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Question 1
Incorrect
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You encounter a 48-year-old man experiencing his first episode of depression, which appears to have been triggered by losing his job. He reports feeling significantly better after taking an antidepressant for six weeks and inquires about discontinuing it.
What is the suggested duration for continuing antidepressant medication to minimize the likelihood of relapse?Your Answer: 12 months
Correct Answer: 6 months
Explanation:Recommended Duration of Treatment for Depression
According to NICE guidance, individuals who have experienced their first episode of depression should undergo six months of treatment to decrease the likelihood of relapse. However, for those who have recurrent depression, treatment is recommended for a longer period of two years. It is important to note that the duration of treatment may vary depending on the severity of the depression and the individual’s response to treatment. It is crucial for individuals to work closely with their healthcare provider to determine the appropriate length of treatment for their specific needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 2
Incorrect
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What is the purpose of a study that examines the knowledge and attitudes of general practitioners in the north east of England (35 GPs from five practices) towards impaired glucose tolerance, as evidenced by quotes such as I think we all probably fight shy of diagnosing too many people with impaired glucose tolerance?
Your Answer: The lack of any statistical testing of results invalidates this research
Correct Answer: Results of this sort of research are presented as themes
Explanation:Understanding Attitudes: An Example of Qualitative Research
Qualitative research is a valuable tool for exploring attitudes. Researchers conduct semi-structured interviews with individuals and focus groups to identify themes that emerge from the data. The number of participants needed is determined by the point at which no new themes arise. In this study, the researchers found 35 subjects to be sufficient. Selection bias is not a concern in qualitative research, as participants are chosen based on their interest in the topic. While generalizability may be limited, the north east of England is similar enough to the rest of the UK to draw meaningful conclusions. Unlike quantitative research, statistics are not used in qualitative research. However, the themes that emerge can be used to create variables for a formal survey, which can be used to further test the findings with numerical data. Overall, qualitative research provides a rich understanding of attitudes and can serve as a foundation for more quantitative studies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 3
Incorrect
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You are seeing a 5-year-old boy in clinic who has a history of multiple wheezy episodes over the past 4 years and was diagnosed with asthma. He was admitted 5 months ago with shortness-of-breath and wheeze and was diagnosed with a viral exacerbation of asthma. He was prescribed Clenil (beclomethasone dipropionate) inhaler 50mcg bd and salbutamol 100 mcg prn via a spacer before discharge. His mother reports that he has a persistent night-time cough and is regularly using his salbutamol inhaler. On clinical examination, his chest appears normal.
What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Add a long-acting beta agonist
Correct Answer: Add a leukotriene receptor antagonist
Explanation:Managing Asthma in Children: NICE Guidelines
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) released guidelines in 2017 for the management of asthma in children aged 5-16. These guidelines follow a stepwise approach, with treatment options based on the severity of the child’s symptoms. For newly-diagnosed asthma, short-acting beta agonists (SABA) are recommended. If symptoms persist or worsen, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) may be used. Leukotriene receptor antagonists (LTRA) and long-acting beta agonists (LABA) may also be added to the treatment plan.
For children under 5 years old, clinical judgement plays a greater role in diagnosis and treatment. The stepwise approach for this age group includes an 8-week trial of paediatric moderate-dose ICS for newly-diagnosed asthma or uncontrolled symptoms. If symptoms persist, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose ICS with LTRA may be used. If symptoms still persist, referral to a paediatric asthma specialist is recommended.
It is important to note that NICE doesn’t recommend changing treatment for patients with well-controlled asthma simply to adhere to the latest guidelines. Additionally, maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) may be used for combined ICS and LABA treatment, but only for LABAs with a fast-acting component. The definitions for low, moderate, and high-dose ICS have also changed, with different definitions for children and adults.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 4
Incorrect
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For which patient would cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) be the most effective?
Your Answer: A 26-year-old soldier with post traumatic stress disorder
Correct Answer: A 12-year-old boy with autism
Explanation:Conditions that Benefit from Cognitive Behavioural Therapy
Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) is an effective treatment for individuals experiencing depression, anxiety, obsessive-compulsive disorder, and post-traumatic stress disorder. However, it may not be as effective for those with borderline personality disorder, psychosis, bereavement, and schizophrenia.
It is important to note that CBT is not a one-size-fits-all approach and should be tailored to the individual’s specific needs. Understanding which conditions are most responsive to CBT can help healthcare professionals make informed decisions about treatment options for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man initially reported experiencing itching on his back. Subsequently, he began to experience abdominal discomfort, loss of appetite, weight loss, and fatigue. An x-ray was performed, which showed no abnormalities. What would be the gold standard management option?
Your Answer: Urgent ultrasound scan
Correct Answer: Urgent CT scan
Explanation:Urgent CT Scan for Pancreatic Cancer in Elderly Patients with Red Flag Symptoms
An urgent direct access CT scan is recommended within two weeks for patients aged 60 and over who have experienced weight loss and any of the following symptoms: diarrhoea, back pain, abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, constipation, or new-onset diabetes. CT scan is preferred over ultrasound unless CT is not available. Endoscopy is not necessary as the symptoms do not suggest stomach or oesophageal cancer, which would present with more dysphagia and dyspepsia. While a gastroenterology opinion may be required, it should not be requested routinely as the patient’s red flag symptoms warrant a more urgent approach. Although the patient is currently medically stable, an immediate referral to the medical assessment unit is not necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 29-year-old man contacts his GP seeking advice for his seasonal allergic rhinitis. He has been managing his symptoms with intranasal decongestants, but lately, he has noticed that they are only partially effective. He experiences a runny nose and occasional sneezing, but there are no red flag symptoms such as unilateral obstruction or cacosmia. He has already taken the maximum dose of over-the-counter decongestants and is wondering if the GP can prescribe a higher dose.
Your Answer: Stop the intranasal decongestant
Explanation:Prolonged use of intranasal decongestants like oxymetazoline should be avoided due to the development of tachyphylaxis, where increasing doses are needed to achieve the same effect. Additionally, stopping the medication can lead to rebound symptoms known as rhinitis medicamentosa. Therefore, it is best to encourage patients to discontinue the decongestant rather than prescribing a higher dose. Oral decongestants like pseudoephedrine are not commonly prescribed due to limited evidence supporting their effectiveness. For patients with allergic rhinitis, short-term use of oral corticosteroids may be recommended for severe symptoms, but intranasal corticosteroids and antihistamines are more practical options. Patients should also be advised on self-help strategies like allergen avoidance. Referral to an ENT specialist is not necessary for most cases of allergic rhinitis, except for those with red flags, suspected structural abnormalities, diagnostic uncertainty, or persisting symptoms despite optimal primary care management.
Understanding Allergic Rhinitis
Allergic rhinitis is a condition that causes inflammation in the nose due to sensitivity to allergens such as dust mites, grass, tree, and weed pollens. It can be classified into seasonal, perennial, or occupational, depending on the timing and cause of symptoms. Seasonal rhinitis, which occurs due to pollens, is commonly known as hay fever. Symptoms of allergic rhinitis include sneezing, bilateral nasal obstruction, clear nasal discharge, post-nasal drip, and nasal pruritus.
The management of allergic rhinitis involves allergen avoidance and medication. For mild-to-moderate intermittent or mild persistent symptoms, oral or intranasal antihistamines may be prescribed. For moderate-to-severe persistent symptoms or if initial drug treatment is ineffective, intranasal corticosteroids may be recommended. In some cases, a short course of oral corticosteroids may be necessary to cover important life events. Topical nasal decongestants, such as oxymetazoline, may also be used for short periods, but prolonged use can lead to tachyphylaxis and rebound hypertrophy of the nasal mucosa (rhinitis medicamentosa) upon withdrawal.
In summary, allergic rhinitis is a common condition that can cause discomfort and affect daily life. Understanding the different types of allergic rhinitis and its symptoms can help in managing the condition effectively. It is important to consult a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman comes to the clinic with complaints of soreness in both eyelids and constant dryness in her eyes. Upon examination, the margins of her eyelids appear red but not swollen. What is the best initial course of action from the following options?
Your Answer: Hot compresses + topical steroids
Correct Answer: Hot compresses + mechanical removal of lid debris
Explanation:Understanding Blepharitis
Blepharitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the eyelid margins. It can be caused by dysfunction of the meibomian glands or seborrhoeic dermatitis/staphylococcal infection. Patients with rosacea are more prone to developing blepharitis. The meibomian glands secrete oil to prevent rapid evaporation of the tear film, and any problem affecting these glands can lead to dry eyes and irritation.
Symptoms of blepharitis are usually bilateral and include grittiness and discomfort around the eyelid margins, sticky eyes in the morning, and redness of the eyelid margins. Staphylococcal blepharitis may cause swollen eyelids, styes, and chalazions. Secondary conjunctivitis may also occur.
Management of blepharitis involves softening the lid margin using hot compresses twice a day and mechanical removal of debris from the lid margins through lid hygiene. A mixture of cooled boiled water and baby shampoo or sodium bicarbonate in cooled boiled water can be used for cleaning. Artificial tears may also be given for symptom relief in patients with dry eyes or an abnormal tear film.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 2-year-old boy has cerebral palsy. He presents with profuse rhinorrhoea, pyrexia and noisy respiration. The noise is a heavy-snoring inspiratory sound. His tonsils are enlarged and inflamed.
Which of the following describes the sound that this child is making?
Your Answer: Stridor
Correct Answer: Stertorous
Explanation:Stertorous refers to a noisy and laboured breathing sound, often heard during deep sleep or coma, caused by obstruction in the upper airways. Hypernasal speech is an abnormal voice resonance due to increased airflow through the nose during speech, caused by an incomplete closure of the soft palate and/or velopharyngeal sphincter. Rales, also known as crackles or crepitations, are clicking or crackling noises heard during auscultation, caused by the popping open of small airways and alveoli collapsed by fluid or exudate during expiration. Stridor is a high-pitched sound occurring during inhalation or exhalation, indicating respiratory obstruction, commonly caused by croup, foreign bodies, or allergic reactions. Wheezing is a high-pitched whistling sound made while breathing, caused by narrowed airways, typically in asthma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 39-year-old woman presents with pain and swelling of the metacarpo-phalangeal joints and the proximal inter-phalangeal joints of both hands. She reports that the symptoms are worse in the morning and her hands are very stiff. The symptoms have been present for eight weeks. Her rheumatoid factor is reported as weakly positive.
What is the most suitable course of action for a general practitioner? Choose ONE option only.Your Answer: Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug
Correct Answer: Urgent referral
Explanation:Urgent Referral for Suspected Rheumatoid Arthritis
If a patient presents with persistent synovitis of unknown cause, it is important to consider the possibility of rheumatoid arthritis. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence, an urgent referral to a rheumatologist is necessary if the small joints of the hands or feet are affected, more than one joint is affected, or symptoms have been present for three months or longer before presentation. This referral should be made even if the patient’s erythrocyte sedimentation rate is normal and they are negative for rheumatoid factor and anticyclic citrullinated peptide.
While a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug may be prescribed by a general practitioner for pain control, the urgent referral to a rheumatologist is the most appropriate option. In secondary care, a disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD) such as methotrexate, leflunomide, or sulfasalazine should be started as soon as possible, ideally within three months of the onset of persistent symptoms. Short-term bridging treatment with glucocorticoids may also be considered when starting the DMARD.
In summary, an urgent referral to a rheumatologist is necessary for suspected rheumatoid arthritis, even if certain diagnostic markers are negative. Prompt treatment with a DMARD is crucial for managing the disease and preventing long-term joint damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old male patient has just been diagnosed with prostate cancer and bony metastases. Apart from mild urinary symptoms, he is otherwise well.
The local urology department has asked you to initiate 'hormone manipulation of your choice'.
What would be the most appropriate initial treatment?Your Answer: Goserelin 3.6 mg as a subcutaneous depot implant on a monthly basis
Correct Answer: Any of the below are equally valid
Explanation:Treatment options for metastatic prostate cancer
In the treatment of metastatic prostate cancer, any luteinising hormone releasing hormone (LHRH) analogue can be used, such as goserelin or leuprorelin. However, there is a small risk of tumour flare in patients with metastatic disease, so it is recommended to initiate LHRH analogue therapy with a short-term anti-androgen like bicalutamide or cyproterone acetate. This risk is minimal, but it is considered good practice to take precautions.
Once treatment has been established, three-monthly preparations of LHRH analogues are convenient for both patients and healthcare professionals. Anti-androgen mono-therapy for metastatic prostate cancer is not recommended. It is important to discuss all treatment options with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of action for each individual case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic with a diastolic murmur that is most audible at the left sternal edge. The apex beat is also displaced outwards. What condition is commonly associated with these symptoms?
Your Answer: Aortic stenosis
Correct Answer: Aortic regurgitation
Explanation:Characteristics of Aortic Regurgitation
Aortic regurgitation is a heart condition characterized by the backflow of blood from the aorta into the left ventricle during diastole. One of the key features of this condition is a blowing high pitched early diastolic murmur that can be heard immediately after A2. This murmur is loudest at the left third and fourth intercostal spaces.
In addition to the murmur, aortic regurgitation can also cause displacement of the apex beat. This is due to the dilatation of the left ventricle, which occurs as a result of the increased volume of blood that flows back into the ventricle during diastole. Despite this dilatation, there is relatively little hypertrophy of the left ventricle.
Overall, the combination of a high pitched early diastolic murmur and displacement of the apex beat can be strong indicators of aortic regurgitation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 12
Correct
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A 58-year-old man with learning disabilities is brought to his General Practitioner by his carer who has noticed a change in his behaviour. This has been ongoing for a number of weeks, possibly longer, but was initially attributed to having moved residential home. On examination, the patient has lost 7 kg in weight since his last review (six months ago) and seems distressed on examination of his abdomen.
Which of the following is most likely to be true for this patient, compared to an age-matched population?
Your Answer: Diagnosis of physical illness is more challenging
Explanation:Challenges in Healthcare for People with Learning Disabilities
Diagnosing physical illness in people with learning disabilities can be difficult, as symptoms are often attributed to mental health or behavioural issues. This can lead to delays in treatment and even premature death. Antipsychotic medication is often prescribed despite a lack of evidence of its effectiveness. Healthcare providers must make reasonable adjustments to accommodate communication difficulties. People with learning disabilities are more likely to be exposed to social determinants of poor health, but are less likely to be underweight.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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Question 13
Correct
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A 56-year-old man is evaluated after being diagnosed with hypertension. As part of his assessment, he underwent a series of blood tests to screen for other risk factors:
Na+ 142 mmol/l
K+ 3.9 mmol/l
Urea 6.2 mmol/l
Creatinine 91 µmol/l
Fasting glucose 7.7 mmol/l
Total cholesterol 7.2 mmol/l
Upon seeing the fasting glucose result, you order a HbA1c:
HbA1c 31 mmol/mol (5.0%)
What could account for the discrepancy between the HbA1c and fasting glucose levels?Your Answer: Sickle-cell anaemia
Explanation:Understanding Glycosylated Haemoglobin (HbA1c) in Diabetes Mellitus
Glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) is a commonly used measure of long-term blood sugar control in diabetes mellitus. It is produced when glucose attaches to haemoglobin in red blood cells at a rate proportional to the concentration of glucose in the blood. The level of HbA1c is influenced by the lifespan of red blood cells and the average blood glucose concentration. However, certain conditions such as sickle-cell anaemia, GP6D deficiency, and haemodialysis can interfere with accurate interpretation of HbA1c levels.
HbA1c is believed to reflect blood glucose levels over the past 2-4 weeks, although it is generally thought to represent the previous three months. It is recommended that HbA1c be checked every 3-6 months until stable, and then every 6 months. The Diabetes Control and Complications Trial (DCCT) has studied the complex relationship between HbA1c and average blood glucose levels.
The International Federation of Clinical Chemistry (IFCC) has developed a new standardised method for reporting HbA1c, which reports HbA1c in mmol per mol of haemoglobin without glucose attached. The table above shows the relationship between HbA1c, average plasma glucose, and IFCC-HbA1c. By using this table, one can calculate the average plasma glucose level by using the formula: average plasma glucose = (2 * HbA1c) – 4.5.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A seasoned General Practice (GP) manager observes that GP consultations appear to have evolved, particularly in terms of the types of consultation and the age groups that consult the most frequently. She conducts an audit of the number and types of consultations that occurred in the past three years and compares these findings to a previous audit conducted in 2000. It is observed that there have been some significant changes, which are consistent with similar national analyses.
What is the most probable recent trend in GP consultations concerning age groups?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Frequent attenders consult, on average, five times more than the rest of the Practice population
Explanation:Changes in General Practice Consultation Trends: A Retrospective Cohort Study
A retrospective cohort study has revealed significant changes in General Practice (GP) consultation trends, particularly in the type of consultations offered. The COVID-19 pandemic has led to a shift away from face-to-face consultations towards other means of consulting. Frequent attenders are now consulting proportionally more over time, accounting for almost half of all GP consultations and five times more than the rest of the Practice population. This trend is evident across all consultation modalities, including face-to-face. However, the proportion of consultations with frequent attenders has dropped since 2000, despite GP consultations with frequent attenders increasing from a median of 13% to 21% over the same period. Currently, one in ten GP consultations (of any type) are with frequent attenders, and these have proportionally increased in the last 20 years. Although there has been a reduction in face-to-face consultations and a significant increase in online/telephone consultations, overall appointments have continued to increase. Face-to-face consultations have reduced in number, both for GPs and other clinical staff.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Samantha is an 72-year-old woman who visits your clinic to inquire about breast cancer screening. She has been receiving regular mammograms, but she recently discovered that the NHS stops screening at 71. Samantha wants to know if she can still receive NHS screening mammograms.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Yes, she can self-refer
Explanation:The NHS is extending its breast screening initiative to cover women between the ages of 47 and 73. Women over this age can still undergo screening by making their own arrangements.
Breast Cancer Screening and Familial Risk Factors
Breast cancer screening is offered to women aged 50-70 years through the NHS Breast Screening Programme, with mammograms offered every three years. While the effectiveness of breast screening is debated, it is estimated that the programme saves around 1,400 lives annually. Women over 70 years may still have mammograms but are encouraged to make their own appointments.
For those with familial risk factors, NICE guidelines recommend referral to a breast clinic for further assessment. Those with one first-degree or second-degree relative diagnosed with breast cancer do not need referral unless certain factors are present in the family history, such as early age of diagnosis, bilateral breast cancer, male breast cancer, ovarian cancer, Jewish ancestry, or complicated patterns of multiple cancers at a young age. Women with an increased risk of breast cancer due to family history may be offered screening from a younger age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A novel oral hypoglycaemic agent has been developed to manage type 2 diabetes (drug B). A recently published paper appears to show very favourable results for this drug. A brief extract is given below.
‘Patients were recruited from outpatient clinics to receive drug B. A questionnaire developed by the trial coordinator was filled out by the clinician if they felt a patient might be suitable for the trial and these were collated by the trial coordinator. Baseline blood tests were taken at this time. Suitable patients were then selected by the coordinator and invited to join the trial. The group had the following characteristics: 32% female, 96% white, 2% black, 2% Asian. They were given drug B to take for a 12-month period. At the end of the trial questionnaires were given out to patients who were still taking the drug to evaluate side-effects and repeat blood tests were taken.’
Which of the following is the correct statement regarding the trial described above?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The study design is prone to inclusion bias
Explanation:Limitations of a Diabetes Study
The Limitations of a Diabetes Study are evident in the inclusion of patients based on the clinician and coordinator’s discretion, leading to inclusion bias. This bias may result in a higher representation of English-speaking white patients, while Asians and black patients are under-represented. Additionally, the study only followed patients who completed the trial, excluding those who dropped out due to side-effects, resulting in a lack of intention-to-treat analysis. Furthermore, there is no information on whether the study was placebo-controlled. These limitations suggest that the study’s findings may not be representative of the broader diabetic population in the UK.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman with a history of hypothyroidism presents with fatigue and a painful tongue. Her blood tests reveal the following results:
- Hemoglobin (Hb): 10.7 g/dl
- Mean corpuscular volume (MCV): 121 fl
- Platelet count (Plt): 177 * 109/l
- White blood cell count (WBC): 5.4 * 109/l
Further investigations reveal that her vitamin B12 levels are 64 ng/l (normal range: 200-900 ng/l) and her folic acid levels are 7.2 nmol/l (normal range: > 3.0 nmol/l). Antibodies to intrinsic factor are also detected. What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 mg of IM hydroxocobalamin 3 times each week for 2 weeks, then once every 3 months
Explanation:Vitamin B12 is essential for the development of red blood cells and the maintenance of the nervous system. It is absorbed through the binding of intrinsic factor, which is secreted by parietal cells in the stomach, and actively absorbed in the terminal ileum. A deficiency in vitamin B12 can be caused by pernicious anaemia, post gastrectomy, a vegan or poor diet, disorders or surgery of the terminal ileum, Crohn’s disease, or metformin use.
Symptoms of vitamin B12 deficiency include macrocytic anaemia, a sore tongue and mouth, neurological symptoms, and neuropsychiatric symptoms such as mood disturbances. The dorsal column is usually affected first, leading to joint position and vibration issues before distal paraesthesia.
Management of vitamin B12 deficiency involves administering 1 mg of IM hydroxocobalamin three times a week for two weeks, followed by once every three months if there is no neurological involvement. If a patient is also deficient in folic acid, it is important to treat the B12 deficiency first to avoid subacute combined degeneration of the cord.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presented to the genitourinary medicine clinic with complaints of vaginal discharge. She had visited her GP a week ago and was prescribed clotrimazole pessaries, but they did not provide any relief. The patient reported no itching but did mention a foul odor, particularly after intercourse. During the examination, a thin white vaginal discharge with a pH of 5.9 was observed, and microscopy revealed Lactobacilli with Gram variable rods. What is the most suitable treatment option?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metronidazole 400 mg twice daily for seven days
Explanation:Bacterial Vaginosis: Symptoms, Risk Factors, and Treatment
Bacterial vaginosis is a common condition among women of childbearing age. It is characterized by a thin, milky white discharge with a malodorous fishy smell. The discharge is not itchy, but the fishy odor can be detected by adding 10% potassium hydroxide to the vaginal discharge. The vaginal pH is usually greater than 4.5.
Risk factors for bacterial vaginosis include the use of intrauterine coil devices, vaginal douching, and having multiple sexual partners. If left untreated, bacterial vaginosis can lead to pelvic inflammatory diseases. Some patients may not experience any symptoms, but those who do should seek treatment, especially if they are pregnant.
In the UK, the first line treatment for bacterial vaginosis is metronidazole 400 mg twice daily for seven days. Alternatively, a single dose of oral metronidazole 2 g may be given if patient adherence is an issue. Azithromycin is used to treat Chlamydia, and ceftriaxone is used to treat gonorrhea.
In the US, the CDC has updated treatment recommendations for bacterial vaginosis. Metronidazole 500 mg orally twice a day for seven days is the recommended therapy, with alternatives including several tinidazole regimens or clindamycin (oral or intravaginal). Additional regimens include metronidazole (750 mg extended release tablets once daily for seven days) or a single dose of clindamycin intravaginal cream, although data on the performance of these alternative regimens are limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman comes to the clinic with complaints of tremors and weight loss. Upon further inquiry, she reveals feeling more irritable than usual and intolerant of heat. During the examination, her heart rate is found to be 113 beats per minute, and she has a significant tremor in her outstretched hands. Blood tests reveal elevated thyrotropin receptor levels, but her thyroid peroxidase antibodies are normal.
What is the most effective treatment option for managing symptoms while awaiting more definitive treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Propranolol
Explanation:Propranolol is a beta-blocker that can help manage symptoms in new cases of Graves’ disease. It is particularly effective in reducing tremors and palpitations associated with thyrotoxicosis.
Carbimazole is the primary treatment for inducing remission in most cases of Graves’ disease. However, it may take some time to take effect, and patients may require short-term symptomatic relief with a beta-blocker like propranolol.
Bisoprolol is a beta-blocker used to treat hypertension, angina, and heart failure, but it is not typically used for Graves’ disease.
Ivabradine is a cardiac medication that targets the sino-atrial node to regulate heart rate. It is commonly used to treat angina and heart failure.
Management of Graves’ Disease
Despite numerous trials, there is no clear consensus on the optimal management of Graves’ disease. Treatment options include anti-thyroid drugs (ATDs), radioiodine treatment, and surgery. In recent years, ATDs have become the most popular first-line therapy for Graves’ disease. This is particularly true for patients with significant symptoms of thyrotoxicosis or those at risk of hyperthyroid complications, such as elderly patients or those with cardiovascular disease.
To control symptoms, propranolol is often used to block the adrenergic effects. NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend that patients with Graves’ disease be referred to secondary care for ongoing treatment. If symptoms are not controlled with propranolol, carbimazole should be considered in primary care.
ATD therapy involves starting carbimazole at 40 mg and gradually reducing it to maintain euthyroidism. This treatment is typically continued for 12-18 months. The major complication of carbimazole therapy is agranulocytosis. An alternative regime, called block-and-replace, involves starting carbimazole at 40 mg and adding thyroxine when the patient is euthyroid. This treatment typically lasts for 6-9 months. Patients following an ATD titration regime have been shown to suffer fewer side-effects than those on a block-and-replace regime.
Radioiodine treatment is often used in patients who relapse following ATD therapy or are resistant to primary ATD treatment. Contraindications include pregnancy (should be avoided for 4-6 months following treatment) and age < 16 years. Thyroid eye disease is a relative contraindication, as it may worsen the condition. The proportion of patients who become hypothyroid depends on the dose given, but as a rule, the majority of patients will require thyroxine supplementation after 5 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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As part of the UK immunisation schedule, which immunisation is administered to a 65-year-old who is in good health?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pneumococcal
Explanation:Pneumococcal Vaccines
There are two types of pneumococcal vaccines available – the pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV) and the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPV). The PCV vaccine is given to children under the age of 2, with a booster at 1 year old. On the other hand, the PPV vaccine is given to individuals over the age of 2, particularly those who are 65 years old and above.
Moreover, individuals with certain medical conditions are also eligible for the pneumococcal vaccine. These include those with asplenia or splenic dysfunction, cochlear implants, chronic respiratory or heart disease, chronic neurological conditions, diabetes, chronic kidney disease stage 4/5, chronic liver disease, immunosuppression due to disease or treatment, and complement disorders (including those receiving complement inhibitor treatment).
Getting vaccinated against pneumococcal disease is important in preventing serious illnesses such as pneumonia, meningitis, and blood infections. It is recommended to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the appropriate vaccine and schedule for each individual.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old patient has requested a consultation to discuss the outcome of her recent smear test. The test showed normal cytology and was negative for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV). However, her previous smear test 6 months ago showed normal cytology but was positive for hrHPV.
What guidance would you provide to the patient after receiving her latest smear test result?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Return to routine recall in 3 years time
Explanation:If the result of the first repeat smear at 12 months for cervical cancer screening is negative for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV), the patient can resume routine recall. This means they should undergo screening every 3 years from age 25-49 years or every 5 years from age 50-64 years. However, if the repeat test is positive again, the patient should undergo another HPV test in 12 months. If the cytology sample shows dyskaryosis, the patient should be referred for colposcopy.
Understanding Cervical Cancer Screening Results
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved significantly in recent years, with the introduction of HPV testing allowing for further risk stratification. The NHS now uses an HPV first system, where a sample is tested for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV) first, and cytological examination is only performed if this is positive.
If the hrHPV test is negative, individuals can return to normal recall, unless they fall under the test of cure pathway, untreated CIN1 pathway, or require follow-up for incompletely excised cervical glandular intraepithelial neoplasia (CGIN) / stratified mucin producing intraepithelial lesion (SMILE) or cervical cancer. If the hrHPV test is positive, samples are examined cytologically, and if the cytology is abnormal, individuals will require colposcopy.
If the cytology is normal but the hrHPV test is positive, the test is repeated at 12 months. If the repeat test is still hrHPV positive and cytology is normal, a further repeat test is done 12 months later. If the hrHPV test is negative at 24 months, individuals can return to normal recall, but if it is still positive, they will require colposcopy. If the sample is inadequate, it will need to be repeated within 3 months, and if two consecutive samples are inadequate, colposcopy will be required.
For individuals who have previously had CIN, they should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample in the community 6 months after treatment. The most common treatment for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia is large loop excision of transformation zone (LLETZ), which may be done during the initial colposcopy visit or at a later date depending on the individual clinic. Cryotherapy is an alternative technique.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A child vomits in the phlebotomy room during a blood draw. What type of chemical should be used to clean up the vomit?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypochlorite
Explanation:Managing Body Fluid Spillages
When it comes to managing body fluid spillages, hypochlorite is often recommended. This chlorine-based agent is typically used in granular or powder form and spread over the affected area. However, it’s important to note that chlorine-releasing agents can be hazardous if used in large volumes in confined spaces or mixed with urine. Adequate ventilation is crucial to ensure safety.
In addition to using hypochlorite, it’s recommended that staff wear personal protective equipment such as plastic aprons, gloves, masks, and eye protection when cleaning up body fluids. It’s also important to avoid using mops, as they can spread the contamination further.
Some NHS trusts recommend the use of Virkon, a multipurpose disinfectant that contains oxone, potassium peroxymonosulphate, sodium dodecylbenzenesulfonate, sulphamic acid, and inorganic buffers. Virkon is believed to be effective against HIV, hepatitis, and MRSA. By following these guidelines and using appropriate disinfectants, healthcare professionals can effectively manage body fluid spillages and minimize the risk of infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 30 year old man comes to the clinic complaining of anorexia, feverishness, and vertigo that have been going on for four days. He reports having difficulty balancing and staying upright when walking, as well as experiencing mild vertigo episodes lasting 10-20 minutes at a time. His hearing is unaffected. During the examination, some cervical lymphadenopathy is observed, but otherwise, there are no notable findings. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vestibular neuronitis
Explanation:A typical case of vestibular neuritis involves a patient who has recently recovered from an upper respiratory tract infection and experiences recurrent episodes of vertigo accompanied by nausea and vomiting. There is usually no hearing loss or tinnitus present. Prior to the onset of symptoms, the patient may have experienced viral symptoms. Unlike labyrinthitis, vestibular neuritis doesn’t cause hearing loss or tinnitus. If a patient experiences any neurological symptoms or signs, acute deafness, new types of headaches, or vertical nystagmus, urgent referral should be considered.
Vertigo is a condition characterized by a false sensation of movement in the body or environment. There are various causes of vertigo, each with its own unique characteristics. Viral labyrinthitis, for example, is typically associated with a recent viral infection, sudden onset, nausea and vomiting, and possible hearing loss. Vestibular neuronitis, on the other hand, is characterized by recurrent vertigo attacks lasting hours or days, but with no hearing loss. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo is triggered by changes in head position and lasts for only a few seconds. Meniere’s disease, meanwhile, is associated with hearing loss, tinnitus, and a feeling of fullness or pressure in the ears. Elderly patients with vertigo may be experiencing vertebrobasilar ischaemia, which is accompanied by dizziness upon neck extension. Acoustic neuroma, which is associated with hearing loss, vertigo, and tinnitus, is also a possible cause of vertigo. Other causes include posterior circulation stroke, trauma, multiple sclerosis, and ototoxicity from medications like gentamicin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old male college student comes to the clinic complaining of shortness of breath during physical activity that has been going on for two months. He denies any other symptoms and is a non-smoker. On examination, there are no abnormalities, and his full blood count and chest x-ray are normal. What is the most useful test to confirm the suspected diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer for arterial blood studies before and after exercise
Explanation:Confirming Exercise-Induced Asthma
This patient is showing signs of exercise-induced asthma. To confirm this diagnosis, the most appropriate investigation would be spirometry before and after exercise. This is because exercise is the trigger for his asthma symptoms, and spirometry can measure any changes in lung function before and after physical activity. By comparing the results, doctors can determine if the patient has exercise-induced asthma and develop an appropriate treatment plan. It is important to confirm the diagnosis to ensure the patient receives the correct treatment and can continue to participate in physical activity safely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with Tourette's and poorly controlled type 2 diabetes presents to you with concerns about intermittent chest pain on exertion. He drinks 21 units of alcohol per week and smokes 20 cigarettes a day. His father died of a myocardial infarction at the age of 56 years. You refer him for suspected angina, provide advice on what to do if he experiences chest pain, and prescribe a GTN spray for use as needed. While prescribing the GTN spray, you notice a medication on his prescription list that he should avoid taking while being investigated for chest pain or using the GTN spray. What medication is this referring to?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sildenafil
Explanation:Sildenafil, a type of PDE 5 inhibitor, should not be used together with nitrates and nicorandil due to potential risks of significant hypotension and myocardial infarction. On the other hand, there are no known interactions between nitrates and metformin, gliclazide, sitagliptin, or atorvastatin according to the BNF.
Phosphodiesterase type V inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. They work by increasing cGMP, which leads to relaxation of smooth muscles in blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which is taken about an hour before sexual activity. Other examples include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra), which have longer-lasting effects and can be taken regularly. However, these medications have contraindications, such as not being safe for patients taking nitrates or those with hypotension. They can also cause side effects such as visual disturbances, blue discolouration, and headaches. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking PDE5 inhibitors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 26
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man came in with a complaint of a 'gritty' left eye that has been gradually worsening for the past three months. His vision was unaffected. Upon examination, it was found that he had a left lower eyelid entropion that was not corrected on blinking.
What is the most suitable approach to managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer this patient to an ophthalmologist
Explanation:Importance of Ophthalmologist Referral for Entropion
This patient is experiencing symptoms due to entropion, which is the inward turning of the eyelid. If left untreated, this condition can lead to scarring of the cornea and a reduction in vision. Therefore, it is important to refer the patient to an ophthalmologist for proper management.
While waiting for the ophthalmology review, ocular lubrication can be used to provide symptomatic relief. However, this alone is not sufficient for the appropriate management of entropion. It is crucial to address the underlying cause of the condition to prevent further complications and preserve the patient’s vision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman comes to you seeking emergency contraception after having unprotected sex 24 hours ago. She recently completed a course of TB treatment that involved rifampicin. She refuses to consider an IUD. What is the best option for emergency contraception?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ulipristal acetate 60mg
Explanation:Emergency Contraception for Patients on Liver Enzyme-Inducing Drugs
When a patient is on liver enzyme-inducing drugs or has had a copper intrauterine device (IUD) inserted in the last 28 days, the copper IUD is recommended as first-line emergency contraception. However, if the patient declines this option, a higher dose of levonorgestrel (3mg) is recommended as second-line. Common drugs that induce liver enzymes include antiretrovirals, carbamazepine, phenytoin, rifampicin, and St John’s wort. It is important to note that ulipristal is not suitable for women on liver enzyme-inducing drugs, according to NICE guidelines. It is crucial for healthcare providers to be aware of these recommendations and provide appropriate emergency contraception options for patients on liver enzyme-inducing drugs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with a complaint of worsening vision in his right eye. He has a history of being human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) positive. During the examination, the doctor observes a few distinct, raised, yellowish growths with unclear edges close to the optic disc of his right eye. What is the probable reason for the lesion observed in this individual?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tuberculosis
Explanation:Ocular Manifestations of Infectious Diseases
Choroidal tubercles, toxocariasis, Kaposi’s sarcoma, syphilis, and toxoplasmosis are all infectious diseases that can manifest in the eye. Choroidal tubercles are a common presentation of intraocular tuberculosis, while toxocariasis is caused by roundworm larvae migration and can lead to ocular larva migrans. Kaposi’s sarcoma presents as highly vascular lesions on the eyelids, conjunctiva, caruncle, and lacrimal sac. Syphilis can cause optic neuritis, uveitis, and interstitial keratitis, while toxoplasmosis can lead to chorioretinitis and vitreous inflammation. It is important to consider these infectious diseases in patients presenting with ocular symptoms and to evaluate for systemic involvement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman with a learning disability and communication difficulties seeks advice for heavy menstrual bleeding. She is accompanied by another woman who introduces herself as a support person, there to assist the patient in making her own decisions and promoting her independence.
What is the role of the accompanying woman in this scenario? Choose ONE answer.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Patient advocate
Explanation:Different Roles in Healthcare: Patient Advocate, Carer, Chaperone, IMCA, and Attorney
In healthcare, there are various roles that individuals can take to support patients in different ways. One of these roles is that of a patient advocate, whose primary responsibility is to help patients communicate their views or decisions when they have difficulty doing so themselves. This role is independent and doesn’t involve making decisions on behalf of the patient.
Another role is that of a carer, who provides practical and emotional support to patients, often in a long-term capacity. A chaperone, on the other hand, acts as a witness during medical procedures to ensure the safety and comfort of both the patient and the practitioner.
An independent mental-capacity advocate (IMCA) is appointed to safeguard the rights of individuals who lack the capacity to make decisions for themselves. Finally, an attorney can be appointed by a patient to help them make decisions or make decisions on their behalf if they lack capacity.
Overall, these different roles play important and distinct functions in supporting patients in healthcare settings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman comes to the clinic with an enlarged and black discolored filiform papillae on her tongue. She has been experiencing dyspepsia for some time and has undergone investigations and treatment for it. Which medication is most likely responsible for the changes in her tongue?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bismuth
Explanation:Black Hairy Tongue: Causes and Management
Black hairy tongue, also known as lingua villosa nigra, is a harmless condition that causes enlargement and discoloration of the filiform papillae of the tongue, making it look ‘hairy’. This condition can occur due to certain medications, poor oral hygiene, tobacco use, alcohol use, colored drinks, dehydration, and hyposalivation. Chlorhexidine or peroxidase-containing mouthwashes can also aggravate the condition.
If a drug cause is implicated, discontinuing the responsible drug helps. Bismuth is well known to cause black hairy tongue and is the most likely culprit. The other medications are not typically associated with black hairy tongue. Initial management of this condition focuses on advising good oral hygiene, such as regular brushing, gentle tongue scraping, and avoiding smoking and excessive alcohol.
Overall, black hairy tongue is typically self-limiting and can be managed effectively with proper oral hygiene and discontinuation of any implicated medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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