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Question 1
Correct
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A 42-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with complaints of palpitations and dizziness. He has been experiencing vomiting and diarrhoea for the past week and has also been suffering from muscle weakness and cramps for the last three days. The possibility of hypokalaemia is suspected, and an ECG is ordered. What ECG sign is indicative of hypokalaemia?
Your Answer: Small or inverted T waves
Explanation:Hypokalaemia, a condition characterized by low levels of potassium in the blood, can be detected through ECG features. These include the presence of U waves, small or absent T waves (which may occasionally be inverted), a prolonged PR interval, ST depression, and a long QT interval. The ECG image provided shows typical U waves and a borderline PR interval. To remember these features, one user suggests the following rhyme: In Hypokalaemia, U have no Pot and no T, but a long PR and a long QT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A father is extremely worried that his 2-day-old baby appears blue following a forceps delivery. What causes the ductus arteriosus to close during birth?
Your Answer: Vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)
Correct Answer: Reduced level of prostaglandins
Explanation:During fetal development, the ductus arteriosus links the pulmonary artery to the proximal descending aorta. This enables blood from the right ventricle to bypass the non-functioning lungs and enter the systemic circulation.
After birth, the blood’s oxygen tension increases, and the level of prostaglandins decreases. These changes cause the patent ductus arteriosus to close. Additionally, an increase in left atrial pressure leads to the closure of the foramen ovale, which connects the left and right atria. Nitric oxide plays a role in vasodilation, particularly during pregnancy, but it is not directly responsible for duct closure. VEGF promotes angiogenesis in hypoxic conditions, but it is largely irrelevant in this context.
Understanding Patent Ductus Arteriosus
Patent ductus arteriosus is a type of congenital heart defect that is generally classified as ‘acyanotic’. However, if left uncorrected, it can eventually result in late cyanosis in the lower extremities, which is termed differential cyanosis. This condition is caused by a connection between the pulmonary trunk and descending aorta. Normally, the ductus arteriosus closes with the first breaths due to increased pulmonary flow, which enhances prostaglandins clearance. However, in some cases, this connection remains open, leading to patent ductus arteriosus.
This condition is more common in premature babies, those born at high altitude, or those whose mothers had rubella infection in the first trimester. The features of patent ductus arteriosus include a left subclavicular thrill, continuous ‘machinery’ murmur, large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse, wide pulse pressure, and heaving apex beat.
The management of patent ductus arteriosus involves the use of indomethacin or ibuprofen, which are given to the neonate. These medications inhibit prostaglandin synthesis and close the connection in the majority of cases. If patent ductus arteriosus is associated with another congenital heart defect amenable to surgery, then prostaglandin E1 is useful to keep the duct open until after surgical repair. Understanding patent ductus arteriosus is important for early diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A woman is expecting a baby with Down's syndrome. At the routine 22-week scan, a congenital anomaly was detected. The doctor explained to her and her partner that the defect resolves spontaneously in approximately 50% of cases but can present with a pansystolic murmur after birth. What is the probable congenital defect being described?
Your Answer: Patent ductus arteriosus
Correct Answer: Ventricular septal defect
Explanation:Understanding Ventricular Septal Defect
Ventricular septal defect (VSD) is a common congenital heart disease that affects many individuals. It is caused by a hole in the wall that separates the two lower chambers of the heart. In some cases, VSDs may close on their own, but in other cases, they require specialized management.
There are various causes of VSDs, including chromosomal disorders such as Down’s syndrome, Edward’s syndrome, Patau syndrome, and cri-du-chat syndrome. Congenital infections and post-myocardial infarction can also lead to VSDs. The condition can be detected during routine scans in utero or may present post-natally with symptoms such as failure to thrive, heart failure, hepatomegaly, tachypnea, tachycardia, pallor, and a pansystolic murmur.
Management of VSDs depends on the size and symptoms of the defect. Small VSDs that are asymptomatic may require monitoring, while moderate to large VSDs may result in heart failure and require nutritional support, medication for heart failure, and surgical closure of the defect.
Complications of VSDs include aortic regurgitation, infective endocarditis, Eisenmenger’s complex, right heart failure, and pulmonary hypertension. Eisenmenger’s complex is a severe complication that results in cyanosis and clubbing and is an indication for a heart-lung transplant. Women with pulmonary hypertension are advised against pregnancy as it carries a high risk of mortality.
In conclusion, VSD is a common congenital heart disease that requires specialized management. Early detection and appropriate treatment can prevent severe complications and improve outcomes for affected individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A toddler is brought to the hospital at 18 months of age with symptoms of increased work of breathing and difficulty while feeding. On examination, a continuous 'machinery' murmur is heard and is loudest at the left sternal edge. The cardiologist prescribes a dose of indomethacin. What is the mechanism of action of indomethacin?
The baby was born prematurely at 36 weeks via an emergency cesarean section. Despite the early delivery, the baby appeared healthy and was given a dose of Vitamin K soon after birth. The mother lived in a cottage up in the mountains and was discharged the next day with her happy, healthy baby. However, six weeks later, the baby was brought back to the hospital with concerning symptoms.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prostaglandin synthase inhibitor
Explanation:Indomethacin is a medication that hinders the production of prostaglandins in infants with patent ductus arteriosus by inhibiting the activity of COX enzymes. On the other hand, bosentan, an endothelin receptor antagonist, is utilized to treat pulmonary hypertension by blocking the vasoconstricting effect of endothelin, leading to vasodilation. Although endothelin causes vasoconstriction by acting on endothelin receptors, it is not employed in managing PDA. Adenosine receptor antagonists like theophylline and caffeine are also not utilized in PDA management.
Understanding Patent Ductus Arteriosus
Patent ductus arteriosus is a type of congenital heart defect that is generally classified as ‘acyanotic’. However, if left uncorrected, it can eventually result in late cyanosis in the lower extremities, which is termed differential cyanosis. This condition is caused by a connection between the pulmonary trunk and descending aorta. Normally, the ductus arteriosus closes with the first breaths due to increased pulmonary flow, which enhances prostaglandins clearance. However, in some cases, this connection remains open, leading to patent ductus arteriosus.
This condition is more common in premature babies, those born at high altitude, or those whose mothers had rubella infection in the first trimester. The features of patent ductus arteriosus include a left subclavicular thrill, continuous ‘machinery’ murmur, large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse, wide pulse pressure, and heaving apex beat.
The management of patent ductus arteriosus involves the use of indomethacin or ibuprofen, which are given to the neonate. These medications inhibit prostaglandin synthesis and close the connection in the majority of cases. If patent ductus arteriosus is associated with another congenital heart defect amenable to surgery, then prostaglandin E1 is useful to keep the duct open until after surgical repair. Understanding patent ductus arteriosus is important for early diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 79-year-old woman with a history of heart failure visits the clinic complaining of swollen ankles and difficulty walking. She has previously experienced fluid retention due to her heart failure. During the examination, soft heart sounds are heard and pitting edema is observed in both lower limbs up to 15 cm above the ankles. The decision is made to increase her daily furosemide dose from 40mg to 80 mg. Which part of the nephron does furosemide target?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ascending limb of the loop of Henle
Explanation:Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by inhibiting the Na-K-Cl cotransporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. It is commonly used to treat fluid retention in patients with heart failure. Other diuretic agents work on different parts of the nephron, such as carbonic anhydrase inhibitors in the proximal and distal tubules, thiazide diuretics in the distal convoluted tubule, and potassium-sparing diuretics like amiloride and spironolactone in the cortical collecting ducts. Understanding the mechanism of action of diuretics can help clinicians choose the most appropriate medication for their patients.
Loop Diuretics: Mechanism of Action and Clinical Applications
Loop diuretics, such as furosemide and bumetanide, are medications that inhibit the Na-K-Cl cotransporter (NKCC) in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. By doing so, they reduce the absorption of NaCl, resulting in increased urine output. Loop diuretics act on NKCC2, which is more prevalent in the kidneys. These medications work on the apical membrane and must first be filtered into the tubules by the glomerulus before they can have an effect. Patients with poor renal function may require higher doses to ensure sufficient concentration in the tubules.
Loop diuretics are commonly used in the treatment of heart failure, both acutely (usually intravenously) and chronically (usually orally). They are also indicated for resistant hypertension, particularly in patients with renal impairment. However, loop diuretics can cause adverse effects such as hypotension, hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hypochloremic alkalosis, ototoxicity, hypocalcemia, renal impairment, hyperglycemia (less common than with thiazides), and gout. Therefore, careful monitoring of electrolyte levels and renal function is necessary when using loop diuretics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman with hypertension comes in for a routine check-up with her GP. She mentions feeling fatigued for the past few days and has been taking antihypertensive medication for almost a year, but cannot recall the name. Her ECG appears normal.
Hb 142 g/L Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 180 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 7.5 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Na+ 133 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 3.8 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Urea 5.5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 98 µmol/L (55 - 120)
What medication might she be taking?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hydrochlorothiazide
Explanation:Thiazide diuretics have been known to cause hyponatremia, as seen in the clinical scenario and blood tests. The question aims to test knowledge of antihypertensive medications that may lead to hyponatremia.
The correct answer is Hydrochlorothiazide, as ACE inhibitors, angiotensin receptor blockers, and calcium channel blockers may also cause hyponatremia. Beta-blockers, such as Atenolol, typically do not cause hyponatremia. Similarly, central agonists like Clonidine and alpha-blockers like Doxazosin are not known to cause hyponatremia.
Thiazide diuretics are medications that work by blocking the thiazide-sensitive Na+-Cl− symporter, which inhibits sodium reabsorption at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT). This results in the loss of potassium as more sodium reaches the collecting ducts. While thiazide diuretics are useful in treating mild heart failure, loop diuretics are more effective in reducing overload. Bendroflumethiazide was previously used to manage hypertension, but recent NICE guidelines recommend other thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide and chlorthalidone.
Common side effects of thiazide diuretics include dehydration, postural hypotension, and electrolyte imbalances such as hyponatremia, hypokalemia, and hypercalcemia. Other potential adverse effects include gout, impaired glucose tolerance, and impotence. Rare side effects may include thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, photosensitivity rash, and pancreatitis.
It is worth noting that while thiazide diuretics may cause hypercalcemia, they can also reduce the incidence of renal stones by decreasing urinary calcium excretion. According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves the use of thiazide-like diuretics, along with other medications and lifestyle changes, to achieve optimal blood pressure control and reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man is admitted to the renal ward with acute kidney injury following 3 days of diarrhoea and vomiting. Laboratory results reveal that his potassium levels are below normal limits, likely due to his gastrointestinal symptoms. You review his medications to ensure that none are exacerbating the situation and discover that he is taking diuretics for heart failure management. Which of the following diuretics is linked to hypokalaemia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bumetanide
Explanation:Hypokalaemia may be caused by loop diuretics such as bumetanide. It is important to note that spironolactone, triamterene, eplerenone, and amiloride are potassium-sparing diuretics and are more likely to cause hyperkalaemia. In this case, the patient has been admitted to the hospital with acute kidney injury (AKI) due to diarrhoea and vomiting, which are also possible causes of hypokalaemia. It is important to manage all of these factors. Symptoms of hypokalaemia include fatigue, muscle weakness, myalgia, muscle cramps, constipation, hyporeflexia, and in rare cases, paralysis.
Loop Diuretics: Mechanism of Action and Clinical Applications
Loop diuretics, such as furosemide and bumetanide, are medications that inhibit the Na-K-Cl cotransporter (NKCC) in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. By doing so, they reduce the absorption of NaCl, resulting in increased urine output. Loop diuretics act on NKCC2, which is more prevalent in the kidneys. These medications work on the apical membrane and must first be filtered into the tubules by the glomerulus before they can have an effect. Patients with poor renal function may require higher doses to ensure sufficient concentration in the tubules.
Loop diuretics are commonly used in the treatment of heart failure, both acutely (usually intravenously) and chronically (usually orally). They are also indicated for resistant hypertension, particularly in patients with renal impairment. However, loop diuretics can cause adverse effects such as hypotension, hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hypochloremic alkalosis, ototoxicity, hypocalcemia, renal impairment, hyperglycemia (less common than with thiazides), and gout. Therefore, careful monitoring of electrolyte levels and renal function is necessary when using loop diuretics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which nerve is most vulnerable to damage when there is a cut on the upper lateral margin of the popliteal fossa in older adults?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve
Explanation:The lower infero-lateral aspect of the fossa is where the sural nerve exits, and it is at a higher risk during short saphenous vein surgery. On the other hand, the tibial nerve is located more medially and is less susceptible to injury in this area.
Anatomy of the Popliteal Fossa
The popliteal fossa is a diamond-shaped space located at the back of the knee joint. It is bound by various muscles and ligaments, including the biceps femoris, semimembranosus, semitendinosus, and gastrocnemius. The floor of the popliteal fossa is formed by the popliteal surface of the femur, posterior ligament of the knee joint, and popliteus muscle, while the roof is made up of superficial and deep fascia.
The popliteal fossa contains several important structures, including the popliteal artery and vein, small saphenous vein, common peroneal nerve, tibial nerve, posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh, genicular branch of the obturator nerve, and lymph nodes. These structures are crucial for the proper functioning of the lower leg and foot.
Understanding the anatomy of the popliteal fossa is important for healthcare professionals, as it can help in the diagnosis and treatment of various conditions affecting the knee joint and surrounding structures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 9
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man is seen in the stroke clinic for a history of transient paralysis and paresthesia in his left arm that resolved after 2 hours. The stroke clinicians suspect a transient ischaemic attack and plan to initiate secondary prevention treatment as per national guidelines.
What is the mode of action of the prescribed medication?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: ADP receptor inhibitor
Explanation:Clopidogrel works by inhibiting the P2Y12 adenosine diphosphate (ADP) receptor, which prevents platelet activation and is therefore classified as an ADP receptor inhibitor. This drug is recommended as secondary prevention for patients who have experienced symptoms of a transient ischaemic attack (TIA). Other examples of ADP receptor inhibitors include ticagrelor and prasugrel. Aspirin, on the other hand, is a cyclooxygenase (COX) inhibitor that is used for pain control and management of ischaemic heart disease. Glycoprotein IIB/IIA inhibitors such as tirofiban and abciximab prevent platelet aggregation and thrombus formation by inhibiting the glycoprotein IIB/IIIA receptors. Picotamide is a thromboxane synthase inhibitor that is indicated for the management of acute coronary syndrome, as it inhibits the synthesis of thromboxane, a potent vasoconstrictor and facilitator of platelet aggregation.
Clopidogrel: An Antiplatelet Agent for Cardiovascular Disease
Clopidogrel is a medication used to manage cardiovascular disease by preventing platelets from sticking together and forming clots. It is commonly used in patients with acute coronary syndrome and is now also recommended as a first-line treatment for patients following an ischaemic stroke or with peripheral arterial disease. Clopidogrel belongs to a class of drugs called thienopyridines, which work in a similar way. Other examples of thienopyridines include prasugrel, ticagrelor, and ticlopidine.
Clopidogrel works by blocking the P2Y12 adenosine diphosphate (ADP) receptor, which prevents platelets from becoming activated. However, concurrent use of proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) may make clopidogrel less effective. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) issued a warning in July 2009 about this interaction, and although evidence is inconsistent, omeprazole and esomeprazole are still cause for concern. Other PPIs, such as lansoprazole, are generally considered safe to use with clopidogrel. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any new medications or supplements.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old male with chronic cardiac failure visits his doctor and reports experiencing dyspnoea even with minimal physical exertion, and only feeling comfortable when at rest. What class of the New York Heart Association scale does he fall under?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: III
Explanation:The NYHA Scale for Cardiac Failure Patients
The NYHA scale is a tool used to standardize the description of the severity of cardiac failure patients. It classifies patients into four categories based on their symptoms and limitations of activities. Class I patients have no limitations and do not experience any symptoms during ordinary activities. Class II patients have mild limitations and are comfortable with rest or mild exertion. Class III patients have marked limitations and are only comfortable at rest. Finally, Class IV patients should be at complete rest and are confined to bed or chair. Any physical activity brings discomfort and symptoms occur even at rest.
The NYHA scale is an important tool for healthcare professionals to assess the severity of cardiac failure in patients. It helps to determine the appropriate treatment plan and level of care needed for each patient. By using this scale, healthcare professionals can communicate more effectively with each other and with patients about the severity of their condition. It also helps patients to understand their limitations and adjust their activities accordingly. Overall, the NYHA scale is a valuable tool in the management of cardiac failure patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 11
Incorrect
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What is the mechanism of action of dipyridamole when prescribed alongside aspirin for a 70-year-old man who has had an ischaemic stroke?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phosphodiesterase inhibitor
Explanation:Although Dipyridamole is commonly referred to as a non-specific phosphodiesterase inhibitor, it has been found to have a strong effect on PDE5 (similar to sildenafil) and PDE6. Additionally, it reduces the uptake of adenosine by cells.
Understanding the Mechanism of Action of Dipyridamole
Dipyridamole is a medication that is commonly used in combination with aspirin to prevent the formation of blood clots after a stroke or transient ischemic attack. The drug works by inhibiting phosphodiesterase, which leads to an increase in the levels of cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) in platelets. This, in turn, reduces the levels of intracellular calcium, which is necessary for platelet activation and aggregation.
Apart from its antiplatelet effects, dipyridamole also reduces the cellular uptake of adenosine, a molecule that plays a crucial role in regulating blood flow and oxygen delivery to tissues. By inhibiting the uptake of adenosine, dipyridamole can increase its levels in the bloodstream, leading to vasodilation and improved blood flow.
Another mechanism of action of dipyridamole is the inhibition of thromboxane synthase, an enzyme that is involved in the production of thromboxane A2, a potent platelet activator. By blocking this enzyme, dipyridamole can further reduce platelet activation and aggregation, thereby preventing the formation of blood clots.
In summary, dipyridamole exerts its antiplatelet effects through multiple mechanisms, including the inhibition of phosphodiesterase, the reduction of intracellular calcium levels, the inhibition of thromboxane synthase, and the modulation of adenosine uptake. These actions make it a valuable medication for preventing thrombotic events in patients with a history of stroke or transient ischemic attack.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Whilst in general practice, you review John, a 50-year-old patient with hypertension. Despite taking lisinopril, his blood pressure remains clinically elevated. Based on current guidelines you consider add-on therapy with a thiazide-like diuretic.
Which of the following electrolyte imbalances may arise with this new treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia
Explanation:Hypokalaemia may be caused by thiazides
Thiazide diuretics can lead to hypokalaemia by stimulating aldosterone production and inhibiting the Na-Cl symporter. This inhibition results in more sodium being available to activate the Na/K-ATPase channel, leading to increased potassium loss in the urine and hypokalaemia.
Thiazide diuretics may also cause other side effects such as hypocalciuria, hypomagnesemia, and hyperlipidemia. The other options that describe the opposite of these disturbances are incorrect.
Thiazide diuretics are medications that work by blocking the thiazide-sensitive Na+-Cl− symporter, which inhibits sodium reabsorption at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT). This results in the loss of potassium as more sodium reaches the collecting ducts. While thiazide diuretics are useful in treating mild heart failure, loop diuretics are more effective in reducing overload. Bendroflumethiazide was previously used to manage hypertension, but recent NICE guidelines recommend other thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide and chlorthalidone.
Common side effects of thiazide diuretics include dehydration, postural hypotension, and electrolyte imbalances such as hyponatremia, hypokalemia, and hypercalcemia. Other potential adverse effects include gout, impaired glucose tolerance, and impotence. Rare side effects may include thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, photosensitivity rash, and pancreatitis.
It is worth noting that while thiazide diuretics may cause hypercalcemia, they can also reduce the incidence of renal stones by decreasing urinary calcium excretion. According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves the use of thiazide-like diuretics, along with other medications and lifestyle changes, to achieve optimal blood pressure control and reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 13
Incorrect
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What changes occur in the newborn after delivery?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The ductus arteriosus closes
Explanation:Within a few hours of birth, the foramen ovale, ductus arteriosus, and umbilical vessels all close. The foramen ovale, which allows blood to bypass the lungs by shunting from the right atrium to the left atrium, closes as the lungs become functional and the left atrial pressure exceeds the right atrial pressure. The ductus arteriosus, which connects the pulmonary artery to the aorta, also closes to form the ligamentum arteriosum, allowing blood to circulate into the pulmonary artery and become oxygenated. After a few days, Haemoglobin F is replaced by Haemoglobin A, which has a lower affinity for oxygen and may cause physiological jaundice in the newborn due to the breakdown of fetal blood cells. The first few breaths help to expel lung fluid from the fetal alveoli. If the ductus arteriosus fails to close, it can result in a patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), which can lead to serious health complications such as pulmonary hypertension, heart failure, and arrhythmias.
During cardiovascular embryology, the heart undergoes significant development and differentiation. At around 14 days gestation, the heart consists of primitive structures such as the truncus arteriosus, bulbus cordis, primitive atria, and primitive ventricle. These structures give rise to various parts of the heart, including the ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk, right ventricle, left and right atria, and majority of the left ventricle. The division of the truncus arteriosus is triggered by neural crest cell migration from the pharyngeal arches, and any issues with this migration can lead to congenital heart defects such as transposition of the great arteries or tetralogy of Fallot. Other structures derived from the primitive heart include the coronary sinus, superior vena cava, fossa ovalis, and various ligaments such as the ligamentum arteriosum and ligamentum venosum. The allantois gives rise to the urachus, while the umbilical artery becomes the medial umbilical ligaments and the umbilical vein becomes the ligamentum teres hepatis inside the falciform ligament. Overall, cardiovascular embryology is a complex process that involves the differentiation and development of various structures that ultimately form the mature heart.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman has a left ankle ulcer that has been present for nine months. She had a DVT in her right leg five years ago. Upon examination, there is a 6 cm diameter slough-based ulcer on the medial malleolus without cellulitis. What investigation is required before applying compression bandaging?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ankle-brachial pressure index
Explanation:Venous Ulceration and the Importance of Identifying Arterial Disease
Venous ulcerations are a common type of ulcer that affects the lower extremities. The underlying cause of venous congestion, which can promote ulceration, is venous insufficiency. The treatment for venous ulceration involves controlling oedema, treating any infection, and compression. However, compressive dressings or devices should not be applied if the arterial circulation is impaired. Therefore, it is crucial to identify any arterial disease, and the ankle-brachial pressure index is a simple way of doing this. If indicated, one may progress to a lower limb arteriogram.
It is important to note that there is no clinical sign of infection, and although a bacterial swab would help to rule out pathogens within the ulcer, arterial insufficiency is the more important issue. If there is a clinical suspicion of DVT, then duplex (or rarely a venogram) is indicated to decide on the indication for anticoagulation. By identifying arterial disease, healthcare professionals can ensure that appropriate treatment is provided and avoid potential complications from compressive dressings or devices.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency department with chest pain. He describes this as crushing central chest pain which is associated with nausea and sweating.
Blood results are as follows:
Hb 148 g/L Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 268 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 14.6 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Na+ 136 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 4.7 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Urea 6.2 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 95 µmol/L (55 - 120)
Troponin 4058 ng/L (< 14 ng/L)
An ECG is performed which demonstrates:
Current ECG Sinus rhythm, QRS 168ms, dominant S wave in V1
Previous ECG 12 months ago No abnormality
Which part of the heart's conduction system is likely to be affected?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Purkinje fibres
Explanation:The Purkinje fibres have the highest conduction velocities in the heart, and a prolonged QRS (>120ms) with a dominant S wave in V1 may indicate left bundle branch block (LBBB). If a patient presents with chest pain, a raised troponin, and a previously normal ECG, LBBB should be considered as a possible cause and managed as an acute STEMI. LBBB is caused by damage to the left bundle branch and its associated Purkinje fibres.
Understanding the Cardiac Action Potential and Conduction Velocity
The cardiac action potential is a series of electrical events that occur in the heart during each heartbeat. It is responsible for the contraction of the heart muscle and the pumping of blood throughout the body. The action potential is divided into five phases, each with a specific mechanism. The first phase is rapid depolarization, which is caused by the influx of sodium ions. The second phase is early repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The third phase is the plateau phase, which is caused by the slow influx of calcium ions. The fourth phase is final repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The final phase is the restoration of ionic concentrations, which is achieved by the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.
Conduction velocity is the speed at which the electrical signal travels through the heart. The speed varies depending on the location of the signal. Atrial conduction spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibers at a speed of 1 m/sec. AV node conduction is much slower, at 0.05 m/sec. Ventricular conduction is the fastest in the heart, achieved by the large diameter of the Purkinje fibers, which can achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec. This allows for a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles, which is essential for the proper functioning of the heart. Understanding the cardiac action potential and conduction velocity is crucial for diagnosing and treating heart conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old ex-smoker comes to the clinic complaining of chest discomfort and shortness of breath. He had a history of ST-elevation myocardial infarction 10 days ago, which was treated with thrombolysis. During the examination, a high-pitch holosystolic murmur is heard at the apex. The ECG shows widespread ST elevation. Unfortunately, the patient experiences cardiac arrest and passes away. What is the probable histological finding in his heart?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Macrophages and granulation tissue at margins
Explanation:The histology findings of a myocardial infarction (MI) vary depending on the time elapsed since the event. Within the first 24 hours, there is evidence of early coagulative necrosis, neutrophils, wavy fibers, and hypercontraction of myofibrils. This stage is associated with a high risk of ventricular arrhythmia, heart failure, and cardiogenic shock.
Between 1-3 days post-MI, there is extensive coagulative necrosis and an influx of neutrophils, which can lead to fibrinous pericarditis. From 3-14 days post-MI, macrophages and granulation tissue are present at the margins, and there is a high risk of complications such as free wall rupture (which can cause mitral regurgitation), papillary muscle rupture, and left ventricular pseudoaneurysm.
After 2 weeks to several months, the scar tissue has contracted and is complete. This stage is associated with Dressler syndrome, heart failure, arrhythmias, and mural thrombus. It is important to note that the risk of complications decreases as time passes, but long-term management and monitoring are still necessary for patients who have experienced an MI.
Myocardial infarction (MI) can lead to various complications, which can occur immediately, early, or late after the event. Cardiac arrest is the most common cause of death following MI, usually due to ventricular fibrillation. Cardiogenic shock may occur if a large part of the ventricular myocardium is damaged, and it is difficult to treat. Chronic heart failure may result from ventricular myocardium dysfunction, which can be managed with loop diuretics, ACE-inhibitors, and beta-blockers. Tachyarrhythmias, such as ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia, are common complications. Bradyarrhythmias, such as atrioventricular block, are more common following inferior MI. Pericarditis is common in the first 48 hours after a transmural MI, while Dressler’s syndrome may occur 2-6 weeks later. Left ventricular aneurysm and free wall rupture, ventricular septal defect, and acute mitral regurgitation are other complications that may require urgent medical attention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man with a stable angina history for two years visits his cardiologist for a regular check-up. During the review, the cardiologist observes that the patient's heart rate is low at 46 bpm. As a result, the cardiologist decides to replace his beta-blocker with a new anti-anginal drug called nicorandil.
What is the mode of action of the patient's new medication?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Potassium channel activator through activation of guanylyl cyclase
Explanation:Nicorandil activates potassium channels, leading to vasodilation. This activation triggers guanylyl cyclase, which increases the production of cyclic GMP (cGMP) and activates protein kinase G (PKG). PKG phosphorylates and inhibits GTPase RhoA, reducing Rho-kinase activity and increasing myosin phosphatase activity. As a result, the smooth muscle becomes less sensitive to calcium, leading to dilation of the large coronary arteries and improved perfusion. Nicorandil does not significantly affect calcium or sodium channels. This mechanism helps alleviate anginal symptoms.
Nicorandil is a medication that is commonly used to treat angina. It works by activating potassium channels, which leads to vasodilation. This process is achieved through the activation of guanylyl cyclase, which results in an increase in cGMP. However, there are some adverse effects associated with the use of nicorandil, including headaches, flushing, and the development of ulcers on the skin, mucous membranes, and eyes. Additionally, gastrointestinal ulcers, including anal ulceration, may also occur. It is important to note that nicorandil should not be used in patients with left ventricular failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man arrives at the Emergency department displaying indications and symptoms of acute coronary syndrome. Among the following cardiac enzymes, which is the most probable to increase first after a heart attack?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Myoglobin
Explanation:Enzyme Markers for Myocardial Infarction
Enzyme markers are used to diagnose myocardial infarction, with troponins being the most sensitive and specific. However, troponins are not the fastest to rise and are only measured 12 hours after the event. Myoglobin, although less sensitive and specific, is the earliest marker to rise. The rise of myoglobin occurs within 2 hours of the event, with a peak at 6-8 hours and a fall within 1-2 days. Creatine kinase rises within 4-6 hours, peaks at 24 hours, and falls within 3-4 days. LDH rises within 6-12 hours, peaks at 72 hours, and falls within 10-14 days. These enzyme markers are important in the diagnosis and management of myocardial infarction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 19
Incorrect
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The cephalic vein penetrates the clavipectoral fascia to end in which of the following veins mentioned below?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Axillary
Explanation:The Cephalic Vein: Path and Connections
The cephalic vein is a major blood vessel that runs along the lateral side of the arm. It begins at the dorsal venous arch, which drains blood from the hand and wrist, and travels up the arm, crossing the anatomical snuffbox. At the antecubital fossa, the cephalic vein is connected to the basilic vein by the median cubital vein. This connection is commonly used for blood draws and IV insertions.
After passing through the antecubital fossa, the cephalic vein continues up the arm and pierces the deep fascia of the deltopectoral groove to join the axillary vein. This junction is located near the shoulder and marks the end of the cephalic vein’s path.
Overall, the cephalic vein plays an important role in the circulation of blood in the upper limb. Its connections to other major veins in the arm make it a valuable site for medical procedures, while its path through the deltopectoral groove allows it to contribute to the larger network of veins that drain blood from the upper body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man is admitted after experiencing an acute coronary syndrome. He is prescribed aspirin, clopidogrel, nitrates, and morphine. Due to his high 6-month risk score, percutaneous coronary intervention is planned and he is given intravenous tirofiban. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonist
Explanation:Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa Receptor Antagonists
Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonists are a class of drugs that inhibit the function of the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor, which is found on the surface of platelets. These drugs are used to prevent blood clots from forming in patients with acute coronary syndrome, unstable angina, or during percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI).
Examples of glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonists include abciximab, eptifibatide, and tirofiban. These drugs work by blocking the binding of fibrinogen to the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor, which prevents platelet aggregation and the formation of blood clots.
Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonists are typically administered intravenously and are used in combination with other antiplatelet agents, such as aspirin and clopidogrel. While these drugs are effective at preventing blood clots, they can also increase the risk of bleeding. Therefore, careful monitoring of patients is necessary to ensure that the benefits of these drugs outweigh the risks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman has varicose veins originating from the short saphenous vein. During mobilization of the vein near its origin, which structure is at the highest risk of injury?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sural nerve
Explanation:Litigation often arises from damage to the sural nerve, which is closely associated with this structure. While the other structures may also sustain injuries, the likelihood of such occurrences is comparatively lower.
Anatomy of the Popliteal Fossa
The popliteal fossa is a diamond-shaped space located at the back of the knee joint. It is bound by various muscles and ligaments, including the biceps femoris, semimembranosus, semitendinosus, and gastrocnemius. The floor of the popliteal fossa is formed by the popliteal surface of the femur, posterior ligament of the knee joint, and popliteus muscle, while the roof is made up of superficial and deep fascia.
The popliteal fossa contains several important structures, including the popliteal artery and vein, small saphenous vein, common peroneal nerve, tibial nerve, posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh, genicular branch of the obturator nerve, and lymph nodes. These structures are crucial for the proper functioning of the lower leg and foot.
Understanding the anatomy of the popliteal fossa is important for healthcare professionals, as it can help in the diagnosis and treatment of various conditions affecting the knee joint and surrounding structures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which of these statements relating to the external carotid is false?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It ends by bifurcating into the superficial temporal and ascending pharyngeal artery
Explanation:The external carotid artery ends by splitting into two branches – the superficial temporal and maxillary branches. It has a total of eight branches, with three located on its anterior surface – the thyroid, lingual, and facial arteries. The pharyngeal artery is a medial branch, while the posterior auricular and occipital arteries are located on the posterior surface.
Anatomy of the External Carotid Artery
The external carotid artery begins on the side of the pharynx and runs in front of the internal carotid artery, behind the posterior belly of digastric and stylohyoid muscles. It is covered by sternocleidomastoid muscle and passed by hypoglossal nerves, lingual and facial veins. The artery then enters the parotid gland and divides into its terminal branches within the gland.
To locate the external carotid artery, an imaginary line can be drawn from the bifurcation of the common carotid artery behind the angle of the jaw to a point in front of the tragus of the ear.
The external carotid artery has six branches, with three in front, two behind, and one deep. The three branches in front are the superior thyroid, lingual, and facial arteries. The two branches behind are the occipital and posterior auricular arteries. The deep branch is the ascending pharyngeal artery. The external carotid artery terminates by dividing into the superficial temporal and maxillary arteries within the parotid gland.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 23
Incorrect
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An 78-year-old man with a history of hypertension, ischaemic heart disease and peripheral vascular disease presents with palpitations and syncope. His ECG reveals an irregularly irregular pulse of 124 beats/min. What factor in his medical history will be given the most consideration when deciding whether or not to administer anticoagulation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Age
Explanation:To determine the need for anticoagulation in patients with atrial fibrillation, it is necessary to conduct a CHA2DS2-VASc score assessment. This involves considering various factors, including age (which is weighted heaviest, with 2 points given for those aged 75 and over), hypertension (1 point), and congestive heart disease (1 point). Palpitations, however, are not included in the CHA2DS2-VASc tool.
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management, including the use of anticoagulation therapy. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend assessing the need for anticoagulation in all patients with a history of AF, regardless of whether they are currently experiencing symptoms. The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy, with a score of 2 or more indicating the need for anticoagulation. However, it is important to ensure a transthoracic echocardiogram has been done to exclude valvular heart disease, which is an absolute indication for anticoagulation.
When considering anticoagulation therapy, doctors must also assess the patient’s bleeding risk. NICE recommends using the ORBIT scoring system to formalize this risk assessment, taking into account factors such as haemoglobin levels, age, bleeding history, renal impairment, and treatment with antiplatelet agents. While there are no formal rules on how to act on the ORBIT score, individual patient factors should be considered. The risk of bleeding increases with a higher ORBIT score, with a score of 4-7 indicating a high risk of bleeding.
For many years, warfarin was the anticoagulant of choice for AF. However, the development of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) has changed this. DOACs have the advantage of not requiring regular blood tests to check the INR and are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF. The recommended DOACs for reducing stroke risk in AF are apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban. Warfarin is now used second-line, in patients where a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old woman has come to you with her ambulatory blood pressure monitor readings, which are consistently high. You suggest starting her on ramipril and advise her to avoid certain things that could impact the absorption of the medication.
What should she avoid?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Antacids
Explanation:ACE-inhibitors’ therapeutic effect is reduced by antacids as they interfere with their absorption. However, low dose aspirin is safe to use alongside ACE-inhibitors. Coffee and tea do not affect the absorption of ACE-inhibitors. Patients taking ACE-inhibitors need not avoid high-intensity exercise, unlike those on statins who have an increased risk of muscle breakdown due to rhabdomyolysis.
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.
While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.
Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.
The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man has a brain mass, but there is no rise in intracranial pressure. What could be the reason for the absence of increased intracranial pressure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduced CSF as dictated by the Monro-Kelly Doctrine
Explanation:The Monro-Kelly Doctrine views the brain as a closed box, where any increase in one of the three components within the skull (brain, CSF, and blood) must be compensated by a decrease in one of the other components or else intracranial pressure will rise. To maintain intracranial pressure, changes in CSF volume can offset initial increases in brain volume. The CNS has the ability to regulate its own blood supply, so changes in diastolic and systolic pressure do not affect cerebral pressure. Cushing’s triad, which includes hypertension, bradycardia, and irregular breathing, is a set of symptoms that typically occur in the final stages of acute head injury due to increased intracranial pressure.
Understanding Cerebral Blood Flow and Angiography
Cerebral blood flow is regulated by the central nervous system, which can adjust its own blood supply. Various factors can affect cerebral pressure, including CNS metabolism, trauma, pressure, and systemic carbon dioxide levels. The most potent mediator is PaCO2, while acidosis and hypoxemia can also increase cerebral blood flow to a lesser degree. In patients with head injuries, increased intracranial pressure can impair blood flow. The Monro-Kelly Doctrine governs intracerebral pressure, which considers the brain as a closed box, and changes in pressure are offset by the loss of cerebrospinal fluid. However, when this is no longer possible, intracranial pressure rises.
Cerebral angiography is an invasive test that involves injecting contrast media into the carotid artery using a catheter. Radiographs are taken as the dye works its way through the cerebral circulation. This test can be used to identify bleeding aneurysms, vasospasm, and arteriovenous malformations, as well as differentiate embolism from large artery thrombosis. Understanding cerebral blood flow and angiography is crucial in diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with a history of angina, hypertension, and hypercholesterolaemia has been discharged from the hospital after experiencing a non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI). He was already taking aspirin, atorvastatin, bisoprolol, and ramipril before his NSTEMI. As part of his post-discharge instructions, he has been advised to take ticagrelor for the next 12 months. What is the mechanism of action of this newly prescribed medication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: P2Y12 receptor antagonist
Explanation:Ticagrelor functions similarly to clopidogrel by hindering the binding of ADP to platelet receptors. It is prescribed to prevent atherothrombotic events in individuals with acute coronary syndrome (ACS) and is typically administered in conjunction with aspirin. Additionally, it is a specific and reversible inhibitor.
ADP receptor inhibitors, such as clopidogrel, prasugrel, ticagrelor, and ticlopidine, work by inhibiting the P2Y12 receptor, which leads to sustained platelet aggregation and stabilization of the platelet plaque. Clinical trials have shown that prasugrel and ticagrelor are more effective than clopidogrel in reducing short- and long-term ischemic events in high-risk patients with acute coronary syndrome or undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention. However, ticagrelor may cause dyspnea due to impaired clearance of adenosine, and there are drug interactions and contraindications to consider for each medication. NICE guidelines recommend dual antiplatelet treatment with aspirin and ticagrelor for 12 months as a secondary prevention strategy for ACS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old woman has been diagnosed with hypertension following ABPM which showed her blood pressure to be 152/91 mmHg. She is curious about her condition and asks her GP to explain the physiology of blood pressure. Can you tell me where the baroreceptors that detect blood pressure are located in the body?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carotid sinus
Explanation:The carotid sinus, located just above the point where the internal and external carotid arteries divide, houses baroreceptors that sense the stretching of the artery wall. These baroreceptors are connected to the glossopharyngeal nerve (cranial nerve IX). The nerve fibers then synapse in the solitary nucleus of the medulla, which regulates the activity of sympathetic and parasympathetic neurons. This, in turn, affects the heart and blood vessels, leading to changes in blood pressure.
Similarly, the aortic arch also has baroreceptors that are connected to the aortic nerve. This nerve combines with the vagus nerve (X) and travels to the solitary nucleus.
In contrast, the carotid body, located near the carotid sinus, contains chemoreceptors that detect changes in the levels of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the blood.
The heart has four chambers and generates pressures of 0-25 mmHg on the right side and 0-120 mmHg on the left. The cardiac output is the product of heart rate and stroke volume, typically 5-6L per minute. The cardiac impulse is generated in the sino atrial node and conveyed to the ventricles via the atrioventricular node. Parasympathetic and sympathetic fibers project to the heart via the vagus and release acetylcholine and noradrenaline, respectively. The cardiac cycle includes mid diastole, late diastole, early systole, late systole, and early diastole. Preload is the end diastolic volume and afterload is the aortic pressure. Laplace’s law explains the rise in ventricular pressure during the ejection phase and why a dilated diseased heart will have impaired systolic function. Starling’s law states that an increase in end-diastolic volume will produce a larger stroke volume up to a point beyond which stroke volume will fall. Baroreceptor reflexes and atrial stretch receptors are involved in regulating cardiac output.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old white male is diagnosed with hypertension during a routine checkup at his GP clinic. What is the initial choice of antihypertensive medication for white males who are under 55 years of age?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: ACE inhibitor
Explanation:For patients under 55 years of age who are white, ACE inhibitors are the preferred initial medication for hypertension. These drugs have also been shown to improve survival rates after a heart attack and in cases of congestive heart failure.
However, for black patients or those over 55 years of age, a calcium channel blocker is the recommended first-line treatment. Beta blockers and diuretics are no longer considered the primary medication for hypertension.
Hypertension is a common medical condition that refers to chronically raised blood pressure. It is a significant risk factor for cardiovascular disease such as stroke and ischaemic heart disease. Normal blood pressure can vary widely according to age, gender, and individual physiology, but hypertension is defined as a clinic reading persistently above 140/90 mmHg or a 24-hour blood pressure average reading above 135/85 mmHg.
Around 90-95% of patients with hypertension have primary or essential hypertension, which is caused by complex physiological changes that occur as we age. Secondary hypertension may be caused by a variety of endocrine, renal, and other conditions. Hypertension typically does not cause symptoms unless it is very high, but patients may experience headaches, visual disturbance, or seizures.
Diagnosis of hypertension involves 24-hour blood pressure monitoring or home readings using an automated sphygmomanometer. Patients with hypertension typically have tests to check for renal disease, diabetes mellitus, hyperlipidaemia, and end-organ damage. Management of hypertension involves drug therapy using antihypertensives, modification of other risk factors, and monitoring for complications. Common drugs used to treat hypertension include angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, thiazide type diuretics, and angiotensin II receptor blockers. Drug therapy is decided by well-established NICE guidelines, which advocate a step-wise approach.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old man has been experiencing abdominal pain that worsens after eating, along with nausea and weight loss. Imaging suggests that he may have median arcuate ligament syndrome, which is compressing a branch of the abdominal aorta that supplies the foregut. As a result, he is scheduled for surgical decompression of this vessel. Can you name the three branches of this occluded aortic branch?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left gastric, hepatic, splenic
Explanation:The three branches of the coeliac trunk are the left gastric, hepatic, and splenic arteries, which can be remembered by the mnemonic Left Hand Side (LHS).
The Coeliac Axis and its Branches
The coeliac axis is a major artery that supplies blood to the upper abdominal organs. It has three main branches: the left gastric, hepatic, and splenic arteries. The hepatic artery further branches into the right gastric, gastroduodenal, right gastroepiploic, superior pancreaticoduodenal, and cystic arteries. Meanwhile, the splenic artery gives off the pancreatic, short gastric, and left gastroepiploic arteries. Occasionally, the coeliac axis also gives off one of the inferior phrenic arteries.
The coeliac axis is located anteriorly to the lesser omentum and is related to the right and left coeliac ganglia, as well as the caudate process of the liver and the gastric cardia. Inferiorly, it is in close proximity to the upper border of the pancreas and the renal vein.
Understanding the anatomy and branches of the coeliac axis is important in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect the upper abdominal organs, such as pancreatic cancer or gastric ulcers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of flushing and warmth. She has been in good health lately, except for a stomach bug she had two weeks ago. Her medical history includes hyperlipidemia, hypertension, myocardial infarction, and type II diabetes mellitus. Although she used to smoke, she has quit and does not drink alcohol. She lives with her husband in a bungalow.
During the consultation, she reveals that her cardiologist recently prescribed niacin to her. Her recent lab results show an increase in total cholesterol.
Which of the following is responsible for the adverse effects observed in this patient?
Substance P
15%
Bradykinin
20%
Prostaglandins
48%
Serotonin
9%
Kallikreins
8%
The adverse effects of niacin, such as flushing, warmth, and itching, are caused by prostaglandins.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prostaglandins
Explanation:The adverse effects of niacin, such as flushing, warmth, and itchiness, are caused by the release of prostaglandins. Niacin activates dermal Langerhans cells, which leads to an increase in prostaglandin release and subsequent vasodilation. To prevent these side effects, aspirin is often given 30 minutes before niacin administration. Aspirin works by altering the activity of COX-2, which reduces prostaglandin release.
Substance P acts as a neurotransmitter in the central nervous system, and its neurokinin (NK) receptor 1 is found in specific areas of the brain that affect behavior and the neurochemical response to both psychological and somatic stress.
Bradykinin is an inflammatory mediator that causes vasodilation, but it is not responsible for the adverse effects seen with niacin use.
Serotonin is a neurotransmitter that plays a role in regulating various processes in the brain. Low levels of serotonin are often associated with anxiety, panic attacks, obesity, and insomnia. However, serotonin does not mediate the side effects observed with niacin use.
Nicotinic acid, also known as niacin, is a medication used to treat hyperlipidaemia. It is effective in reducing cholesterol and triglyceride levels while increasing HDL levels. However, its use is limited due to the occurrence of side-effects. One of the most common side-effects is flushing, which is caused by prostaglandins. Additionally, nicotinic acid may impair glucose tolerance and lead to myositis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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