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  • Question 1 - A 65-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of a nodule on his scrotum....

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of a nodule on his scrotum. Upon biopsy, it is revealed to be a squamous cell carcinoma of the scrotum. Which group of nearby lymph nodes is most likely to be affected by the spread of this cancer through the lymphatic system?

      Your Answer: Inguinal

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Scrotum and Testes

      The scrotum is composed of skin and dartos fascia, with an arterial supply from the anterior and posterior scrotal arteries. It is also the site of lymphatic drainage to the inguinal lymph nodes. The testes are surrounded by the tunica vaginalis, a closed peritoneal sac, with the parietal layer adjacent to the internal spermatic fascia. The testicular arteries arise from the aorta, just below the renal arteries, and the pampiniform plexus drains into the testicular veins. The left testicular vein drains into the left renal vein, while the right testicular vein drains into the inferior vena cava. Lymphatic drainage occurs to the para-aortic nodes.

      The spermatic cord is formed by the vas deferens and is covered by the internal spermatic fascia, cremasteric fascia, and external spermatic fascia. The cord contains the vas deferens, testicular artery, artery of vas deferens, cremasteric artery, pampiniform plexus, sympathetic nerve fibers, genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve, and lymphatic vessels. The vas deferens transmits sperm and accessory gland secretions, while the testicular artery supplies the testis and epididymis. The cremasteric artery arises from the inferior epigastric artery, and the pampiniform plexus is a venous plexus that drains into the right or left testicular vein. The sympathetic nerve fibers lie on the arteries, while the parasympathetic fibers lie on the vas. The genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve supplies the cremaster. Lymphatic vessels drain to lumbar and para-aortic nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 42-year-old woman presents with symptoms of fatigue, palpitations, and shortness of breath...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presents with symptoms of fatigue, palpitations, and shortness of breath on exertion. She has recently been ill with an upper respiratory tract infection. During the examination, you observe that she has conjunctival pallor, and her sclera are icteric.

      After conducting investigations, a positive Coombs test leads to a diagnosis of autoimmune haemolytic anaemia. This condition results in the breakdown of red blood cells, causing an increase in free haemoglobin levels in the blood.

      What mechanisms will be involved in recycling the elevated levels of this substance?

      Your Answer: Albumin

      Correct Answer: Haptoglobins

      Explanation:

      Haptoglobins are responsible for binding free haemoglobin within the circulation, allowing for the complex to be removed from the circulation by the reticuloendothelial system. Therefore, the correct answer is 2 – haptoglobins. LDH, albumin, and bilirubin do not play a role in recycling free haemoglobin.

      Understanding Haemolytic Anaemias by Site

      Haemolytic anaemias can be classified by the site of haemolysis, either intravascular or extravascular. In intravascular haemolysis, free haemoglobin is released and binds to haptoglobin. As haptoglobin becomes saturated, haemoglobin binds to albumin forming methaemalbumin, which can be detected by Schumm’s test. Free haemoglobin is then excreted in the urine as haemoglobinuria and haemosiderinuria. Causes of intravascular haemolysis include mismatched blood transfusion, red cell fragmentation due to heart valves, TTP, DIC, HUS, paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria, and cold autoimmune haemolytic anaemia.

      On the other hand, extravascular haemolysis occurs when red blood cells are destroyed by macrophages in the spleen or liver. This type of haemolysis is commonly seen in haemoglobinopathies such as sickle cell anaemia and thalassaemia, hereditary spherocytosis, haemolytic disease of the newborn, and warm autoimmune haemolytic anaemia.

      It is important to understand the site of haemolysis in order to properly diagnose and treat haemolytic anaemias. While both intravascular and extravascular haemolysis can lead to anaemia, the underlying causes and treatment approaches may differ.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      113.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 50-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with haematemesis. He has a...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with haematemesis. He has a history of recurrent urinary tract infections and has been taking broad-spectrum antibiotics. The consultant suspects that the prolonged use of these antibiotics may have contributed to his current condition.

      What is the mechanism behind the increased risk of serious bleeds with prolonged use of broad-spectrum antibiotics?

      Your Answer: Elimination of gut flora

      Explanation:

      The prolonged use of broad-spectrum antibiotics can lead to a deficiency in vitamin K. This is because these antibiotics can eliminate the natural gut flora, which is responsible for producing vitamin K that is then absorbed by the body. Cephalosporins like ceftriaxone and cefotaxime are particularly associated with this effect.

      While antibiotics can increase the risk of liver damage, this is not the likely cause of the patient’s symptoms as they have not displayed any other signs of liver failure.

      Antibiotics do not significantly affect the absorption of vitamin K, but other factors such as inadequate consumption or absorption of dietary fats can impact its absorption.

      It is important to note that antibiotics do not inhibit clotting factor Xa or promote fibrinolysis, which are mechanisms used by anticoagulants and thrombolytics respectively.

      Understanding Vitamin K

      Vitamin K is a type of fat-soluble vitamin that plays a crucial role in the carboxylation of clotting factors such as II, VII, IX, and X. This vitamin acts as a cofactor in the process, which is essential for blood clotting. In clinical settings, vitamin K is used to reverse the effects of warfarinisation, a process that inhibits blood clotting. However, it may take up to four hours for the INR to change after administering vitamin K.

      Vitamin K deficiency can occur in conditions that affect fat absorption since it is a fat-soluble vitamin. Additionally, prolonged use of broad-spectrum antibiotics can eliminate gut flora, leading to a deficiency in vitamin K. It is essential to maintain adequate levels of vitamin K to ensure proper blood clotting and prevent bleeding disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      49.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 36-year-old patient, Sarah, arrives at the emergency department with an abrupt onset...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old patient, Sarah, arrives at the emergency department with an abrupt onset of left-sided facial weakness. The weakness impacts the entire left side of her face, including her forehead, and her corneal reflex is absent upon examination. The physician prescribes prednisolone and informs Sarah that her facial weakness should improve within a few weeks.

      What is the cranial foramen through which the nerve responsible for Sarah's symptoms passes?

      Your Answer: Internal acoustic meatus

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is the internal acoustic meatus, through which the facial nerve (CN VII) and vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII) pass. Emily is likely experiencing Bell’s Palsy, which is treated with prednisolone. The foramen ovale is incorrect, as it is where the mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve (CN V₃) passes. The foramen spinosum is also incorrect, as it is where the middle meningeal artery, middle meningeal vein, and meningeal branch of the mandibular nerve (CN V₃) pass. The jugular foramen is incorrect, as it is where the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX), vagus nerve (CN X), and spinal accessory nerve (CN XI) pass. The superior orbital fissure (SOF) is also incorrect, as it is where the lacrimal nerve, frontal and nasociliary branches of the ophthalmic nerve (CN V₁), trochlear nerve (CN IV), oculomotor nerve (CN III), abducens nerve (CN VI), superior ophthalmic vein, and a branch of the inferior ophthalmic vein pass.

      Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.

      In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      53.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - An 80-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of abdominal bloating, reduced appetite, and...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of abdominal bloating, reduced appetite, and fatigue that have been worsening for four months. The GP refers her to gynaecology on a two-week-wait pathway for an ultrasound-guided biopsy, which confirms ovarian cancer. A staging CT scan reveals the spread of cancer to nearby lymph nodes.

      Which lymph nodes are the most probable to be affected?

      Your Answer: Para-aortic nodes

      Explanation:

      Metastatic ovarian cancer is often first detected in the para-aortic lymph nodes, as this is where the ovaries drain. The fundus of the uterus drains to the deep inguinal nodes through lymphatics that follow the round ligament. The inferior mesenteric nodes receive drainage from the upper part of the rectum, sigmoid colon, and descending colon. The body of the uterus drains to the iliac nodes through lymphatics that follow the broad ligament, while parts of the cervix may drain to the presacral nodes via lymphatics that follow the uterosacral fold.

      Lymphatic Drainage of Female Reproductive Organs

      The lymphatic drainage of the female reproductive organs is a complex system that involves multiple nodal stations. The ovaries drain to the para-aortic lymphatics via the gonadal vessels. The uterine fundus has a lymphatic drainage that runs with the ovarian vessels and may thus drain to the para-aortic nodes. Some drainage may also pass along the round ligament to the inguinal nodes. The body of the uterus drains through lymphatics contained within the broad ligament to the iliac lymph nodes. The cervix drains into three potential nodal stations; laterally through the broad ligament to the external iliac nodes, along the lymphatics of the uterosacral fold to the presacral nodes and posterolaterally along lymphatics lying alongside the uterine vessels to the internal iliac nodes. Understanding the lymphatic drainage of the female reproductive organs is important for the diagnosis and treatment of gynecological cancers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      31.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Sarah is a 65-year-old patient with decompensated liver cirrhosis. Two years ago she...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 65-year-old patient with decompensated liver cirrhosis. Two years ago she had variceal bleed, for which she has been taking propranolol and received endoscopic variceal ligation. Sarah presents to the emergency department with haematemesis and a recurrent oesophageal variceal bleed is suspected.

      What emergency surgery is necessary in this case?

      Your Answer: Oesophagectomy

      Correct Answer: Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) procedure

      Explanation:

      To address recurrent variceal haemorrhage despite optimal medical therapy, a TIPS procedure may be performed. This involves linking the hepatic vein to the portal vein, which helps to alleviate the complications associated with portal hypertension.

      Variceal haemorrhage is a serious condition that requires prompt and effective management. The initial treatment involves resuscitation of the patient, correction of clotting abnormalities, and administration of vasoactive agents such as terlipressin or octreotide. Prophylactic IV antibiotics are also recommended to reduce mortality in patients with liver cirrhosis. Endoscopic variceal band ligation is the preferred method for controlling bleeding, and the use of a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube or Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunt (TIPSS) may be necessary if bleeding cannot be controlled. However, TIPSS can lead to exacerbation of hepatic encephalopathy, which is a common complication.

      To prevent variceal haemorrhage, prophylactic measures such as propranolol and endoscopic variceal band ligation (EVL) are recommended. Propranolol has been shown to reduce rebleeding and mortality compared to placebo. EVL is superior to endoscopic sclerotherapy and should be performed at two-weekly intervals until all varices have been eradicated. Proton pump inhibitor cover is given to prevent EVL-induced ulceration. NICE guidelines recommend offering endoscopic variceal band ligation for the primary prevention of bleeding for people with cirrhosis who have medium to large oesophageal varices.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      38.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 25-year-old male presents for a follow-up appointment. He sustained a crush injury...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old male presents for a follow-up appointment. He sustained a crush injury to his arm at work six weeks ago and was diagnosed with axonotmesis. The patient is eager to return to work and asks when he can expect the numbness in his arm to go away.

      What guidance should you provide to the patient?

      Your Answer: This type of injury usually recovers fully but can take up to a year

      Explanation:

      When a nerve is crushed, it can result in axonotmesis, which is a type of injury where both the axon and myelin sheath are damaged, but the nerve remains intact. Fortunately, axonotmesis injuries usually heal completely, although the process can be slow. The amount of time it takes for the nerve to heal depends on the severity and location of the injury, but typically, axons regenerate at a rate of 1mm per day and can take anywhere from three months to a year to fully recover. It’s not uncommon to experience residual numbness up to four weeks after the injury, but there’s usually no need for further testing at this point. While amitriptyline can help with pain relief, it doesn’t speed up the healing process. In contrast, neurotmesis injuries are more severe and can result in permanent nerve damage. However, in most cases of axonotmesis, full recovery is possible with time. Neuropraxia is a less severe type of nerve injury where the axon is not damaged, and healing typically occurs within six to eight weeks.

      Nerve injuries can be classified into three types: neuropraxia, axonotmesis, and neurotmesis. Neuropraxia occurs when the nerve is intact but its electrical conduction is affected. However, full recovery is possible, and autonomic function is preserved. Wallerian degeneration, which is the degeneration of axons distal to the site of injury, does not occur. Axonotmesis, on the other hand, happens when the axon is damaged, but the myelin sheath is preserved, and the connective tissue framework is not affected. Wallerian degeneration occurs in this type of injury. Lastly, neurotmesis is the most severe type of nerve injury, where there is a disruption of the axon, myelin sheath, and surrounding connective tissue. Wallerian degeneration also occurs in this type of injury.

      Wallerian degeneration typically begins 24-36 hours following the injury. Axons are excitable before degeneration occurs, and the myelin sheath degenerates and is phagocytosed by tissue macrophages. Neuronal repair may only occur physiologically where nerves are in direct contact. However, nerve regeneration may be hampered when a large defect is present, and it may not occur at all or result in the formation of a neuroma. If nerve regrowth occurs, it typically happens at a rate of 1mm per day.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      51.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old woman has recently received her first invitation for routine mammography and...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman has recently received her first invitation for routine mammography and wishes to discuss the potential risks and benefits. Can you explain how breast screening can detect cancers that may not have been clinically significant, resulting in unnecessary treatment? Additionally, for every woman whose life is saved through the breast cancer screening program, how many women are estimated to undergo treatment for breast cancer that would not have been life-threatening?

      Your Answer: 3

      Explanation:

      The RCGP curriculum mandates the capability to converse with patients about NHS screening programmes, as part of the objective to promote health and prevent disease. Over-diagnosis and over-treatment are the primary concerns associated with breast cancer screening. Research suggests that for every life saved by the screening programme, three women will receive treatment for a cancer that would not have posed a threat to their lives. Therefore, it is the woman’s personal decision to weigh the benefits against the risks when invited for routine screening.

      Breast Cancer Screening and Familial Risk Factors

      Breast cancer screening is offered to women aged 50-70 years through the NHS Breast Screening Programme, with mammograms offered every three years. While the effectiveness of breast screening is debated, it is estimated that the programme saves around 1,400 lives annually. Women over 70 years may still have mammograms but are encouraged to make their own appointments.

      For those with familial risk factors, NICE guidelines recommend referral to a breast clinic for further assessment. Those with one first-degree or second-degree relative diagnosed with breast cancer do not need referral unless certain factors are present in the family history, such as early age of diagnosis, bilateral breast cancer, male breast cancer, ovarian cancer, Jewish ancestry, or complicated patterns of multiple cancers at a young age. Women with an increased risk of breast cancer due to family history may be offered screening from a younger age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 27-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman visits her GP with concerns about well-defined patches of...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman visits her GP with concerns about well-defined patches of significantly lighter skin. At first, this was only on her hands, but she has recently noticed similar patches on her face. She has a medical history of Hashimoto's thyroid disease and takes levothyroxine.

      During the examination, the GP observes well-demarcated areas of hypopigmentation on her hands, arms, and face. Based on the most probable diagnosis, which layer of the epidermis is affected?

      Your Answer: Stratum spinosum

      Correct Answer: Stratum germinativum

      Explanation:

      The deepest layer of the epidermis is called the stratum germinativum, which is responsible for producing keratinocytes and contains melanocytes. Vitiligo, a condition characterized by depigmented patches, affects this layer by causing the loss of melanocytes.

      The stratum corneum is the topmost layer of the epidermis, consisting of dead cells filled with keratin.

      The stratum granulosum is where keratin production occurs in the epidermis.

      The stratum lucidum is only present in the palms of the hands and soles of the feet.

      The Layers of the Epidermis

      The epidermis is the outermost layer of the skin and is made up of a stratified squamous epithelium with a basal lamina underneath. It can be divided into five layers, each with its own unique characteristics. The first layer is the stratum corneum, which is made up of flat, dead, scale-like cells filled with keratin. These cells are continually shed and replaced with new ones. The second layer, the stratum lucidum, is only present in thick skin and is a clear layer. The third layer, the stratum granulosum, is where cells form links with their neighbors. The fourth layer, the stratum spinosum, is the thickest layer of the epidermis and is where squamous cells begin keratin synthesis. Finally, the fifth layer is the stratum germinativum, which is the basement membrane and is made up of a single layer of columnar epithelial cells. This layer gives rise to keratinocytes and contains melanocytes. Understanding the layers of the epidermis is important for understanding the structure and function of the skin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      38
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 26-year-old woman who is 8 weeks pregnant visits your GP clinic with...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old woman who is 8 weeks pregnant visits your GP clinic with complaints of frequent urination and a burning sensation while urinating. Upon dipstick testing of her urine, the following results are obtained:

      Nitrites +
      Leukocytes ++
      Blood -
      Glucose -
      Protein -

      While waiting for the urine sample to be sent for microscopy, you decide to start treatment for a UTI. Which antibiotic should be avoided in this patient?

      Your Answer: Trimethoprim

      Explanation:

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      58.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A client comes to the medical facility after a surgical operation. She reports...

    Correct

    • A client comes to the medical facility after a surgical operation. She reports an inability to shrug her shoulder. What is the probable nerve injury causing this issue?

      Your Answer: Accessory nerve

      Explanation:

      Operations in the posterior triangle can result in injury to the accessory nerve, which can impact the functioning of the trapezius muscle.

      Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.

      In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Samantha, a 23-year-old female, arrives at the emergency department after falling on her...

    Correct

    • Samantha, a 23-year-old female, arrives at the emergency department after falling on her outstretched hand during a volleyball game. She reports experiencing pain in her left shoulder.

      After assessing her neurovascular status, the attending physician orders an x-ray which reveals a surgical neck fracture of the left humerus.

      Which muscles are expected to have decreased movement based on the nerve most likely affected by this fracture?

      Your Answer: Teres minor and deltoid

      Explanation:

      The axillary nerve is responsible for supplying the teres minor and deltoid muscles. It is composed of nerve fibers from C5 and C6 of the brachial plexus and originates in the axilla. The nerve exits the axilla through the quadrangular space, located at the lower border of the subscapularis muscle. It then travels medially to the surgical neck of the humerus, making it vulnerable to injury in cases of surgical neck fractures. Other muscles innervated by the axillary nerve include the teres major and trapezius, which are supplied by the lower subscapular and accessory nerves, respectively.

      Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      24.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 79-year-old male patient who was admitted with a middle cerebral artery infarct...

    Correct

    • A 79-year-old male patient who was admitted with a middle cerebral artery infarct that was complicated by a haemorrhagic transformation had a cardiac arrest on the medical ward. The team arrived and began chest compressions. According to the Resuscitation Council UK adult advanced life support (ALS) algorithm, the patient was given 1 mg of intravenous medication and chest compressions were continued. What is the receptor type that this drug acts on?

      Your Answer: G protein-coupled receptors

      Explanation:

      Adrenaline functions by binding to G protein-coupled receptors, which are located in the cell membrane and transmit signals intracellularly. These receptors undergo a conformational change when a ligand, such as adrenaline, binds to them, activating an associated G protein. The two main intracellular signaling pathways involved in G protein-coupled receptors are the cyclic AMP pathway and the phosphatidylinositol pathway. Other types of receptors include internal receptors, enzyme-linked receptors, and ion channel-linked receptors, which respond to different types of ligands and activate different intracellular pathways.

      Membrane receptors are proteins located on the surface of cells that receive signals from outside the cell and transmit them inside. There are four main types of membrane receptors: ligand-gated ion channel receptors, tyrosine kinase receptors, guanylate cyclase receptors, and G protein-coupled receptors. Ligand-gated ion channel receptors mediate fast responses and include nicotinic acetylcholine, GABA-A & GABA-C, and glutamate receptors. Tyrosine kinase receptors include receptor tyrosine kinase such as insulin, insulin-like growth factor (IGF), and epidermal growth factor (EGF), and non-receptor tyrosine kinase such as PIGG(L)ET, which stands for Prolactin, Immunomodulators (cytokines IL-2, Il-6, IFN), GH, G-CSF, Erythropoietin, and Thrombopoietin.

      Guanylate cyclase receptors contain intrinsic enzyme activity and include atrial natriuretic factor and brain natriuretic peptide. G protein-coupled receptors generally mediate slow transmission and affect metabolic processes. They are activated by a wide variety of extracellular signals such as peptide hormones, biogenic amines (e.g. adrenaline), lipophilic hormones, and light. These receptors have 7-helix membrane-spanning domains and consist of 3 main subunits: alpha, beta, and gamma. The alpha subunit is linked to GDP. Ligand binding causes conformational changes to the receptor, GDP is phosphorylated to GTP, and the alpha subunit is activated. G proteins are named according to the alpha subunit (Gs, Gi, Gq).

      The mechanism of G protein-coupled receptors varies depending on the type of G protein involved. Gs stimulates adenylate cyclase, which increases cAMP and activates protein kinase A. Gi inhibits adenylate cyclase, which decreases cAMP and inhibits protein kinase A. Gq activates phospholipase C, which splits PIP2 to IP3 and DAG and activates protein kinase C. Examples of G protein-coupled receptors include beta-1 receptors (epinephrine, norepinephrine, dobutamine), beta-2 receptors (epinephrine, salbuterol), H2 receptors (histamine), D1 receptors (dopamine), V2 receptors (vas

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      27.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 25-year-old woman is diagnosed with epilepsy and is prescribed drug Y as...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman is diagnosed with epilepsy and is prescribed drug Y as part of her treatment plan. Due to the narrow therapeutic index of drug Y, she will need to undergo regular blood tests to monitor her drug levels.

      Calculate the therapeutic index of drug Y:

      Minimum effective dose = 200 mg
      Median effective dose = 300mg
      Minimum toxic dose = 600mg
      Median toxic dose = 800 mg
      Median lethal dose = 1200mg

      2.67
      33%
      4
      20%
      6
      7%
      400
      30%
      600
      10%

      The 'Therapeutic Index' is the ratio of the dose of a drug resulting in an undesired effect compared to that at which it produces the desired effect. It is an important factor to consider when prescribing medication to ensure the safety and effectiveness of treatment.

      To calculate the therapeutic index of drug Y, we use the median toxic dose (the dose at which 50% of people have undesired effects) divided by the median effective dose (the dose at which 50% of people have the desired effect).

      In this case:
      800 / 300 = 2.67

      Other options such as Median lethal dose / Median effective dose or Median toxic dose - median effective dose are not appropriate calculations for therapeutic index in humans. The therapeutic window, which is the range of doses that produce the desired effect in most patients with as few undesired effects as possible, is also an important consideration in medication management.

      Your Answer: 2.5

      Explanation:

      The LD50 or median lethal dose is not applicable to humans due to ethical reasons. The calculation of the minimum effective dose divided by the LD50 is incorrect and not useful. However, if a drug has a narrow therapeutic index, the result would be a smaller range of effective doses. The minimum toxic dose minus the minimum effective dose is also an incorrect calculation. This value represents the therapeutic window, which is the range of doses that produce the desired effect with minimal undesired effects in most patients.

      Pharmacodynamics refers to the effects of drugs on the body, as opposed to pharmacokinetics which is concerned with how the body processes drugs. Drugs typically interact with a target, which can be a protein located either inside or outside of cells. There are four main types of cellular targets: ion channels, G-protein coupled receptors, tyrosine kinase receptors, and nuclear receptors. The type of target determines the mechanism of action of the drug. For example, drugs that work on ion channels cause the channel to open or close, while drugs that activate tyrosine kinase receptors lead to cell growth and differentiation.

      It is also important to consider whether a drug has a positive or negative impact on the receptor. Agonists activate the receptor, while antagonists block the receptor preventing activation. Antagonists can be competitive or non-competitive, depending on whether they bind at the same site as the agonist or at a different site. The binding affinity of a drug refers to how readily it binds to a specific receptor, while efficacy measures how well an agonist produces a response once it has bound to the receptor. Potency is related to the concentration at which a drug is effective, while the therapeutic index is the ratio of the dose of a drug resulting in an undesired effect compared to that at which it produces the desired effect.

      The relationship between the dose of a drug and the response it produces is rarely linear. Many drugs saturate the available receptors, meaning that further increased doses will not cause any more response. Some drugs do not have a significant impact below a certain dose and are considered sub-therapeutic. Dose-response graphs can be used to illustrate the relationship between dose and response, allowing for easy comparison of different drugs. However, it is important to remember that dose-response varies between individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      60.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 50-year-old previously healthy man presents with chest pain that is radiating to...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old previously healthy man presents with chest pain that is radiating to his left arm and accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and sweating. Despite no ST-segment changes on the ECG, his troponin T level at six hours post-onset of pain is significantly elevated at 350 ng/L (<14). As a result, he is diagnosed with a non-ST elevation myocardial infarction and prescribed aspirin 300mg. What is the mechanism of action of this treatment?

      Your Answer: Decreases the formation of thromboxane A2

      Explanation:

      How Aspirin Works and its Use in Cardiovascular Disease

      Aspirin is a medication that works by blocking the action of cyclooxygenase-1 and 2, which are responsible for the synthesis of prostaglandin, prostacyclin, and thromboxane. By blocking the formation of thromboxane A2 in platelets, aspirin reduces their ability to aggregate, making it a widely used medication in cardiovascular disease. However, recent trials have cast doubt on the use of aspirin in primary prevention of cardiovascular disease, and guidelines have not yet changed to reflect this. Aspirin should not be used in children under 16 due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome, except in cases of Kawasaki disease where the benefits outweigh the risks. As for its use in ischaemic heart disease, aspirin is recommended as a first-line treatment. It can also potentiate the effects of oral hypoglycaemics, warfarin, and steroids. It is important to note that recent guidelines recommend clopidogrel as a first-line treatment for ischaemic stroke and peripheral arterial disease, while the use of aspirin in TIAs remains a topic of debate among different guidelines.

      Overall, aspirin’s mechanism of action and its use in cardiovascular disease make it a valuable medication in certain cases. However, recent studies have raised questions about its effectiveness in primary prevention, and prescribers should be aware of the potential risks and benefits when considering its use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      46
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 32-year-old woman visits her GP after receiving a positive pregnancy test result....

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman visits her GP after receiving a positive pregnancy test result. During her pregnancy, she will require regular blood tests due to the potential risk of haemolytic disease of the newborn. What is the underlying pathology of this condition?

      Your Answer: Maternal production of IgG antibodies against fetal red blood cells

      Explanation:

      The development of haemolytic disease of the newborn is caused by the production of IgG antibodies by the mother against the red blood cells of the fetus, which then cross the placenta and attack the fetal red blood cells. This condition is not caused by antibodies to platelets or the bone marrow, and it is the maternal antibodies that are the problem, not the fetal antibodies.

      Rhesus negative mothers can develop anti-D IgG antibodies if they deliver a Rh +ve child, which can cause haemolysis in future pregnancies. Prevention involves testing for D antibodies and giving anti-D prophylaxis at 28 and 34 weeks. Anti-D should also be given in various situations, such as delivery of a Rh +ve infant or amniocentesis. Tests include cord blood FBC, blood group, direct Coombs test, and Kleihauer test. Affected fetuses may experience oedema, jaundice, anaemia, hepatosplenomegaly, heart failure, and kernicterus, and may require transfusions and UV phototherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 55-year-old male with hypertension visits his GP complaining of a persistent dry...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old male with hypertension visits his GP complaining of a persistent dry cough. He reports that this started two weeks ago after he was prescribed ramipril. What alternative medication class might the GP consider switching him to?

      Your Answer: Angiotensin receptor blockers

      Explanation:

      A dry cough is a common and bothersome side effect of ACE inhibitors like ramipril. However, angiotensin receptor blockers work by blocking angiotensin II receptors and have similar adverse effects to ACE inhibitors, but without the cough. According to guidelines, ACE inhibitors are the first line of treatment for white patients under 55 years old. If they are ineffective, angiotensin receptor blockers should be used instead. Beta-blockers, diuretics, calcium channel blockers, and alpha blockers are reserved for later use.

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.

      While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.

      Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.

      The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Sophie is a 22-year-old woman who was diagnosed with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 4 years...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is a 22-year-old woman who was diagnosed with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 4 years ago. Since then she has developed pulmonary hypertension which has added to her symptom load. To alleviate this, Sophie's doctor considers prescribing ambrisentan, an endothelin receptor antagonist. By inhibiting the mediator, endothelin, the doctor hopes to improve Sophie's symptoms until she receives a heart transplant.

      What are the main physiological impacts of this mediator?

      Your Answer: Vasodilation and increased endovascular permeability

      Correct Answer: Vasoconstriction and bronchoconstriction

      Explanation:

      Endothelin is a potent vasoconstrictor and bronchoconstrictor that is secreted by endothelial cells and plays a crucial role in vascular homeostasis. However, excessive production of endothelin has been linked to various pathologies, including primary pulmonary hypertension. Inhibiting endothelin receptors can help lower pulmonary blood pressure.

      It’s important to note that endothelin does not affect systemic vascular resistance or sodium excretion, which are regulated by atrial and ventricular natriuretic peptides. Aldosterone, on the other hand, is responsible for increasing sodium reabsorption in the kidneys, and it’s believed that endothelin and aldosterone may work together to regulate sodium homeostasis.

      While endothelin causes vasoconstriction, it does not cause bronchodilation. Adrenaline, on the other hand, causes both vasoconstriction and bronchodilation, allowing for improved oxygen absorption from the lungs while delivering blood to areas of the body that require it for action.

      Finally, endothelin does not increase endovascular permeability, which is a function of histamine released by mast cells in response to noxious stimuli. Histamine enhances the recruitment of leukocytes to an area of inflammation by causing vascular changes.

      Understanding Endothelin and Its Role in Various Diseases

      Endothelin is a potent vasoconstrictor and bronchoconstrictor that is secreted by the vascular endothelium. Initially, it is produced as a prohormone and later converted to ET-1 by the action of endothelin converting enzyme. Endothelin interacts with a G-protein linked to phospholipase C, leading to calcium release. This interaction is thought to be important in the pathogenesis of many diseases, including primary pulmonary hypertension, cardiac failure, hepatorenal syndrome, and Raynaud’s.

      Endothelin is known to promote the release of angiotensin II, ADH, hypoxia, and mechanical shearing forces. On the other hand, it inhibits the release of nitric oxide and prostacyclin. Raised levels of endothelin are observed in primary pulmonary hypertension, myocardial infarction, heart failure, acute kidney injury, and asthma.

      In recent years, endothelin antagonists have been used to treat primary pulmonary hypertension. Understanding the role of endothelin in various diseases can help in the development of new treatments and therapies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      72
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 35-year-old man presents with a gradual onset loss of feeling in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents with a gradual onset loss of feeling in his feet. His past medical history includes alcohol misuse.

      Upper and lower limb motor examinations identify bilateral extensor plantar reflexes with absent knee jerks. Sensory examination identifies reduced sensation to vibration and proprioception distal to the elbows and knees, and reduced light touch sensation in a stocking distribution.

      Blood tests:

      Hb 118 g/L Male: (135-180)
      Platelets 170 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      MCV 112 fL (80 - 100)
      Fasting blood glucose 4.5 mmol/L (3.9-5.6)
      Serum vitamin B12 125 ng/L (190-950)
      Serum folate 2.3 ng/ml (2.7-17.0)

      Which affected areas of the nervous system are causing his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Anterior spinothalamic tracts and dorsal columns

      Correct Answer: Lateral corticospinal tracts and dorsal columns

      Explanation:

      The patient is suffering from subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord, which affects the dorsal columns and lateral corticospinal tracts. This condition is often caused by a vitamin B12 deficiency resulting from alcohol misuse. The patient’s examination reveals upper motor neuron signs, reduced proprioception, and vibration sense. The anterior corticospinal tract, anterior spinocerebellar tract, anterior spinothalamic pathway, and lateral spinothalamic pathway are all unaffected by this condition.

      Subacute Combined Degeneration of Spinal Cord

      Subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord is a condition that occurs due to a deficiency of vitamin B12. The dorsal columns and lateral corticospinal tracts are affected, leading to the loss of joint position and vibration sense. The first symptoms are usually distal paraesthesia, followed by the development of upper motor neuron signs in the legs, such as extensor plantars, brisk knee reflexes, and absent ankle jerks. If left untreated, stiffness and weakness may persist.

      This condition is a serious concern and requires prompt medical attention. It is important to maintain a healthy diet that includes sufficient amounts of vitamin B12 to prevent the development of subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      32.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 16-year-old girl visits a rheumatologist with complaints of occasional joint pain. Despite...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl visits a rheumatologist with complaints of occasional joint pain. Despite the absence of clinical synovitis, she has a Beighton score of 9 and is in good health. What is the most suitable course of action for her management?

      Your Answer: Ibuprofen as required

      Correct Answer: Physiotherapy

      Explanation:

      Joint Pain in Children and Hypermobility Syndrome

      Joint pain in children can have various causes, including hypermobility syndrome. This condition is characterized by increased flexibility, as opposed to hereditary connective tissue disorders. The Beighton score is a method used to assess hypermobility, which involves ten tests. A score of 9 indicates high flexibility and suggests susceptibility to hypermobility syndrome. Although there is no intrinsic joint disease or clinical synovitis, joint pain can be experienced. Physiotherapy can help strengthen the soft tissues supporting joints and reduce pain.

      In mild juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA), which may present similarly to hypermobility syndrome, ibuprofen is the first line of management. However, if joints show clinical synovitis, methotrexate may be considered for severe JIA. It is important to reassure the child and parents that the pain is not sinister, but it is not the optimal management for this condition. Genetic conditions causing hypermobility, such as Ehlers-Danlos and Marfan syndrome, may require referral for genetic counseling, but there are no other features of these syndromes present in hypermobility syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      26.2
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  • Question 21 - A 32-year-old woman is expecting and goes for her 20-week anomaly scan. At...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman is expecting and goes for her 20-week anomaly scan. At the appointment, she is given the news that she is having a baby boy. What is the chromosomal makeup of her son?

      Your Answer: 22 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of sex chromsomes (XY)

      Explanation:

      There are 23 pairs of autosomes and one pair of sex chromosomes, which are XX in females.

      Embryology is the study of the development of an organism from the moment of fertilization to birth. During the first week of embryonic development, the fertilized egg implants itself into the uterine wall. By the second week, the bilaminar disk is formed, consisting of two layers of cells. The primitive streak appears in the third week, marking the beginning of gastrulation and the formation of the notochord.

      As the embryo enters its fourth week, limb buds begin to form, and the neural tube closes. The heart also begins to beat during this time. By week 10, the genitals are differentiated, and the embryo exhibits intermittent breathing movements. These early events in embryonic development are crucial for the formation of the body’s major organs and structures. Understanding the timeline of these events can provide insight into the complex process of human development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 75-year-old male has been admitted to the stroke ward after experiencing a...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old male has been admitted to the stroke ward after experiencing a stroke 2 days ago. During a mini mental state examination, it was observed that the patient struggled with repeating sentences. Upon further assessment, the doctor discovered that the patient had difficulty with speech repetition. Nevertheless, the patient had no issues with speech comprehension or production during conversation.

      What could be the probable cause of the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Global aphasia

      Correct Answer: Conduction aphasia

      Explanation:

      The patient is likely experiencing conduction aphasia, which is characterized by fluent speech but poor repetition ability. This is caused by an impairment to the arcuate fasciculus, which connects Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas. While comprehension is usually preserved in this type of aphasia, patients may struggle with repeating words or phrases. Broca’s aphasia, global aphasia, and primary progressive aphasia are less likely explanations for the patient’s symptoms.

      Types of Aphasia: Understanding the Different Forms of Language Impairment

      Aphasia is a language disorder that affects a person’s ability to communicate effectively. There are different types of aphasia, each with its own set of symptoms and underlying causes. Wernicke’s aphasia, also known as receptive aphasia, is caused by a lesion in the superior temporal gyrus. This area is responsible for forming speech before sending it to Broca’s area. People with Wernicke’s aphasia may speak fluently, but their sentences often make no sense, and they may use word substitutions and neologisms. Comprehension is impaired.

      Broca’s aphasia, also known as expressive aphasia, is caused by a lesion in the inferior frontal gyrus. This area is responsible for speech production. People with Broca’s aphasia may speak in a non-fluent, labored, and halting manner. Repetition is impaired, but comprehension is normal.

      Conduction aphasia is caused by a stroke affecting the arcuate fasciculus, the connection between Wernicke’s and Broca’s area. People with conduction aphasia may speak fluently, but their repetition is poor. They are aware of the errors they are making, but comprehension is normal.

      Global aphasia is caused by a large lesion affecting all three areas mentioned above, resulting in severe expressive and receptive aphasia. People with global aphasia may still be able to communicate using gestures. Understanding the different types of aphasia is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      33.2
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 42-year-old woman is experiencing cubital tunnel syndrome in her left arm. Can...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman is experiencing cubital tunnel syndrome in her left arm. Can you identify which muscle in her forearm may be impacted by this condition?

      Your Answer: Flexor carpi ulnaris

      Explanation:

      The ulnar nerve supplies the flexor carpi ulnaris muscle, while all other flexor muscles in the anterior compartment of the forearm are innervated by the median nerve. Therefore, the correct answer is flexor carpi ulnaris.

      Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      45.4
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  • Question 24 - An 80-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of chest pain, sweating,...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of chest pain, sweating, and nausea. His ECG reveals ST elevation. Which phase of the cardiac action potential does this correspond to? The ST segment of the ECG represents a period of sluggish calcium influx in the cardiac action potential.

      Your Answer: Phase 2

      Explanation:

      The ST segment in the ECG is caused by the slow influx of calcium during phase 2 of the cardiac action potential. Understanding the cardiac action potential is important for interpreting the electrical activity of the heart as reflected in the ECG waveform. The QRS complex represents rapid depolarisation, the ST segment represents the plateau phase, and the T wave represents repolarisation.

      Understanding the Cardiac Action Potential and Conduction Velocity

      The cardiac action potential is a series of electrical events that occur in the heart during each heartbeat. It is responsible for the contraction of the heart muscle and the pumping of blood throughout the body. The action potential is divided into five phases, each with a specific mechanism. The first phase is rapid depolarization, which is caused by the influx of sodium ions. The second phase is early repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The third phase is the plateau phase, which is caused by the slow influx of calcium ions. The fourth phase is final repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The final phase is the restoration of ionic concentrations, which is achieved by the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.

      Conduction velocity is the speed at which the electrical signal travels through the heart. The speed varies depending on the location of the signal. Atrial conduction spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibers at a speed of 1 m/sec. AV node conduction is much slower, at 0.05 m/sec. Ventricular conduction is the fastest in the heart, achieved by the large diameter of the Purkinje fibers, which can achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec. This allows for a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles, which is essential for the proper functioning of the heart. Understanding the cardiac action potential and conduction velocity is crucial for diagnosing and treating heart conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A child psychologist creates a new survey for use in schools that aims...

    Incorrect

    • A child psychologist creates a new survey for use in schools that aims to detect students with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). What term refers to the degree to which the survey accurately identifies those with ADHD?

      Your Answer: Specificity

      Correct Answer: Validity

      Explanation:

      Validity refers to how accurately something measures what it claims to measure. There are two main types of validity: internal and external. Internal validity refers to the confidence we have in the cause and effect relationship in a study. This means we are confident that the independent variable caused the observed change in the dependent variable, rather than other factors. There are several threats to internal validity, such as poor control of extraneous variables and loss of participants over time. External validity refers to the degree to which the conclusions of a study can be applied to other people, places, and times. Threats to external validity include the representativeness of the sample and the artificiality of the research setting. There are also other types of validity, such as face validity and content validity, which refer to the general impression and full content of a test, respectively. Criterion validity compares tests, while construct validity measures the extent to which a test measures the construct it aims to.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      12.6
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  • Question 26 - A 25-year-old, biology student, with a history of insomnia, has approached their college...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old, biology student, with a history of insomnia, has approached their college doctor with inquiries about a newly advertised medication for insomnia treatment. The medication boosts the synthesis of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) from glutamate, resulting in a calming effect.

      What is the enzyme that the drug is mimicking?

      Your Answer: Glutamate synthase

      Correct Answer: Glutamate decarboxylase

      Explanation:

      The conversion of glutamate to GABA is catalyzed by glutamate decarboxylase. Other enzymes involved in this process include glutamate synthase, which converts glutamine to glutamate, glutamine synthetase, which converts glutamate to glutamine and vice versa, and 4-aminobutyrate transaminase, which converts GABA to succinate semialdehyde.

      Understanding GABA as the Principal Inhibitory Neurotransmitter of the Cortex

      GABA, or gamma-aminobutyric acid, is a crucial neurotransmitter that plays a significant role in regulating brain activity. It is considered the principal inhibitory neurotransmitter of the cortex, which means that it helps to reduce the activity of neurons in this region of the brain. This is important because excessive neuronal activity can lead to seizures, anxiety, and other neurological disorders.

      GABA is produced in a region of the brain called the substantia nigra pars reticulata. This area is responsible for regulating movement and is also involved in the production of dopamine, another important neurotransmitter. GABA is released by neurons in the cortex and binds to specific receptors on other neurons, which helps to reduce their activity.

      The importance of GABA in the brain cannot be overstated. It is involved in a wide range of functions, including sleep, anxiety, and mood regulation. It is also a target for many drugs used to treat neurological disorders, such as epilepsy and anxiety. Understanding the role of GABA in the brain is crucial for developing new treatments for these conditions and improving our overall understanding of brain function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      34.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 65-year-old patient is scheduled for a right hemicolectomy to treat a caecum...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient is scheduled for a right hemicolectomy to treat a caecum carcinoma. Which of the following vessels will need to be high ligated for optimal oncological control?

      Your Answer: Superior mesenteric artery

      Correct Answer: Ileo-colic artery

      Explanation:

      During a right hemicolectomy, the caecum is supplied by the ileo-colic artery which requires high ligation. It is generally recommended to preserve the middle colic artery when resecting a caecal lesion. It should be noted that the SMA does not directly supply the caecum.

      The Caecum: Location, Relations, and Functions

      The caecum is a part of the colon located in the proximal right colon below the ileocaecal valve. It is an intraperitoneal structure that has posterior relations with the psoas, iliacus, femoral nerve, genitofemoral nerve, and gonadal vessels. Its anterior relations include the greater omentum. The caecum is supplied by the ileocolic artery and its lymphatic drainage is through the mesenteric nodes that accompany the venous drainage.

      The caecum is known for its distensibility, making it the most distensible part of the colon. However, in cases of complete large bowel obstruction with a competent ileocaecal valve, the caecum is the most likely site of eventual perforation. Despite this potential complication, the caecum plays an important role in the digestive system. It is responsible for the absorption of fluids and electrolytes, as well as the fermentation of indigestible carbohydrates. Additionally, the caecum is a site for the growth and proliferation of beneficial bacteria that aid in digestion and immune function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      14.3
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  • Question 28 - A 25-year-old office worker arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of headaches due...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old office worker arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of headaches due to work-related stress. She took two paracetamol earlier today, but when it didn't help, she took two aspirin. However, she developed an itchy rash on her face and is experiencing breathing difficulties. What type of drug reaction is this indicative of?

      Your Answer: Synergistic

      Correct Answer: Idiosyncratic

      Explanation:

      Idiosyncratic Reaction to Medication

      A person’s idiosyncratic reaction to medication is a peculiar response that is not expected from the drug’s mode of action. In this case, a woman is experiencing an allergic reaction to either aspirin or paracetamol. The fact that she is having difficulty breathing is a serious symptom that requires urgent treatment. It is important to note that not all allergic reactions are the same, and some can be life-threatening. Therefore, it is crucial to seek medical attention immediately if any unusual symptoms occur after taking medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      13.9
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  • Question 29 - A 33-year-old woman with a history of asthma, gout, rheumatoid arthritis, and type...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old woman with a history of asthma, gout, rheumatoid arthritis, and type II diabetes mellitus has been admitted to the respiratory ward due to breathlessness after contracting SARS-CoV-2. Despite receiving 60% oxygen via a venturi mask, her oxygen saturation remains at 91%. The doctor decides to prescribe dexamethasone. What is the expected effect of this medication?

      Your Answer: Increased blood glucose levels

      Explanation:

      The use of corticosteroids, such as dexamethasone, can worsen diabetic control due to their anti-insulin effects. Dexamethasone, which is commonly used to manage severe SARS-CoV-2 infection, has a high glucocorticoid activity that can lead to insulin resistance and increased blood glucose levels. However, it is unlikely to cause an asthma exacerbation or a flare-up of rheumatoid arthritis or gout. While psychosis is a known side effect of dexamethasone, it is less common than an increase in blood glucose levels.

      Corticosteroids are commonly prescribed medications that can be taken orally or intravenously, or applied topically. They mimic the effects of natural steroids in the body and can be used to replace or supplement them. However, the use of corticosteroids is limited by their numerous side effects, which are more common with prolonged and systemic use. These side effects can affect various systems in the body, including the endocrine, musculoskeletal, gastrointestinal, ophthalmic, and psychiatric systems. Some of the most common side effects include impaired glucose regulation, weight gain, osteoporosis, and increased susceptibility to infections. Patients on long-term corticosteroids should have their doses adjusted during intercurrent illness, and the medication should not be abruptly withdrawn to avoid an Addisonian crisis. Gradual withdrawal is recommended for patients who have received high doses or prolonged treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      32.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 32-year-old overweight woman comes to you complaining of a severe headache that...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old overweight woman comes to you complaining of a severe headache that is affecting both sides of her head. She also reports blurred vision in her left eye. Upon examination, you notice papilloedema and a CNVI palsy in her left eye. Her blood pressure is 160/100 mmHg, and she is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute-angle closure glaucoma

      Correct Answer: Idiopathic intracranial hypertension

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is: Headache, blurred vision, papilloedema, and CNVI palsy in a young, obese female on COCP are highly indicative of idiopathic intracranial hypertension. PKD may lead to hypertension and rupture of a berry aneurysm, but it would present with stroke-like symptoms. The presence of a berry aneurysm on its own would not cause any symptoms. Acute-angle closure glaucoma would present with a painful acute red eye and vomiting.

      Understanding Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension

      Idiopathic intracranial hypertension, also known as pseudotumour cerebri, is a medical condition that is commonly observed in young, overweight females. The condition is characterized by a range of symptoms, including headache, blurred vision, and papilloedema, which is usually present. Other symptoms may include an enlarged blind spot and sixth nerve palsy.

      There are several risk factors associated with idiopathic intracranial hypertension, including obesity, female sex, pregnancy, and certain drugs such as the combined oral contraceptive pill, steroids, tetracyclines, vitamin A, and lithium.

      Management of idiopathic intracranial hypertension may involve weight loss, diuretics such as acetazolamide, and topiramate, which can also cause weight loss in most patients. Repeated lumbar puncture may also be necessary, and surgery may be required to prevent damage to the optic nerve. This may involve optic nerve sheath decompression and fenestration, or a lumboperitoneal or ventriculoperitoneal shunt to reduce intracranial pressure.

      It is important to note that if intracranial hypertension is thought to occur secondary to a known cause, such as medication, it is not considered idiopathic. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms associated with idiopathic intracranial hypertension can help individuals seek appropriate medical attention and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - How can this situation be described where Bert is aware that something is...

    Incorrect

    • How can this situation be described where Bert is aware that something is happening related to him, but he is uncertain about the details?

      Your Answer: Delusional idea (autochthonous delusion)

      Correct Answer: Delusional mood

      Explanation:

      Delusions: Types and Characteristics

      A delusion is a false belief that is not in line with the patient’s social and cultural background. There are two types of delusions: primary and secondary. Primary delusions are directly associated with psychopathology, while secondary delusions occur in response to another psychiatric condition. Delusional mood is a primary delusion, and it is characterized by the patient feeling that something is happening around them, but they cannot describe it. Delusional ideas, perceptions, and memories are also primary delusions.

      Autochthonous delusional ideas appear fully formed in the patient’s mind, while delusional percepts occur in response to an ordinary object. Delusional misinterpretation is not a primary delusion, and it occurs when a patient misinterprets a situation. Delusion of love is a secondary delusion that arises from another experience, and it causes the patient to believe that someone is in love with them.

      In summary, delusions are false beliefs that are not in line with the patient’s social and cultural background. There are different types of delusions, including primary and secondary delusions. Primary delusions include delusional mood, ideas, perceptions, and memories. Autochthonous delusional ideas appear fully formed in the patient’s mind, while delusional percepts occur in response to an ordinary object. Delusional misinterpretation is not a primary delusion, and delusion of love is a secondary delusion that arises from another experience.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      19.5
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  • Question 32 - You are preparing a presentation on cell cycle for the biology students allocated...

    Correct

    • You are preparing a presentation on cell cycle for the biology students allocated to you. You have created a table to compare the different stages of the cell cycle. A template of the table is shown below:

      Stage Important points to note
      G0
      G1
      S
      G2
      Mitosis

      Which one of the following notes should be added to the notes section for mitosis?

      Your Answer: Shortest phase of the cell cycle

      Explanation:

      The cell cycle consists of various stages, with mitosis being the briefest. The resting phase is known as G0, while the length of the cycle is determined by G1. The interphase is the longest phase, and centrosome duplication takes place during DNA synthesis.

      The Cell Cycle and its Regulation

      The cell cycle is a process that regulates the growth and division of cells. It is controlled by proteins called cyclins, which in turn regulate cyclin-dependent kinase (CDK) enzymes. The cycle is divided into four phases: G0, G1, S, G2, and M. During the G0 phase, cells are in a resting state, while in G1, cells increase in size and determine the length of the cell cycle. Cyclin D/CDK4, Cyclin D/CDK6, and Cyclin E/CDK2 regulate the transition from G1 to S phase. In the S phase, DNA, RNA, and histones are synthesized, and centrosome duplication occurs. Cyclin A/CDK2 is active during this phase. In G2, cells continue to increase in size, and Cyclin B/CDK1 regulates the transition from G2 to M phase. Finally, in the M phase, mitosis occurs, which is the shortest phase of the cell cycle. The cell cycle is regulated by various proteins, including p53, which plays a crucial role in the G1 phase. Understanding the regulation of the cell cycle is essential for the development of new treatments for diseases such as cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      14.5
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  • Question 33 - Which of the following surgical procedures will have the most significant long-term effect...

    Correct

    • Which of the following surgical procedures will have the most significant long-term effect on a patient's calcium metabolism?

      Your Answer: Extensive small bowel resection

      Explanation:

      Maintaining Calcium Balance in the Body

      Calcium ions are essential for various physiological processes in the body, and the largest store of calcium is found in the skeleton. The levels of calcium in the body are regulated by three hormones: parathyroid hormone (PTH), vitamin D, and calcitonin.

      PTH increases calcium levels and decreases phosphate levels by increasing bone resorption and activating osteoclasts. It also stimulates osteoblasts to produce a protein signaling molecule that activates osteoclasts, leading to bone resorption. PTH increases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium and the synthesis of 1,25(OH)2D (active form of vitamin D) in the kidney, which increases bowel absorption of calcium. Additionally, PTH decreases renal phosphate reabsorption.

      Vitamin D, specifically the active form 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol, increases plasma calcium and plasma phosphate levels. It increases renal tubular reabsorption and gut absorption of calcium, as well as osteoclastic activity. Vitamin D also increases renal phosphate reabsorption in the proximal tubule.

      Calcitonin, secreted by C cells of the thyroid, inhibits osteoclast activity and renal tubular absorption of calcium.

      Although growth hormone and thyroxine play a small role in calcium metabolism, the primary regulation of calcium levels in the body is through PTH, vitamin D, and calcitonin. Maintaining proper calcium balance is crucial for overall health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      28.1
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  • Question 34 - A 29-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by the police after...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by the police after he was reported by a bar for violent behavior. He was involved in a physical altercation with another patron and also assaulted the police officers who intervened. He claims to have special powers to protect people at the bar. Despite his agitation, he allows the doctor to examine him. On examination, his pupils are dilated and he has a heart rate of 105 beats per minute, respiratory rate of 19 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 145/94 mmHg. What treatment options are available for this patient?

      Your Answer: Naloxone

      Correct Answer: Benzodiazepines

      Explanation:

      The individual displayed symptoms consistent with amphetamine or cocaine intoxication, including agitated behavior and the potential for cardiac arrest and seizures. Treatment options may include benzodiazepines or alpha-blockers to manage the effects of cocaine, while flumazenil may be used for benzodiazepine intoxication. N-acetylcysteine is effective in treating paracetamol overdose by replenishing glutathione levels, and naloxone is used to manage opioid overdose, such as with heroin.

      The management of overdoses and poisonings involves specific treatments for each toxin. For example, in cases of paracetamol overdose, activated charcoal may be given if ingested within an hour, and N-acetylcysteine or liver transplantation may be necessary. Salicylate overdose may require urinary alkalinization with IV bicarbonate or haemodialysis. Opioid/opiate overdose can be treated with naloxone, while benzodiazepine overdose may require flumazenil, although this is only used in severe cases due to the risk of seizures. Tricyclic antidepressant overdose may require IV bicarbonate to reduce the risk of seizures and arrhythmias, while lithium toxicity may respond to volume resuscitation with normal saline or haemodialysis. Warfarin overdose can be treated with vitamin K or prothrombin complex, while heparin overdose may require protamine sulphate. Beta-blocker overdose may require atropine or glucagon. Ethylene glycol poisoning can be treated with fomepizole or ethanol, while methanol poisoning may require the same treatment or haemodialysis. Organophosphate insecticide poisoning can be treated with atropine, and digoxin overdose may require digoxin-specific antibody fragments. Iron overdose may require desferrioxamine, and lead poisoning may require dimercaprol or calcium edetate. Carbon monoxide poisoning can be treated with 100% oxygen or hyperbaric oxygen, while cyanide poisoning may require hydroxocobalamin or a combination of amyl nitrite, sodium nitrite, and sodium thiosulfate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      34.4
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  • Question 35 - A 28-year-old female patient presents to a rheumatology clinic with complaints of pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female patient presents to a rheumatology clinic with complaints of pain and stiffness in the small joints of her hands. After diagnosis, she is prescribed methotrexate for her rheumatoid arthritis. How does the addition of a folate supplement reduce the risk of which side effect?

      Your Answer: Hepatitis

      Correct Answer: Myelosuppression

      Explanation:

      The risk of myelosuppression can be reduced by prescribing folate along with methotrexate, as folate supplements can counteract the inhibition of folate caused by methotrexate. This is important because methotrexate targets fast-dividing cells by preventing DNA, RNA, and protein synthesis, and the cells in the bone marrow are heavily reliant on folate due to their rapid division.

      Methotrexate is an antimetabolite that hinders the activity of dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme that is crucial for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is a significant drug that can effectively control diseases, but its side-effects can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential. Methotrexate is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. However, it can cause adverse effects such as mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis.

      Women should avoid pregnancy for at least six months after stopping methotrexate treatment, and men using methotrexate should use effective contraception for at least six months after treatment. Prescribing methotrexate requires familiarity with guidelines relating to its use. It is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. Folic acid 5 mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after methotrexate dose. The starting dose of methotrexate is 7.5 mg weekly, and only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed.

      It is important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia. High-dose aspirin also increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity due to reduced excretion. In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Overall, methotrexate is a potent drug that requires careful prescribing and monitoring to ensure its effectiveness and safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      24
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  • Question 36 - An 83-year-old man visits his GP complaining of weight loss and a change...

    Incorrect

    • An 83-year-old man visits his GP complaining of weight loss and a change in bowel habit that has been ongoing for the past 6 months. Following a colonoscopy and biopsy, he is diagnosed with a malignancy of the transverse colon. The transverse colon is connected to the posterior abdominal wall by a double fold of the peritoneum. Which other organ is also attached to similar double folds of the peritoneum?

      Your Answer: The tail of the pancreas

      Correct Answer: The stomach

      Explanation:

      The mesentery is present in the stomach and the first part of the duodenum as they are intraperitoneal structures.

      In the abdomen, organs are categorized as either intraperitoneal or retroperitoneal. The intraperitoneal organs include the stomach, spleen, liver, bulb of the duodenum, jejunum, ileum, transverse colon, and sigmoid colon. The retroperitoneal organs include the remaining part of the duodenum, the cecum and ascending colon, the descending colon, the pancreas, and the kidneys.

      The peritoneum has different functions in the abdomen and can be classified accordingly. It is called a mesentery when it anchors organs to the posterior abdominal wall and a ligament when it connects two different organs. The lesser and greater curvatures of the stomach have folds known as the lesser and greater omenta.

      The retroperitoneal structures are those that are located behind the peritoneum, which is the membrane that lines the abdominal cavity. These structures include the duodenum (2nd, 3rd, and 4th parts), ascending and descending colon, kidneys, ureters, aorta, and inferior vena cava. They are situated in the back of the abdominal cavity, close to the spine. In contrast, intraperitoneal structures are those that are located within the peritoneal cavity, such as the stomach, duodenum (1st part), jejunum, ileum, transverse colon, and sigmoid colon. It is important to note that the retroperitoneal structures are not well demonstrated in the diagram as the posterior aspect has been removed, but they are still significant in terms of their location and function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      48.5
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  • Question 37 - A 55-year-old male has been suffering from chronic pain for many years due...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male has been suffering from chronic pain for many years due to an industrial accident he had in his thirties. The WHO defines chronic pain as pain that persists for how long?

      Your Answer: 6 months

      Correct Answer: 12 weeks

      Explanation:

      Chronic pain is defined by the WHO as pain that lasts for more than 12 weeks. Therefore, the correct answer is 12 weeks, and all other options are incorrect.

      Guidelines for Managing Chronic Pain

      Chronic pain is defined as pain that lasts for more than 12 weeks and can include conditions such as musculoskeletal pain, neuropathic pain, vascular insufficiency, and degenerative disorders. In 2013, the Scottish Intercollegiate Guidelines Network (SIGN) produced guidelines for the management of chronic, non-cancer related pain.

      Non-pharmacological interventions are recommended by SIGN, including self-management information, exercise, manual therapy, and transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS). Exercise has been shown to be effective in improving chronic pain, and specific support such as referral to an exercise program is recommended. Manual therapy is particularly effective for spinal pain, while TENS can also be helpful.

      Pharmacological interventions may be necessary, but if medications are not effective after 2-4 weeks, they are unlikely to be effective. For neuropathic pain, SIGN recommends gabapentin or amitriptyline as first-line treatments. NICE also recommends pregabalin or duloxetine as first-line treatments. For fibromyalgia, duloxetine or fluoxetine are recommended.

      If patients are using more than 180 mg/day morphine equivalent, experiencing significant distress, or rapidly escalating their dose without pain relief, SIGN recommends referring them to specialist pain management services.

      Overall, the management of chronic pain requires a comprehensive approach that includes both non-pharmacological and pharmacological interventions, as well as referral to specialist services when necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      5.1
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  • Question 38 - In the Vaughan Williams classification of antiarrhythmics, what class of agent does disopyramide...

    Correct

    • In the Vaughan Williams classification of antiarrhythmics, what class of agent does disopyramide belong to? Is it a Class Ia, Ib, Ic, II, or IV agent?

      Your Answer: Class Ia agent

      Explanation:

      The Vaughan Williams Classification of Antiarrhythmics

      The Vaughan Williams classification is a widely used system for categorizing antiarrhythmic drugs based on their mechanism of action. The classification system is divided into four classes, each with a different mechanism of action. Class I drugs block sodium channels, Class II drugs are beta-adrenoceptor antagonists, Class III drugs block potassium channels, and Class IV drugs are calcium channel blockers.

      Class Ia drugs, such as quinidine and procainamide, increase the duration of the action potential by blocking sodium channels. However, quinidine toxicity can cause cinchonism, which is characterized by symptoms such as headache, tinnitus, and thrombocytopenia. Procainamide may also cause drug-induced lupus.

      Class Ib drugs, such as lidocaine and mexiletine, decrease the duration of the action potential by blocking sodium channels. Class Ic drugs, such as flecainide and propafenone, have no effect on the duration of the action potential but still block sodium channels.

      Class II drugs, such as propranolol and metoprolol, are beta-adrenoceptor antagonists that decrease the heart rate and contractility of the heart.

      Class III drugs, such as amiodarone and sotalol, block potassium channels, which prolongs the duration of the action potential.

      Class IV drugs, such as verapamil and diltiazem, are calcium channel blockers that decrease the influx of calcium ions into the heart, which slows down the heart rate and reduces contractility.

      It should be noted that some common antiarrhythmic drugs, such as adenosine, atropine, digoxin, and magnesium, are not included in the Vaughan Williams classification.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      9.9
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  • Question 39 - A 72-year-old retired fisherman presents with a sudden episode of rectal bleeding. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old retired fisherman presents with a sudden episode of rectal bleeding. The bleeding was significant and included clots. He feels dizzy and has collapsed.

      He reports experiencing heartburn regularly and takes lisinopril and bendroflumethiazide for hypertension, as well as aspirin and ibuprofen for hangovers. He drinks six large whisky measures and smokes 10 cigarettes daily.

      During examination, he is apyrexial, his heart rate is 106 bpm, blood pressure is 108/74 mmHg, and his respiratory rate is 18. He appears pale and has epigastric tenderness.

      What is the immediate action that should be taken?

      Your Answer: Give 1litre 0.9% NaCl over eight hours

      Correct Answer: Give 1litre 0.9% NaCl over one hour

      Explanation:

      Urgent Resuscitation Needed for Patient in Hypovolaemic Shock

      A patient is experiencing hypovolaemic shock and requires immediate infusion of colloid or crystalloid. Waiting for eight hours is not an option, and dextrose is not recommended as it quickly moves out of the intravascular space. The patient will undergo endoscopy, but only after initial resuscitation. While regular omeprazole may help prevent recurrence, it is not urgent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      33.5
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 45-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, has been referred to the medical...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, has been referred to the medical assessment unit by her family physician due to persistent pelvic pain and discomfort with radiation to her lower back, hips and groin. This has significantly impacted her day-to-day activities, family and social life. She has a past medical history of atrial fibrillation and type II diabetes. She is currently 34 weeks into her second pregnancy, and ultrasound scans have reported a fairly large baby. Despite her symptoms, her bladder and bowel function remain normal. Upon assessment, her pulse is 78 beats per minute, blood pressure is 123/78 mmHg, temperature is 37.5ºC, respiratory rate is 16 breaths per minute, and CRP is less than 5 mg/L. What is the most likely cause of her pain?

      Your Answer: Slipped lumbar vertebrae

      Correct Answer: Pubic symphysis dysfunction

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, it is common to experience pubic symphysis dysfunction due to increased ligament laxity caused by hormonal changes. This can result in pain over the pubic symphysis that may radiate to the groins and inner thighs. It is important to differentiate this from more serious conditions such as cauda equina syndrome, which is a surgical emergency and presents with low back pain, leg pain, numbness around the anus, and loss of bowel or bladder control. While slipped lumbar vertebrae can also cause similar symptoms, it is less common than pubic symphysis dysfunction during pregnancy. Ultrasound scans can confirm a normal fetus, ruling out ectopic pregnancy and miscarriage as potential causes of the symptoms.

      Understanding Symphysis Pubis Dysfunction in Pregnancy

      Symphysis pubis dysfunction (SPD), also known as pelvic girdle pain, is a common condition experienced by pregnant women. It is caused by the hormone relaxin, which affects the laxity of ligaments in the pelvic girdle and other parts of the body. This increased laxity can result in pain and instability in the symphysis pubis joint and/or sacroiliac joint. Around 20% of women suffer from SPD by 33 weeks of gestation, and it can occur at any time during pregnancy or in the postnatal period.

      Multiple risk factors have been identified, including a previous history of low back pain, multiparity, previous trauma to the back or pelvis, heavy workload, higher levels of stress, and job dissatisfaction. Patients typically present with discomfort and pain in the suprapubic or low back area, which may radiate to the upper thighs and perineum. Pain can range from mild to severe and is often exacerbated by walking, climbing stairs, turning in bed, standing on one leg, or weight-bearing activities.

      Physical examination may reveal tenderness of the symphysis pubis and/or sacroiliac joint, pain on hip abduction, pain at the symphysis when standing on one leg, and a waddling gait. Positive Faber and active straight leg raise tests, as well as palpation of the anterior surface of the symphysis pubis, can also indicate SPD. Imaging, such as ultrasound or MRI, is necessary to confirm separation of the symphysis pubis.

      Conservative management with physiotherapy is the primary treatment for SPD. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms of SPD can help healthcare providers provide appropriate care and support for pregnant women experiencing this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
      38
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A 5-year-old child is brought to the pediatric clinic by their mother. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old child is brought to the pediatric clinic by their mother. The child was born to a mother with gestational diabetes and had a difficult delivery due to shoulder dystocia. During the physical examination, the doctor observes paralysis of the intrinsic hand muscles. The doctor suspects the child has Klumpke's paralysis. What is commonly associated with this presentation?

      Your Answer: Anterior cord syndrome

      Correct Answer: Horner's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Klumpke’s paralysis is not associated with Horner’s syndrome. It is caused by injury to the brachial plexus, specifically nerve roots C8-T1, and results in paralysis of the intrinsic hand muscles, weakness of wrist flexion, and movement of the fingers. When the T1 nerve root is affected, there may be an associated injury to the sympathetic chain, which can lead to symptoms of Horner’s syndrome such as partial ptosis, miosis, enophthalmos, and anhidrosis.

      Anterior cord syndrome, Brown-Séquard syndrome, and central cord syndrome are all incorrect as they are not associated with Klumpke’s paralysis. Anterior cord syndrome causes motor paralysis and loss of pain and temperature sensation below the lesion, and is caused by ischaemia of the anterior spinal artery. Brown-Séquard syndrome is caused by a hemisection of the spinal cord due to traumatic injury, and central cord syndrome is the most common cervical cord injury that causes motor impairment of the upper limbs, usually due to trauma or osteoarthritis.

      Horner’s syndrome is a condition characterized by several features, including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), a sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The cause of Horner’s syndrome can be determined by examining additional symptoms. For example, congenital Horner’s syndrome may be identified by a difference in iris color (heterochromia), while anhidrosis may be present in central or preganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can also be helpful in confirming the diagnosis and identifying the location of the lesion. Central lesions may be caused by conditions such as stroke or multiple sclerosis, while postganglionic lesions may be due to factors like carotid artery dissection or cluster headaches. It is important to note that the appearance of enophthalmos in Horner’s syndrome is actually due to a narrow palpebral aperture rather than true enophthalmos.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      19.4
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  • Question 42 - What is the primary reason for malnutrition? ...

    Correct

    • What is the primary reason for malnutrition?

      Your Answer: Inadequate intake of calories in any form

      Explanation:

      Malnutrition

      Malnutrition refers to a state where the dietary intake is insufficient to maintain a healthy state and stable weight. It can be caused by over- or under-nutrition, but it is commonly used to describe under-nutrition. Malnutrition can be defined as a state of nutrition where a deficiency, excess, or imbalance of energy, protein, and other nutrients causes measurable adverse effects on tissue, function, and clinical outcome. Protein malnutrition is the most severe form of malnutrition, causing significant mortality and clinical effects such as kwashiorkor. Carbohydrate malnutrition is less common as carbohydrate sources are widely grown and cheap. Fat malnutrition rarely results in problems if there is adequate dietary protein and carbohydrate. Deficiencies of fat-soluble vitamins can result in various clinical effects. Body size can give some indication of nutritional status, but many obese patients may have nutritional deficiencies due to their faddy diets.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      9.4
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  • Question 43 - A 35-year-old woman is referred to the endocrine clinic due to missed periods...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman is referred to the endocrine clinic due to missed periods and lactation. She has also gained weight and experiences vaginal dryness. The endocrinologist decides to measure her prolactin levels. What hormone is responsible for suppressing the release of prolactin from the pituitary gland?

      Your Answer: Dopamine

      Explanation:

      Dopamine consistently prevents the release of prolactin.

      Understanding Prolactin and Its Functions

      Prolactin is a hormone that is produced by the anterior pituitary gland. Its primary function is to stimulate breast development and milk production in females. During pregnancy, prolactin levels increase to support the growth and development of the mammary glands. It also plays a role in reducing the pulsatility of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) at the hypothalamic level, which can block the action of luteinizing hormone (LH) on the ovaries or testes.

      The secretion of prolactin is regulated by dopamine, which constantly inhibits its release. However, certain factors can increase or decrease prolactin secretion. For example, prolactin levels increase during pregnancy, in response to estrogen, and during breastfeeding. Additionally, stress, sleep, and certain drugs like metoclopramide and antipsychotics can also increase prolactin secretion. On the other hand, dopamine and dopaminergic agonists can decrease prolactin secretion.

      Overall, understanding the functions and regulation of prolactin is important for reproductive health and lactation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      9.7
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  • Question 44 - A 65-year-old woman with confirmed heart failure visits her GP with swelling and...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman with confirmed heart failure visits her GP with swelling and discomfort in both legs. During the examination, the GP observes pitting edema and decides to prescribe a brief trial of a diuretic. Which diuretic targets the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle?

      Your Answer: Furosemide (loop diuretic)

      Explanation:

      Loop Diuretics: Mechanism of Action and Clinical Applications

      Loop diuretics, such as furosemide and bumetanide, are medications that inhibit the Na-K-Cl cotransporter (NKCC) in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. By doing so, they reduce the absorption of NaCl, resulting in increased urine output. Loop diuretics act on NKCC2, which is more prevalent in the kidneys. These medications work on the apical membrane and must first be filtered into the tubules by the glomerulus before they can have an effect. Patients with poor renal function may require higher doses to ensure sufficient concentration in the tubules.

      Loop diuretics are commonly used in the treatment of heart failure, both acutely (usually intravenously) and chronically (usually orally). They are also indicated for resistant hypertension, particularly in patients with renal impairment. However, loop diuretics can cause adverse effects such as hypotension, hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hypochloremic alkalosis, ototoxicity, hypocalcemia, renal impairment, hyperglycemia (less common than with thiazides), and gout. Therefore, careful monitoring of electrolyte levels and renal function is necessary when using loop diuretics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - A 52-year-old male comes to see you with complaints of altered sensation in...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old male comes to see you with complaints of altered sensation in his arms. He reports that he first noticed changes four months ago when he could no longer feel the sleeves of his shirts on his arms. This has now progressed to numbness and tingling in his forearms, which started one month ago. He has no medical history and is not taking any medications. You inquire about his diet as you suspect a possible vitamin deficiency.

      What vitamin deficiency is the most likely cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Vitamin B6

      Correct Answer: Vitamin B12

      Explanation:

      The initial impact of vitamin B12 deficiency is typically on the dorsal column, causing impairment in joint position and vibration perception before the onset of distal paraesthesia.

      Vitamin B12 is essential for the development of red blood cells and the maintenance of the nervous system. It is absorbed through the binding of intrinsic factor, which is secreted by parietal cells in the stomach, and actively absorbed in the terminal ileum. A deficiency in vitamin B12 can be caused by pernicious anaemia, post gastrectomy, a vegan or poor diet, disorders or surgery of the terminal ileum, Crohn’s disease, or metformin use.

      Symptoms of vitamin B12 deficiency include macrocytic anaemia, a sore tongue and mouth, neurological symptoms, and neuropsychiatric symptoms such as mood disturbances. The dorsal column is usually affected first, leading to joint position and vibration issues before distal paraesthesia.

      Management of vitamin B12 deficiency involves administering 1 mg of IM hydroxocobalamin three times a week for two weeks, followed by once every three months if there is no neurological involvement. If a patient is also deficient in folic acid, it is important to treat the B12 deficiency first to avoid subacute combined degeneration of the cord.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      23.7
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  • Question 46 - Which vitamin is essential for the production of collagen? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which vitamin is essential for the production of collagen?

      Your Answer: Vitamin D

      Correct Answer: Vitamin C

      Explanation:

      Vitamin C is essential for collagen synthesis as it is required for the hydroxylation of proline.

      Understanding Collagen and its Associated Disorders

      Collagen is a vital protein found in connective tissue and is the most abundant protein in the human body. Although there are over 20 types of collagen, the most important ones are types I, II, III, IV, and V. Collagen is composed of three polypeptide strands that are woven into a helix, with numerous hydrogen bonds providing additional strength. Vitamin C plays a crucial role in establishing cross-links, and fibroblasts synthesize collagen.

      Disorders of collagen can range from acquired defects due to aging to rare congenital disorders. Osteogenesis imperfecta is a congenital disorder that has eight subtypes and is caused by a defect in type I collagen. Patients with this disorder have bones that fracture easily, loose joints, and other defects depending on the subtype. Ehlers Danlos syndrome is another congenital disorder that has multiple subtypes and is caused by an abnormality in types 1 and 3 collagen. Patients with this disorder have features of hypermobility and are prone to joint dislocations and pelvic organ prolapse, among other connective tissue defects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      14.9
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  • Question 47 - A 50-year-old male visits his doctor complaining of hand joint pain and stiffness....

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old male visits his doctor complaining of hand joint pain and stiffness. After diagnosis, it is revealed that he has rheumatoid arthritis. What is the leading cause of mortality in this condition characterized by systemic inflammation?

      Your Answer: Coronary heart disease

      Explanation:

      Patients with rheumatoid arthritis are believed to have a higher likelihood of developing atherosclerotic disorders, even if they are unaware of any pre-existing heart conditions or elevated cardiovascular risk. The underlying cause of this atherosclerosis is attributed to systemic inflammation, which is thought to expedite the progression of the disease.

      Complications of Rheumatoid Arthritis

      Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the joints, causing inflammation and pain. However, it can also lead to a variety of extra-articular complications. These complications can affect different parts of the body, including the respiratory system, eyes, bones, heart, and mental health.

      Respiratory complications of RA include pulmonary fibrosis, pleural effusion, pulmonary nodules, bronchiolitis obliterans, methotrexate pneumonitis, and pleurisy. Ocular complications can include keratoconjunctivitis sicca, episcleritis, scleritis, corneal ulceration, keratitis, steroid-induced cataracts, and chloroquine retinopathy. RA can also lead to osteoporosis, ischaemic heart disease, and an increased risk of infections. Depression is also a common complication of RA.

      Less common complications of RA include Felty’s syndrome, which is characterized by RA, splenomegaly, and a low white cell count, and amyloidosis, which is a rare condition where abnormal proteins build up in organs and tissues.

      In summary, RA can lead to a variety of complications that affect different parts of the body. It is important for patients with RA to be aware of these potential complications and to work closely with their healthcare providers to manage their condition and prevent or treat any complications that may arise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      15.2
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  • Question 48 - A 75-year-old man is scheduled for a sub total oesophagectomy with anastomosis of...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man is scheduled for a sub total oesophagectomy with anastomosis of the stomach to the cervical oesophagus. What is the primary vessel responsible for supplying arterial blood to the oesophageal portion of the anastomosis?

      Your Answer: Subclavian artery

      Correct Answer: Inferior thyroid artery

      Explanation:

      The inferior thyroid artery supplies the cervical oesophagus, while direct branches from the thoracic aorta supply the thoracic oesophagus (which has been removed in this case).

      Anatomy of the Oesophagus

      The oesophagus is a muscular tube that is approximately 25 cm long and starts at the C6 vertebrae, pierces the diaphragm at T10, and ends at T11. It is lined with non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium and has constrictions at various distances from the incisors, including the cricoid cartilage at 15cm, the arch of the aorta at 22.5cm, the left principal bronchus at 27cm, and the diaphragmatic hiatus at 40cm.

      The oesophagus is surrounded by various structures, including the trachea to T4, the recurrent laryngeal nerve, the left bronchus and left atrium, and the diaphragm anteriorly. Posteriorly, it is related to the thoracic duct to the left at T5, the hemiazygos to the left at T8, the descending aorta, and the first two intercostal branches of the aorta. The arterial, venous, and lymphatic drainage of the oesophagus varies depending on the location, with the upper third being supplied by the inferior thyroid artery and drained by the deep cervical lymphatics, the mid-third being supplied by aortic branches and drained by azygos branches and mediastinal lymphatics, and the lower third being supplied by the left gastric artery and drained by posterior mediastinal and coeliac veins and gastric lymphatics.

      The nerve supply of the oesophagus also varies, with the upper half being supplied by the recurrent laryngeal nerve and the lower half being supplied by the oesophageal plexus of the vagus nerve. The muscularis externa of the oesophagus is composed of both smooth and striated muscle, with the composition varying depending on the location.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      33
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A 52-year-old woman visited her family physician with complaints of pain in her...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old woman visited her family physician with complaints of pain in her wrist and small joints of the hand. She mentioned that her joints felt stiff in the morning but improved throughout the day. The doctor prescribed glucocorticoids and methotrexate, which helped alleviate her symptoms. After a year, she returned to her doctor with a dry cough and shortness of breath that had been bothering her for a month. She denied any recent weight loss or coughing up blood. She is a non-smoker and drinks alcohol moderately. The woman has no significant medical or surgical history and has been a homemaker while her husband works in a shipyard. Her father died of a heart attack at the age of 77. What is the most likely finding on her chest X-ray?

      Your Answer: Intrapulmonary nodules

      Explanation:

      1. Caplan syndrome is a condition characterized by intrapulmonary nodules found peripherally and bilaterally in individuals with both pneumoconiosis and rheumatoid arthritis. The immune system changes associated with rheumatoid arthritis are thought to affect the body’s response to coal dust particles, leading to the development of nodules.
      2. A normal chest X-ray does not rule out the possibility of underlying respiratory disease. If there is a high clinical suspicion, further investigation should be pursued to confirm or rule out potential diagnoses, such as asthma.
      3. Chronic obstructive respiratory disease, which includes chronic bronchitis and emphysema, is characterized by hyperinflated lungs and a flattened diaphragm on chest X-ray. This is due to the loss of elastic recoil in the lungs and airway obstruction caused by inflammation of the bronchi.
      4. Silicosis is a restrictive lung disease that develops in individuals exposed to silica, such as sandblasters and those working in silica mines. Eggshell calcification of hilar lymph nodes is a characteristic finding on chest X-ray.
      5. Squamous cell carcinoma of the lungs, a non-small cell type of lung cancer, is associated with a central bronchial opacity around the hilar region on chest X-ray. This type of cancer is more common in smokers and may be accompanied by hypercalcemia as a paraneoplastic syndrome.

      Respiratory Manifestations of Rheumatoid Arthritis

      Patients with rheumatoid arthritis may experience a range of respiratory problems. These can include pulmonary fibrosis, pleural effusion, pulmonary nodules, bronchiolitis obliterans, and pleurisy. Additionally, drug therapy for rheumatoid arthritis, such as methotrexate, can lead to complications like pneumonitis. In some cases, patients may develop Caplan’s syndrome, which involves the formation of massive fibrotic nodules due to occupational coal dust exposure. Finally, immunosuppression caused by rheumatoid arthritis treatment can increase the risk of infection, including atypical infections. Overall, it is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these potential respiratory complications in patients with rheumatoid arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      46.3
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - Samantha is a 63-year-old female who has just been diagnosed with hypertension. Her...

    Correct

    • Samantha is a 63-year-old female who has just been diagnosed with hypertension. Her physician informs her that her average blood pressure is influenced by various bodily processes, such as heart function, nervous system activity, and blood vessel diameter. Assuming an average cardiac output (CO) of 4L/min, Samantha's mean arterial pressure (MAP) is recorded at 140mmHg during her examination.

      What is Samantha's systemic vascular resistance (SVR) based on these measurements?

      Your Answer: 35 mmhg⋅min⋅mL-1

      Explanation:

      The equation used to calculate systemic vascular resistance is SVR = MAP / CO. For example, if the mean arterial pressure (MAP) is 140 mmHg and the cardiac output (CO) is 4 mL/min, then the SVR would be 35 mmHg⋅min⋅mL-1. Although the theoretical equation for SVR is more complex, it is often simplified by assuming that central venous pressure (CVP) is negligible. However, in reality, MAP is typically measured directly or indirectly using arterial pressure measurements. The equation for calculating MAP at rest is MAP = diastolic pressure + 1/3(pulse pressure), where pulse pressure is calculated as systolic pressure minus diastolic pressure.

      Cardiovascular physiology involves the study of the functions and processes of the heart and blood vessels. One important measure of heart function is the left ventricular ejection fraction, which is calculated by dividing the stroke volume (the amount of blood pumped out of the left ventricle with each heartbeat) by the end diastolic LV volume (the amount of blood in the left ventricle at the end of diastole) and multiplying by 100%. Another key measure is cardiac output, which is the amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute and is calculated by multiplying stroke volume by heart rate.

      Pulse pressure is another important measure of cardiovascular function, which is the difference between systolic pressure (the highest pressure in the arteries during a heartbeat) and diastolic pressure (the lowest pressure in the arteries between heartbeats). Factors that can increase pulse pressure include a less compliant aorta (which can occur with age) and increased stroke volume.

      Finally, systemic vascular resistance is a measure of the resistance to blood flow in the systemic circulation and is calculated by dividing mean arterial pressure (the average pressure in the arteries during a heartbeat) by cardiac output. Understanding these measures of cardiovascular function is important for diagnosing and treating cardiovascular diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      20.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Reproductive System (3/4) 75%
Haematology And Oncology (1/3) 33%
General Principles (8/12) 67%
Neurological System (4/9) 44%
Gastrointestinal System (0/5) 0%
Musculoskeletal System And Skin (3/5) 60%
Cardiovascular System (4/5) 80%
Paediatrics (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Endocrine System (2/2) 100%
Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Basic Sciences (1/1) 100%
Respiratory System (1/1) 100%
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