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  • Question 1 - A 21-year-old woman presents with acne vulgaris. On examination there are mixed comedones...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old woman presents with acne vulgaris. On examination there are mixed comedones and pustules. She has three slight acne scars to her left cheek. The lesions are multiple and prominent but do not extend beyond the face. She has not tried any medications for the acne to date and is requesting your advice on treatment. You note that she last attended for an emergency contraception prescription, which was in the last 6 weeks. She does not use any regular contraception and does not want to commence contraception as she indicates she is no longer sexually active. She says that she does not feel overly self-conscious about her acne but wants something to help improve the appearance of the spots.
      Which treatment plan is most appropriate?

      Your Answer: Topical application of benzoyl peroxide alone

      Correct Answer: Topical application of clindamycin and benzoyl peroxide

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Acne Vulgaris: A Comprehensive Guide

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that affects many individuals, particularly during adolescence. It is characterized by blocked hair follicles and sebaceous glands, resulting in inflammatory and non-inflammatory lesions on the face, back, and chest. The severity of acne can range from mild to severe, with the latter causing scarring and significant distress to the patient.

      There are several treatment options available for acne vulgaris, depending on the severity of the condition. For mild to moderate acne, topical benzoyl peroxide can be prescribed as monotherapy. However, for moderate acne with a risk of scarring, a combination therapy of a topical antibiotic and benzoyl peroxide, such as clindamycin aqueous solution, is recommended.

      In cases of extensive acne on the back or shoulders, or if there is a significant risk of scarring or skin pigmentation, an oral antibiotic may be considered for an 8-week period. However, it is important to note that oral antibiotics should be used judiciously to avoid the development of antibiotic resistance.

      For severe acne or acne causing severe distress to the patient, referral to a dermatologist for treatment with isotretinoin may be necessary. Isotretinoin is a retinoid that is used for systemic treatment of severe acne. However, it should only be given to women on contraception as it is teratogenic.

      In conclusion, the treatment of acne vulgaris requires a tailored approach based on the severity of the condition and the risk of scarring or other complications. A combination of topical and oral therapies, as well as referral to a dermatologist when necessary, can help to effectively manage this chronic skin condition.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 2 - A 42-year-old black woman comes in with depigmented patches of skin on her...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old black woman comes in with depigmented patches of skin on her hands and face. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vitiligo

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Pigmentation Disorders

      Vitiligo, Pityriasis alba, Albinism, Melasma, and Melanoma are all skin pigmentation disorders that affect people of different ages and ethnicities. Vitiligo is a rare autoimmune condition that destroys melanocytes, causing white patches on the skin. Pityriasis alba is a scaly, white patch that usually affects children’s facial skin. Albinism is a genetic disorder that reduces tyrosinase activity in melanocytes, resulting in a lack of pigment in the skin, hair, and irises. Melasma is a condition of increased pigmentation, usually occurring underneath the eyes, and is common in pregnant women and oral contraceptive users. Melanoma is a malignant skin cancer that develops from melanocytes and is characterized by irregular, highly pigmented moles. Understanding these disorders can help individuals identify and manage their skin conditions.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 3 - An 82-year-old retired landscape gardener presents to clinic with his daughter, who is...

    Incorrect

    • An 82-year-old retired landscape gardener presents to clinic with his daughter, who is concerned about a lesion on his scalp.
      The lesion is 45 mm × 30 mm, irregular, and she feels it has changed colour to become darker over recent months. He states it has occasionally bled and is more raised than before. He has a history of travel with the armed forces in South-East Asia.
      You suspect malignant melanoma.
      Which of the following features is most likely to be associated with a poor prognosis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Bleeding

      Correct Answer: Depth of lesion on biopsy

      Explanation:

      Understanding Prognostic Indicators for Melanoma Diagnosis

      When it comes to diagnosing melanoma, the depth of the lesion on biopsy is the most crucial factor in determining prognosis. The American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) depth is now used instead of Breslow’s thickness. A raised lesion may indicate nodular malignant melanoma, which has a poor prognosis. Bleeding may occur with malignant melanoma, but it is not a reliable prognostic indicator. While a change in color and irregular border may help identify melanoma, they are not directly linked to prognosis. The size of the lesion is also not a reliable indicator, as depth is required to assess prognosis. Understanding these prognostic indicators is essential for accurate diagnosis and treatment of melanoma.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old woman presents with a 4-year history of a progressively worsening rash...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with a 4-year history of a progressively worsening rash on her face, characterised by dark-coloured lesions with periodic background scaling, burning and pruritus. Physical examination reveals well-defined patches of flaky skin which is yellow and dry on the scalp. There is also flaking in the nasolabial folds, eyebrows and behind the ears. The patient’s eyelids are also red and inflamed. They report itchiness and discomfort.
      Given the likely diagnosis of this patient, what is the most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer: Ketoconazole

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Seborrheic Dermatitis and Psoriasis

      Seborrheic dermatitis and psoriasis are two common skin conditions that can cause discomfort and irritation. Fortunately, there are several treatment options available to help manage symptoms and improve overall skin health.

      Ketoconazole is the preferred medication for treating seborrheic dermatitis in adults. It is available as a 2% cream and should be applied once or twice daily for at least four weeks. Antifungal shampoo can also be used on the scalp. For infants with seborrheic dermatitis, clotrimazole is a suitable option and should be applied 2-3 times a day for up to four weeks.

      Emollients are often used to relieve symptoms of psoriasis by moisturizing dry skin and reducing itching. They can be used before starting steroid treatment for psoriasis. It is important to avoid using soap and shaving creams on the face, as they can exacerbate irritation. Instead, non-greasy emollients or emollient soaps can be used as an alternative.

      Topical steroids are commonly used to treat psoriasis by reducing skin inflammation. Mild topical steroids can be used on the face or skinfolds. It is important to follow the instructions provided by your healthcare provider and to use these medications as directed.

      In summary, there are several treatment options available for managing seborrheic dermatitis and psoriasis. By working with your healthcare provider, you can find the best approach to improve your skin health and overall quality of life.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 5 - A lesion is observed on the left cheek of a 4-year-old child, and...

    Correct

    • A lesion is observed on the left cheek of a 4-year-old child, and impetigo is being considered as a possible diagnosis.
      Which one of the following statements is true regarding impetigo?

      Your Answer: Characterised by scab-covered weeping lesions

      Explanation:

      Impetigo: A Contagious Skin Infection

      Impetigo is a skin infection that can be caused by either Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus pyogenes, or both. This condition results in the formation of yellow-crusted sores and small blisters filled with yellow fluid, which can appear anywhere on the body but are most commonly found on the face, arms, or legs. The infection is highly contagious and can be spread through direct person-to-person contact.

      While impetigo does not require formal isolation, it is important to take precautions to prevent its spread. Children who are affected should stay home from school until they have received 48 hours of effective treatment. Personal hygiene, particularly hand washing and drying, should be emphasized, and children should have their own towels to prevent the spread of infection.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 6 - A 23-year-old man presents to his GP with complaints of redness and itching...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old man presents to his GP with complaints of redness and itching on his face and hands. He has been to another GP for similar issues in the past two years and has been on sick leave from his job as a builder. He is currently receiving benefits and is in the process of making an insurance claim for loss of earnings. He mentions that there was one ointment that worked for him, but he has not been able to find it again. On examination, there are no visible skin lesions or rash. The patient appears unconcerned and requests that his GP sign his insurance claim paperwork. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Munchausen syndrome

      Correct Answer: Malingering

      Explanation:

      Somatoform Disorders, Malingering, and Munchausen’s Syndrome

      Somatoform disorders are characterized by the unconscious drive to produce illness and the motivation to seek medical attention. On the other hand, malingering involves a conscious effort to fake or claim a disorder for personal gain, such as financial compensation. Meanwhile, Munchausen’s syndrome is a chronic condition where patients have a history of multiple hospital admissions and are willing to undergo invasive procedures.

      In somatoform disorders, patients are not intentionally faking their symptoms. Instead, their unconscious mind is producing physical symptoms as a way to cope with psychological distress. This can lead to a cycle of seeking medical attention and undergoing unnecessary tests and procedures. In contrast, malingering is a deliberate attempt to deceive medical professionals for personal gain. Patients may exaggerate or fabricate symptoms to receive compensation or avoid legal consequences.

      Munchausen’s syndrome is a rare condition where patients repeatedly seek medical attention and undergo invasive procedures despite having no actual medical condition. This behavior is driven by a desire for attention and sympathy from medical professionals. Patients with Munchausen’s syndrome may go to great lengths to maintain their deception, including intentionally harming themselves to produce symptoms.

      In summary, somatoform disorders, malingering, and Munchausen’s syndrome are all conditions that involve the production or faking of physical symptoms. However, the motivations behind these behaviors differ. these conditions can help medical professionals provide appropriate care and support for patients.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 7 - A 14-year-old girl came to the clinic with several erythematosus lesions on her...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl came to the clinic with several erythematosus lesions on her trunk. The lesions had a collarette of scales at their periphery and were asymptomatic. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Psoriasis

      Correct Answer: Pityriasis rosea

      Explanation:

      Pityriasis Rosea: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment

      Pityriasis rosea is a skin condition that typically begins with a single patch, known as the herald or mother patch. This is followed by smaller patches that appear in clusters, resembling a Christmas tree pattern on the upper trunk of the body. These patches have a fine ring of scales around their edges, known as a collarette. The condition is believed to be caused by a viral infection and typically lasts for six to eight weeks. While there is no specific treatment for pityriasis rosea, symptoms can be managed with over-the-counter medications and topical creams.

      Pityriasis rosea is a common skin condition that can cause discomfort and embarrassment for those affected. the symptoms, causes, and treatment options can help individuals manage the condition and alleviate symptoms.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 8 - A 68-year-old rancher comes in with a small white spot on his right...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old rancher comes in with a small white spot on his right cheek that has been gradually increasing in size over the past few months. It has now developed a central ulcer. What is the probable type of this lesion?

      Your Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Basal cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Lesion on the Face: Indications of Basal Cell Carcinoma

      A slow-growing lesion on the face with a central ulcer located above a line drawn from the angle of the mouth to the ear lobe is a possible indication of basal cell carcinoma. This type of cancer tends to develop slowly, and the presence of an ulcer in the center of the lesion is a common characteristic. In contrast, squamous cell carcinoma grows much faster than basal cell carcinoma.

      Another skin condition that may be mistaken for basal cell carcinoma is seborrhoeic keratoses. However, seborrhoeic keratoses have a papillary warty surface, which is different from the smooth surface of basal cell carcinoma.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 9 - A 14-year-old boy comes to the clinic with scaly patches on his scalp....

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy comes to the clinic with scaly patches on his scalp. Upon examination, circular areas of hair loss with scaling and raised margins, measuring 2-5 cm in diameter, are observed. There is no scarring. What is the probable cause of this condition in the patient?

      Your Answer: Lichen planus

      Correct Answer: Tinea capitis

      Explanation:

      Causes of Non-Scarring and Scarring Alopecia

      Non-scarring alopecia is a condition where hair loss occurs without any visible scarring on the scalp. The most common causes of this type of alopecia include telogen effluvium, androgenetic alopecia, alopecia areata, tinea capitis, and traumatic alopecia. In some cases, non-scarring alopecia can also be associated with lupus erythematosus and secondary syphilis.

      Tinea capitis, caused by invasion of hairs by dermatophytes, most commonly Trichophyton tonsurans, is a common cause of non-scarring alopecia. This type of alopecia is characterized by hair loss in circular patches on the scalp.

      On the other hand, scarring alopecia is a condition where hair loss occurs with visible scarring on the scalp. This type of alopecia is more frequently the result of a primary cutaneous disorder such as lichen planus, folliculitis decalvans, cutaneous lupus, or linear scleroderma (morphea). Scarring alopecia can be permanent and irreversible, making early diagnosis and treatment crucial.

      In conclusion, the different causes of non-scarring and scarring alopecia is important in determining the appropriate treatment plan for patients experiencing hair loss.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 10 - A 21-year-old student presents to his GP a few days after returning from...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old student presents to his GP a few days after returning from a regeneration project working with a fishing community in South America. His main complaint is of an itchy, erythematosus rash predominantly affecting both feet. He has no past medical history of note. On examination he has erythematosus, edematous papules and vesicles affecting both feet. There are serpiginous erythematosus trails which track 2-3 cm from each lesion. Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 138 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 8.0 × 109/l
      (slight peripheral blood eosinophilia) 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 245 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 79 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Chest X-ray Normal lung fields
      Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical scenario?

      Your Answer: Tinea pedis

      Correct Answer: Cutaneous larva migrans

      Explanation:

      Cutaneous Larva Migrans and Other Skin Conditions: A Differential Diagnosis

      Cutaneous larva migrans is a common skin condition caused by the migration of nematode larvae through the skin. It is typically found in warm sandy soils and can be diagnosed based on the history and appearance of serpiginous lesions. Treatment involves the use of thiobendazole. Other skin conditions, such as impetigo, tinea pedis, and photoallergic dermatitis, have different causes and presentations and are less likely to be the correct diagnosis. Larva currens, caused by Strongyloides stercoralis, is another condition that can cause itching and skin eruptions, but it is typically associated with an intestinal infection and recurrent episodes. A differential diagnosis is important to ensure proper treatment and management of these skin conditions.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 11 - An 8-year-old girl visits her GP complaining of an itchy scalp. Upon detection...

    Correct

    • An 8-year-old girl visits her GP complaining of an itchy scalp. Upon detection combing, head lice are found. What is a recognized treatment for head lice?

      Your Answer: Dimeticone 4% gel

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Head Lice

      Head lice infestations are a common problem, especially among children. There are several treatment options available, but not all of them are effective or recommended. Here are some of the commonly used treatments and their effectiveness:

      Dimeticone 4% gel: This gel works by suffocating and coating the lice, making it a well-recognized treatment for head lice.

      Ketoconazole shampoo: While this medicated shampoo is used to treat suspected fungal infections in the scalp, it is not a recognized treatment for head lice.

      Permethrin 5% cream: Although permethrin is an insecticide used to treat scabies, it is not recommended for head lice treatment as the 10-minute contact time may not be enough for it to be effective.

      Topical antibiotics: These are not recommended for head lice treatment.

      Topical antifungal: Topical antifungals have no role in the management of head lice.

      In conclusion, dimeticone 4% gel is a well-recognized treatment for head lice, while other treatments such as ketoconazole shampoo, permethrin 5% cream, topical antibiotics, and topical antifungal are not recommended. It is important to consult a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and treatment of head lice.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 12 - In what condition is lupus pernio observed? ...

    Incorrect

    • In what condition is lupus pernio observed?

      Your Answer: SLE

      Correct Answer: Sarcoidosis

      Explanation:

      Lupus Pernio in Sarcoidosis

      Lupus pernio is a distinct skin manifestation that is commonly associated with sarcoidosis. This condition is characterized by the presence of chronic, hardened papules or plaques that primarily affect the mid-face, particularly the alar rim of the nose. Even small papules in this area may indicate the presence of granulomatous infiltration in the nasal mucosa and upper respiratory tract, which can lead to the formation of masses, ulcerations, or even life-threatening airway obstruction. Therefore, it is important to promptly diagnose and manage lupus pernio in patients with sarcoidosis to prevent further complications. Proper treatment may involve the use of systemic corticosteroids, immunosuppressive agents, or other targeted therapies.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 13 - A 33-year-old construction worker presents with an area of redness on his right...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old construction worker presents with an area of redness on his right foot. The area of redness has grown in size over the past day and is warmer than the surrounding normal skin. The patient mentions that the area is also tender to touch.
      Following taking a history and examining the patient, the physician suspects a diagnosis of cellulitis.
      Which of these terms is best used to describe ‘cellulitis’?

      Your Answer: Localised inflammation and cellular debris accumulation

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Forms of Skin Inflammation

      Cellulitis, inflammation of subcutaneous tissue, is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes and requires urgent treatment with antibiotics. Surgical wounds and malignant tumors can also cause inflammation, but the latter is a response by the immune system to control malignancy. Inflammation of the epidermis can be caused by various non-infective processes, such as sunburns or abrasions. Localized infection may lead to an abscess, which requires incision and drainage. It is important to understand the distinct pathology and treatment for each form of skin inflammation.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 14 - A 10-year-old boy comes to his General Practitioner (GP) complaining of generalised itch...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old boy comes to his General Practitioner (GP) complaining of generalised itch for the past few days. He mentions that it is causing him to lose sleep at night. Upon examination, the GP observes linear burrows on the hands and evidence of excoriation on the abdomen and limbs. The GP suspects scabies as the underlying cause.
      What is the initial treatment recommended for non-crusted scabies?

      Your Answer: Permethrin 5% cream

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Scabies: Understanding the Role of Different Medications

      Scabies is a skin condition caused by the Sarcoptes scabiei parasite. The primary treatment for non-crusted scabies is permethrin 5% cream, which is an insecticide. If permethrin is not tolerated or contraindicated, malathion can be used as a second-line agent. It is important to apply permethrin cream over the entire body and wash it off after 8-12 hours. Treatment should be repeated after one week.

      Clotrimazole 2% cream, which is an antifungal medication, is not effective in treating scabies. Similarly, topical antibiotics like fusidic acid cream are not used to treat scabies unless there is a secondary bacterial infection.

      Steroids like hydrocortisone 1% ointment are not used to treat scabies directly, but they can be used to alleviate symptoms like itching. Oral antibiotics like flucloxacillin are only necessary if there is a suspected secondary bacterial infection.

      In summary, understanding the role of different medications in treating scabies is crucial for effective management of the condition.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 15 - A 30-year-old man comes to the dermatology clinic with several small fleshy nodules...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man comes to the dermatology clinic with several small fleshy nodules around and under his finger and toe nails. Upon further inquiry, it is revealed that the patient has a history of seizures that are hard to manage.
      What is the probable underlying condition?

      Your Answer: Sturge–Weber syndrome

      Correct Answer: Tuberous sclerosis

      Explanation:

      Genetic Tumor Disorders and Their Skin Manifestations

      There are several genetic disorders that predispose individuals to the formation of tumors, including those in the nervous system. These disorders can also have distinct skin manifestations that aid in their diagnosis.

      Tuberous Sclerosis: This rare multisystem genetic disease is caused by abnormalities on chromosome 9 and leads to the formation of benign tumors (hamartomas) in various organs, including the brain, eyes, skin, kidney, and heart. Skin problems associated with tuberous sclerosis include periungual fibromas, adenoma sebaceum, ‘ash leaf’ hypomelanotic macules, café-au-lait patches, subcutaneous nodules, and shagreen patches. Neurological symptoms such as seizures, developmental delay, behavioral problems, and learning difficulties can also occur.

      Neurofibromatosis I: This inherited condition causes tumors (neurofibromas) to grow within the nervous system and is characterized by café-au-lait spots on the skin.

      Von Hippel-Lindau Disease: This inherited tumor disorder is caused by a mutation in a tumor suppressor gene on chromosome 3 and is commonly associated with angiomatosis, hemangioblastomas, and pheochromocytomas.

      Neurofibromatosis II: This disorder presents with bilateral hearing loss due to the development of bilateral acoustic neuromas.

      Sturge-Weber Syndrome: This congenital disorder is identified by a port-wine stain on the forehead, scalp, or around the eye.

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  • Question 16 - At this stage, what is the most appropriate treatment for John Parker, a...

    Correct

    • At this stage, what is the most appropriate treatment for John Parker, a 28-year-old IT consultant who has been diagnosed with plaque psoriasis confined to his elbows?

      Your Answer: Dovobet®

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Localised Plaque Psoriasis

      Localised plaque psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that causes red, scaly patches on the skin. There are several treatment options available, including Dovobet®, Infliximab, Methotrexate, Photochemotherapy (PUVA), and Retinoids.

      Dovobet® is an ointment or gel that contains both calcipotriol and betamethasone dipropionate. It works synergistically to relieve the symptoms of localised plaque psoriasis. However, it is contraindicated for patients with certain conditions and precautions should be taken in prescribing for certain patients.

      Infliximab is an anti-TNF alpha biologic agent that is used in systemic arthritis, particularly psoriatic arthritis. It is not used for localised plaque psoriasis.

      Methotrexate is an antifolate immunosuppressant and chemotherapy agent. It would not be a first-line therapy for localised psoriasis.

      Photochemotherapy (PUVA) is a type of ultraviolet radiation treatment that can be used for localised psoriasis but would not be first line.

      Retinoids are derived from vitamin A and cause proliferation and reduced keratinisation of skin cells. They would not be first line for localised psoriasis.

      In conclusion, the choice of treatment for localised plaque psoriasis depends on the severity of the condition, the patient’s medical history, and other factors. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of treatment.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 17 - A 49-year-old male has been experiencing a rash on and off for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old male has been experiencing a rash on and off for the past two years. Upon examination, it is noted that the rash is symmetrical and located on the cheeks, nose, and chin. The patient has multiple papules and pustules. What is the recommended treatment for this individual?

      Your Answer: Isotretinoin

      Correct Answer: Oxytetracycline

      Explanation:

      Acne Rosacea Treatment with Tetracycline

      Acne rosacea is a skin condition that is characterized by the presence of redness, bumps, and pimples on the face. This condition is usually long-lasting and can be quite uncomfortable for those who suffer from it. Unlike other types of acne, acne rosacea does not typically present with blackheads or whiteheads. The distribution of the condition is usually limited to the face, particularly the cheeks, nose, and forehead.

      The most effective treatment for acne rosacea is a medication called tetracycline. This medication is an antibiotic that works by reducing inflammation and killing the bacteria that cause acne. Tetracycline is usually taken orally, and it is important to follow the prescribed dosage and duration of treatment. In addition to tetracycline, there are other medications and topical treatments that can be used to manage the symptoms of acne rosacea. However, tetracycline is often the first line of treatment due to its effectiveness and low risk of side effects.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 18 - A 32-year-old woman presents with shiny, flat, red papules over her anterior wrists...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with shiny, flat, red papules over her anterior wrists and forearms. The papules are extremely pruritic and some of them have a central depression. Similar papules are seen along the scratch line at the volar surface of the forearm. The patient is a nurse and has had at least three needlestick injuries during the past 2 years. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay is negative. Hepatitis B surface antigen and anti-HBc antibody are negative, but anti-HBs antibody is positive. Anti-hepatitis C (HCV) antibody is positive.
      What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Dermatitis herpetiformis

      Correct Answer: Lichen planus

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Conditions and Associated Antibodies

      Lichen Planus: This skin condition is associated with viral hepatitis, specifically hepatitis B and C. Antibodies may indicate the presence of hepatitis and other conditions such as erythema multiforme, urticaria, polyarteritis nodosa, cryoglobulinemia, and porphyria cutanea tarda.

      Chronic Hepatitis B: A negative anti-HBc antibody status suggests that the patient has not been exposed to the hepatitis B virus. A positive anti-HBs antibody status may indicate vaccination.

      Dermatitis Herpetiformis: This condition is characterized by extremely itchy papulovesicles on the elbows, knees, upper back, and buttocks. It is often associated with gluten-sensitive enteropathy. Autoantibodies such as anti-gliadin, anti-endomysial, and anti-tissue transglutaminase may be present.

      Essential Mixed Cryoglobulinemia: This condition presents with palpable purpura and arthritis, among other signs of systemic vasculitis. It is also associated with hepatitis C virus infection, and rheumatoid factor is usually positive.

      Dermatomyositis: Gottron’s papules, which are violet, flat-topped lesions, are associated with dermatomyositis and the anti-Jo-1 autoantibody. They are typically seen over the metacarpophalangeal or interphalangeal joints.

      Skin Conditions and Their Antibody Associations

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 19 - Samantha Masters, a 16-year-old high school student, visits the Dermatology Clinic with concerns...

    Correct

    • Samantha Masters, a 16-year-old high school student, visits the Dermatology Clinic with concerns about her appearance. She has been struggling with severe acne for a few years and has tried various over-the-counter treatments and antibiotics, but none have worked. She has been researching Roaccutane® (isotretinoin) and is interested in trying it. What is the most frequent side effect Samantha may encounter while taking Roaccutane®?

      Your Answer: Dry skin and lips

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Side-Effects of Roaccutane®: Dry Skin and Lips

      Roaccutane® is a powerful medication used to treat severe acne when other treatments have failed. While it is highly effective, it is also associated with a range of side-effects that patients should be aware of. One of the most common side-effects is severe dry skin and lips, which can be uncomfortable and require additional moisturizing. Other potential side-effects include dryness of the eyes, mucous membranes, and scalp, as well as muscle pain and hair loss.

      It is important to note that Roaccutane® is highly teratogenic, meaning it can cause birth defects if taken during pregnancy. Women who are taking Roaccutane® should use at least two forms of contraception to prevent pregnancy. Additionally, all patients should have their liver function and lipid levels monitored before and during treatment, as Roaccutane® can cause elevated levels of both.

      While night sweats and peptic ulceration are not recognised side-effects of Roaccutane®, photosensitivity is a potential side-effect, although it is not the most common. Weight gain is also not a recognised side-effect. Patients taking Roaccutane® should be aware of these potential side-effects and discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider.

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  • Question 20 - A 35-year-old patient with a chronic skin condition is under annual review with...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old patient with a chronic skin condition is under annual review with the Dermatology team. At her review appointment, the patient mentions that she has been experiencing episodes of new skin lesions appearing in areas where she has scratched, often appearing in straight lines. The doctor examines a typical lesion, and notes that they are examples of Koebner phenomenon.
      In which one of the following conditions is the Koebner phenomenon MOST likely to be seen?

      Your Answer: Eczema

      Correct Answer: Psoriasis

      Explanation:

      The Koebner Phenomenon: Skin Conditions and Cutaneous Injury

      The Koebner phenomenon is a term used to describe the appearance of new skin lesions in areas of cutaneous injury, often caused by scratching, in otherwise healthy skin. This phenomenon is commonly seen in skin conditions such as psoriasis, vitiligo, and lichen planus. It may also manifest in association with other conditions such as viral warts, pyoderma gangrenosum, and molluscum contagiosum.

      In cases where the Koebner phenomenon occurs, the new lesions have the same clinical and histological features as the patient’s original skin disease. They are often linear in nature, following the route of cutaneous injury.

      It is important to note that not all skin conditions exhibit the Koebner phenomenon. Rosacea, eczema, pityriasis rosea, and cellulitis are examples of skin conditions that do not exhibit this phenomenon.

      In summary, the Koebner phenomenon is a unique characteristic of certain skin conditions that can occur in response to cutaneous injury. Understanding this phenomenon can aid in the diagnosis and management of these skin conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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