent RNA polymerase, which prevents the transcription of DNA into mRNA. This action helps to stop the growth and spread of bacteria in the body.
However, Rifampicin is known to be a potent CYP450 liver enzyme inducer, which can cause hepatitis in some individuals. Additionally, it can cause orange secretions and flu-like symptoms. Therefore, it is important to use Rifampicin only as prescribed by a healthcare professional and to monitor any adverse effects that may occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
